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  • 8/19/2019 2012 Paper Ssc Cgl

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    GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING

    DIRECTIONS (Qs. 1 - 9) : Select the related letter / word / 

    number from the given alternatives.

    1. Length : Metre :: Power : ?

    (a) Calories (b) Degree

    (c) Watt (d) Kilogram

    2. Square : Cube :: Circle : ?

    (a) Ellipse (b) Parabola(c) Cone (d) Sphere

    3. Paper : Tree :: Glass : ?

    (a) Window (b) Sand

    (c) Stone (d) Mirror  

    4. ACFJ : ZXUQ :: EGIN : ?

    (a) VUSQ (b) VRPM

    (c) UTRP (d) VTRM

    5. ACEG : DFHJ :: QSUW : ?

    (a) TVXZ (b) TQST

    (c) MNPR (d) EGIJ

    6. EGIK : FILO :: FHJL : ?

    (a) JGMP (b) JGPM

    (c) GJPM (d) GJMP7. 10 : 91 :: 9 : ?

    (a) 69 (b) 72

    (c) 89 (d) 97

    8. 7 : 56 :: 9 : ?

    (a) 63 (b) 81

    (c) 90 (d) 99

    9. 20 : 50 :: 100 : ?

    (a) 150 (b) 250

    (c) 200 (d) 156

    DIRECTIONS (Qs. 10 - 18) : Find the odd number / letters / 

    number pair from the given alternatives.

    10. (a) Pathology (b) Geology(c) Cardiology (d) Radiology

    11. (a) Rivulet (b) Stream

    (c) River (d) Pond

    12. (a) Konark (b) Madurai

    (c) Dilwara (d) Ellora

    13. (a) RTW (b) QOM

    (c) IKG (d) IKM

    14. (a) EFH (b) OPQ

    (c) BCE (d) IJL

    15. (a) DH (b) FJ

    (c) HK (d) PR  

    16. (a) 24 (b) 49

    (c) 80 (d) 15

    17. (a) 121 (b) 324

    (c) 523 (d) 729

    18. (a) 704, 11 (b) 256, 4

    (c) 832, 13 (d) 310, 5

    19. Arrange the following words in their ascending order, as in

    a dictionary:

    1. Pick 2. Pith

    3. Pile 4. Perk  

    5. Pour  

    (a) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5 (b) 4, 1, 3, 2, 5

    (c) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5 (d) 5, 4, 3, 2, 1

    20. Arrange the following words in their ascending order:

    1. Millenium

    2. Diamond Jubilee

    3. Silver Jubilee

    4. Centenary

    5. Golden Jubilee

    (a) 2, 3, 5, 4, 1 (b) 2, 5, 3, 1, 4

    (c) 3, 5, 2, 4, 1 (d) 2, 3, 5, 1, 4

    21. Arrange the following words in their descending order:

    1. Weekly 2. Bi-annual

    3. Fortnightly 4. Monthly

    5. Annual

    (a) 1, 3, 4, 2, 5 (b) 2, 5, 4, 1, 3

    (c) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5 (d) 5, 2, 4, 3, 1

    22. Which one set of letters when sequentially placed at the

    gaps in the given letter series shall complete it?

    a _ cbc _ ca _ ab _ bca _ ab

    (a) b a b c c (b) b c a b b

    (c) a b c b c (d) b c a b cDIRECTIONS (Qs. 23 -27) : In the following questions a series

    is given, with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative

     from the given ones that will complete the series.

    23. BCFG, JKNO, RSVW, ?

    (a) ZADE (b) HIKL

    (c) STUX (d) MNPQ

    24. CIM, HNR, MSW, ?

    (a) SXA (b) UYB

    (c) RXB (d) ZEH

    SSCCombined Graduate Level (Tier-I)Exam-2012

    Held on 08-07-2012

    Time : 2 Hours Max. Marks : 200

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    2012 - 2 Combined Graduate Level Exam

    25. 2, 3, 6, 7, 14, 15, ?

    (a) 16 (b) 30(c) 31 (d) 32

    26. 3120, ? , 122, 23, 4

    (a) 488 (b) 621(c) 610 (d) 732

    27. 0, 5, 60, 615,?(a) 6030 (b) 6170(c) 6130 (d) 6000

    28. Nithya is Sam’s Sister. Mogan is Sam’s Father. Selvan isRajan’s Son. Rajan is Mogan’s Brother. How is Nithyarelated to Selvan?

    (a) Daughter (b) Sister  (c) Cousin (d) Wife

    29. A boy’s age is one fourth of his father’s age. The sum of the

     boy’s age and his father’s age is 35. What will be father’sage after 8 years?

    (a) 15 (b) 28(c) 35 (d) 36

    30. A man said to a lady “Your mother’s husband’s sister is myaunt”. How is the lady related to man?(a) Sister (b) Mother  

    (c) Daughter (d) Granddaughter  

    31. If South East becomes North, then what will South West become?

    (a) North (b) West(c) East (d) North West

    DIRECTION (Q. 32) : From the given alternatives select theword which cannot be formed using the letters of the given word.32. CONTENTION

    (a) TONIC (b) NOTE

    (c) NATION (d) NOTION33. In a certain code language, GRAPE is written as 27354 and

    FOUR is written as 1687. How is GROUP written in thatcode?(a) 27384 (b) 27684

    (c) 27685 (d) 2765834. WAYIN is written as TXVFX. How LBUK can be writtenin that code?

    (a) IYRH (b) KATJ(c) JZSI (d) NDWM

    35. In a certain code language, if the word PARTNER is codedas OZQSMDQ, then what is the code for the wordSEGMENT?

    (a) TFHNFOU (b) RDFLDMS(c) RDELDMS (d) RDFEDNS

    36. If DOCTOR is written as FQEVQT; how PATIENT can be

    written in that code?(a) RVKGPV (b) RCKPGVV

    (c) RCVKGPV (d) RVCKGVP

    DIRECTIONS (Qs. 37 & 38) :  Find the missing number.

    37. 21 24 36

    11 14 12

    3 ? 4

    77 112 108

    (a) 2 (b) 4

    (c) 3 (d) 5

    38. 12 16 18

    16 16 20

    5 7 ?

    197 263 356

    (a) 9 (b) – 4

    (c) 4 (d) – 8

    39. If + means ¸ , – means ×, × means +, ¸ means –, then90 + 18 – 6 × 30 ¸ 4 = ?(a) 64 (b) 65

    (c) 56 (d) 48

    40. If 73 + 46 = 42 and 95 + 87 = 57, then 62 + 80 = ?

    (a) 32 (b) 48

    (c) 64 (d) 36

    41. Based on the given data, estimate the number of ‘Television-

     buyers’ for the year 1990.

    1982 1984 1986 1988 1990

     447 458 489 540 ?

    (a) 611 (b) 591

    (c) 571 (d) 601

    42. A man coming out of the backdoor of his house which is

    facing East, walked for one kilometre, turned to his right

    and walked for another kilometre. Then he turned to his

    right and walked a kilometre again. Where was he from his

    house at the end?

    (a) 1 km away in north

    (b) 1 km away in south

    (c) 1 km away in east

    (d) 1 km away in west

    43. Two squads of soldiers A and B, facing East and West

    respectively received the following commands - Left Turn,

    About Turn, Right Turn, Left Turn. Which directions would

    the squads A and B face at the end?

    (a) East, West (b) West, East

    (c) North, South (d) South, North

    DIRECTIONS (Qs. 44 & 45) : In the following questions two

     statements are given, followed by two conclusions I and II. You

    have to consider the statements to be true even if they seem to be

    at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which

    of the given conclusions, if any, follow from the given statements.

    44. Statements :

    (1) Due to contamination of water, large number of people

    were admitted to hospital.

    (2) The symptoms were of Typhoid.

    Conclusions : I. Contamination of water may lead to

    Typhoid.

    II. Typhoid is a contagious disease.

    (a) Only conclusion I is true

    (b) Only conclusion II is true

    (c) Both conclusions I and II are true

    (d) Both conclusions I and II are false

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    CGL (Tier-I) 2012 Solved Paper 2012 - 3

    45. Statements :

    (1) 60% of the government employees went on strike.

    (2) Mr. Gopal is a government employee.

    Conclusions : I. Mr. Gopal went on strike.

    II. Mr. Gopal did not participate in the

    strike.

    (a) Only conclusion I follows

    (b) Only conclusion II follows

    (c) Both conclusions I and II follow(d) Either conclusion I and II follows

    DIRECTION (Q. 46) :  In the following question which answer 

     figure will complete the question figure?

    46. Question figure

    Answer Figure

    (a) (b) (c) (d)

    47. From the given answer figures, select the one in which the

    question figure is hidden / embedded.

    Question figure

    Answer figures

    (a) (b) (c) (d)

    DIRECTION (Q.48) : In the following question a piece of paper 

    is folded and punched as shown below in the question figure.

     From the given answer figures, indicate how it will appear when

    opened?

    48. Question figure

    Answer figures

    (a) (b) (c) (d)

    DIRECTION (Q. 49) : In the following question if a mirror is

     placed on the line MN, then which of the answer figures is the

    right image of the given figure?

    49. Question figure

    M

     NAnswer figures

    (a) (b) (c) (d)

    DIRECTION (Q. 50) : In the following question a word is

    represented by only one set of numbers as given in any one of the

    alternatives. The sets of numbers given in the alternatives are

    represented by two classes of alphabets as in two matrices given

    below. The columns and rows of Matrix I are numbered from

    0 to 4 and that of Matrix II are numbered from 5 to 9. A letter from these matrices can be represented first by its row and next

    by its column, e.g., ‘R’ can be represented by 13, 22, etc. and ‘P

    can be represented by 67, 76 etc. Similarly, you have to identify

    the set for the word SHRI.

