757 -767 pilot study guide -qbank

B-757/767 PILOT STUDY GUIDE

(QUESTION BANK)

April 15, 2004

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04

FOR TRAINING PURPOSES ONLY 1

B-757/767 Pilot Study Guide

Introduction

This Study Guide is a product of Delta Air Lines, Inc., and is intended as a training aid only. It is divided into 4 sections:

Section 1: Limitations Section 2: Systems Questions (Chapter 1-15) corresponding to Volume1, 2, & QRH Section 3: Non-Normal Checklist - Recall Items Section 4: Passenger Evacuation In Section 2, each chapter is divided into 2 subsections consisting of a 757/767 section and a 767 Differences section. The 757/767 section contains questions common between 757 and 767 and also questions pertaining only to the 757. Wording in the question identifies questions that pertain only to the 757. The 767 Differences section contains questions common among 767’s and -200, -300, and 767ER specific. Wording in the question identifies questions that pertain to -200, -300, and 767ER only. Each question is printed in bold print and followed by the answer in italics. Following each answer is a reference to the publication identifying the location of the answer. Since the majority of questions in the 757/767 section are common to all 757 & 767 aircraft, the reference provided after each answer may coincide only to the 757 manuals. This will simplify your studying by having to reference only 757 manuals for all common subjects. The 767 manuals can then be used primarily for 767 differences. Pilots must have an adequate working knowledge of all the listed sections. The questions in this study guide are an indication of the depth of knowledge expected. When necessary, a note is provided to give further understanding to some answers. Since the notes come from references other than pilot manuals, pilots are not responsible for recalling the notes. Any questions or comments concerning this Study Guide should be submitted to:

B757/767 Manager - Air Crew Program Delta Air Lines, Inc.

Department 967 PO Box 20706

Atlanta, Georgia 30320-6001

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04

2 FOR TRAINING PURPOSES ONLY

Table of Contents

LIMITATIONS………………………………………………………………………………...3 CHAPTER 1: AIRPLANE GENERAL……………………………………………………....7 CHAPTER 2: AIR SYSTEMS………………………………………………………………12 CHAPTER 3: ANTI-ICE, RAIN…………………………………………………………….22 CHAPTER 4: AUTOMATIC FLIGHT……………………………………………………..25 CHAPTER 5: COMMUNICATIONS………………………………………………………36 CHAPTER 6: ELECTRICAL……………………………………………………………….38 CHAPTER 7: ENGINES, APU……………………………………………………………...44 CHAPTER 8: FIRE PROTECTION…………………………………………………….….53 CHAPTER 9: FLIGHT CONTROLS………………………………………………………57 CHAPTER 10: FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS………………………………………………...63 CHAPTER 11: FLIGHT MANAGEMENT, NAVIGATION……………………………..71 CHAPTER 12: FUEL………………………………………………………………………...77 CHAPTER 13: HYDRAULICS……………………………………………………………..80 CHAPTER 14: LANDING GEAR…………………………………………………………..86 CHAPTER 15: WARNING SYSTEMS…………………………………………………….91 NON-NORMAL CHECKLIST – RECALL ITEMS………………………………………97 PASSENGER EVACUATION………………………………………………………………99

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


LIMITATIONS

---------------------------------------757/767-------------------------------------- 1. What is the maximum allowable runway slope during takeoff and landing on the

B757/767?

+/- 2%. Ref. Vol 1 L.10.1

2. What is the maximum operating altitude for the B757 and B767?

B757 - 42,000 feet. B767 - 43,000 feet. Ref. Vol 1 L.10.1 3. What is the maximum takeoff and landing altitude on the B757/767?

8400 feet. Ref. Vol. 1 L.10.1 4. What is the maximum tailwind for takeoff and landing on the B757/767?

10 knots or as permitted by Delta 10-0 special pages. Ref. Vol 1 L.10.1 5. What is the turbulent air penetration speed for the B757/767?

290 KIAS/.78 Mach. Ref. Vol. 1 L.10.1 6. What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing on the B757/767?

29 knots. Ref. Vol. 1 L.10.1

7. What is the maximum differential pressure?

8.6 PSI. Ref. Vol. 1 L.10.3

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


8. What is the maximum differential pressure for takeoff and landing?

0.125 PSI. Ref. Vol. 1 L.10.3 9. What is the limitation that applies to a door mounted slide when carrying passengers on

the B757/B767? Entry door evacuation slide systems must be armed and engagement of the girt bar with door sill verified prior to taxi, takeoff, or landing whenever passengers are carried. Ref. Vol. 1 L.10.3

10. What is the limitation on autopilot engagement after takeoff?

After takeoff the autopilot must not be engaged below 200 feet AGL. Ref. Vol 1 L.10.3

11. What is the limitation regarding the use of aileron trim?

The use of aileron trim with the autopilot engaged is prohibited. Ref. Vol 1 L.10.3

12. What is the maximum allowable headwind for autoland?

25 knots. Ref. Vol. 1 L.10.3 13. What is the maximum allowable crosswind for autoland?

