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60 Important ESI Questions for NABARD Grade A Exam

1. Which of the following Financial

Inclusion programmes are the

initiative of NABARD ?

A. Service Area Approach

B. Regional Rural Bank

C. SHG-Bank linkage programme

D. The Cooperative Credit Societies

E. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana

2. Which of the following Institutions/

organisations releases “Healthy

States, Progressive India” report?

A. WHO

B. Ministry of Health and Family

Welfare

C. World Bank

D. NITI Aayog

E. Economic Advisory Council to PM

3. Which of the following countries is at

the top in the Environmental

Performance Index (EPI) released by

Yale and Columbia Universities along

with World Economic Forum?

A. Norway B. Denmark

C. India D. Switzerland

E. Malta

4. Name the exchange rate system in

which the exchange rates of a

currency fluctuate day by day

according to the international

markets, but central banks attempt to

influence their countries' exchange

rates by buying and selling currencies.

A. Managed floating exchange rate

system

B. Open market exchange rate

system

C. Fixed exchange rate system

D. Hybrid exchange rate system

E. Floating exchange rate system

5. Which among the following given

states have the highest urbanization

rate among the following states in

India?

A. Maharashtra B. Uttar Pradesh

C. Tamil Nadu D. Kerala

E. Gujarat

6. Which of the following is not

considered as ‘All India Financial

Institution’?

A. Export-Import Bank of India

B. Small Industrial Development Bank

of India

C. National Housing Bank

D. National Bank for Agriculture and

Rural Development

E. Industrial Development Bank of

India

7. Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana

(PMAGY), is implemented for ______.

A. Integrated development of ST

majority villages

B. Undertake hostel construction for

SC boys and girls studying in middle

schools

C. Promote entrepreneurship in rural areas.

D. Integrated development of SC

majority villages.

E. Building houses for BPL families in

rural areas

8. What is the major purpose of

launching MSME Samadhan?

A. For monitoring public procurement

B. For streamlining the payments to

entrepreneurs from public sector

entities

C. For grievance redressal of the

market related problems

D. For ensuring that the market prices

are regulated according to

government norms

E. For improving the quality of

services provided to the small traders

9. WTO was established in 1995 to

replace General Agreement on Tariffs

and Trade (GATT) after Uruguay

Round of talks. What was the name of

the agreement through which WTO

came into being?

A. GATT Agreement

B. Uruguay Agreement

C. Vienna treaty

D. Marrakesh Agreement

E. Paraguay Agreement

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10. Which of the following is/are not true

about the Indian agriculture sector?

A. More than 50% of population is

dependent on agriculture

B. Agriculture accounts for nearly 17-

18% of India’s GDP

C. The agriculture growth rate and

share of agriculture to GDP has

constantly declined since

independence

D. Agriculture accounts for 10% of

total India’s export

E. All the above are correct

11. Infrastructure contributes to economic

development of a country by

improving the quality of life of its

people. In this regard which of the

following is/are true?

A. Infrastructure associated with

energy, transport, communication and

housing are included in the economic

infrastructure

B. Hospitals and educational

institutions are included in the social

infrastructure.

C. Agriculture is not much dependent

on infrastructure as it is labour

intensive.

D. Only A and B are correct

E. All the above are correct

12. Which of the following are causes of

Cost Push Inflation?

A. Increase in money supply

B. Cheap Monetary Policy

C. Increase in public Expenditure

D. Increase in disposable income

E. Industrial disputes

13. Which of the following is/are the fiscal

measures to control Inflation?

A. Increase in Indirect taxes

B. Credit control

C. Demonetisation of currency

D. Issue of new currency

E. All of the above

14. In which of the following conditions

the Inflation will increase in the

economy?

A. if repo rate increases

B. if Cash reserve ratio increases

C. If reverse repo rate increases

D. if bank rate increases

E. None of the above

15. Conflict, famine or extreme religious

activity can be reasons for increased

migration from an area. These factors

can be classified under ______

factors.

A. Push Back factors

B. Social factors

C. Push Factors

D. Economic Factors

E. Cultural factors

16. India’s trade deficit narrowed to a

five-month low of USD 12 billion in

Feb ’18. Which of the following factors

can be credited directly for this

development?