    50.   Matrix I Matrix II

    0 1 2 3 4

    0 R H E L I

    1 I E L R H

    2 H L R I E

    3 E R I H L

    4 L I H E R  

     

    5 6 7 8 9

    5 B S N A D

    6 D N B S A

    7 A B D N S

    8 S D A B N

    9 N A S D B

    (a) 58, 02, 13, 01 (b) 85, 42, 31, 14

    (c) 68, 20, 13, 32 (d) 85, 02, 44, 30

    GENERAL AWARENESS

    51. Which one of the following is an example for a non-

    economic good?

    (a) Doctor’s service (b) Teacher’s service

    (c) Mother’s service (d) Banker’s service

    52. Which one of the following committee is associated with

     banking sector reforms in India?

    (a) L. C. Gupta (b) Narsimhan

    (c) Chakravarty (d) Kelkar  

    53. Which one of the following is not a qualitative credit control

    measure of the RBI?

    (a) Fixing margin requirements

    (b) Variable interest rates

    (c) Open market operations

    (d) Credit rationing

    54. The 13th Five Year Plan will be operative for the period.

    (a) 2010 - 2015 (b) 2011- 2016

    (c) 2012 - 2017 (d) 2013 - 2018

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    2012 - 4 Combined Graduate Level Exam

    55. The national income of a nation is the

    (a) Government’s annual revenue

    (b) Sum total of factor incomes

    (c) Surplus of public sector enterprises

    (d) Exports minus imports

    56. The Constitutional Amendment Act that has introduced

    safeguards against the misuse of proclamation of national

    emergency is the

    (a) 42nd Amendment Act (b) 43rd Amendment Act(c) 44th Amendment Act (d) 45th Amendment Act

    57. The Fundamental Rights can be suspended by the

    (a) Governor (b) President

    (c) Law Minister (d) Prime Minister  

    58. The main reason for the growth of communalism in India is

    (a) Educational and economic backwardness of minority

    groups

    (b) Political consciousness

    (c) Social inequalities

    (d) Imposing ban on communal organisations

    59. A Retired Judge of a High Court is not permitted to practice

    as a lawyer in(a) Supreme Court

    (b) Any Court in India

    (c) High Courts

    (d) Except the High Court where he retired

    60. Which one of the following does not match?

    (a) Hindu Marriage Act : 1955

    (b) Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act : 1971

    (c) Domestic Violence on women Act : 1990

    (d) Cruelty against Women : 1995

    61. Who among the following was the First Viceroy of India?

    (a) Lord Ripon (b) Lord Curzon

    (c) Lord Mountbatten (d) Lord Canning62. Prithvi Raj Chauhan was defeated in the Second Battle of 

    Tarain by

    (a) Mahmud Ghazni (b) Muhammad Ghori

    (c) Qutbuddin Aibak (d) Yalduz

    63. The original name of Nana Phadnavis was

    (a) Mahadaji Sindhia (b) Tukoji Holkar  

    (c) Narayan Rao (d) Balaji Janardan Bhanu

    64. Who among the following first propounded the idea of Basic

    Education?

    (a) Jawahar Lal Nehru (b) Raja Ram Mohan Roy

    (c) Mahatma Gandhi (d) Dayanand Saraswati

    65. Arrange the following in chronological order:

    I. Dandi March II. Simon Commission

    III. Poona Pact IV. Gandhi Irwin Pact

    (a) II, I, III, IV (b) II, I, IV, III

    (c) IV, III, I, II (d) IV, III, II, I

    66. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

    (a) Darjeeling - West Bengal

    (b) Mount Abu - Rajasthan

    (c) Kodaikanal - Tamil Nadu

    (d) Simla - Uttar Pradesh

    67. The earth is at its maximum distance from the Sun on

    (a) January 30th (b) December 22nd

    (c) September 22nd (d) July 4th

    68. Consider the following pairs:

    Tributary Main River

    1. Chambal : Yamuna

    2. Sone : Narmada

    3. Manas : Brahmputra

    Which one of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

    (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only

    69. A form of condensation that reduces visibility and causes

     breathing problems is

    (a) Dew (b) Frost

    (c) Smog (d) Mist

    70. The total population divided by available arable land area

    is referred to as

    (a) Population density

    (b) Nutritional density

    (c) Agricultural density

    (d) Industrial density

    71. Green glands are associated with

    (a) Reproduction (b) Excretion(c) Respiration (d) Digestion

    72. During respiration, the gases enter into the blood and leave

    the same by the process of 

    (a) Active transport

    (b) Diffusion

    (c) Diffusion and active transport

    (d) Osmosis

    73. Heart is devoid of 

    (a) Cardiac muscle (b) Involuntary muscle

    (c) Voluntary muscle (d) Smooth muscle

    74. The soil salinity is measured by

    (a) Conductivity meter (b) Hygrometer  

    (c) Psychrometer (d) Auxanometer  

    75. Which of the following is a fungal disease?

    (a) Leucoderma (b) Eczema

    (c) Ringworm (d) Elephantiasis

    76. Chickenpox is caused by

    (a) DNA virus (b) Variola virus

    (c) Streptococcus (d) Vibrio cholerae

    77. Instruments can be shielded from outside magnetic effects

     by surrounding them with

    (a) Iron shield (b) Rubber shield

    (c) Brass shield (d) Glass shield

    78. Find the odd one.

    (a) Marble (b) Chalk  

    (c) Limestone (d) Slaked lime

    79. The following is a pseudo-force:

    (a) Centrepetal force

    (b) Centrifugal reaction force

    (c) Centrifugal force

    (d) Strong nuclear force

    80. The hydraulic brake used in automobiles is a direct

    application of 

    (a) Archimedes’ principle (b) Torricellean law

    (c) Bernoulli’s Theorem (d) Pascal’s law

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    81. Of the following, which is the fastest?

    (a) CD-ROM (b) RAM

    (c) Registers (d) Cache

    82. An alternate name for the completely interconnected

    network topology is

    (a) Mesh (b) Star  

    (c) Tree (d) Ring

    83. Amides can be converted to amines by the reaction named

    (a) Perkin (b) Claisen(c) Hoffman (d) Clemmesen

    84. The base used as an antacid is

    (a) Calcium hydroxide (b) Barium hydroxide

    (c) Magnesium hydroxide (d) Silver hydroxide

    85. A process which is not helpful in the prevention of rusting

    of iron is

    (a) annealing (b) applying grease

    (c) galvanising (d) painting

    86. Denatured alcohol

    (a) is a form of alcohol

    (b) is unfit for drinking as it contains poisonous substances

    (c) contains coloured impurities

    (d) is sweet to taste

    87. Phenolics as pollutants can be removed from waste water 

     by use of 

    (a) Ion exchange resin technique

    (b) Electrolyte decomposition technique

    (c) Reverse osmosis method

    (d) Polymeric adsorbents

    88. The stability of a pond ecosystem depends on

    (a) micro-organisms and fishes

    (b) micro-organisms and zoo planktons

    (c) fishes and reptiles(d) producers and consumers

    89. Supersonic air planes create a shock wave called

    (a) Transition wave (b) Ultrasound

    (c) Transverse wave (d) Sonic boom

    90. The main factor which determines the balance of nature is

    (a) human activities (b) Rabit and habitat

    (c) environmental conditions (d) availability of food

    91. The danger signals are red while the eye is more sensitive

    to yellow because

    (a) absorption in red is less than yellow and hence red is

    visible from a distance

    (b) scattering in yellow light is less than red(c) the wavelength of red light is more than yellow light

    (d) none of the above reasons

    92. One of the following Chief Ministers received the Highest

    Civilian Award “Bharat Ratna”

    (a) Lalu Prasad Yadav of Bihar 

    (b) Late M. G. Ramachandran of Tamilnadu

    (c) Jyothi Basu of West Bengal

    (d) Late N. T. Rama Rao of Andhra Pradesh

    93. The first ‘disabled athelete’ to qualify for an able bodied

    event in the 2012 London Olympics in 400 metres race is

    (a) Oscar Pistorius

    (b) Walter Rallis

    (c) Raymond Irchovich

    (d) Gerald Hangovin

    94. Which one of the following film-actors has been conferred

    the Honorary Doctorate in Arts and Culture by the Bedford

    University, London?

    (a) Shahrukh Khan (b) Amir Khan

    (c) Saif Ali Khan (d) Anil Kapoor  

    95. The city of Prayag was named Allahabad - the city of Allah

     by

    (a) Aurangzeb (b) Akbar  

    (c) Shahjahan (d) Bahadur Shah Zafar  

    96. Spot the odd one from the following:

    (a) Tsunami (b) Earthquakes

    (c) Windmills (d) Cyclones

    97. Who among the following has won the Pantaloon’s Femina

    Miss India World, 2012 Award?

    (a) Prachi Mishra (b) Vanya Mishra

    (c) Rochella Maria (d) Sandhya Agarwal98. Which one of the following statements is not correct about

    India’s population as per the 2011 census?

    (a) Literacy rate has gone up to 74% from 65%

    (b) Kerala has the highest literacy rate

    (c) Bihar has the lowest literacy rate

    (d) Men outnumber women in growth of literates

    99. Who advocated the adoption of ‘PURA’ model to eradicate

    rural poverty?