25 knots. Ref. Vol. 1 L.10.3 14. What is the maximum allowable tailwind for autoland?

10 knots. Ref. Vol. 1 L.10.3 15. What is the limitation regarding the use of flaps during Autoland?

Autoland authorized for flaps 25 or 30 landing only. Ref. Vol. 1 L.10.3

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


16. What is the limitation pertaining to the use of continuous ignition? Continuous ignition must be on (engine start selector in the CONT position) while operating in severe turbulence. Ref. Vol 1 L.10.4

17. What is the limitation regarding oil quantity prior to engine start?

Minimum oil quantity, prior to engine start, is 17 quarts. Ref. Vol 1 L.10.4

18. What is the limitation for the engine vibration display?

Do not blank during takeoff. Ref. Vol. 1 L.10.5

19. What is the limitation pertaining to takeoff on the B757 with an ENG LIM PROT light (N2 Control Mode) illuminated? Takeoff is not permitted. Ref. Vol. 1 L.10.5

20. What is the limitation regarding the use of Jet B and JP-4 fuel? Prohibited. Ref. Vol 1 L.10.5

21. What is the maximum fuel temperature?

49°C. Ref. Vol. 1 L.10.5 22. What is the limitation regarding fuel imbalance?

The maximum fuel imbalance for dispatch is 1,500 pounds. Ref. Vol 1 L.10.5

23. When may reverse thrust be used?

Ground use only. Ref. Vol. 1 L.10.6

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


24. What is the limitation regarding using reverse thrust to back the aircraft?

Prohibited. Ref. Vol. 1 L.10.6

25. What is the limitation pertaining to flap extension altitude?

Do not extend flaps above 20,000 feet. Ref. Vol. 1 L.10.6

26. What is the limitation for executing a VOR approach regarding the HSI presentations? One pilot must select the VOR mode on his HSI no later than the FAF, preferably prior to intercepting the final approach course. Ref. Vol. 1 L.10.6

27. What is the limitation pertaining to TCAS?

Pilots are authorized to deviate from their current ATC clearance to the extent necessary to comply with a TCAS resolution advisory. Ref. Vol 1 L.10.7

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


CHAPTER 1: AIRPLANE GENERAL, EMERGENCY EQUIPMENT, DOORS, and WINDOWS

---------------------------------------757/767--------------------------------------

1. What is the function of the ON position of the Light Override switch?

Overrides the normal controls and illuminates the instrument flood and dome lights at maximum brightness. Ref. Vol. 2 1.30.3

2. With normal electrical power lost how are the forward panel floodlights and integral lights for essential instruments powered?

Automatic switching to the STBY AC bus. Ref. Vol.2 1.40.3 3. How does the flap handle affect the PASS SIGN controls when in the AUTO position?

When the flaps are not up, FASTEN SEAT BELT/RETURN TO SEAT signs are illuminated. Ref. Vol. 2 1.40.4

4. How does the landing gear handle affect the PASS SIGN controls in the AUTO position?

When the gear is down, FASTEN SEAT BELT/RETURN TO SEAT and NO SMOKING signs

are illuminated. Ref. Vol. 2 1.40.4

5. How is the Emergency Lighting System powered?

Remote Batteries. Battery charge is maintained by the aircraft electrical system. Ref. Vol.2 1.40.4

6. What is the meaning of an illuminated Emergency Lights UNARMED light? Emergency lights switch is not in the ARMED position. Ref. Vol. 2 1.40.5

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


7. When will the emergency lights illuminate if the EMER LIGHTS switch is in ARMED position? When DC power fails or is turned off. Ref. Vol. 2 1.40.4

8. Which exterior lights will illuminate if an Emergency Door is opened with the escape slides armed and the EMER LIGHTS switch in the ARMED position? All exterior emergency lights illuminate on that side.

Ref. Vol.2 1.40.4

9. What is the function of the Passenger Cabin EMERGENCY LIGHTS switch located on the Flight Attendant Panel? Illuminates all passenger cabin and exterior emergency lights. Ref. Vol. 2 1.30.10

10. What is the minimum dispatch pressure for crew oxygen?

1,000 PSI. Ref. Vol.1 NP.20.16

11. Where is the crew oxygen pressure displayed? On the lower EICAS status display. Ref. Vol. 2 1.40.5

12. What is the meaning of a yellow cross in the oxygen flow indicator on the Crew Oxygen Mask Panel?

Oxygen is flowing. Ref. Vol 2 1.30.21 13. What happens when the Emergency Test Selector on the mask regulator is rotated to

Emergency?

