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1. These rod shaped bacteria, growing on the simple nutrient medium are Gram

positive, non spore forming, non motile. Volutin granules are found inside of the

cells. In the smears often have parallel - fence appearance:

A) Corynebacterium xerosis

B) Bacillus anthrasis

C) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

D) Bacillus cereus

E) Streptococcus mitis

2. In the treatment of disbacteriosis in order to restore the normal microflora apply:

A) bacteriophages

B) eubiotics

C) nutrient medium

D) antimetabolites

E) antibiotics

3. Belong to the bacteria, not fermenting carbohydrates:

A) Shigella sonnei

B) Clostridium perfringensC) Staphylococcus epidermidis

D) Vibrio cholerae

E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

4. The mechanism of the appearance of the rash in measles is associated with:

A) a reproduction of the virus in the epidermis

B) cutaneous tropism of the virus

C) the hemolytic activity of the virus under action of T-lymphocytes

D) hemagglutinating properties of the virus

E) interaction of T-lymphocytes with infected endothelial cells

5. Is opportunistic bacteria:

A) Shigella sonnei

B) Bordetella pertussis

C) Neisseria meningitidis

D) Salmonella Typhi

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6. It is characteristic of Giardia lamblia trophozoites:

A) is not motile

B) has an apical complex

C) has pseudopodia

D) has four nucleus

E) is motile

7. Is not used in microbiological diagnosis of leptospirosis:

A) microscopic technique

B) skin-allergic method

C) serological method

D) bacteriological method

E) biological method

8. Is used for treatment of diseases, caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa:

A) Penicillin

B) metronidazole

C) quinolone drugs

D) sulfonamides

E) fluconazole

9. DNA contains:

1.Hepatitis A virus;

2.The hepatitis B virus;

3.Hepatitis C virus;

4.Hepatitis D virus;

5.Hepatitis E virus;

A) 2, 4

B) 2, 5

C) 2, 3

D) 2, 5

E) only 2

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10. In the hemolyse zone of staphylococci, isolated after blood agar cultivation of

specimen, taken from the nasal cavity a small, semi-transparent satellit colonies

were observed. These colonies may be belong to:

A) Klebsiella pneumoniae

B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C) Bordetella pertussis

D) Haemophilus influenzae

E) Staphylococcus epidermidis

11. İgG detection to Toxoplasma gondii (in the absence of appropriate İgM) in

newborn blood serum confirms:

A) the presence of appropriate antibodies in the mother B) infection through the birth canal

C) infection through breast milk

D) intrauterine infection

E) postvaccinal immunity

12. In the diagnosis of coccidioidomycosis in skin-allergic test is used:

A) blastomycin

B) histoplasmin

C) spherulin

D) mycotoxin

E) trichophytin

13. Is used in diagnosis of Haemophilus influenzae infections:

A) biological method

B) skin-allergic test

C) bacteriological method

D) radioimmune method

E) molecular genetics method

14. Are used for diagnosis of tuberculosis:

1.Widal reaction;

2.Mantoux test;

3.Wright reaction;

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4.Ziehl-Neelsen method;

5.Fernandes test;

6.Prays’ method;

A) 2, 4, 5

B) 1, 2, 4

C) 1, 4, 6

D) 2, 3, 6

E) 2, 4, 6

15. The causative agent of chancroid is:

A) Treponema pallidum

B) Clostridium perfringens

C) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

D) Chlamydia trachomatis

E) Haemophilus ducreyi

16. It is characteristic of picornavirus:

A) reproduction occurs in the nucleus of the host cell

B) the genomic RNA acts as a ribosomal RNA in the reproduction

C) genome contains double-stranded, non-segmented DNA

D) has a helical capsid

E) the genomic RNA acts as a messenger RNA in the reproduction

17. The main features of pathogens of nosocomial infections:

1.Antibiotic resistance;

2.Acid resistance;

3.High virulence;

4.The antigenic variability;

5.Antagonism;

6.Tropism to certain organs;

A) 1, 3, 4

B) 4, 5, 6

C) 1, 5, 6

D) 2, 3, 5

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E) 1, 2, 5

18. Does not belong to the clinical manifestations of diseases, caused by

Gardnerella:

A) chancroid

B) bacterial vaginosis

C) salpingo-oophoritis

D) non-specific urethritis

E) endometritis

19. Is used in the diagnosis of trachoma:

A) skin-allergy test

B) microscopic technique

C) complement fixation test

D) agglutination test

E) bacteriological method

20. Is causative agent of whooping cough:

A) Haemophilus influenzae

B) Klebsiella pneumoniaeC) Bordetella pertussis

D) Burkholderia mallei

E) Chlamydia trachomatis

21. Is applied to determine of Corynebacterium diphtheriae toxicity:

A) agglutination reaction

B) immunofluorescence reaction

C) Coomb’s reaction

D) complement fixation test

E) the gel precipitation test

22. The main reason of absence of effective vaccines against acquired

immunodeficiency syndrome is:

A) the duration of the incubation period of the disease

B) the difficulties of the virus obtaining

C) the difficulties of the virus cultivation

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D) the ability to integrate viral genome into the host cell

E) the impossibility of biological modeling of disease

23. Exotoxin of this bacterium has a high dermonecrotic effect, causes limfositosis,

insulin production, increases sensitivity to histamine and serotonin:

A) Bacillus anthrasis

B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

C) Yersinia pestis

D) Brucella melitensis

E) Bordetella pertussis

24. Rotavirus infection is transmitted with:

A) fecal-oral mechanism

B) air-drop way

C) vector borne mechanism

D) parenteral mechanism

E) air-dust way

25. After this disease continuous immunitet is formed, reinfection is observed

rarely:

A) whooping cough

B) syphilis

C) brucellosis

D) gonorrhea

E) tuberculosis

26. Is used for treatment of leprosy:

A) isoniazid

B) sulfonamides

C) dapsone

D) metronidazole

E) penicillin G

27. In which case may develop the primary bubonic form of tularemia?

A) when infected through all ways

B) when infected with air-drop

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C) when infected with contact

D) when infected through food

E) when infected with air-dust

28. Is used for treatment of whooping cough:

A) erythromycin

B) toxoid

C) the immune serum containing antibodies against causative agents

D) the immune serum containing antibodies against pertussis-toxin

E) the combined vaccine (DTP vaccine)

29. Belong to the paramyxoviruses:

1.Rubella virus;

2.Mumps virus;

3.Cytomegalovirus;

4.RS-virus;

5.Measles virus;

A) 1, 2, 5

B) 3, 4, 5

C) 2, 4, 5

D) 2, 3, 5

E) 1, 2, 3

30. Is used for differentiation of Brucella species:

A) the breakdown of carbohydrates

B) the capsule

C) the growth on simple nutrient media

D) formation of hydrogen sulfide

E) antimicrobial susceptibility

31. Respiratory infections, caused by this virus, in children in many cases

accompanied by conjunctivitis:

A) cytomegalovirus

B) RS-virus

C) rubivirus

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D) adenovirus

E) influenza virus

32. The pathogenicity factors of Brucella include:

A) capsule and endotoxin

B) capsule and exotoxin

C) endotoxin and hydrogen sulfide

D) endotoxin and exotoxin

E) plasma coagulase və hyaluronidase

33. Does not belong to the normal flora of the human organism:

A) Listeria

B) lactobacilli

C) enterococci

D) streptococci

E) Candida

34. Used in the diagnosis of sepsis:

A) bacteriological examination of blood

B) microscopy of thick smear of blood

C) serological examination of blood

D) microscopy of thin smear of blood

E) dark-field microscopy of blood

35. Is used in diagnosis of brusellosis:

1.Microscopic method;

2.Wright reaction;

3.ELISA;

4.Burne test;

5.Widal reaction;

A) 1, 2, 3

B) 2, 3, 5

C) 3, 4, 5

D) 2, 4, 5

E) 2, 3, 4

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36. Coxsackie virus is transmitted with:

A) transplacental route

B) parenteral mechanism

C) vector borne mechanism

D) fecal-oral route

E) air-dust route

37. Is used for treatment of brusellosis:

A) tetracyclin and streptomycin

B) flukonazole and metronidazole

C) fluconazole and chloramphenicol

D) seftriaxone and erythromysin

E) seftriaxone and metronidazole

38. Morphological characters that are visible in smear from culture Leishmania

obtained in the NNN medium:

A) crescent shape, without flagella

B) rounded shape, without flagella

C) has pseudopodia, changeable shapeD) elongated fusiform, have flagella

E) coiled shape, have flagella

39. Is not transmission way of tularemia:

A) through aerogenic

B) through placenta

C) by vector

D) through contact

E) through food

40. Is used in the diagnosis of psittacosis:

A) immunoblotting

B) detection of antibodies in blood serum

C) biological method

D) ring presipitation test

E) microscopy of sputum

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41. Used in the diagnosis of hepatitis B:

A) immunofluorescence

B) enzyme immunoassay


D) passive hemagglutination reaction

E) hemagglutination inhibition test

42. Is used in serological diagnosis of tularemia:

A) neutralization reaction

B) agglutination reaction

C) precipitation reaction

D) immunoblotting

E) Coomb’s reaction

43. It is used for the prevention of poliomyelitis:

A) live vaccine

B) toxoid

C) subvirion vaccine

D) antitoxin

E) immune serum

44. Legionella pneumophila is cultivated on:

A) charcoal yeast extract agar

B) Sabouraud’s medium

C) bile broth

D) liver agar

E) charcoal-casein agar

45. Determine X, Y and Z microorganisms:

A) X-Mucor musedo, Y-Candida albicans, Z-Madurella

B) X-Penicillum notatum, Y-Aspergillus fumigatus, Z-Mucor musedo

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C) X-Cryptococcus neoformans, Y-Malassezia furfur, Z-Madurella

D) X-Aspergillus flavus, Y-Malassezia furfur, Z-Madurella

E) X-Aspergillus terreus, Y-Piedraia hortae, Z-Histoplasma capsulatum

46. Is used for diagnosis of nocardiosis:

A) bacteriological and serological method

B) serological and biological method

C) microscopic and bacteriological method

D) Montenegro test

E) Frey test

47. Drug of choice in treatment of legionellosis:

A) penicillin G

B) erythromysin

C) immune serum

D) metronidazole

E) antitoxin

48. In the smear from culture, growing on penicillin containing nutrient medium,

protoplast chains have necklace appearance. This feature is characteristic for: A) Corynebacterium diphtheriae


C) Bacillus anthrasis

D) Yersinia pestis

E) Listeria monocytogenes

49. Colonies of Bacillus anthrasis on solid nutrient medium:

A) red colonies with metallic shine

B) a lion’s mane or medusa head appearance

C) molar teeth appearance

D) fried egg appearance

E) bordered towel appearance

50. Is correct for the genome of hepatitis B virus:

A) consists of a circular single-stranded RNA

B) consists of a linear double-stranded DNA

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C) consists of a circular single-stranded DNA

D) consists of a linear single-stranded DNA

E) consists of a circular double-stranded DNA

51. Exotoxin of Bacillus anthrasis include:

A) tracheal toxin

B) protective antigen

C) pertussis toxin

D) scarlatina toxin

E) capsule antigen

52. On the neck skin of 18-year-old boy appeared hypo- or hyperpigmented discrete

spots. In microscopy of scraping from skin lesion were detected round and oval

yeast cells, short, curved, not branching hyphae. The estimated disease is:

A) white piedra

B) tinea corporis

C) psoriasis

D) pityriasis versicolor

E) black piedra

53. Do not belong to opportunistic fungi:

1.Histoplasma;

2.Candida;

3.Cryptococcus;

4.Aspergillus;

5.Blastomyces;

6.Mucor;

A) 1, 5

B) 2, 3

C) 3, 6

D) 1, 3

E) 2, 4

54. Is not correct for anthrax:

A) skin form of disease is more common

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B) can be disseminate in all of the disease forms

C) the source of infection is human

D) clinical signs depend on transmission way

E) the source of infection are animals

55. Exotoxin of Pseudomonas aeruginosa:

A) increases the glycogen amount in cells

B) inhibits the synthesis of cyclic AMF in cells

C) increases the of cyclic AMF amount in cells

D) increases amount of aromatic amino acids in cells

E) inhibits of protein synthesis in cells

56. On the hand’s back surface of the of 40-year-old butcher is formed covered with

black colored carbuncle, around the carbuncle red color edema is observed.

Microscopic examination of the carbuncle exudate Gram positive rod shaped

bacteria have been found. The estimated causative agent is:

A) Borrelia burgdorferi

B) Yersinia pestis

C) Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

D) Bacillus anthrasis

E) Listeria monocytogenes

57. Cryptococcus neoformans:

A) has a septate mycelium and arthroconidia

B) has a septate mycelium and sporangiospores

C) is rounded yeast cells with capsule

D) has a septate mycelium and airy spores

E) has a mycelium with macroconidia covered with spikes

58. The herpes simplex viruses type II persist in:

A) sacral ganglions

B) trigeminal ganglions

C) dorsal ganglions

D) Peyers patch

E) skin and mucosa

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59. Opportunistic Corynebacterium spp. is called:

A) basili

B) Clostridium

C) Listeria

D) diphtheroids

E) Pseudomonas

60. The mitis type of Corynebacterium diphtheriae forms on nutrient medium:

A) a lion’s mane resembling colonies

B) colonies with bordered towel appearance

C) red colonies with a metallic brightness

D) small-sized S-colonies with hemolysis zone

E) grayish black color large-size R-colonies

61. Selective medium for Corynebacterium diphtheriae is:

A) casein-coal agar

B) Endo medium

C) Klauberg’s medium

D) Lovenstein-Jensen’s medium

E) Sabouraud’s medium

62. Which statement is true?

A) hepatitis D virus contain HBs antigen

B) hepatitis D virus contain DNA

C) hepatitis D virus is nonenveloped

D) hepatitis D virus infection complicates hepatitis C

E) hepatitis D virus contain HBc antigen

63. The most common complication of measles:

A) pleuritis

B) splenomegaly

C) hepatitis

D) pneumonia

E) nephritis

64. Is not transmission way of diphtheria:

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A) through air-drop

B) through indirect contact

C) through air-dust

D) by vector

E) through direct contact

65. Clinical signs of giardiasis:

A) jaundice

B) dyspeptic disorders

C) lymphadenopathy

D) stomatitis

E) fever

66. Is the most dangerous complications of diphtheria:

A) dermatitis

B) hepatitis

C) rhinitis

D) myocarditis

E) conjunctivitis

67. Is accompanied by toxemia:

A) dysenteriae

B) anthrax

C) listeriosis

D) scarlet fever

E) diphtheria

68. Corynebacterium diphtheriae is:

A) Gram positive, non motile, spore forming rod shaped bacteria

B) Gram positive, non motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria

C) Gram negative, motile, non spore forming, rod shaped bacteria

D) Gram positive, non motile, non spore forming spherical shaped bacteria

E) Gram negative, motile, spore forming rod shaped bacteria

69. Is applied to determine of Corynebacterium diphtheriae toxin in clinical

specimens:

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A) immunochromatographic method

B) coagglutination reaction

C) Elek’s test

D) immune lysis reaction

E) the gel precipitation test

70. In the diagnosis of this disease is used agglutination of sheep erythrocytes with

patient sera:

A) infectious mononucleosis

B) all the bacterial infections

C) ricketsiosis

D) actinomycosis

E) all the viral infections

71. After application of diphtheria-tetanus-pertussis vaccine (DTP vaccine) is

formed:

A) antibacterial immunity against diphtheria

B) toxoid against pertussis

C) antibacterial immunity against tetanus

D) antitoxic immunity against diphtheria

E) antitoxic immunity against pertussis

72. Listeria monocytogenes is:

A) Gram positive, non motile, spore forming rod shaped bacteria

B) Gram negative, motile, spore forming rod shaped bacteria

C) Gram positive, non motile, non spore forming spherical shaped bacteria

D) Gram negative, motile, non spore forming, rod shaped bacteria

E) Gram positive, motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria

73. The result of mutations, occurring in the gene KatG of Mycobacterium

tuberculosis:

A) resistance to streptomycin

B) resistance to isoniazid

C) formation of non acid fast mycobacteria

D) destruction of mycobacteria

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E) appearance of atypical mycobacteria

74. Listeriolysin-O, which is the main pathogenicity factors of Listeria

monocytogenes:

A) neutralizes free oxygen radicals inside of phagosome

B) inactivates elongation factor EF-2 in ribosome

C) forms the pores in cytoplasmic membrane of cells

D) causes destruction of neuromediators inside of synapses

E) destroys of phagolysosome membrane

75. Belong to diseases, caused by Haemophilus influenzae:

1.Gas gangrene;

2.Chancroid;

3.Erysipelas;

4.Epiglottitis;

5.Meningitis;

A) 4, 5

B) 1, 3

C) 3, 4D) 2, 4

E) 2, 5

76. Clostridium botulinum is:

A) Gram, negative, anaerobic, motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria

B) Gram positive, anaerobic, non motile, non spore forming, rod shaped bacteria

C) Gram negative, aerobic, motile, non spore forming, rod shaped bacteria

D) Gram positive, aerobic, non motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria

E) Gram positive, anaerobic, motile, spore forming rod shaped bacteria

77. This bacteria has subterminal spores giving the bacilli "tennis racket"

appearance:

A) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

B) Clostridium tetani

C) Listeria monocytogenes

D) Clostridium botulinum

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E) Bacillus anthracis

78. Pathogenetic mechanism of infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus:

A) Epstein-Barr virus suppresses the ability of B-lymphocytes proliferate

B) infected T-lymphocytes contribute to the lymphoma

C) T-killer cells contribute to the proliferation of infected B-lymphocytes

D) T-killer contribute to the proliferation of infected macrophages

E) virus-infected B-lymphocytes become a target for T-killer cells

79. The pathogenicity factors of Clostridium botulinum include:

A) enotoxin

B) exotoxin

C) flagella

D) plasma coagulase

E) capsule

80. Is used in the specific prevention of diphtheria:

A) triple vaccine (DTP vaccine)

B) antitoxin

C) BCG vaccine

D) interferon

E) bakteriophage

81. Is used for detection of Clostridium botulinum exotoxin in pathological

specimens and food products:

A) Elek test

B) gel precipitation reaction

C) biological probe

D) coagglutination reaction

E) immune lysis reaction

82. Is used for the specific prevention of botulism:

A) immunoglobulin

B) recombinant vaccine

C) antitoxin

D) interferon

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E) bakteriophage

83. Picornaviruses’ genome consist of:

A) a segmented, single-stranded, negative RNA

B) a segmented, single-stranded, positive RNA

C) non-segmented, double-stranded DNA

D) non-segmented, single-stranded, positive RNA

E) a segmented, double-stranded DNA

84. Is Gram positive, anaerobic, motile, spore forming rod shaped bacteria:

A) Listeria monocytogenes

B) Corynebacterium diphtheriae

C) Clostridium tetani

D) Haemophilus influenzae

E) Bacillus anthracis

85. For diagnosis of the amebiasis is used:

A) complement fixation test

B) microscopic technique

C) inhibition of hemagglutination

D) skin-allergic test


86. The pathogenicity factors of Clostridium tetani include:

A) enotoxin

B) capsule

C) flagella

D) plasma coagulase

E) exotoxin

87. Mechanism of tetanospasmin action:

A) blockade of neuromediators’ production at synapses

B) polyclonal stimulation of T-helpers

C) inactivation of elongation factor EF-2 in ribosomes

D) activation of adenyle cyclase inside the cells

E) osmotic lysis of cells

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88. HBs antigen of hepatitis B virus is located:

A) in envelope

B) in the core

C) in the capsid

D) between the capsid and envelope

E) in the nucleocapsid

89. Why is not formed immunity after tetanus?

A) due to lack of immunogenicity of toxin

B) due to lack of antigenicity of toxin

C) toxigenic dose of toxin is less than immunogenic dose

D) immunogenic dose of toxin is less than toxigenic dose

E) due to the formation of infectious immunity

90. Papillomaviruses are:

A) RNA-containing, non enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid

B) DNA-containing, enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid

C) RNA-containing, enveloped viruses with helical capsid

D) DNA-containing, nonenveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid

E) DNA-containing, enveloped viruses with helical capsid

91. Is used in the specific prevention of tetanus:

A) tetanolysin

B) tetanospasmin

C) penicillin G

D) bakteriophage

E) antitoxin

92. Clostridium perfringens is:

A) Gram positive, anaerobic, non motile, spore forming rod shaped bacteria

B) Gram, negative, anaerobic, motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria

C) Gram positive, anaerobic, non motile, non spore forming, rod shaped bacteria

D) Gram negative, aerobic, motile, non spore forming, rod shaped bacteria

E) Gram positive, aerobic, non motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria

93. Paramyxoviruses include:

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1.RS-virus;

2.Cytomegalovitus;

3.Rubella virus;

4.Measles virus;

5.Parainfluenza virus;

6.Mumps virus;

A) 2, 3, 4, 6

B) 1, 2, 3, 4

C) 3, 4, 5, 6

D) 2, 3, 4, 5

E) 1, 4, 5, 6

94. It is not biological action effect of Clostridium perfringens toxin:

A) lethal effect

B) necrotic effect

C) cytotoxic effect

D) contraction of muscles

E) hemolytic effect

95. Enteroviruses include:

A) foot and mouth disease virus

B) rotavirus

C) Epstein-Barr virus

D) ECHO viruses

E) hepatitis C virus

96. Is used in diagnosis of gas gangrene:

A) Wright and Coomb’s reaction

B) microscopic and bacteriological methods

C) gel precpitation reaction

D) serological and skin-allergic methods

E) bacteriological and skin-allergic tests

97. Is used in the specific prevention of gas gangrene:

A) intrferon

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B) antitoxin

C) tetanospasmin

D) tuberculin

E) bakteriophage

98. Is correct for mycoplasma:

A) is membrane parasites

B) forms a spore and capsule

C) is obligate intracellular parasites

D) does not grow on artificial nutrient media

E) grows on simple nutrient media

99. The pathogenicity factors of Clostridium difficile include:

A) exotoxin

B) flagella

C) endotoxin

D) spora

E) keratinase

100. The main transmission way of botulism:

A) through contact

B) by vector

C) through air-drop

D) through placenta

E) through food

101. 35-year-old man went to the doctor complaining of attacks of abdominal pain,

diarrhea, and temperature, which have developed on the 12th day after taking

antibiotics. When stool microscopy were identified a large Gram positive bacteria. In

the routine bacteriological examination detected no pathogens. The estimated

causative agent is:

A) Salmonella Enteritidis

B) enteroviruslar

C) Clostridium difficile

D) rotaviruslar

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E) Shigella dysenteriae

102. Is used for treatment of psevdomembranous colitis:

A) ceftriaxone

B) clindamycin

C) ampicillin/sulbactam

D) metronidazole

E) amoxicillin/clavulanic acid

103. For the prevention of poliomyelitis administered orally:

A) toxoid


C) subvirion vaccine

D) live vaccine

E) inactivated vaccine

104. Is environmental tier of Bacteroides fragilis group bacteria:

A) oral cavity

B) the upper respiratory tract

C) large intestine

D) lower respiratory tract

E) the skin surface

105. It is motile microorganism, the body is coiled in 8-12 regular spiral:

A) Borrelia

B) Campylobacter

C) Treponema

D) Helicobacter

E) Leptospira

106. The distinguishing cultural character of Mycobacterium tuberculosis:

A) is exacting to nutrient medium, grows rapidly

B) is not exacting to nutrient medium, grows slowly

C) grows slowly on cell culture

D) is exacting to nutrient medium, grows slowly

E) is not exacting to nutrient medium, grows on simple medium

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107. The cultivation medium for Mycobacterium tuberculosis::

1.Klauberg’s medium;

2.Lowensteyn-Jensen’s medium;

3.Wilson-Bleur medium;

4.Middlebrook medium;

5.Kitt-Tarotsi medium.

A) 4, 5

B) 2, 5

C) 2, 4

D) 1, 2

E) 2, 3

108. Detection in blood serum of the patients with hepatitis B, spherical and

filamentous particles is due to:

A) productive infection

B) malignancy

C) integrative infection

D) vaccinationE) abortive infection

109. The 6 weeks culture filtrate of Mycobacterium tuberculosis in glycerol broth

R.Koh evaporated at 70°C to 1/10 of the original volume. As a result:

A) virulence of tubercle bacilli is weakened

B) virulence of tubercle bacilli is increased

C) cord factor was obtained

D) tuberculin was obtained

E) BCG vaccine was obtained

110. On the structure scheme of influenza virus with number 1 is designated:

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A) glycoprotein spikes

B) nucleocapsid

C) M protein

D) envelope

E) capsid

111. Is not transmission way of tuberculosis:

A) through placenta

B) through contact

C) by vector

D) through air-drop

E) through food

112. In microscopic examination of Ziehl-Neelsen stained sputum smear of the

patient with pneumonia acid fast bacteria have been found. The estimated causative

agent is:

A) Legionella pneumophila


C) Klebsiella pneumoniae

D) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

E) Streptococcus pneumoniae

113. Is not used for diagnosis of tuberculosis:

A) microscopic method

B) serological method


D) skin-allergic method

E) polymerase chain reaction

114. From urine of the patient with cystitis have been obtained Gram negative,

motile rod shaped bacteria, which forms bluish colonies on meat-peptone agar. The

estimated causative agent is:

A) Proteus mirabilis

B) Escherichia coli

C) Clostridium perfringens

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D) Klebsiella oxytoca


115. Rabies virus enters the central nervous system:

A) with the blood

B) with macrophages

C) through the lymph

D) through the peripheral nerves

E) with red blood cells

116. Is not correct for Mantoux test:

A) is positive in healthy people

B) is negative in immunosuppression case that accompanied tuberculosis

C) is positive in people, infected with tuberculosis

D) tuberculin positive patient are at risk of devoloping disease from reactivation of the

primary infection

E) is positive after BCG vaccination

117. Is not used for specific chemotherapy of tuberculosis:

A) rifampinB) tetracyclin

C) ethambutol

D) isoniazid

E) pyrazinamide

118. Is used for differentiation Mycobacterium tuberculosis and Mycobacterium

bovis:

A) bile sencitivity test

B) antibiotic sensitivity test

C) niacin test

D) catalase test

E) opthochin test

119. Is used in the treatment of diseases, caused by Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma:

A) tetracyclines and macrolides

B) beta-lactam antibiotics

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C) metronidazole and amoxicillin

D) acyclovir and interferon

E) ampicillin and streptomycin

120. Mycobacterium leprae is:

A) spore forming, non motile, rod shaped bacteria

B) non spore forming, motile, rod shaped bacteria

C) non spore forming, non motile, sherical shaped bacteria

D) non spore forming, non motile, rod shaped bacteria

E) non spore forming, motile, helical bacteria

121. Entamoeba histolytica:

A) has only the trophozoite form

B) is not motile

C) has the trophozoite and cyst forms

D) does not form cysts

E) has an apical complex

122. The source of leprosy is:

A) infected animals

B) midge

C) infected people

D) armadillo

E) the objects of the environment

123. Is correct for leprosy:

A) the lepromatous type develops in persons with normal immunity

B) is infected fecal-oral mechanism

C) is not infected from human to human

D) source of infection is the objects of the environment

E) the tuberculoid type develops in persons with normal immunity

124. The distinguishing cultural character of Mycobacterium leprae:

A) is exacting to nutrient medium, grows slowly

B) is not exacting to nutrient medium, grows on simple medium

C) is not exacting to nutrient medium, grows slowly

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D) does not grow on nutrient medium

E) is exacting to nutrient medium, grows rapidly

125. Is used for diagnosis of leprosy:

A) bacteriological method

B) Wright reaction

C) Widal reaction

D) Mantoux test

E) microscopic method

126. Used to detect of non treponemal antibodies in diagnosis of syphilis:

1.Indirect immunofluorescence reaction;

2.Indirect hemagglutination reaction;

3.İmmunoelectrophoresis;

4.VDRL-test;

5.RPR-test;

A) 1, 3

B) 3, 4

C) 4, 5

D) 2, 4

E) 3, 5

127. Gram positive, spore forming, non motile rod shaped bacteria. After breeding

did not disperse, as a result form a branched mycelium similar structures:

A) actinomycetes

B) mycobacteria

C) mycoplasma

D) bacilli

E) fungi

128. Around of the causative agents entering through mucus membrane and

damaged skin is formed specific granuloma. After destruction of this granuloma

form hearths and the roads connecting of the pathological process with external

environment and allowing to an outflow of pus .What disease pathogenesis isdescribed here?