    (a) Dr. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam

    (b) Sri Abhijit Sen

    (c) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad

    (d) Prof. A. M. Patha

    100. Which one of the following though called a garden is infact,

    not a garden?

    (a) Vrindavan Garden of Mysore

    (b) Hanging Garden of Mumbai

    (c) Eden Garden of Kolkata

    (d) Shalimar Garden of Kashmir 

    QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

    101. What would be the sum of 

    1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + 11 + 13 + 15 + ....... up to 15th term?

    (a) 250 (b) 240

    (c) 225 (d) 265102. The least number which when divided by 48, 64, 90, 120

    will leave the remainders 38, 54, 80, 110 respectively, is

    (a) 2870 (b) 2860

    (c) 2890 (d) 2880

    103.  A,  B, C   subscribe together  `   50,000 for a business.  A

    subscribes  `  4,000 more than B and B  `  5,000 more than C .

    Out of a total profit of  `  35,000, A receives

    (a)   `  8,500 (b)   `  11,998

    (c)   `  12,600 (d)   `  14,700

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    2012 - 6 Combined Graduate Level Exam

    104. If 13 + 23 + ....... + 93 = 2025, then the approx. value of 

    (0.11)3 + (0.22)3 + ....... + (0.99)3 is

    (a) 0.2695 (b) 0.3695

    (c) 2.695 (d) 3.695

    105. With a two digit prime number, if 18 is added, we get another 

     prime number with digits reversed. How many such numbers

    are possible?

    (a) 2 (b) 3

    (c) 0 (d) 1106.  X   and Y   can do a piece of work in 30 days. They work 

    together for 6 days and then X  quits and Y finishes the work 

    in 32 more days. In how many days can Y  do the piece of 

    work alone?

    (a) 30 days (b) 32 days

    (c) 34 days (d) 40 days

    107. A metal pipe of negligible thickness has radius 21 cm and

    length 90 cm. The outer curved surface area of the pipe in

    square cm is

    (a) 11880 (b) 11680

    (c) 11480 (d) 10080

    108. A businessman allows a discount of 10% on the written price.

    How much above the cost price must he mark his goods to

    make a profit of 17%?

    (a) 30% (b) 20%

    (c) 27% (d) 18%

    109. 465 coins consists of 1 rupee, 50 paise and 25 paise coins.

    Their values are in the ratio 5: 3 : 1. The number of each

    type of coins respectively is

    (a) 155, 186, 124 (b) 154, 187, 124

    (c) 154, 185, 126 (d) 150, 140, 175

    110. A batsman makes a score of 58 runs in the 15th innings and

    thus increases his average by 3 runs. What is the average

    after 15th inning?

    (a) 12 (b) 14(c) 16 (d) 18

    111. The average of 5 consecutive numbers is n. If the next two

    numbers are also included, the average of the 7 numbers

    will

    (a) increase by 2 (b) increase by 1

    (c) remain the same (d) increase by 1.4

    112. A man sold an article at a loss of 20%. If he sells the article

    for  `  12 more, he would have gained 10%. The cost price of 

    the article is

    (a)   `  60 (b)   `  40

    (c)   `  30 (d)   `  22

    113. A trader has a weighing balance that shows 1,200 gm for akilogram. He further marks up his cost price by 10%. Then

    the net profit percentage is

    (a) 32% (b) 23%

    (c) 31.75% (d) 23.5%

    114. A car covers four successive 6 km stretches at speeds of 

    25 kmph, 50 kmph, 75 kmph and 150 kmph respectively.

    Its average speed over this distance is

    (a) 25 kmph (b) 50 kmph

    (c) 75 kmph (d) 150 kmph

    115. The difference between C. I. (Compound Interest) and S.I.

    (Simple Interest) on a sum of  `  4,000 for 2 years at 5% p.a.

     payable yearly is

    (a)   `  20 (b)   `  10

    (c)   `  50 (d)   `  60

    116. If4

    =+ab

     xa b

    , then the value of 

    2 2

    2 2

    + ++- -

     x a x b

     x a x b  is

    (a) a (b) b

    (c) 0 (d) 2

    117. If x = 997, y = 998, z  = 999, then the value of x2 + y2 + z 2

     – xy – yz  – zx will be

    (a) 3 (b) 9

    (c) 16 (d) 4

    118. The area (in sq. unit) of the triangle formed by the three

    graphs of the equations x = 4, y = 3, and 3 x + 4 y = 12, is

    (a) 12 (b) 10

    (c) 6 (d) 8

    119. If a + b + c = 8, then the value of 

    (a – 4)3 + (b – 3)3 + (c – 1)3 – 3 (a – 4) (b – 3) (c – 1) is(a) 2 (b) 4

    (c) 1 (d) 0

    120. If1

    = + x aa

    ,1

    = - y aa

    , then the value of

     x4 + y4 – 2 x2 y2 is

    (a) 16 (b) 20

    (c) 10 (d) 5

    121. If1

    5 53

    + =aa

    , then the value of 22

    19

    25+a

    a is

    (a)51

    5 (b)29

    5

    (c)52

    5(d)

    39

    5

    122. If 3 2 2= + x , then the value of 1- x x

     is

    (a) 2 2± (b) 2±

    (c) 2± (d)1

    123. If 0+ + =a b c , the value of 

    2 2 2æ öç ÷+ +ç ÷è ø

    a b c

    bc ca ab  is

    (a) 2 (b) 3

    (c) 4 (d) 5

    124. If a, b, c are real and a3 + b3 + c3 = 3abc and 0+ + ¹a b c ,

    then the relation between a, b, c will be

    (a) a + b = c (b) a + c = b

    (c) a = b = c (d) b + c = a

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    125. The radius of the circumcircle of the triangle made by x-

    axis, y-axis and 4 x + 3 y = 12 is

    (a) 2 unit (b) 2.5 unit

    (c) 3 unit (d) 4 unit

    126. The length of the circum-radius of a triangle having sides

    of lengths 12 cm, 16 cm and 20 cm is

    (a) 15 cm (b) 10 cm

    (c) 18 cm (d) 16 cm

    127. If D is the mid-point of the side BC of D  ABC and the areaof D  ABD is 16 cm2, then the area of D ABC  is(a) 16 cm2 (b) 24 cm2

    (c) 32 cm2 (d) 48 cm2

    128.  ABC is a triangle. The medians CD and BE intersect each

    other at O. Then D ODE : D  ABC  is(a) 1 : 3 (b) 1 : 4

    (c) 1 : 6 (d) 1 : 12

    129. If P, R, T are the area of a parallelogram, a rhombus and a

    triangle standing on the same base and between the same

     parallels, which of the following is true?

    (a)  R  R > T 

    (c)  R = P  = T  (d)  R = P  = 2T 

    130.  AB is a diameter of the circumcircle of D  APB; N is the footof the perpendicular drawn from the point  P on  AB. If  AP = 8 cm and BP = 6 cm, then the length of BN is

    (a) 3.6 cm (b) 3 cm

    (c) 3.4 cm (d) 3.5 cm

    131. Two circles with same radius r intersect each other and one

     passes through the centre of the other. Then the length of 

    the common chord is

    (a) r  (b) 3r 

    (c)3

    2r  (d) 5r 

    132. The bisector of РA  of D ABC cuts  BC at  D  and thecircumcircle of the triangle at E. Then

    (a)  AB : AC = BD : DC 

    (b)  AD : AC = AE : AB

    (c)  AB : AD = AC : AE 

    (d)  AB : AD = AE : AC 

    133. Two circles intersect each other at P and Q. PA and PB are

    two diameters. Then РAQB is(a) 120° (b) 135°

    (c) 160° (d) 180°

    134. O is the centre of the circle passing through the points A, B

    and C  such that РBAO = 30°, РBCO = 40° and РAOC  =x°. What is the value of x ?

    (a) 70° (b) 140°

    (c) 210° (d) 280°

    135.  A and B are centres of the two circles whose radii are 5 cm

    and 2 cm respectively. The direct common tangents to the

    circles meet AB extended at P. Then P divides AB.

    (a) externally in the ratio 5 : 2

    (b) internally in the ratio 2 : 5

    (c) internally in the ratio 5 : 2

    (d) externally in the ratio 7 : 2

    136. A wheel rotates 3.5 times in one second. What time (in

    seconds) does the wheel take to rotate 55 radian of angle?