100% oxygen is supplied under positive pressure at all cabin altitudes. Ref. Vol.2 1.30.22

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


14. What happens when the PASS OXY switch is pushed?

The Passenger Cabin Oxygen masks drop. Ref Vol.2 1.30.20

15. When do the passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy?

When cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 feet. Ref Vol.2 1.40.6

16. What is the meaning of an illuminated Passenger Oxygen ON light? Passenger Oxygen System is operating and the masks have dropped. Ref. Vol.2 1.30.20

17. When will oxygen begin flowing to the passenger oxygen masks?

Oxygen flows from the oxygen generator when any mask hanging from that generator is

pulled. Ref. Vol.2 1.40.6

18. How many entry doors are on the B757?

Six. Ref. Vol.2 1.40.13

19. What is the meaning of an illuminated ENTRY DOORS light?

An entry doors is not closed, and latched and locked. Ref. Vol. 2 1.30.11

20. How many overwing exits are on the B757?

Four. Ref. Vol.2 1.40.13

21. What occurs when an overwing emergency door is opened from the inside of the cabin?

The overwing evacuation slide automatically deploys and inflates. Ref Vol.2 1.40.17

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


22. What is the meaning of an illuminated EMER DOORS light? A forward or aft emergency door, or wing slide door is not closed, and latched and locked. Ref. Vol. 2 1.30.11

23. What is the meaning of an illuminated ACCESS DOOR light? The Forward Equipment bay or the Electrical Equipment compartment door is not closed, and latched and locked. Ref. Vol. 2 1.30.11

24. How many cargo doors are on the B757?

Two. Ref. Vol.2 1.40.19

25. How are the forward and aft cargo doors normally operated? Electrically. Ref. Vol.2 1.40.19

26. What is the meaning of an illuminated CARGO DOORS light? Forward or aft cargo door is not closed, and latched and locked. Ref. Vol. 2 1.30.11

---------------------------------767 Differences---------------------------------- 27. How many entry doors are on the B767-200?

Four. Ref. Vol.2 1.40.15

28. How many entry doors are on the B767-300? There are four entry doors. Ref. Vol.2 1.40.15 NOTE: With some exceptions.

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


29. What is the visual indication that a girt bar is engaged on the passenger entry doors? The girt bar visual indication window will be completely yellow. Ref. Vol.2 1.40.17

30. How many overwing exits are on the B767-200?

Two. Ref.Vol.2 1.40.19 31. How many overwing exits are on the B767-300?

There are four exits. Ref. Vol.2 1.40.19 NOTE: With some exceptions.

32. How many cargo doors are on the B767?

Three. Ref. Vol.2 1.40.21

33. What is the meaning of an illuminated CARGO DOORS light on the B767?

Forward, Aft, or Bulk cargo door is not closed and locked. Ref. Vol. 2 1.30.11

34. How is the bulk cargo door on the B767 is operated? Manually. Ref. Vol.2 1.40.21

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


CHAPTER 2: AIR SYSTEMS

---------------------------------------757/767-------------------------------------- Air Conditioning 1. What is the function of the STBY - N position of the Pack Control Selector?

Sets a constant moderate temperature. Ref Vol.2 2.10.3 2. What is the function of the STBY - C position of the Pack Control Selector?

Sets a temperature to full cold operation. Ref. Vol.2 2.10.3 3. What is the function of the STBY - W position of the Pack Control Selector?

Sets a temperature to full warm operation. Ref. Vol.2 2.10.3

4. What is the meaning of an illuminated PACK OFF light?

The pack valve is closed (pack is off). Ref. Vol.2 2.20.2 5. What is the meaning of an illuminated Pack INOP light?

Excessive pack outlet temperature or an Auto Controller fault.

Ref. Vol.2 2.20.2 & QRH NNC.2.10 6. What is the meaning of an illuminated Pack INOP and PACK OFF light?

Pack Trip (Pack Overheat). Ref. Vol.2 2.20.2

NOTE: Both lights illuminated at the same time indicate that the Pack is overheated (High Compressor temp) and the pack valve was commanded closed causing a Pack Trip.

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


7. After experiencing a pack overheat, an attempt to restore pack operation may be made once the pack has cooled by pushing which switch? The PACK RESET switch. Ref. QRH NNC 2.10

8. Which temperature zone controls the output of the air conditioning packs during

automatic temperature control?

The compartment demanding the coolest temperature. Ref. Vol. 2 2.20.3 9. What is the meaning of an illuminated Compartment Temperature INOP light?

OFF

• Off selected on the Compartment (zone) Temperature Control selector. • Off selected on the Trim Air switch is off. • Fault in the Zone Temperature Controller.