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A) leprosy

B) anthrax

C) venereal lymphogranuloma

D) tuberculosis

E) actinomycosis

129. Which statement is not true?

A) hepatitis C virus has 6 genotypes

B) hepatitis C virus does not replicate in chicken embryos

C) hepatitis C virus is transmitted by parenteral

D) hepatitis C virus contain DNA

E) hepatitis C virus is enveloped

130. Is used for diagnosis of actinomycosis:


B) serological method

C) Fernandes test

D) bacteriological method

E) Ascoli test

131. In the scalp of schoolchild observed baldness with flaking. In microscopic

examination the mycelium with septa and gas bubbles were found inside hair. This

process is called:

A) crusted ringworm

B) pityriasis versicolor

C) psoriasis

D) onychomycosis

E) sporotrichosis

132. Ecology of Nocardia spp:

A) human

B) carnivorous animals

C) environmental objects

D) herbivore animals

E) birds

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133. Localisation of the pathological process in nocardiosis:

A) liver

B) hair and nails

C) lungs

D) gastro-intestinal tract

E) kidneys

134. Brazilian purpuric fever caused by:

A) Chlamydia trachomatis D-K type

B) aegypticus biotype of Haemophilus influenzae

C) Streptococcus pneumoniae

D) Haemophilus influenzae b type


135. The causative agent of syphilis is:

A) Haemophilus ducreyi

B) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

C) Nocardia brasiliensis

D) Treponema pallidum

E) Chlamydia trachomatis

136. Human immunodeficiency virus is:

A) RNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, nonenveloped

B) RNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, enveloped

C) DNA containing, with helical capsid, nonenveloped

D) RNA containing, with helical capsid, enveloped

E) DNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, nonenveloped

137. The virulent strains of Treponema pallidum:

A) is cultivated on Lowenstein-Jensen’s medium

B) is cultivated on Kitt-Tarotsi medium

C) is cultivated on blood agar

D) does not grow on nutrient medium

E) is cultivated on Klauberg’s medium

138. Syphilis is transmitted:

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A) with air-drop mechanism

B) with contact mechanism

C) with alimentary way

D) by vector

E) with fecal-oral mechanism

139. Is dameged by Epidermophyton:

1.The skin;

2.Hair;

3.Nails;

4.Subcutaneous connective tissue;

A) only 1

B) 1, 2, 3

C) only 1 and 3

D) only 2 and 3

E) 1, 2, 4

140. Is characteristic for secondary syphilis:

A) rashes

B) gummas

C) gentle chancre

D) hard chancre

E) chancroid

141. Bacteriological examination of stool of the patient with symptoms of bloody

diarrhea were not isolated pathogenic and opportunistic microorganisms. Correct

physician’s tactics in this case, would be:

A) microscopic examination of stool

B) repeated bacteriological examination of stool

C) confirmation of the diagnosis by the biological method

D) determination of serum antibodies to the causative agent of bacillary dysentery

E) confirmation of the diagnosis by the skin-allergic test

142. Is not correct for immunity after syphilis:

A) when re-infection of the disease begins with symptoms of second period

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B) there are no cases of re-infection

C) is not possible development of superinfection in active periods of the disease

D) is not possible development of superinfection in latent syphilis

E) when re-infection does not develop a chancre

143. Is diagnostic method in primary syphilis:

A) bacteriological

B) microscopic and biological

C) microscopic

D) serological and skin-allergic

E) microscopic and bacteriological

144. Does not form cyst:

A) Toxoplasma gondii

B) Entoamoeba histolytica

C) Trichomonas vaginalis

D) Balantidium coli

E) Giardia lamblia

145. Used to confirm the diagnosis of syphilis in RPR (rapid plasma reagin)-testpositive patients:

A) bacteriological investigation of blood for detection causative agent

B) dark-field microscopy of blood for detection causative agent

C) detection of antibodies in blood serum using of indirect hemagglutination reaction

D) detection of antibodies in blood serum using VDRL-test

E) immunofluorescence reaction for detection causative agent

146. The most sensitive method for diagnosis of whooping cough:

A) Elek test

B) Mantoux test

C) polymerase chain reaction

D) immunoblotting

E) Wright reaction

147. It is motile microorganism, the body is coiled in 3-10 large, irregular spiral:

A) Leptospira

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B) Treponema

C) Helicobacter

D) Borrelia

E) Campylobacter

148. Borrelia is cultivated on:

A) Kitt-Tarotsi medium

B) Klauberg’s medium

C) Lowenstein-Jensen medium

D) chicken embryo

E) casein-charcoal agar

149. Does not belong to human papillomavirus infection:

A) cutaneous warts

B) cervical papilloma

C) verrucous laryngitis

D) infectious erythema

E) skin papilloma

150. Is correct for the transmission mechanism of epidemic relapsing fever:

A) rubbing of the infected lice hemolymph to damaged skin

B) rubbing of the infected lice feces to damaged skin

C) sucking blood by infected mosquitoes

D) sucking blood by infected ticks

E) sucking blood by infected flies

151. The source of infection in mycetoma is:

A) infected birds

B) infected people

C) soil

D) mosquitoes

E) infected animals

152. The main clinical symptom of relapsing fever:

A) atypical pneumonia

B) ulcerative colitis

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E) tropical malaria

157. Is not correct for leptospirosis:

A) sick animals are secreted pathogen with urine

B) people is infected through water contaminated by urine of infected animals

C) the entrance gate of infection are damaged skin and mucous membranes

D) the source of infection are sick animals, is transmitted with contact

E) the source of infection are sick animals, is transmitted by lice

158. Is used in the microbiological diagnosis of leptospirosis:

A) microscopy of blood smears stained by Giemsa method

B) microscopy of sputum smears stained by Ziehl-Neelsen

C) microscopy of sputum smears stained by Giemsa method

D) microscopy of the spot elements stained by Giemsa method

E) microscopy of smears prepared from wound secretions

159. Biological action effect of Clostridium botulinum exotoxin is:

A) paralysis of muscles

B) cell necrosis

C) contraction of muscles

D) osmotic lysis of cells

E) immunostimulation

160. Is used in the treatment of leptospirosis:

A) immune serum

B) metronidazole

C) antitoxic serum

D) Penicillin G

E) azidothymidine

161. Determine X, Y and Z microorganisms:

A) X-Salmonella Typhi; Y-Shigella flexneri; Z-Yersinia enterocolitica;

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B) X-Pseudomonas aeruginosa; Y-Helicobacter pylori; Z-Clostridium diffisile;

C) X-Clostridium diffisile; Y-Pseudomonas aeruginosa; Z-Yersinia pseudotuberculosis;

D) X-Clostridium diffisile; Y-Helicobacter pylori; Z-Shigella flexneri

E) X-Shigella flexneri; Y-Helicobacter pylori; Z-Salmonella Typhimurium;

162. Does not belong to the pathogenicity factors of Rickettsia:

A) a microcapsule

B) exotoxin

C) lipopolysaccharide

D) pili

E) Omp-protein

163. Is correct for epidemic spotted fever:

A) the source of infection are sick animals, is transmitted by flies

B) the source of infection are sick birds, is transmitted with air-drop way

C) the source of infection are sick people, is transmitted by lice

D) the source of infection are sick people, is transmitted by mosquitoes

E) the source of infection are sick people, is transmitted with fecal-oral mechanism

164. In the saliva of mosquitoes infected with Plasmodium parasites are found:

A) schizonts

B) oocyst

C) merozoites

D) ookinete

E) sporozoites

165. The causative agent of endemic spotted fever is:

A) Coxiella burnetii

B) Borrelia recurrentis

C) Rickettsia typhi

D) Rickettsia prowazekii

E) Borrelia duttoni

166. The clinical manifestations of brusellosis include:

A) polyarthritis

B) pyelonephritis

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C) dermatitis

D) pneumonia

E) conjunctivitis

167. Coxiella burnetii is:

A) Gram-negative bacteria, is cultivated on simple nutrient media

B) Gram-positive bacteria, is cultivated on simple nutrient media

C) the bacteria without cell walls, is cultivated on simple nutrient media

D) the bacteria without cell walls, is cultivated on enriched nutrient media

E) an obligate intracellular parasite, is cultivated in chicken embryo

168. Is not correct for Q-fever:

A) the source of infection are infected animals, is transmitted through alimentary way