    (a) 1.5 (b) 2.5

    (c) 3.5 (d) 4.5

    137. If 2 y cosq =  x sinq and 2 x secq –  y cosecq = 3, then therelation between x and y is

    (a) 2 x2 + y2 = 2 (b)  x2 + 4 y2 = 4

    (c)  x2 + 4 y2 = 1 (d) 4 x2 + y2 = 4

    138. If sec tan 3q + q = , then the positive value of sinq is

    (a) 0 (b)1

    2

    (c)3

    2(d) 1

    139. The radian measure of 63 14 51¢ ¢¢°  is

    (a)2811

    8000

    pæ öç ÷è ø

    c

    (b)3811

    8000

    pæ öç ÷è ø

    c

    (c)4811

    8000

    pæ öç ÷è ø

    c

    (d)5811

    8000

    pæ öç ÷è ø

    c

    140. In a triangle ABC , AB = AC , BA is produced to D in such a

    manner that AC = AD. The circular measure of ÐBCD is

    (a)6p (b)

    3p

    (c)2

    3

    p(d)

    2

    p

    141. If4 4

    2 2

    cos sin1

    cos sin

    a a+ =

    b b, then the value of

    4 4

    2 2

    cos sin

    cos sin

    b b+

    a a

    is

    (a) 4 (b) 0

    (c)1

    8

    (d) 1

    142.sin cos 1

    sin cos 1

    q - q +q + q -

    where2

    pæ öq ¹ç ÷è ø

    is equal to

    (a)1 sin

    cos

    + qq

    (b)1 sin

    cos

    - qq

    (c)1 cos

    sin

    - qq

    (d)1 cos

    sin

    + qq

    143. The angles of elevation of the top of a tower standing on a

    horizontal plane from two points on a line passing through

    the foot of the tower at a distance 9 ft and 16 ft respectively

    are complementary angles. Then the height of the tower is(a) 9 ft (b) 12 ft

    (c) 16 ft (d) 144 ft

    144. If sin2a = cos3a, then the value of (cot6a – cot2a) is(a) 1 (b) 0

    (c) – 1 (d) 2

    145. The simplified value of 

    (1 + tanq + secq) (1 + cotq – cosecq) is(a) – 2 (b) 2

    (c) 1 (d) – 1

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    DIRECTIONS (Qs. 146-150) : The following pie-chart 

    represents the profits earned by a certain company in seven

    consecutive years. Study the pie-chart carefully and answer the

    question.

    Years

    1991

    1992

    19931994

    1995

    1996

    1997

    42°

    24°

    60°

    54° 72°

    66°

    146. If the expenditure in the year 1993 was 30% more than the

    expenditure in the year 1991, then the income in the year 

    1993 exceeds the income in the year 1991 by 30% of 

    (a) the income in the year 1991

    (b) the expenditure in the year 1993

    (c) the income in the year 1993

    (d) the expenditure in the year 1991147. If x% of the total of profits earned in all the given years is

    same as the profit earned in the year 1994, then x is

    (a)2

    163

    (b)1

    333

    (c)1

    122

    (d)2

    113

    148. The ratios of expenditures and incomes in the years 1992,

    1994 and 1996 are given to be 6 : 5 : 8 and 2 : 3 : 4

    respectively. The ratio of the income in the year 1996 to the

    total expenditure in the years 1992 and 1994 is

    (a) 40 : 11 (b) 10 : 7

    (c) 20 : 11 (d) 20 : 13

    149. The year in which the profit is nearest to the average of the

     profits earned in all the given years is

    (a) 1991 (b) 1995

    (c) 1993 (d) 1994

    150. If the income in the year 1997 was 5 times the expenditure

    made in the same year, then the ratio of the profit earned in

    the year 1991 to the expenditure in the year 1997 was

    (a) 11 : 28 (b) 44 : 7

    (c) 28 : 11 (d) 7 : 44

    ENGLISH COMPREHENSION

    DIRECTIONS (Qs. 151 - 155) :  In the following questions some

     parts of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and blacken the rectangle

    [ ] corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If there is

    no error, blacken the rectangle [ ]corresponding to (D) in the

     Answer-Sheet.

    151.Air pollution, together with littering ,

    A

    are causing many problems

    B

    in our cities.

    C

    o error.

    D

    152.The accused refused

    to answer to the policeman

    B

    on duty.

    C

    o error.

    D

    153.What is

    the use of me

    attending the session?

    C

    o error.

    D

    154.We met our prospective employer,

    A

    for a briefing session

    B in the Taj Hotel.

    C

    o error.

    D

    155.Because of the severe snow storm and the road blocks,

    A

    the air force dropped food and

    B

    medical supplies close to the city.

    C

    o error.

    D

    DIRECTIONS (Qs.156 - 160) :  In the following questions sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriateword(s). Four alternatives are suggested for each question.

    Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by

    blackening the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the Answer-Sheet.

    156. ______________ pollution control measures are expensive,

    many industries hesitate to adopt them.(a) Although (b) However  

    (c) Because (d) Despite

    157. It is not ______________ for a man to be confined to the

     pursuit of wealth.

    (a) healthy (b) easy

    (c) possible (d) common

    158. ______________ his being innocent of the crime, the judge

    sentenced him to one year imprisonment.(a) Inspite of (b) In case of  

    (c) On account of (d) In the event of  

    159. It is a story of two men and a batch of ______________

    armoured cars.(a) deceased (b) diseased

    (c) decrepit (d) defeated

    160. Although there is ______________ gunfire, there is no stiff

    resistance to the revolutionary army.

    (a) bitter (b) meagre

    (c) continuous (d) sporadic

    DIRECTIONS (Qs. 161 - 165) :  In the following questions out

    of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the

    meaning of the given word and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.

    161. Vociferous

    (a) violent (b) loud

    (c) secret (d) true

    162. Fictional

    (a) genuine (b) authentic(c) fanciful (d) real

    163. Trivial

    (a) crucial (b) significant(c) vital (d) ordinary

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    164. Impudent

    (a) Vigilant (b) Astute

    (c) Insolent (d) Arrogant

    165. Pompous

    (a) Pretentious (b) Supportive

    (c) Demanding (d) Flashy

    DIRECTIONS (Qs. 166 - 170) :  In the following questions

    choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.

    166. Cultivated

    (a) Crude (b) Genteel

    (c) Suave (d) Refined

    167. Impertinent

    (a) Insolent (b) Impudent

    (c) Cheeky (d) Courteous

    168. Divulge

    (a) Disseminate (b) Dissemble

    (c) Publicize (d) Transmit

    169. Appreciation

    (a) Aspersion (b) Admiration

    (c) Commendation (d) Compliment

    170. Supple

    (a) Pliant (b) Pliable

    (c) Rigid (d) Flexible

    DIRECTIONS (Qs. 171 - 175) :  In the following questions four 

    alternatives are given for the idiom / phrase and bold italicised 

    in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the

    meaning of the idiom / phrase and mark it in the Answer-Sheet.

    171. Once the case reached the court, the police washed their 

    hands off it.(a) waited for a response to

    (b) claimed credit for 

    (c) disassociated themselves from

    (d) seemed eager to continue

    172. She wanted to go hitch-hiking but her mother put her foot 

    down and now she’s going by bus.

    (a) took a firm stand

    (b) expressed her displeasure

    (c) scolded her badly

    (d) got irritated

    173. Adolescence is a period of halcyon days.

    (a) hard days (b) of mental pressure

    (c) happy days (d) days of preparation

    174. My sincere advice to my maidservant fell on stony ground.

    (a) was counter productive (b) had a strong impact

    (c) made on stubborn (d) had little success

    175. He has all his ducks in a row; he is complacent.

    (a) has everything ready (b) is well organised

    (c) always scores a zero (d) never gets confused

    DIRECTIONS (Qs. 176 - 180) : In the following questions a

     part of the sentence is underlined. Below are given alternatives

    to the underlined part at (A), (B) and (C) which may improve the

     sentence. Choose the correct alternative. In case no improvement

    is needed your answer is (D). Mark your answer in the Answer-

    Sheet.

    176. You shall have attended if the court had instructed you to

    do so.

    (a) would have had to attend

    (b) would attend(c) would have to

    (d) No improvement

    177. The relics of Greece over which such a great deal of evidence

    has been collected should be preserved.

    (a) from which (b) on which

    (c) ascent which (d) No improvement

    178. When the beverage was ready, they drank possibly as much

    as they could.

    (a) as much as they possibly could

    (b) as much as possibly they could

    (c) as much as they could possibly

    (d) No improvement

    179. A citizen is expected to give allegiance to his country oforigin.

    (a) homage (b) loyalty

    (c) obedience (d) No improvement

    180. We were with daggers drawn despite attempts to understand

    each other.

    (a) in (b) on

    (c) at (d) No improvement

    DIRECTIONS (Qs. 181 - 185) : In the following questions out

    of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted

     for the given words / sentence.

    181. A round or cylindrical container used for storing things such

    as food, chemicals or rolls of film

    (a) tankard (b) canister  

    (c) vessel (d) casket

    182. A place of permanent residence

    (a) abode (b) dormitory

    (c) domicile (d) apartment

    183. That cannot be altered or withdrawn

    (a) irrevocable (b) irretrievable

    (c) irrefutable (d) irresistible

    184. Money paid to employees on retirement

    (a) gratuity (b) gift

    (c) pension (d) arrears

    185. A place where clothes are kept

    (a) closet (b) drawer  

    (c) wardrobe (d) cupboard

    DIRECTIONS (Qs. 186 - 190) : In the following questions four

    words are given in each question, out of which only one word is

    correctly spelt. Find the correctly spelt word and indicate it in

    the Answer-Sheet by blackening the appropriate rectangle [ ].

    186. (a) garulous (b) garrulous

    (c) garullous (d) garrullous

    187. (a) marquee (b) markue

    (c) marquei (d) marquie

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    188. (a) puissant (b) puiscant(c) puiscent (d) puissent

    189. (a) disconncerting (b) disconserting(c) discuncerting (d) disconcerting

    190. (a) exilarate (b) exhilerate(c) exsilarate (d) exhilarate

    DIRECTIONS(Qs. 191 - 200) : In the following questions youhave two brief passages with 5 question in each passage. Read the passages carefully and choose the best answer to each

    question out of the four alternatives and mark it by blackening the appropriate rectangle [ ] in the Answer-Sheet.