A. Increased manufacturing capacity

B. Improved external relations

C. Decrease in export tariffs

D. Decrease in growth of imports

E. Improved foreign exchange

17. Which of the following statements

about Market Stabilization Scheme is

incorrect?

A. It aims at reducing liquidity in the

Indian market.

B. It includes the sale of government

securities in the economy.

C. It was launched in 2014.

D. It can be used as a means to

regulate inflation.

E. All the statements are correct with

respect to MSS

18. National Health Policy 2017 aims to

increase life expectancy at birth from

67.5 to 70 till _______.

A. 2025 B. 2020

C. 2030 D. 2021

E. 2024

19. The various types of credit can be

conventionally grouped as formal

sector loans and informal sector

loans. Which of the following

statements related to formal and

informal sector loans is/are true?

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A. Loans from Traders, Money

lenders, and Non- banking finance

institutions are informal loans.

B. The Reserve Bank of India

supervises the functioning of formal

sector sources of loans.

C. Formal sector loans has the largest

share in agricultural credit.

D. B and C only

E. All the above

20. Union Budget 2018-19 has proposed

increasing the time limit for

investment in Vaya Vandana Yojana

from ______ to _______.

A. May 2018, May 2020

B. March 2018, March 2020

C. May 2018, March 2020

D. March 2018, May 2020

E. March 2018, May 2018

21. With reference to Aaykar Setu,

consider the following statements.

I. It was launched by the Union

Finance Minister.

II. It’s a taxpayer service module only

with desktop version.

III. It’s a new effort by Income Tax

Department to directly communicate

with taxpayers.

Select the correct answer using the

correct code.

A. I, II and III B. I and III

C. I and II D. II and III

E. None of the above

22. Who among the following is not

eligible to avail the benefit of the

Trade Infrastructure for Export

Scheme (TIES)?

A. Export promotion councils

B. Commodities Boards

C. SEZ Authorities

D. Apex Trade Bodies

E. None of the above

23. Which among the following is not the

feature of New APMC Act?

A. Grading and standardisation and

quality certification.

B. Rationalisation of market fee and

commission charges.

C. Private wholesale markets, direct

sale by farmers to bulk buyers.

D. Full democratisation of market

committee and state marketing

boards

E. None of the above

24. With reference to International

Vaccine Institute (IVI), which of the

following statement is / are correct?

A. IVI is based in Seoul, South Korea

B. It was established in 1997

C. India joined IVI in the year 2007

D. It was established on the initiatives

of the UNDP.

E. All of the above

25. As per India Social Development

Report (SDR) 2016, what was the

percentage of illiterates among

persons with disabilities.

A. 45% B. 35%

C. 20% D. 60%

E. 55%

26. The Genetic Engineering Appraisal

Committee (GEAC) is the apex body

constituted in the Ministry of

Environment and Forests. When was it

constituted?

A. 1978 B. 1984

C. 1973 D. 1989

E. 1992

27. What is ‘Sacrifice Ratio’?

A. measures the proportionate

reduction in growth rate due to

reduction in inflation.

B. it is the reduction in tax paid by the

individual to the government

C. increase in tax rate by the

government for higher income group

during inflation

D. imposing high production taxes to

curb excess production in the

economy

E. None of the above

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28. What is ‘Misery Index’?

A. It is the sum of the rate of inflation

and unemployment.

B. It is the Inflation rate minus

unemployment rate.

C. It is the growth rate minus inflation

rate.

D. It is the growth rate minus

unemployment rate.

E. It is the level of inequality in

income in an economy

29. Which of the following about inflation

in the country during 2017-2018 is

not correct?

A. Headline Inflation as per CPI –

Combined has declined compared to

2016-2017

B. Inflation based on Wholesale Price

Index was increased compared to

2016-2017

C. Core inflation based on both CPI

and WPI has declined

D. The increase in WPI based inflation

is due to sudden spurt in global crude

oil prices

E. The headline inflation for 2017-

2018 is calculated based on CPI-

Combined.

30. PESA Act, 1996 was enacted on 24

December 1996 to extend the

provisions of Part ________ of the

Constitution to the ______ Scheduled

Areas, with certain exceptions and

modifications.

A. V, Fourth B. III, Seventh

C. IX, Fifth D. VIII, Second,

E. VI, First

31. The United Nations Economic and

Social Commission for Asia and the

Pacific (ESCAP) works in which of the

following areas?