B) the source of infection are infected animals, is transmitted with aerogenic mechanism

C) is infected by eating meat and milk of infected animals

D) the source of infection are infected animals, is transmitted by the bite of ticks

E) the source of infection are environmental objects, is transmitted with aerogenic

mechanism

169. In the scalp of schoolchild appeared scaling, itching and symptoms of alopecia. In order to confirm the diagnosis, damaged hair:

A) treated with acid and inoculated on lecithin meat-extract agar

B) treated with acid and inoculated on agar Endo

C) treated with acid and examined under microscope

D) treated with alkali and examined under microscope

E) treated with acid and inoculated on meat-extract agar

170. Is not a correct for trachoma:

A) the source of infection are sick people, transmitted through contact

B) is caused by A, B, Ba and C serotypes of Chlamydia trachomatis

C) is accompanied by conjunctivitis

D) is observed intracellular inclusion in the conjunctiva epithelium

E) the source of infection are infected animals, transmitted by vector

171. Mycelial form of Histoplasma capsulatum:

A) are oval capsulated yeast cells

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B) have macroconidia similar to banana

C) have pseudomycelia

D) have macroconidia with spikes on the surface

E) are represented the mycelium and yeast cells

172. What serotypes of Chlamydia trachomatis cause urogenital chlamydiosis?

A) L1, L2, L3

B) A-D

C) A, B, Ba, C

D) K-L

E) D-K

173. When passing through the birth canal of infected mother, newborn may

become infected with:

A) inclusion conjuctivitis

B) poliomielit

C) rubella

D) toxoplasmosis

E) mumps174. In the human organism rabies virus can be detected in:

A) feces

B) urine

C) blood

D) sputum

E) saliva

175. What serotypes of Chlamydia trachomatis causes lymphogranuloma

venereum?

A) K-L

B) D-K

C) L1, L2, L3

D) A, B, Ba, C

E) A-D

176. The main pathogenicity factors of Haemophilus influenzae is:

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A) extoxin

B) spora

C) fibrinolysin

D) lecithinase

E) capsule

177. Chlamydia psittaci causes:

A) chicken pox

B) poliomyelitis

C) infectious mononucleosis

D) Q-fever

E) psittacosis

178. Chlamydia psittaci causes:

A) lobar pneumonia

B) atypical pneumonia

C) lymphogranuloma venereum

D) urogenital chlamydiosis

E) pneumocystic pneumonia

179. Is not character for tetanus:

A) muscular spasms

B) opisthotonus

C) sardonic smile

D) trismus

E) rashes

180. Mycoplasma is cultivated on:

A) simple medium

B) meat-peptone broth supplemented with glucose

C) brain-heart agar supplemented with serum

D) blood agar with glucose

E) Kitt-Tarotsi medium

181. Paramyxoviruses don’t include:

A) parainfluenza virus

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B) mumps virus

C) RS-virus

D) influenza virus

E) measles virus

182. Pathogenicity of mycoplasma is due to:

A) blockage of protein synthesis in the host cell

B) accumulation of cyclic AMP in the host cell

C) destruction of neurotransmitters at the synapse

D) polyclonal stimulation of T-helper cells

E) damaging of the host cell membrane

183. Causes urogenital infection:

A) Leptospira interrogans

B) Coxiella burnetii

C) Mycoplasma hominis

D) Chlamydia psittaci

E) Borrelia burgdorferi

184. The causative agent of relapsing fever is:

A) Borrelia

B) Nocardia

C) Treponema

D) Neisseria

E) Chlamydia

185. Is used for detection of mycoplasmas in smears, prepared from the

pathological material:

A) simple stain

B) Gram stain

C) wet microscopy

D) immunofluorescence

E) Neisser stain

186. Determine the X, Y, Z viruses:

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A) X-herpes simplex virus type II; Y-herpes simplex virus type I; Z-Epstein-Barr virus;

B) X-herpes simplex virus type I; Y-herpes simplex virus type II; Z-cytomegalovirus;

C) X-Epstein-Barr virus; Y-herpes simplex virus type I; Z- herpes simplex virus type II;

D) X-herpes simplex virus type I; Y-herpes simplex virus type II; Z-Epstein-Barr virus;

E) X-herpes simplex virus type I; Y-herpes simplex virus type II; Z-varicella zoster virus

187. Ureaplasmas differ from other mycoplasmas:

A) the ability to grow on simple nutrient media

B) the ability to break down urea

C) the lack of cell wall

D) a capsule

E) intracellular parasitism

188. Is used for detection of Ureaplasma in smears, prepared from pathological

material:

A) immunofluorescence

B) wet microscopy

C) Neisser stain

D) Gram stain

E) dark-field microscopy

189. Used for prevention of influenza:

A) toxoid

B) inactivated vaccine

C) immune serum

D) immunoglobulin

E) antitoxic serum

190. The causative agent of pityriasis versicolor is:

A) Trichophyton rubrum

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B) Piedraia hortae

C) Epidermophyton floccosum

D) Malassezia furfur

E) Aspergillus flavus

191. Is pathogenetic mechanism of psevdomembranous colitis:

A) normal intestine microflora disbalance as a result of antibiotic treatment

B) Candida fungi growing inside of intestine as a result of antibiotic treatment

C) necrosis of the intestines mucous membrane as a result of siga-toxin action of Shigella

dysenteriae

D) psevdomembrane formation as a result of the multiplication of enteroviruses in the

intestinal epithelium

E) invasiveness of enteroinvasive Escherichia coli to intestinal epithelium

192. Causes flaking of the scalp:

A) Epidermophyton floccosum

B) Malassezia furfur

C) Piedraia hortae

D) Trichophyton rubrum

E) Aspergillus flavus

193. Is caused by Gardnerella vaginalis:

A) venereal lymphogranuloma

B) gonorrhea

C) suppurative conjunctivitis

D) bacterial vaginosis

E) chancroid

194. The cultivation conditions of dermatophytes:

A) at 250C, a few weeks

B) at 370C, 1-2 days

C) at 370C, a few weeks

D) at 250C, 1-2 days

E) for 370C, a few months

195. The most surface proteins of human immunodeficiency virus:

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A) p17 and p24

B) p17 and p10

C) gp41 and gp120

D) gp141, p17 and p24

E) gp40 and gp141

196. Does not belong to Herpesviridae family:

A) herpes simplex virus

B) cytomegalovirus

C) varicella zoster virus

D) measles virus

E) Epstein-Barr virus

197. Is dameged by Microsporum:

1.The skin;

2.Hair;

3.Nails;


A) 3, 4

B) only 4

C) 2, 4

D) 1, 4

E) 2, 3

198. Middle-aged woman addressed to the doctor with the complaint to dimness and

fragility of fingers nail plate. A microscopic examination of the nail plate showed

mycelium with septa. This process is called:

A) tinea pedis

B) tinea cruris

C) tinea capitis

D) onychomycosis

E) ectothrix

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199. On the plantar skin of middle-aged woman appeared cracks accompanied by

itching and flaking. In microscopy of scraping from skin lesion were found

mycelium with septa. This process can be caused by:

A) Trichophyton, Microsporum and Sporothrix

B) Trichophyton, Microsporum and Candida

C) Trichophyton, Microsporum and Aspergillus

D) Microsporum and Candida

E) Trichophyton and Epidermophyton

200. Microscopic examination of the stool allows diagnosis in the case:

A) rotavirus infection

B) enteric fever

C) amoebic dysentery

D) bacillary dysentery

E) escherichiosis

201. The causative agent of crusted ringworm is:

A) Epidermophyton mentagrophytes

B) Trichophyton tonsurans

C) Trichophyton violaseum

D) Microsporum canis

E) Trichophyton schoenleini

202. The most common complications of mumps:

A) Reye's syndrome

B) sinusitis

C) orchitis and oophoritis

D) conjunctivitis

E) deafness and blindness

203. The main reason of the new subtype occurrence of influenza virus is:

A) complementation

B) transduction

C) drift

D) shift

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E) phenotypic mixture

204. The damage of the subcutaneous tissue, muscle and fascia is typical for:

A) superficial mycosis

B) tinea

C) subcutaneous mycosis

D) pityriasis versicolor

E) mycotoxicoses

205. The main clinical symptom of Lyme disease:

A) erythema migrans

B) atypical pneumonia

C) ulcerative colitis

D) maculopapular rash

E) attacks of fever

206. In a smear from the sporotrichosis lesion can be detected:

A) branched mycelium without septa

B) branched mycelium with microconidia

C) small cigar-like yeast cells

D) branched mycelium with macroconidia

E) branched mycelium with septa

207. Used in prevention of AIDS:

A) subvirion vaccine

B) toxoid

C) recombinant vaccine

D) antitoxic serum

E) there is not any specific prevention

208. In which case, the bacteria isolated from the bacteriological examination of

sputum play an etiologic role?