    PASSAGE - IStuck with the development dilemma? Stay away from

    management courses. Seriously, one of the biggest complaintsthat organisations have about management courses is that they

    fail to impact the participants’ on-the-job behaviour. Somemanagement trainers stress the need for follow-up andreinforcement on the job. Some go so far as briefing the participan ts’ managers on what behaviour they should bereinforcing back on the job. Other include a follow-up trainingday to review the progress of the participants. None of this isreally going far enough.

    The real problem is that course promoters view developmentas something which primarily, takes place in a classroom. A courseis an event and events are, by definition limited in time. Whenyou talk about follow-up after a course, it is seen as a nice idea, but not as an essential part of the participants’ development programme. Any rational, empowered individual should be ableto take what has been learnt in a course and transfer it to the work  place - or so the argument goes. Another negative aspect of thecourse mindset is that, primarily, development is thought to beabout skill-acquisition.

    So, it is felt that the distinction between taking the courseand behaving differently in the work place parallels the distinction between skill-acquisition and skill-application. But can such asharp distinction be maintained? Skills are really acquired only

    in the context of applying them on the job, finding them effectiveand, therefore, reinforcing them.The problem with courses is that they are events, while

    development is an on-going process which, involves, within acomplex environment, continual interaction, regular feedback andadjustment. As we tend to equate development with a one-off event, it is difficult to get seriously motivated about the follow-up. Anyone paying for a course tends to look at follow-up as anunnecessary and rather costly frill.191. What is the passage about?

    (a) personal management(b) development dilemma(c) management courses(d) course promotors’ attitude

    192. Which of the following statements is false?(a) Some management trainers stress the need for follow-

    up and reinforcement on the job(b) Some suggest a follow-up training day to review the

     progress of the participants(c) Some go to the extent of briefing the participants’

    managers on what behaviour they should be reinforcing back on the job

    (d) The real problem is that course promoters viewdevelopment as something which does not take placeduring a course.

    193. The writer’s attitude, as reflected in the passage, is(a) critical (b) ironic(c) sympathetic (d) philosophical

    194. The course promoters’ attitude is(a) self-righteous (b) indifferent(c) easy-going (d) unprogressive

    195. The word ‘mindset’ here means(a) a determined mind(b) a (fixed) attitude of mind(c) an open mind(d) mindful

    PASSAGE -IIOne may look at life, events, society, history, in another way.

    A way which might, at a stretch, be described as the Gandhian way,though it may be from times before Mahatma Gandhi came on thescene. The Gandhian reaction to all grim poverty, squalor anddegradation of the human being would approximate to effort atself-change and self-improvement, to a regime of living regulated by discipline from within. To change society, the individual mustfirst change himself. In this way of looking at life and society, wordstoo begin to mean differently. Revolution, for instance, is a termfrequently used, but not always in the sense it has been in the lexiconof the militant. So also with words like peace and struggle. Evensociety may mean differently, being some kind of organic entity for

    the militant, and more or less a sum of individuals for the Gandhian.There is yet another way, which might, for want of a betterdescription, be called the mystic. The mystic’s perspective measuresthese concerns that transcend political ambition and the dynamismof the reformer, whether he be militant or Gandhian. The mysticmeasures the terror of not knowing the remorseless march of time;he seeks to know what was before birth, what comes after death?The continuous presence of death, of the consciousness of death,sets his priorities and values: militants and Gandhians, kings and prophets, must leave all that they have built; all that they have unbuiltand depart when messengers of the buffalo-riding Yama come outof the shadows. Water will to water, dust to dust. Think ofimpermanence. Everything passes.196. The Gandhian reaction of poverty is

    (a) a total war on poverty(b) self-discipline(c) self-abnegation(d) a regulated distribution of wealth

    197. According to Gandianism, the individual who wants tochange society(a) should destroy the existing society(b) must re-form society(c) must change himself (d) may change society without changing himself 

    198. Who, according to the passage, finds new meaning for wordslike revolutions, peace and struggle?(a) A Gandhian who believes in non-violent revolution(b) A militant

    (c) A mystic(d) A Gandhian who disciplines himself from within199. The expression ‘water will to water, dust to dust’ means

    (a) water and dust can mix well(b) man will become water after death(c) man will one day die and become dust(d) man will become dust and water after death

    200. What does society mean to a Gandhian?(a) a sum of individuals(b) an organic entity(c) a regime of living regulated by discipline from within(d) a disciplined social community

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    Hints Explanations

    GENERAL INTELLIGENCE & REASONING

    1. (c) Metre is a unit of length likewise watt is a unit of 

     power.

    2. (d) As cube is 3-D of square. Similarly sphere is 3-D of 

    circle.

    3. (b) As paper is product of Tree. Similarly glass is a

     product of sand.

    4. (d) As, A C F J

    Z X U Q

    ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯ similarly, E G I N

    V T R M

    ¯ ¯ ¯ ¯

    5. (a) As, Similarly

    3A D

    + ¾¾®

    3Q T

    + ¾¾®

    3C F

    + ¾¾®

    3S V

    + ¾¾®

    3E H

    + ¾¾® 3U X+ ¾¾®

    3G J

    + ¾® 3W Z+ ¾¾®

    6. (d) As, Similarly

    1E F

    + ¾¾® 1F G+ ¾¾®

    2G I

    + ¾®

    2H J

    + ¾¾®

    3I L

    + ¾®

    3J M

    + ¾¾®

    4K O

    + ¾¾® 4L P+ ¾¾®

    7. (b) The relationship is x : (x2 – 9).

    8. (c) The relationship is x : x (x + 1)

    10. (b) As all terms given in question are medical terms except

    geology.

    12. (d) All except Ellora are famous for temples, while Ellora is

    famous for caves.

    13. (a) Consonants and vowel are used in option (b), (c) and

    (d). Only consonants are used in option (a).

    14. (b) E F H+1 +2

    O P Q

    +1 +1

    B C E

    +1 +2

    I J L

    +1 +2

    15. (c) D H

    4 8

    ¯ ¯  F J

    6 10

    ¯ ¯  H K 

    8 11

    ¯

    ¯ ¯

    EF

      P R 

    16 18

    ¯ ¯

      Pair of odd and even number 

    16. (b) 24 = 52 – 1 80 = 92 – 1

    49 = 72 – 0 15 = 42 – 1

    17. (c) All are squares except (c).

    18. (d) 704 ¸ 11 = 64 256 ¸ 4 = 64832 ¸ 13 = 64 310 ¸ 5 = 62

    19. (b) Perk > Pick > Pile > Pith > Pour 

    20. (c) Silver jublee - 25 yr.

    Golden jublee - 50 yr.

    Diamond jublee - 75 yr.

    Centenary - 100 yr 

    Millennium - 1000 yr.

    1 (c )   21 (d)   41 (a)   61 (d)   81 (c)   10 1 (c )   12 1 (d)   141 (d)   161 (b)   18 1 (b)

    2 (d)   22 (a)   42 (a)   62 (b)   82 (a)   10 2 (a)   12 2 (b)   142 (a)   16 2 (c)   18 2 (c )

    3 (b)   23 (a)   43 (d)   63 (d)   83 (c )   10 3 (d)   12 3 (b)   143 (b)   16 3 (d)   18 3 (a)

    4 (d)   24 (c)   44 (d)   64 (c)   84 (c )   104 (c)   12 4 (c)   144 (a)   16 4 (c )   18 4 (a)

    5 (a)   25 (b) 45 (d)   65 (b)   85 (a)   10 5 (a)   12 5 (b)   145 (b)   16 5 (a)   185 (c )

    6 (d)   26 (b) 46 (d)   66 (d)   86 (b)   10 6 (d)   12 6 (b)   146 (d)   16 6 (a)   18 6 (b)

    7 (b)   27 (b) 47 (b)   67 (d)   87 (d)   10 7 (a)   12 7 (c)   147 (a)   16 7 (d)   18 7 (a)

    8 (c )   28 (c) 48 (d)   68 (c )   88 (d)   10 8 (a)   12 8 (d)   148 (c )   16 8 (b)   18 8 (a)

    9 (b)   29 (d)   49 (c)   69 (c )   89 (d) 10 9 (a)   12 9 (d)   149 (b)   16 9 (a)   18 9 (d)

    10 (b) 30 (a)   50 (c) 70 (a)   90 (a)   11 0 (c )   13 0 (a)   150 (c )   17 0 (c )   19 0 (d)

    11 (d)   31 (c) 51 (c)   71 (b)   91 (c)   11 1 (b)   13 1 (b)   151 (b)   17 1 (c )   19 1 (c )

    12 (d)   32 (c )   52 (b)   72 (b)   92 (b)   11 2 (b)   13 2 (d)   152 (b)   17 2 (a)   19 2 (d)

    13 (a)   33 (c) 53 (c) 73 (c)   93 (a)   11 3 (a)   13 3 (d)   153 (b)   173 (c)   19 3 (a)

    14 (b)   34 (a) 54 (c)   74 (a)   94 (a)   11 4 (b)   13 4 (b)   154 (c )   17 4 (d)   19 4 (d)

    15 (c )   35 (b)   55 (b)   75 (c)   95 (b)   11 5 (b)   13 5 (a)   155 (d)   17 5 (b)   19 5 (b)

    16 (b)   36 (c)   56 (c)   76 (b)   96 (c )   116 (d)   13 6 (b)   156 (c)   17 6 (a)   19 6 (b)

    17 (c )   37 (c )   57 (b)   77 (c)   97 (b)   11 7 (a)   13 7 (b)   157 (a) 17 7 (c )   19 7 (c )

    18 (d) 38 (b)   58 (a)   78 (d) 98 (d)   11 8 (c)   13 8 (b)   158 (a)   17 8 (a)   198 (d)

    19 (b)   39 (c) 59 (d)   79 (c)   99 (a)   11 9 (d)   13 9 (a)   159 (c)   17 9 (b)   19 9 (c)

    20 (c) 40 (d) 60 (c)   80 (d)   10 0 (c )   12 0 (a)   14 0 (d)   160 (d)   18 0 (c )   20 0 (a)

    ANSWER KEY

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    21. (d) Annual - 1 year Monthly - 30 days

    Weekly - 7 days Biannual - 6 month

    Fortnightly - 15 days.