A. Macroeconomic Policy, Poverty

Reduction and Financing for

Development

B. Trade, Investment and Innovation

C. Environment and Development

D. Social Development

E. All of the above

32. In the context of Balance of payments

(Bop), which of the following form a

part of internationally acceptable

assets?

A. IMF Reserve Tranche

B. Foreign loans

C. Shares

D. Both A and B

E. None of the above

33. Coal Mitra web portal has been

launched by Ministry of coal. It is a

web portal for which of the following

purpose?

A. Connect Coal Mines of Jharkhand to

the NTPC power plant of Gujarat

B. Optimum utilization of Coal for

domestic purpose

C. Optimum utilization by private as

well as public power companies of the

coal

D. Export Indian coal to overseas

markets

E. Import high grade coal from

Australia

34. In the annual budget documents of

the Government of India, ‘Primary

Deficit’ refers to

A. Difference between revenue receipt

of the present financial year and

grants to states and local bodies

B. Difference between revenue deficit

of the current year and grants for

capital creation

C. Difference between revenue deficit

of the present financial year and

grants to states and local bodies

D. Difference between budgetary

deficit and capital deficit of the

present financial year

E. Difference between fiscal deficit of

the current year and interest

payments on the previous borrowings.

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35. What do you understand by a

‘deflationary Gap’ in the economy?

A. Underproduction with respect to full

employment GDP of the economy

B. Consistent decline in inflation at an

exponential rate

C. Low Inflation that encourages

investments

D. Excess supply of goods and

services with respect to the weak

demand in the economy

E. Consistent decline in GDP at an

exponential rate

36. What do you understand by the term

“Core Inflation”?

A. CPI and WPI inflation discounted

for PPI inflation

B. Headline inflation discounted for

food and fuel inflation

C. Core Industrial sector inflation

discounted for raw material prices

inflation

D. Headline inflation discounted for

services sector inflation

E. CPI inflation discounted for WPI

inflation.

37. Which of the following statements

is/are correct regarding Micro ATM?

1) It allows deposit making,

withdrawal and balance enquiry

facilities.

2) It do not allow fund transfer

3) It allows for biometric identification

to access bank account.

4) It offers remittances services to the

customers.

Which of the above statements are

correct?

A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1, 2 and 4

C. 1, 3 and 4 D. 2, 3 and 4

E. 1, 2, 3 and 4

38. The International Fund for Agricultural

Development (IFAD) is as one of the

major outcomes of the -

A. 1974-World Food Conference

B. 1976- World Food Conference

C. 1978- World Food Conference

D. 1980-World Food Conference

E. 1984 World Food Conference

39. General Agreement on Trade and

Tariffs has been discontinued after

which of the following conferences?

A. Geneva Conference

B. Kyoto Protocol

C. Uruguay Round Conference

D. Tokyo Conference

E. Kennedy Round Conference

40. Which of the following countries hold

the largest share of voting power in

Asian development Bank along with

Japan?

A. China B. USA

C. India D. Canada

E. Australia

41. If the value of the domestic currency

reaches exorbitantly low in the global

market, then this situation is termed

as _______.

A. Inflation

B. Stagflation

C. Hyperinflation

D. Galloping Inflation

E. Inflation gap

42. Human Development Index,

developed by Pakistani Economist

Mahbub-ul-Haq is produced by UNDP.

India has been ranked at 131

amongst the 188 countries in 2016.

Which of the following countries is at

the top of this list?

A. Australia B. Switzerland

C. Iceland D. Denmark

E. Norway

43. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank

is an initiative propounded by China in

2014. It is headquartered in Beijing,

and China has the biggest voting

share amongst the member countries.

Which is the country with the second

biggest voting share?

A. United Kingdom

B. Russia

C. Canada

D. Australia

E. India

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44. Which of the following is not a type of

Priority Sector Lending Certificates

which can be used to fulfil the

shortfall in the PSL norms?

A. PSLC - Agriculture

B. PSLC – Social Engineering

C. PSLC – Small Farmers/Marginal

Farmers

D. PSLC – Micro enterprises

E. PSLC - General

45. Which of the following state

government has launched the

Sustainable Action for Climate

Resilient Development (SaCReD)

Initiative to develop Majuli, the

world’s largest river island?