A) bacteria isolated from a 100-fold dilution of sputum

B) bacteria isolated from 103-10

4 fold dilutions of sputum

C) bacteria isolated from 106-107 fold dilutions of sputum

D) bacteria isolated from a 10-fold dilution of sputum

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E) all of the isolated bacteria

209. Causative agents of chromomycosis penetrate into the body through:

A) mucosa of the gastrointestinal tract

B) the bites of infected animals

C) the bites of bloodsucking insect

D) mucosa of the respiratory tract

E) skin microtrauma

210. Belong to systemic mycosis:

1.Aspergillosis;

2.Tinea;

3.Pneumocystosis;

4.Coccidioidomycosis;

5.Histoplasmosis;

6.Blastomycosis;

A) 1, 2, 3

B) 3, 4, 5

C) 2, 3, 4

D) 1, 4, 5

E) 4, 5, 6

211. In middle-aged men was observed disease, that began with a painful swelling

of the left leg, and subsequently led to the deformation and formation of fistula with

purulent content. In suppurative content were found solid consistency granules

with diameter about 2 mm. The estimated disease is:

A) mycetoma

B) leishmaniasis

C) histoplasmosis

D) blastomycosis

E) chromomycosis

212. Is used for differentiation Mycobacterium tuberculosis and opportunistic

mycobacteria:

A) niasin test

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B) bile sencitivity test

C) antibiotic sensitivity test

D) opthochin test

E) catalase test

213. Patogenesis of whooping cough:

A) as a result of destruction of causative agents in the blood pertussis-toxin is released

B) the causative agents enter to bronchial epithelium and multiplies

C) the causative agents enter to blood from bronchial mucous

D) the causative agents adheres to epithelial surface of bronchi and multiplies

E) the causative agents adheres to epithelial surface of intestine and multiplies

214. Coccidioides immitis spherules:

A) are formed on nutrient media

B) are formed in the external environment

C) are tissue form of the fungus

D) contain ingested leucocytes

E) contain ingested erythrocytes

215. Main causative agents of opportunistic infection in acquired immunodeficiencysyndrome:

1.Pneumocystis jiroveci;

2.Trichomonas vaginalis;

3.Candida albicans;

4.Virus rubella;

5.Cytomegalovirus;

6.Cryptosporidium hominis;

A) 2, 3, 4, 6

B) 3, 4, 5, 6

C) 1, 3, 5, 6

D) 1, 2, 5, 6

E) 1, 2, 4, 5

216. The primary focus of infection in coccidioidomycosis is formed in:

A) the intestine

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B) the central nervous system

C) the skin

D) the lung

E) the liver

217. Is used in the treatment of spotted fever:

A) penicillin G

B) toxoid

C) acyclovir

D) antitoxic serum

E) tetracycline

218. Progressing as a result of the epidermal tissue hyperplasia in place of the

introduction of the pathogen through the skin microtrauma, and tend to the spread

of granulomatous nodes similar to cauliflower observed in:

A) leishmaniasis

B) histoplasmosis

C) chromomycosis

D) gas gangrene

E) blastomycosis

219. Infection with Histoplasma capsulatum happens:

A) by vector borne

B) as a result of inhalation of spores

C) through the bites of infected animals

D) through the milk and meat from infected animals

E) by ingestion of spherules

220. Cause acute intestinal infection:

1.Rubivirus;

2.Rotavirus;

3.Adenovirus;

4.Morbillivirus;

A) 1, 2

B) 1, 3

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C) 3, 4

D) 2, 3

E) 2, 4

221. Microscopic examination of sputum in histoplasmosis allows to reveal:

A) mycelium with septa and macroconidia

B) oval yeast cells

C) aseptate mycelium with arthroconidia

D) pseudomycelium

E) mycelium with septa and arthroconidia

222. Is cultivation medium for Clostridium perfringens:

A) Klauberg’s medium

B) Sabouraud’s medium

C) Kitt-Tarotsi medium

D) casein-charcoal medium

E) bile broth

223. During the multiplication of malaria parasites in human organism tissue the

schizogony occurs in: A) macrophages

B) liver

C) lymph

D) neutrophils

E) erythrocytes

224. Does not form pseudomycelia:

A) Candida tropicalis

B) Candida parapsilosis

C) Candida krusei

D) Candida albicans

E) Candida glabrata

225. Is used in serological diagnosis of brusellosis:

A) ELISA

B) Wassermann reaction

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C) mycelium and yeast cells

D) elongated budding yeast cells

E) oval yeast cells

231. It is found as encapsulated yeast cells in smears of pathological material:

A) Cryptococcus neoformans

B) Aspergillus flavus

C) Coccidioides immitis

D) Sporothrix schenckii

E) Candida albicans

232. Rabies is transmitted:

A) the fecal-oral route

B) by vector borne

C) through air-drop route

D) through animal products

E) through the bites of infected animals

233. Are located intracellularly in the infected organism:

A) staphylococci

B) borrelia

C) Candida

D) mycoplasma

E) brusella

234. The main clinical manifestation of cryptococcal infection in humans with

immune deficiencies is:

A) hepatitis

B) endocarditis

C) dermatitis

D) arthritis

E) meningitis

235. The causative agent of cutaneous leishmaniasis is:

A) Entamoeba histolytica

B) Trichomonas vaginalis

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C) Balantidium coli

D) Leishmania tropica

E) Toxoplasma gondii

236. As a result of bronchial colonization by Aspergillus fungi hyphae without

invasion in human with atopy can be developed:

A) aspergilloma

B) aflatoxicosis

C) sarcoma

D) invasive aspergillosis

E) allergic broncho-pulmonary aspergillosis

237. Is used in the diagnosis of urogenital chlamydiosis:

A) immunoelectrophoresis

B) immunofluorescence


D) precipitation reaction

E) agglutination test

238. Diphtheria-tetanus-pertussis vaccine (DTP vaccine) include: A) immune serum against tetanus

B) tetanus toxoid

C) immune serum against diphtheria

D) pertussis toxoid

E) immune serum against pertussis

239. The pathogenesis of Pneumocystis pneumonia:

A) an inflammation of the bronchial mucosa

B) the formation of cavities in the lungs

C) atopic reactions to Pneumocystis jirovecii

D) respiratory failure, due to bronchospasm

E) blockade of gas exchange in the alveoli

240. In bacteriological examination 0.005 ml urine was inoculated with a loop on a

solid nutrient medium. Determine the degree of bacteriuria, if after incubation had

grown 100 colonies:

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A) 2x104

B) 5x103

C) 105

D) 5x102

E) 2x105

241. Used in the treatment of Pneumocystis pneumonia:

A) ketoconazole

B) penicillin G

C) fluconazole

D) metronidazole

E) biseptol

242. Is used for treatment of anthrax:

A) antitoxin

B) fluconazole

C) ciprofloxacin

D) azidothymidine

E) metronidazole

243. Tissue cysts of Toxoplasma gondii:

A) consist of trophozoite clusters without special envelope

B) excreted with cats feces

C) located intracellularly in the intestinal epithelium of cats

D) located extracellularly in the intestinal epithelium of cats

E) consist of sporozoite clusters surrounded with a special envelope

244. Is not characteristic for Giardia lamblia:

1.The sucking disc;

2.Apical complex;

3.Cyst;

4.Pseudopodia;

5.Pseudocysts;

6.Flagella;

A) 1, 3, 4

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C) the the biliary tract

D) the mucosa of the small intestine

E) the mucosa of duodenum

250. Clinical manifestation of mucous membrane candidiasis is:

A) leukoplakia

B) Koplik's spots

C) herpangina

D) blastomycosis

E) thrush

251. Native feces microscopy of patient with blood-mucous diarrhea detected motile

parasites 30m in size having pseudopodia, ecto- and endoplasm, containing

absorbed erythrocytes. The estimated causative agent is:

A) Toxoplasma gondii

B) Giardia lamblia

C) Entamoeba histolytica

D) Balantidium coli

E) Trichomonas vaginalis

252. RS-virus is detected in cell culture:

A) using enzyme immunoassay

B) on the base of the cytopathic effect

C) using precipitation reaction

D) using haemagglutination reaction

E) using the polymerase chain reaction

253. Human immunodeficiency virus is cultivated on:

A) chorionic-allantois membrane of chicken embryo

B) Hela cell culture

C) the culture of T-cells and monocytes

D) Vero cell culture

E) the culture of B cell and hybridomas

254. Drag of choice for treatment of amebiasis:

A) metronidazole

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B) ofloxacin

C) fluconazole

D) tetracycline

E) chloramphenicol

255. Herpesviruses are:

A) DNA-containing, non enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid

B) RNA-containing, enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid

C) DNA-containing, enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid

D) RNA-containing, non enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid


256. Trichomonas vaginalis:

A) is not motile

B) is binuclear

C) has sucking disc

D) is motile

E) forms a cyst

257. Causes intestinal infestation:

A) Giardia lamblia

B) Trypanosoma cruzi

C) Toxoplasma gondii

D) Trichomonas vaginalis

E) Leishmania donovani

258. Clostridium difficile is:

A) Gram positive, anaerobic, non motile, non spore forming, rod shaped bacteria

B) Gram positive, anaerobic, motile, spore forming rod shaped bacteria

C) Gram negative, aerobic, motile, non spore forming, rod shaped bacteria

D) Gram positive, aerobic, non motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria

E) Gram, negative, anaerobic, motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria

259. The causative agent of urogenital trichomoniasis:

A) Trichomonas hominis

B) Trichomonas tenax

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C) Toxoplasma gondii

D) Tripanosoma cruzi

E) Trichomonas vaginalis

260. The measles virus is different from the other paramyxoviruses with:

A) hemagglutinating ability

B) containing F-protein

C) cultivation conditions

D) transmission ways

E) the ability to form intranuclear inclusion

261. Drag of choice for treatment of trichomoniasis:

A) tetracycline

B) fluconazole

C) ofloxacin

D) chloramphenicol

E) metronidazole

262. Pneumocystis jirovecii:

A) causes cytopathic changes in the cell culture

B) is obligate intracellular parasite

C) is cultivated on Sabouraud’s medium

D) is cultivated on simple nutrient media

E) is a part of the normal microflora

263. Sexual reproduction of plasmodium called:

A) merulation

B) sporogony

C) mitosis

D) meiosis

E) schizogony

264. Leptospira is cultivated on:

A) coal-casein agar

B) liquid media supplemented with glucose

C) liquid media supplemented with serum

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D) Kitt-Tarotstsi medium

E) glycerol broth

265. Is not transmission way of anthrax:

A) through air-dust

B) through contact

C) through food

D) through air-drop

E) by vector

266. The causative agent of tropical malaria is:

A) Plasmodium malariae

B) Plasmodium gondii

C) Plasmodium ovale

D) Plasmodium falciparum

E) Plasmodium vivax

267. Infectious mononucleosis is transmitted by:

A) air-drop

B) fecal-oral

C) vector-borne

D) alimentary

E) parenteral

268. Malaria is transmitted:

A) through contact

B) through all ways

C) by vector

D) through fecal-oral route

E) through airborne droplets


A) influenza virus

B) Epstein-Barr virus

C) mumps virus

D) Coxsackie virus

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E) parainfluenza virus

270. Which cell component of tubercle bacilli gives to him antigenic property and

causes antibodies production and delayed type hypersensitivity?

A) lipids

B) lipopolysaccharide

C) capsule

D) flagella

E) proteins

271. Sexual reproduction of Toxoplasma occurs in:

A) the environment

B) the midges body

C) the human body

D) the mosquito body

E) the cats body

272. Is used in diagnosis of Pseudomonas aeruginosa infections:


B) skin-allergic testC) serological method

D) molecular genetics method


273. Trophozoites of Toxoplasma gondii:

A) have the crescent shape

B) have sucking disc

C) heart-shaped, have flagella

D) have pseudopodia

E) are found in promastigotes and amastigote forms

274. In the serum of 28 year-old woman with signs of prolonged fever and

lymphadenopathy were detected antibodies to human immunodeficiency virus by

ELISA. Tactics of a doctor in this case:

A) clarification of the diagnosis by immunoblotting

B) antiretroviral therapy

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C) to conduct repeat testing

D) clarification of the diagnosis using of hemagglutination inhibition test

E) clarification of the diagnosis using virus neutralization test

275. Used in the diagnosis of toxoplasmosis:

A) agglutination of parasites

B) serologic method

C) the hemeabsorption reaction

D) the Ascoli thermoprecipitation reaction


276. Does not belong to the diseases, caused by the Epstein-Barr virus:


B) oral hairy leukoplakia

C) infectious erythema

D) oropharyngeal carcinoma

E) Burkitt’s lymphoma

277. Grayish-white pseudomembrane froming at the entrance gate of infection is

hardly breaked from mucous membrane with swab and occurs bleeding in this time.This sign is characteristic for:

A) listeriosis

B) scarlet fever

C) influenza

D) candidiasis

E) diphtheria

278. They are characteristic for Leishmania tropica:

1.Pseudopodia;

2.Apical complex;

3.Cyst;

4.The sucking disc;

5.Pseudocysts;

6.Flagella;

A) 3, 4, 5

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B) 1, 2, 4

C) 2, 3, 6

D) only 4

E) only 6

279. The main causative agent of urinary tract infections:

A) Streptococcus pyogenes

B) Haemophilus influenzae

C) Salmonella Typhimurium

D) Clostridium septicum

E) Escherichia coli

280. Amastigote forms of Leishmania:

A) are rounded shape

B) have pseudopodia

C) located intracellularly in the mosquito organism

D) are motile

E) form a cyst

281. Reoviruses are:

A) RNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, nonenveloped

B) DNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, enveloped

C) DNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, nonenveloped

D) DNA containing with spiral capsid, enveloped

E) RNA containing, with spiral capsid nonenveloped

282. In the cheek of 16-year-old boy appeared infiltrative node which has turned to

wound with granulomatous tissue after 2 months. In Giemsa-stained smear

prepared from the ulcer were identified rounded parasites 2-5 m in size. The


A) Trypanosoma cruzi

B) Plasmodium ovale

C) Leishmania tropica

D) Leishmania donovani

E) Toxoplasma gondii

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283. They are characteristic for Entamoeba histolytica:

1.Pseudopodia;

2.Apical complex;

3.Cyst;

4.The sucking disc;

5.Pseudocysts;

6.Flagella;

A) 1, 4

B) 1, 5

C) 1, 3

D) 2, 5

E) 3, 4

284. Is used in the microbiological diagnosis of spotted fever:

A) serological method

B) bacteriological method

C) skin-allergic method

D) toxin neutralization reaction

E) microscopic technique

285. Belongs to Herpesviridae family:

1.Rubella virus;

2.Varicella Zoster virus;

3.Cytomegalovirus;

4.Poxvirus;

5.Epstein-Barr virus;

A) 1, 2, 5

B) 3, 4, 5

C) 2, 3, 5

D) 2, 4, 5

E) 1, 2, 3

286. In the serum of patients with hepatosplenomegaly found İgM to the hepatitis A

virus. What does find this condition?

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A) infection with hepatitis A through airborne-droplets

B) chronic hepatitis A

C) a complication of hepatitis A

D) currently hepatitis A

E) parenteral infection with hepatitis A

287. It is cytopathic effect for Herpesviruses:

A) Guarnieri bodies

B) Negri bodies

C) vacuolization

D) giant cells, or symplasts

E) have not cytopathic effect

288. Detection of IgM in the newborn blood against cytomegalovirus indicates:

A) intrauterine infection of the fetus

B) the presence of appropriate antibodies in the mother’s blood

C) immune serum are injected to mother

D) immunization of mother

E) mother is infected by medical staff

289. Clinically significant bacteriuria:

A) the presence of 105 and more bacteria in 1 ml urine

B) the presence of bacteria in the urine

C) the presence of 10 and more bacteria in 1 ml of urine

D) the presence of 1 and more bacteria in 100 ml urine

E) the presence of 2 or more bacteria in urine

290. The herpes simplex viruses type II are transmitted by:

A) sexual way

B) vector-borne way

C) air-drop way

D) parenteral way

E) fecal-oral mechanism

291. Does not belong to atypical mycobacteria:

A) Mycobacterium scorfulaceum

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B) Mycobacterium avium-intracellulare complex

C) Mycobacterium smegmatis

D) Mycobacterium kansasii

E) Mycobacterium africanum

292. Does not belong to clinical findings of herpes simplex virus type II infection:

A) sevical cancer

B) aseptic meningitis

C) neonatal herpes

D) infectious mononucleosis

E) genital herpes

293. Drug of choice in treatment of tularemia:

A) streptomycin

B) antitoxin

C) penicillin G

D) immune serum

E) immunoglobulin

294. Hepatitis A virus is:

A) DNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, enveloped

B) RNA containing, with helical capsid, nonenveloped

C) DNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, nonenveloped

D) RNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, nonenveloped

E) RNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, enveloped

295. Varicella-Zoster virus causes:


B) checken-pox

C) herpes simplex

D) smallpox

E) measles

296. Human immunodeficiency virus is infected with:

A) fecal-oral route

B) parenteral route

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C) vector-borne

D) air-drop route

E) products of animal origin

297. After a childhood varicella, which causative agent persists in the body, in

adulthood may develop:

A) semi-acute encephalitis

B) zoster

C) Burkitt's lymphoma

D) measles

E) Q-fever

298. Is not transmission way of listeriosis:

A) through contact

B) by vector

C) through placenta

D) through food

E) through air-dust

299. Typically for acute gonorrhea: A) detection of diplococci inside of numerous leucocytes in the smear

B) detection of "clue cells" in the smear

C) detection of intracellular inclusions in the smear

D) detection of motile causative agents in the native smear

E) detection of numerous leukocytes and gram positive bacteria in the smear

300. Epstein-Barr virus causes:


B) mumps

C) herpes simplex

D) gerpangina

E) herpes zoster

301. Poliovirus infection is transmitted with:

A) transplacental way

B) vector borne mechanism

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C) parenteral mechanism

D) fecal-oral mechanism

E) air-dust way

302. Detection of heterophile antibodies in the blood serum in infectious

mononucleosis is associated with:

A) cytotoxic effect of T-lymphocytes to infected B-lymphocytes

B) the antigenicity of the causative agent

C) polyclonal stimulation of infected B-lymphocytes

D) characteristics of the reproduction of pathogenic virus

E) polyclonal stimulation of infected T-lymphocytes

303. Does not belong to normal microflora of human organism:

A) Actynomyces

B) Nocardia

C) Neisseria

D) Bacteroides

E) streptococci

304. Entering with water aerosoles through of respiratory tract causes heavy, local,or lobar pneumonia, which accompanied with high mortality:


B) Chlamydia psittaci

C) Legionella pneumophila

D) Klebsiella pneumoniae

E) Bordetella pertussis

305. Causes congenital infection:

A) influenza virus

B) cytomegalovirus

C) rabies virus

D) mumps virus

E) smallpox virus

306. An early indicator of hepatitis B infection:

A) HBc antigen

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B) HBc and HBe antigen

C) HBe antigen

D) HBe antigen

E) HBs antigen

307. Adenoviruses are:


B) DNA-containing, nonenveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid

C) RNA-containing, enveloped viruses with helical capsid

D) DNA-containing, enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid


308. Polyomaviruses are:

A) DNA-containing, enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid

B) DNA-containing, enveloped viruses with helical capsid

C) RNA-containing, non enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid


E) RNA-containing, enveloped viruses with helical capsid

309. Used for the treatment of candidiasis:

1.Metronidazole;

2.Chloramphenicol;

3.Amphotericin B;

4.Fluconazole;

5.Nystatin;

6.Acyclovir;

A) 3, 4, 5

B) 2, 3, 4

C) 1, 2, 6

D) 1, 2, 3

E) 4, 5, 6

310. Adenoviruses persist in:

A) trigeminal ganglions

B) bone marrow

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C) tonsils

D) T-lymphocytes

E) dorsal ganglions

311. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is:

A) Gram negative, non motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria

B) Gram negative, non motile, non spore forming spherical shaped bacteria

C) Gram positive, motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria

D) Gram positive, non motile, non spore forming curved bacteria

E) Gram negative, motile, non spore forming rod shaped bacteria

312. Impossibility of the cultivation of papillomaviruses in cell culture is associated:

A) with helical capsid

B) with dermo tropism of viruses

C) the ability of the virus to tumor transformation

D) with the passing of viral replication phase in different layers of the epidermis

E) to the fact that they are RNA-containing viruses

313. Determine the virus according to the structure’s scheme:

1 2 3

A) 1-poliovirus; 2-rabies virus; 3-bacteriophage;

B) 1-adenovirus; 2-rabies virus; 3-bacteriophage;

C) 1-human immunodeficiency virus; 2-rabies virus; 3-bacteriophage;

D) 1-human immunodeficiency virus; 2-parvovirus; 3-measles virus;

E) 1-herpesvirus; 2-adenovirus; 3-rotavirus;

314. The intranuclear Cowdry inclusion is characteristic for:

A) herpes simplex virus

B) cytomegalovirus

C) varicella zoster virus

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D) Epstein-Barr virus

E) human herpes virus type 8

315. Parvoviruses are:


B) RNA-containing, enveloped viruses with helical capsid

C) DNA-containing, enveloped viruses with icosahedral capsid



316. In microscopic examination of the urethral discharge smear from patients with

urethritis were observed in a small number leukocytes and epithelial cells. The


A) Borrelia burgdorferi

B) Coxiella burnetii

C) Chlamydia psittaci

D) Mycoplasma hominis

E) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

317. Caused by Parvovirus:

1.Skin papilloma;

2.Aplastic anemia;

3.Infectious erythema;

4.Zoster;

5.Hydrops fetalis;

A) 1, 2, 5

B) 2, 4, 5

C) 2, 3, 5

D) 3, 4, 5

E) 1, 2, 4

318. The genotypes of hepatitis C virus is determined using:

A) polymerase chain reaction

B) immunofluorescence

C) passive hemagglutination reaction

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D) enzyme immunoassay

E) hemagglutination inhibition test

319. Causes endotoxin shock:

A) Staphylococcus aureus

B) Streptococcus pneumoniae

C) Clostridium perfringens

D) Escherichia coli

E) Bacillus cereus

320. After removal of the surface H-glycoprotein by detergent, influenza virus:

A) loses the ability to budding through the membrane

B) the virus reproduction is broken at the level of nucleic acid synthesis

C) after entering to the host cell, the virus loses the ability to deprotenization

D) can not interact with the host cell

E) stops the viral proteins synthesis

321. Does not belong to pathologies caused by Trichomonas vaginalis:

A) prostatitis

B) gastritis

C) urethritis

D) vesiculitis

E) cervicitis

322. Which subtype of influenza viruses causes the “Avian influenza”?

A) H2N2

B) H3N2

C) H5N2

D) H5N1

E) H1N1

323. Is characteristic for primary syphilis:

A) gentle chancre

B) gummas

C) rashes

D) chancroid

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E) hard chancre

324. In which case is developed skin form of anthrax?

A) when infected with air-dust

B) when infected with contact

C) when infected through food

D) when infected through all ways

E) when infected with air-drop

325. The most serious complication of influenza is:

A) Reye’s syndrome

B) bronchitis

C) antritis

D) conjunctivitis

E) Reyno syndrome

326. Hepatitis C virus is:

A) RNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, enveloped

B) DNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, nonenveloped

C) DNA containing, with icosahedral capsid, enveloped

D) DNA containing, with helical capsid, enveloped

E) RNA containing, with helical capsid, nonenveloped

327. The detection method of the influenza virus in chicken embryos:

A) an enzyme immunoassay

B) immunoblotting

C) polymerase chain reaction

D) hemagglutination reaction

E) precipitation reaction

328. Is dameged by Trichophyton:

1.The skin;

2.Hair;

3.Nails;


A) only 1

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B) 1, 2, 4

C) only 1and 3

D) only 2 and 3

E) 1, 2, 3

329. Is not correct for the diagnosis of aspergillosis:

A) microscopic detecting of Aspergillus mycelium in the sputum smear is possible

B) detection of Aspergillus in the sputum in all cases confirms the diagnosis of invasive

aspergillosis

C) serological diagnosis of invasive aspergillosis in patients with immune deficiency is not

informative

D) contamination of the pathological material by Aspergillus species should be excluded

E) for obtaining of Aspergillus cultures can be used Sabouraud’s medium

330. The characteristic cytopathic effect of paramyxoviruses:

A) Paschen bodies

B) Guarnieri inclusion

C) Negri bodies

D) vacuolization

E) syncytia formation

331. Requires for growth X and V factors:


B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

C) Streptococcus pneumoniae

D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

E) Clostridium perfringens

332. The surface proteins of paramyxoviruses are:

1.P-protein;

2.HN-protein;

3.L-protein;

4.G-protein;

5.F-protein;

6.NP-protein;

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A) 1, 5, 6

B) 1, 3, 5

C) 3, 4, 6

D) 2, 5, 6

E) 2, 4, 5

333. The reason of hydrophobia in rabies is:

A) paralysis of the thirst centers

B) damaging of the oral mucosa

C) fear of wild animals

D) painful spasms of the pharynx muscles

E) anuresis

334. For prevention of persons, who had contact with hepatitis A is used:

A) inactivated vaccine


C) live vaccine

D) toxoid

E) immunoglobulin

335. Is detection method of parainfluenza virus in cell culture:

A) polymerase chain reaction

B) hemadsorption

C) precipitation reaction

D) complement fixation test

E) enzyme immunoassay

336. Tinea affects:

A) the epidermis of the skin, nails, hair

B) hairs, internal organs, muscles

C) the skin, subcutaneous tissue, fascia

D) fascia, muscle, horny layer of the epidermis

E) subcutaneous tissue, muscles, nails

337. The main clinical manifestations of respiratory-syncytial infection include:

A) rhinitis and runny nose

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B) meningoencephalitis

C) bronchiolitis and pneumonia

D) false croup and laryngitis

E) pleuritis

338. Is correct for nosocomial infections:

A) mainly are caused by pathogenic fungi

B) mainly are caused by pathogenic protozoa

C) mainly are caused by opportunistic pathogens

D) mainly are caused by pathogenic anaerobes

E) mainly are caused by pathogenic viruses

339. What changes can occur in reovirus under the action of antiviral drugs:

A) denaturation of the sigma-1 protein

B) a thickening of external capsid

C) loss of μ-1 protein

D) loss of external capsid

E) association of the genome segments

340. Early reproduction of mumps virus occurs in:

A) lower respiratory tract

B) alveolus of lung

C) upper respiratory tract

D) central nervous system

E) gastrointestinal system

341. Cause the invasion of Entamoeba histolytica in the intestinal epithelium:

A) pseudopods

B) proteolytic enzymes of amoebae

C) quadrinuclear amoebae cysts

D) precystic form of amoebae

E) uninuclear amoebae cysts

342. For prevention of mumps is used:

A) toxoid

B) immune serum

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C) recombinant vaccine

D) antitoxic serum

E) live vaccine

343. Bordetella pertussis is cultivated on:

A) coal-casein agar

B) alkaline peptone medium

C) meat-peptone agar

D) Endo medium

E) Sabouraud medium


A) measles virus

B) influenza virus

C) rubella virus

D) Epstein-Barr virus

E) poliovirus

345. Is correct for Corynebacterium diphtheriae exotoxin:

A) forms the pores in sytoplasmic membrane of cells

B) causes polyclonal stimulation of T-helpers

C) inactivates the elongation factor EF-2 in ribosome

D) activates the adenyle cyclase inside the cells

E) causes

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