    22. (a) a b c b c a ca b / a b c bc a c ab.

    23. (a) B C F G  ¾¾®  2, 3, 6, 7

    J K N O  ¾®  10, 11, 14, 15

    R S V W  ¾®  18, 19, 22, 23

     Next sequence = 26, 27, 30, 31 = 26, 1, 4, 5 = Z A D E

    (subtract the excess value by 26)

    24. (c)

      C I M, H N R, M S W, R X B

    +5

    +5

    +5+5

    +5+5

    +5

    +5+5

    25. (b)

    2 3 6 7 14 1530

    +1 ×2 +1 ×2 +1 ×2

    26. (b) 4th term 23 = 5 × 4 + 3 = 23

    3rd term 122 = 5 × 23 + 7 = 122

    2nd term ? = 5 × 122 + 11 = 621

    1st term 3120 = 5 × 621 + 15 =3120

    27. (b)0 5 60 615

    +5 +55 +555 +5555

    6170

    28. (c) Nithya is Sam’s Sister and Mogan is Sam’s Father Þ

     Nithya is Mogan’s Daughter.

    Selvan is Rajan’s Son and Rajan is Mogan’s

    Brother Þ

    Selvan is Mogan’s Nephew.

    So, Nithya is Selvan’s Cousin.

    29. (d) Let father’s age is x yr.

    Son’s age isx

    4 yr..

     x

    x 354

    + =  Þ x = 28 yr..

    Father’s age after 8 year is 36 years.

    30. (a) Mother’s husband Þ Father 

    Father’s sister Þ Aunt

    So, man’s and lady’s aunt is same position Þ both are

     brother and sister.

    31. (c) If South East becomes North then south west becomes

    east as shown in direction chart.

    SW

    W

     NW

     NE

    ESE

    S

     NW

    SE N

    SSW

    E

    W NE N

    32. (c) NATION can not be formed as there is no A in the

    word CONTENTION.

    33. (c) GRAPE = 2 7 3 5 4

    FOUR = 1 6 8 7

    So, G = 2, R = 7, A = 3, P = 5, E = 4, F = 1, O = 6, U = 8,R = 7

    GROUP = 2 7 6 8 5

    34. (a) As

    W A Y I N

    3 3 3 3 3

    T X V F K  

    - ¯ - ¯ - ¯ - ¯ - ¯

    Similarly,

    L B U K  

    3 3 3 3

    I Y R H

    - ¯ - ¯ - ¯ - ¯

    35. (b) As,P A R T N E R

    1 1 1 1 1 1 1

    O Z Q S M D Q

    - ¯ - ¯ - ¯ - ¯ - ¯ - ¯ - ¯

    Similarly,

    S E G M E N T

    1 1 1 1 1 1 1

    R D F L D M S

    - ¯ - ¯ - ¯ - ¯ - ¯ - ¯ - ¯

    36. (c) As,

    D O C T O R  

    2 2 2 2 2 2

    F Q E V Q T

    + ¯ + ¯ + ¯ + ¯ + ¯ + ¯

    Similarly,

    P A T I E N T

    2 2 2 2 2 2 2

    R C V K G P V

    + ¯ + ¯ + ¯ + ¯ + ¯ + ¯ + ¯

    37. (c) As, 3 × 7 = 21, 11 × 7 = 77

    4 × 9 = 36, 12 × 9 = 108

    Therefore,14 × 8 = 112

    ? × 8 = 24

    ? 3=

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    39. (c) 90 ¸ 18 × 6 + 30 – 4 = 5640. (d) As, 73 + 46 = 42

    7 – 3 = 4, 4 + 6 = 10

    Add 4 + 10 = 14

    14 × 3 = 42

    Similarly, 6 – 2 = 4, 8 + 0 = 8

    4 + 8 = 12

    12 × 3 = 36

    41. (a) Series

    447 458 489 540

    +11 +31 +51 +71

    611

    42. (a)

    Starting point

     North

    1 km·

    1 km

    1 km

     

    W

    S

    E

    43. (d)

    LeftLeft

    Right Right

    South (A)

    About turn

    Starting point of B.

     North (B)

    Left Left

    Starting point of A

    About turn

    About turn-turning in reverse direction.

    46. (d) 47. (b)

    50. (c) S  ¾¾®  56, 68, 79, 85, 97H  ¾¾®  01, 14, 20, 33, 42R  ¾®  00, 13, 22, 31, 44I  ¾¾®  04, 10, 23, 32, 41

    GENERAL AWARENESS

    52. (b) In order to raise the standards of the banksinternationally, a number of committees were appointed

     by RBI. Among them Narasimham committee I (1991),

     Narasimham Committee II (1998) and Verma Committee

    (1999) were influential in improving international

    standards, and led to banking sector reforms, globally

    flexible to its deregulation, norms and conditions etc.

    The above said committees have basically identified

    the causes for the weak banks and guidelines have

     been given to improve their efficiency.

    54. (c) Here, statement of the question is wrong. The tenure

    from 2012 to 2017 is designated as12th Five Year

    Plan not 13th Five Year Plan. The tenure of 13th Five-

    Year Plan would be 2018 - 2022.

    57. (b) The Fundamental Rights can be suspended during the

    Emergency under Article 359 of the Constitution by

    the President of India.

    60. (c) Domestic Violence on Women Act 2005 is the first

    significant attempt in India to recognise domestic

    abuse as a punishable offence, to extend its provisions

    to those in live-in relationships, and to provide for

    emergency relief for the victims, in addition to legal

    recourse.

    61. (d) Lord Canning was the Governor General of India from

    1856 - 1862 and the first Viceroy in India from 1

     November 1858. Lord Mountbatten was the First

    Governor General of Independent India.

    62. (b) 1191 - First Battle of Tarain in which Prithviraj

    Chauhan defeated Mohd. Ghori.1192 - Second Battle

    of Tarain in which Mohd.Ghori defeated Prithviraj

    Chauhan.

    64. (c) The first major attempt in curriculum reconstructionin India was made in 1937 when Gandhiji propounded

    the idea of Basic Education.

    65. (b) Simon Commission (1927) > Dandi March (1930)

    > Gandhi Irwin Pact (1931) > Poona Pact (1932)

    69. (c) Two pollutants emitted by motor vehicles react to

    form ground-level ozone or smog which can cause

    respiratory problems and reduce visibility.

    73. (c) Cardiac muscle is an involuntary striated muscle

    tissue found only in the organ heart. Involuntary

    muscles are smooth muscles that are not directly

    controllable at will. For example You don't have to

    remind yourself to make your heart beat, so it is

    involuntary. Voluntary muscles are controllable like

    those found in your arms, legs, hands, etc.

    75. (c) Ringworm is common disease, especially among

    children. It is caused by a fungus, not a worm like the

    name suggests. It is a common and highly infectious

    skin infection that causes a ring-like red rash on the

    skin.

    79. (c) Centrifugal force is an example of a pseudo-force,

    that is, an apparent force to someone whose frame of

    reference is not at rest or moving with a constant

    velocity. In the case of centrifugal force, the frame

    of reference is rotating.

    81. (c) Register memory is faster . Register is an integral part of the CPU chip .Thereby fetching data is faster

    Cache on the other hand is a seperate memory unit

    84. (c) An antacid is a substance which neutralizes stomach

    acidity.

    85. (a) Annealing is the process by which both metal and

    glass are treated with heat in order to change their

     properties.

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    91. (c) This is because the scattering in red light is less than

    that of yellow colour. The longest visible wavelength

    is red and the shortest is violet. The wavelength of 

    red light is more than yellow light.

    95. (b) Emperor Akbar named Prayag as Allahabad - City of 

    God- also called Allahabad in 1575 AD. The city of 

    Allahabad is situated at the confluence of three rivers

    - Ganga, Yamuna and the invisible Saraswati. Every

    12th year when the waters are felt to be especially purifying, Allahabad holds a much greater festival called

    Kumbh Mela. Built by Emperor Akbar in 1583 AD, the

    Allahbad fort stands on the banks of the river Yamuna

    near the confluence site i.e SANGAM.

    QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

    101. (c) The sum forms A.P.

    First term (a) = 1

    Common difference (d) = 2

    Sum of 15 term = (2 ( 1) )2

    na n d + -

    Sum =15

    (2 1 (15 1)2)2

    ´ + -  =15

    30 2252

    ´ =

    102. (a) Here, (48 – 38) = 10, (64 – 54) = 10, (90 – 80) = 10

    and (120 – 110) = 10.

    \ Required number = (L.C.M of 48, 64, 90 and 120) – 10 = 2870

    103. (d) A = B + 4000

    B = C + 5000

    A + B + C = 50000

    A + A – 4000 + A – 9000 = 50000

    So, A = 21000

    B = 17000

    C = 12000

    \ A : B : C = 21000 : 17000 : 12000 = 21 : 17 : 12

    A’s Profit =21

    3500050

    ´   =  ` 14700

    105. (a) Let the number be 10 x + y.