A. Arunachal Pradesh

B. Assam

C. Manipur

D. Meghalaya

E. Tripura

46. Gadgil - Mukherjee Formula was used

for purpose to

A. Calculate GST rate on different

products

B. Determine appropriate size of fiscal

deficit for the government

C. Calculate the tax liability of MNCs

operating in India

D. Distribute seats among

geographical areas based on new

Census

E. Allocate financial assistance to

states from the Centre

47. Rotterdam Convention is related to

the control on ________ in

international trade and was

implemented from the year ______.

A. Unethical means, 2007

B. Government's involvement, 2005

C. Use of hazardous chemicals, 2004

D. Exploitation, 2003

E. Use of animals, 2010

48. Which of the following graphs is

characterised by the plotting of

distribution of wealth against

corresponding distribution of

population?

A. Phillips Curve B. Lorenz Curve

C. Engel Curve D. Laffer Curve

E. Hubbert Curve.

49. Foreign private remittances are

considered in calculating ________ of

a country.

A. GDP B. GNP

C. Inflation D. Growth rate

E. Credit ratings

50. Common Risk Mitigation Mechanism

(CRMM) is related to which of the

following?

A. Harnessing solar energy

B. Improving disaster management

mechanism

C. Creating an augmented response

system against terrorism

D. Ensuring the proper management

of banking operations in case of

recession

E. Creating a network against

counterfeiting of currency

51. Brundtland Commission is associated

with which of the following concerns?

A. Sustainable Development

B. Economic Stability

C. Economic Equality

D. Gender Equality in workplace

E. Minimum wage assurance

52. Referring to the son meta preference

what is the indicated number of

‘missing women’ in India, according to

Economic Survey, 2018?

A. 21 Million B. 40 Million

C. 63 Million D. 50 Million

E. 80 Million

53. World Economic Forum has proposed

_______ in place of GDP as an

alternative measure for measuring

global economy.

A. Inclusive Development Index

B. Sustainable Development Index

C. World Happiness Index

D. Russel Global Index

E. FTSE All-World Index

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54. The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947

defines "Industrial dispute" as a

dispute or difference between

workmen and ………………… or between

workmen and workmen.

A. Employers

B. Workmen

C. Employee

D. Company’s Supervisor

E. Chief Executive Officer

55. Recently the Government of India has

passed the proposal of letting private

corporates to adopt heritage sites and

use them for branding in return of

making infrastructural inputs to the

adopted site. Red Fort has been

adopted by which of the following

companies?

A. Hindustan Unilever Limited

B. Dalmia Bharat

C. TATA Group

D. Mahindra and Mahindra

E. Reliance

56. In the Budget 2018-19, the

government has proposed the Kisan

Credit Card usage for Fisheries and

Animal Husbandry sectors. What is

the allocation for the proposal in the

budget?

A. Rs 3,000 crores

B. Rs 4,500 crores

C. Rs 10,000 crores

D. Rs 6,000 crores

E. Rs 8,000 crores

57. Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPIs)

in India are regulated by

A. NPCI B. SEBI

C. NABARD D. SIDBI

E. RBI

58. DIPAYAN, sometimes seen in the

news, is related to:(Digital Payments

Action Network,)

A. It is a fund to be utilized to

expands digital payments in the

country.

B. It is a fund proposed by Watal

committee from savings generated

from cashless transactions to expand

digital payments.

C. It is an agency to deal with twin

sheets problems of Indian economy

i.e. over leveraged companies and

NPAs with Banks.

D. It is new name of Department of

disinvestment in finance ministry.

E. It is a fund which have been made

from the saving of non use of

kerosene in rural areas

59. "SANKALP" scheme of the

Government of India is related to

A. Open Massive Online Courses for

students

B. Construction works to make public

places amenable to differently abled

population

C. Market relevant training to youth

D. Eradicating caste-based

harassment from Indian society

E. Making Gram Panchayats open

defecation-free

60. Which of the following functions can

be performed by a Payment bank?

1) Opening Current deposit accounts.

2) Opening Demand deposit

accounts.

3) Accept NRI deposits.

4) Distribution of insurances.

5) Utility bill payments.

Select the correct answer using the

code given below.

A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1, 3 and 5

C. 2, 3, 4 and 5 D. 1, 2, 4 and 5

E. 1, 2, 3 and 5

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