    According to condition

    10 x +  y + 18 = 10 y +  x

     y – x = 2

    So those numbers are 02, 13, 24, 35, 46, 57, 68, 79,

    80But 13 and 79 are prime numbers.

    106. (d) ( x + y) ‘s 6 days’ work =1 1

    630 5

    æ ö´ =ç ÷è ø

    .

    Remaining work =1 4

    15 5

    æ ö- =ç ÷è ø

     Now,4

    5 work is done by y in 32 days.

    Whole work will be done by y in5

    324

    æ ö´ç ÷è ø

    = 40 days.

    107. (a) Curved surface area of cylinder = 2prh

    222 21 90 11880 sq.cm

    7= ´ ´ ´ =

    108. (a) Let CP = ` 100

    Then, S.P = ` 117

    Let marked price be Rs x.

    Then, 90% of x = 117117 100

    13090

     x  ´æ ö

    Þ = =ç ÷è ø

    \ Marked price = 30% above C.P.109. (a) The ratio of number of coins = 5 : 6 : 4

    \ The number of one rupee coins 465 5 1555 6 4

    = ´ =+ +

    The number of 50 paise coins465

    6 1865 6 4

    = ´ =+ +

    The number of 25 paise coins465

    4 124

    5 6 4

    = ´ =

    + +110. (c) Let average for 14 innings be x. Then,

    14 583 15 45 14 58 13

    15

     x x x x x

    += + Þ + = + Þ =

    \ New average = ( x + 3) = 13 + 3 = 16 runs111. (b) Let the numbers be n – 2, n – 1, n, n + 1 and n + 2. Their

    average = n.

     Next two consecutive numbers are n + 3 and n + 4.

    Therefore the average of 7 consecutive numbers

    ( 2) ( 1) ( 1) ( 2) ( 3) ( 4)

    7

    n n n n n n n- + - + + + + + + + + +=

    5 2 7 17

    n n n+ += = +

    112. (b) S.P = C.P80

    100

    æ öç ÷è ø

     Þ4

    S.P C.P5

    = ...(1)

    110 11S.P 12 C.P S.P C.P 12

    100 10

    æ ö+ = Þ = -ç ÷è ø

    ...(2)

    From eqn. (1) and (2)

    4 11C.P C.P 12

    5 10= -

    11 4C.P C.P 12 C.P 4010 5Þ - = Þ =  ` 

    113. (a) The trader professes to sell 1200 kg but sells only

    1000 kg.

    So profit = 20%

    Markup = 10%

    Total profit10 20

    10 20 32%100

    ´= + + =

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    114. (b)Total Distance Covered

    Average Speed =Total Time Taken

    6

    6+6+6+6 24=

    6 6 6 6 1 1 1 1

    25 50 75 150 25 50 75 150

    Þé ù+ + +   + + +ê úë û

    24 30050 km/hr 

    6 24

    ´= Þ

    ´

    115. (b) 2Required difference =

    (100)

    2 PR

    4000 5 510

    100 100

    ´ ´Þ

    ´  =` 

    116. (d)2 2

    2 2

     x a x b

     x a x b

    + ++

    - -

    Applying compodendo and Dividendo

    2 2 2 2

    2 2 2 2

     x a x a x b x b

     x a x a x b x b

    + + - + + -Þ +

    + - + + - +2 2 4 4

    4 4 2 2 ( )2 ( )2

     x x x x ab ab

    a b a b a b a a b bÞ + Þ + Þ +

    + +

    2 22

    b a

    a b a bÞ + Þ

    + +

    117. (a)   x2 + y2 + z 2 – xy – yz  – zx

    2 2 22( )

    2 x y z xy yz zx= + + - - -

    2 2 21(2 2 2 2 2 2 )

    2 x y z xy yz zx= + + - - -

    2 2 2 2 2 21 ( 2 2 2 )2

     x y xy y z yz x z zx= + - + + - + + -

    2 2 21[( ) ( ) ( ) ]

    2 x y y z z x= - + - + -

    2 2 21 [(997 998) (998 999) (999 997) ]2

    = - + - + -

    2 2 21 1[1 1 2 ] 6 3

    2 2= + + = ´ =

    118. (c)   x = 4 ...(1)

     y = 3 ...(2)3 x + 4 y = 12 ...(3)

    Putting x = 0 in 3rd equation we get y = 4

    Putting y = 0 in 3rd equation we get x = 3

    The triangle will be formed by joining the points (3, 0)

    and (0, 4).

    So, base = 3 and altitude = 4

    Area =1 1

    3 4 62 2

    b h´ ´ Þ ´ ´ =

    119. (d) We have x3 + y3 + z 3 – 3 xyz  = ( x + y + z )

    ( x2 + y2 + z 2 –  xy – yz  - zx)Here x = a – 4, y = b – 3, z  = c –1

    So, given expression is ( x + y + z )

    ( x2 + y2 + z 2 – xy – yz  – zx)

    = (a – 4 + b – 3 + c – 1) ( x2 + y2 + z 2 – xy – yz  – zx)= (a + b + c – 8) ( x2 + y2 + z 2 – xy – yz  – zx)

    = (8 – 8) ( x2 + y2 + z 2 – xy – yz  – zx)

    = 0

    120. (a)   x4 + y

    4 – 2 x

    2 y

    2

    Þ ( x2 – y2)2 Þ [( x + y) ( x – y)]2

    21 1 1 1

    a a a aa a a a

    é ùæ öæ öÞ + + - + - +ê úç ÷ç ÷

    è øè øë û

    22

    2 16aa

    æ öÞ ´ Þç ÷

    è ø

    121. (d)1

    5 53

    aa

    + =

    Multiply by3

    5

     on both sides

    3 1 35 5

    5 3 5a

    a

    æ ö+ = ´ç ÷è ø

    13 3

    5a

    a+ =

    Squaring on both sides

    2

    2

    1 19 2 3 9

    525a a

    aa+ + ́ ´ =

    2

    2

    19

    25a

    aÞ + 6 399

    5 5= - =

    122. (b) 3 2 2 x = +

    1 1 3 2 2

    3 2 2 3 2 2 x

    -= ´

    + -

    1 3 2 23 2 2

    9 8 x

    -= = -

    -

    21 1

    2 x x x x

    æ ö- = + -ç ÷

    è ø

    21

     x x

    æ ö-ç ÷

    è ø3 2 2 3 2 2 2= + + - -  = 4

    14 2

    æ ö- = = ±ç ÷

    è ø x

     x

    123. (b) If a + b + c = 0

    then a3 + b3 + c3 = 3abc

    Dividing both sides by abc

    3 3 33a b c abc

    abc abc abc abc+ + =

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    2 2 2

    3a b c

    bc ac ab+ + =

    125. (b) Putting x = 0 in 4 x + 3 y = 12 we get  y = 4

    Putting y = 0 in 4 x + 3 y = 12 we get x = 3

    The triangle so formed is right angle triangle with points

    (0, 0) (4, 0) (0, 3)

    So diameter is the hypotenus of triangle 16 9= +

    = 5 unitradius = 2.5 unit

    126. (b) Circum Radius (R)=4 Area of triangle´

    abc

    [where a, b and c are sides of triangle]

    Area of Triangle = s(s )(s )(s )a b c- - -

    242

    a b c s

      + +é ù\ = =ê úë û

    Area of Triangle 24 12 8 4= ´ ´ ́  = 8 × 3 × 4 cm2

    12 16 20

    R 10 cm4 8 3 4

    ´ ´

    = =´ ´ ´

    127. (c) Area of DABD = 16 cm2

    Area of DABC = 2 × Area of  DABD [Q  In triangle, themidpoint of the opposite side, divides it into two

    congruent triangles. So their areas are equal and each

    is half the area of the original triangle]

    Þ 32 cm2

    128. (d) Area of1

    ODE OK DE2

    D = ´

    1 1BC OK  

    2 2

    æ ö= ´ç ÷è ø

     

    A

    E

    O

    F CB

    D1

    [BC (AO AK)]4

    = ´ -

    1 2 1BC AF AF

    4 3 2

    é ùæ ö= ´ -ç ÷ê úè øë û

    1 1 1

    4 3 2 AF BC 

    é ù= ´ ´ê úë û =

    1

    12 area of DABC = 1 : 12

    129. (d) Parallelogram Area = l × b

    Rhombus Area = l × b

    Triangle Area 2

    l b´

    =Therefore R = P = 2T.

    130. (a) Since AB is a diameter. Then ÐAPB = 90° (angle inthe semicircle)

    DBPN ~ DAPBSo, BN = BP2 / AB

    BN =6 6

    3.6cm10

    ´=

    131. (b) A

    O

    M O'

    B

     x

    In DAOMr 2 = AM2 + x2

    AM2 = r 2 – x2 ...(1)

    In DAMO'r 2 = (r  – x)2 + AM2

    AM2 = r 2 – (r  – x)2 ...(2)

    From eqn. (1) & (2)

    r 2 – x2 = r 2 – (r  – x)2

    Þ 2rx = r 2

    2

    r  xÞ =

    From eq. (1)

    22 2 23

    AM2 4

    r r r 

    æ ö= - =ç ÷è ø

    AM =3

    2r 

    Length of chord AB = 2AM =3

    2 32

    r r ´ =

    133. (d)O O¢

    P

    QBA

    ÐAQP =2

    p

     (Angle in the semicircle is 90°)

    ÐBQP =2

    p

     (Angle in the semicircle is 90°)

    ÐAQB = ÐAQP + ÐBQP =2

    p

    +2

    p

     Þ p or 180°

    134. (b) In DAOBAO = BO (radii of circles)

    \ ÐABO = ÐBAO = 30ºIn DBOC

    30º

    40º

    A

    B C

    O

    BO = CO (radii of circles)

    \ ÐBCO = ÐOBC = 40º

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    ÐABC = ÐABO + ÐOBCÐABC = 30° + 40° = 70°2 × ÐABC = ÐAOC Þ x° = 140

    135. (a) Externally in the ratio of 5 : 2

    136. (b) Radian covered in one second22

    2 3.57

    = ´ ´

    Time required to covered 55 radian55

    2.5222 3.57

    = =´ ´

    137. (b) 2 y cos q = x sin q

    2sin cos

     y

     xÞ q = q

    And 2 x sec q – y cosec q = 3

    2 sec 3sin

     y xÞ q - =

    q

    23

    cos 2 cos

     x yx

     yÞ - =

    q q

    33cos cos

    2 2

     x xÞ q = Þ q =

     Now sin2 q + cos2 q = 1

    22 1

    4

     x yÞ + =

    2 24 4 y xÞ + =

    138. (b) sec2 q – tan2 q = 1(sec q + tan q) (sec q – tan q) = 1

    1

    3(sec tan ) 1 sec tan 3q - q = Þ q - q = ...(1)

    sec tan 3q + q =   (Given) ...(2)

    Adding eqn. (1) and (2)

    1 4 22sec 3 2sec sec

    3 3 3q = + Þ q = Þ q =

    3 1cos sec

    2 cos

    é ù\ q = q =ê úqë ûQ

    Therefore,2

    sin 1 cosq = - q

    3 11

    4 2Þ - =

    139. (a)'

    5163 14'

    60

    æ ö°   ç ÷è ø

      [1 minute = 60 seconds]

    ' '17 297 297

    63 14 63 63º20 20 20 60

    é ù é ùÞ ° + Þ ° Þ +ê ú ê ú ´ë û ë û

    [1 degree = 60 minutes]

    75897 75897radian

    1200 1200 180

    ° pæ öÞ Þ ´ç ÷è ø

    2811

    8000

    cæ öÞ pç ÷è ø

    140. (d) AB = AC

    \ ÐABC = ÐACB ...(1)

    A

    B C

    D

    [opposite angle of equal

    sides are equal]

    AC = AD

    \ ÐACD = ÐADC ...(2)In a triangle,

    ÐABC + ÐADC + ÐDCB = 180°ÐABC + ÐADC + ÐACB + ÐACD = 180°2ÐACB + 2ÐAOC = 180° [From eqn. (1) & (2)]\ÐBCD = 90° or p / 2

    141. (d)4 4

    2 2

    cos sin1

    cos sin

    a a+ =

    b b

    Þ cos4 a sin2 b + sin4 a cos2 b = cos2 b sin2 bÞ cos4 a (1 – cos2 b) + cos2 b (1 – cos2 a)2 = cos2 b(1 – cos2 b)Þ cos4 a – cos4 a cos2 b + cos2 b – 2 cos2 a

    cos2 b + cos4 a cos2 b = cos2 b – cos4 bÞ cos4 a – 2 cos2 a cos2 b + cos4 b = 0Þ (cos2 a – cos2 b)2 = 0Þ cos2 a = cos2 bÞ sin2 a = sin2 b

    Then,4 4

    2 2

    cos sin

    cos sin

    b b+

    a a

    2 2 2 2

    2 2

    cos cos sin sin

    cos sin

    b a b aÞ +

    a a

    Þ cos2 b + sin2 b = 1

    142. (a) sin cos 1

    sin cos 1

    q - q +q + q -

    Dividing Numerator and Denominator by cos q

    sin cos 1tan 1 seccos cos cos

    sin cos 1 tan 1 sec

    cos cos cos

    q q- + q - + qq q qÞ Þ

    q q   q + - q+ -

    q q q2 2(tan sec ) – (sec tan )

    tan sec 1

    q + q q - qÞ

    q - q +

    (tan sec )[1 sec tan ]tan sec

    tan sec 1

    q + q - q + qÞ Þ q + q

    q - q +

    sin 1

    cos cos

    qÞ +

    q q 

    1 sin

    cos

    + qÞ

    q

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    2012 - 18 Combined Graduate Level Exam

    143. (b) InDABC

    tan9

    ha = ...(1)

    In DABD

    tan16

    hb =  

    A

    h

    ba9B C

    16

     a + b = 90° (given)b = 90 – a

    since tan16

    hb =

    16tan(90 ) cot or tan

    16 16

    h h

    h- a = Þ a = a = ...(2)

    From eqn. (1) and (2)

    216 16 9 12feet.9

    hh h

    h= Þ = ´ Þ =

    144. (a) If

    2 3

    sin cosa = a2

    tan cosa = a ...(1)

     Now consider, cot6 a – cot2 a

    6 2

    1 1

    tan tan= -

    a aSince

    1cot

    tana =

    a

    Substituting for tan2a with cos a  from (1) aboveequation will be

    2 2 2

    3 3 3

    1 1 1 cos sin tan1

    cos coscos cos cos

    - a a a= - = = = =

    a aa a a145. (b) (1 + tan q + sec q) (1 + cot q – cosec q)

    sin 1 cos 11 1cos cos sin sin

    q qæ öæ öÞ + + + -ç ÷ç ÷q q q qè øè ø

    sin cos 1 sin cos 1

    cos sin

    q + q + q + q -æ öæ öÞ ç ÷ç ÷q qè øè ø

    2 2 2(sin cos ) 1 sin cos 2sin cos 1

    sin cos sin cos

    q + q - q+ q + q q-= =

    q q q q

    2sin cos2

    sin cos

    q q= =

    q q

    146-150. Profit percentage in given years.

    421991 100 11.67%360

    Þ ´ =

    241992 100 6.67%

    360Þ ´ =

    421993 100 11.67%

    360Þ ´ =

    601994 100 16.67%

    360Þ ´ =

    541995 100 15%

    360Þ ´ =

    721996 100 20%

    360= ´ =

    661997 100 18.33%

    360= ´ =

    147. (a)   x % of 100.01 = 16.67%

    216 %

    3 xÞ =

    149. (b) Average =11.67 6.67 16.67 15 20 18.33

    7

    + + + + +

    = 14.28% »  15%

    ENGLISH COMPREHENSION

    151. (b) ‘are’ is replaced by ‘is’

    152. (b) Remove ‘to’ before the policeman

    153. (b) ‘me’ is replaced by ‘myself’

    154. (c) ‘in’ is replaced by ‘at’

    155. (d) No error  156. (c) Because

    157. (a) Healthy

    158. (a) Inspite of  

    159. (c) Decrepit

    160. (d) Sporadic

    161. (b) The meaning of word Vociferous (Adjective) is :

    outspoken, blunt.

    Its synonym should be : Loud.

    162. (c) The meaning of word Fictional (Adjective) is :

    Imaginary, unreal, fabricated, mythical

    Its synonym should be : fanciful

    163. (d) The meaning of word Trivial (Adjective) is : notimportant.

    Its synonym should be : ordinary.

    164. (c) The meaning of word Impudent (Adjective ) is :

    Insolence.

    It’s synonyms should be : Insolent.

    165. (a) The meaning of word pompous (Adjective) is : self

    Important.

    It’s synonym should be : Pretentious.

    166. (a) The meaning of word cultivated (Adjective) is :

    Eductated.

    It’s antonym should be : Crude.

    167. (d) The meaning of word Impertinent (Adjective) is : Illmannered, disrespectful.

    It’s antonym should be : courteous.

    168. (b) The meaning of word Divulge (verb) is : Reveal, make

    known.

    Its antonym should be : Dissemble.

    169. (a) The meaning of word Appreciation (Noun) is

    Thankfullness.

    It’s antonym should be : Aspersian.

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    CGL (Tier-I) 2012 Solved Paper 2012 - 19

    170. (c) The meaning of word Supple (Adjective) is : Flexible.

    It’s Antonym should be : Rigid.

    171. (c) Idiom washed their hands off means : to absolve

    oneself of responsibility or future blame.

    172. (a) Idiom put her foot down means : to tell someone in a

    strong way that they must do something or that they

    must stop doing something.

    173. (c) Idiom Halcyon days means : a very happy or successful

     period in the past.

    174. (d) Idiom fell on stony ground means : It a request, a

    warning, or advice falls on stony ground, people ignore

    it.

    175. (b) Idiom has all his ducks in a row means : to organize

    things well.

    176. (a) Would have had to attend

    177. (c) ascent which

    178. (a) as much as they possibly could

    179. (b) Alternative should be ‘Loyalty’

    180. (c) at181. (b) canister  

    182. (c) Domicile

    183. (a) Irrevocable

    184. (a) Gratuity

    185. (c) Wardrobe

    186. (b) Garrlilous

    187. (a) Marquee

    188. (a) Puissant

    189. (d) Disconcerting190. (d) Exhilarate

    191. (c) The passage is about the management courses

    192. (d) Look at the sentence : The real problem is that course

     promoters view development as something which

     primarily, takes place in a class room.

    193. (a) Critical

    194. (d) Unprogressive

    195. (b) a (fixed) attitude of mind

    196. (b) self-discipline

    197. (c) must change himself 

    199. (c) Man well one day die and become dust200. (a) A sum of Individuals