Ref. Vol.2 2.20.3

10. With a Compartment Temperature Control in the OFF position, how is the temperature

in that compartment controlled? The compartment calling for the coolest temperature will control temperature. Ref. QRH NNC.2.4

11. What is the purpose of the Trim Air System?

Adds warm air to control individual zone temperatures as required by the Zone Temperature

Controller. Ref. Vol. 2 2.20.3 12. What happens to cabin temperature when the Trim Air System fails or the TRIM AIR

switch is OFF? The packs will automatically maintain an average temperature in all compartments. Ref. Vol.2 2.20.3

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


13. What is the purpose of the L and R RECIRC FANS?

Draws cabin and cockpit air through filters and returns that air to the mix manifold, maintains ventilation, while minimizing the use of bleed air (increasing fuel efficiency).

Ref. Vol. 2 2.20.2

14. Why must the L RECIRC FAN switch on the B757 remain ON at all times?

To provide E/E cooling. Ref. Vol.2 2.20.2

15. What happens on the ground if the L RECIRC FAN (B757) is turned off with electrical power on the airplane?

Ground crew call horn will sound, due to low airflow through the Forward Equipment Cooling System. Ref. Vol. 2 2.20.4

16. What would cause a Equipment Cooling OVHT light on the B757? Insufficient airflow. Ref. Vol.2 2.10.4

17. During an equipment cooling overheat condition, essential avionics and electrical equipment are operational and reliable for what minimum period of time on the B757? 90 Minutes. This is for essential equipment on the STBY buses only. Ref QRH NNC.2.6

NOTE: Avionics and electrical equipment and displays (I.E. ADI and HSI), not powered by standby buses, are subject to failure within the 90-minute time period.

18. What is the meaning of an illuminated Equipment Cooling SMOKE light?

Smoke detected in the equipment cooling ducts. Ref. Vol. 2 2.10.4

19. How is smoke removed from the Equipment Cooling System on the B757? Automatically with the Overboard Exhaust Valve. Ref. Vol. 2 2.20.4

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


20. How are the cargo compartments heated on the B757? Completely automatic, there are no controls or indicators in the cockpit. Ref. Vol. 2 2.20.4

Pressurization 21. What altitude should be set in the LDG ALT window prior to takeoff?

Set to destination airport elevation. Vol. 1 NP.20.10 (For International operations QFE SP.10.)

22. What should be put in the LDG ALT window if a diversion to a new destination airport is necessary?

Verify LDG ALT is set for the new destination airport. Ref. Vol. 1 NP.20.38

23. What is the function of the index mark setting of the Cabin Altitude AUTO RATE Control? Limits of 500 FPM climb and 300 FPM descent. Ref. Vol2 2.10.6

24. Describe what happens to the Pressurization System when the selected AUTO mode fails.

Automatically switches to the other auto mode. Ref. Vol. 2 2.30.1

25. What is the meaning of an illuminated AUTO INOP light? AUTO 1 and AUTO 2 are both inoperative or manual mode has been selected. Ref. Vol.2 2.10.6 & .30.2

26. How does a crewmember regain control over the outflow valve after the AUTO INOP light illuminates? By placing the Cabin Altitude MODE SELECTOR in manual. Ref. Vol.2 2.30.2 & QRH NNC.2.3

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


27. What does an illuminated Cabin Altitude light indicate?

A cabin altitude of more than 10,000 feet exists. Ref. Vol.2 2.10.7 & .30.2

28. When will an illuminated Cabin Altitude light extinguish?

When the cabin altitude descends below 8500 feet. Ref. Vol.2 2.10.7 & .30.2

29. Describe what happens when the aircraft cabin altitude climbs above 10,000 feet.

• Illuminates both CABIN ALT and CABIN ALTITUDE discrete lights. Ref. Vol. 2 2.30.2 • EICAS warning message CABIN ALTITUDE displays. Ref. Vol. 2 2.30.2 • FASTEN SEATBELTS signs illuminate. Ref. Vol. 2 1.40.4

30. Describe what happens to the Pressurization System if the cabin altitude exceeds 11,000 feet during automatic operation.

Regardless of mode selected (AUTO 1 or 2), the outflow valve is signaled to close. Ref. Vol. 2 2.30.2

31. What protects the fuselage against excessive pressure differential? Positive pressure relief valves and negative pressure relief doors. Ref. Vol. 2 2.30.1

32. What happens to the pressurization system during descent? The cabin altitude decreases to slightly below the selected landing altitude. Ref. Vol. 2 2.30.2

33. What happens to the outflow valve at touchdown?

The outflow valve opens to depressurize the airplane. Ref. Vol. 2 2.30.2

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


Bleed Air 34. Bleed air can be supplied by what sources?

Engines, APU, or a ground air source. Ref. Vol. 2 2.40.1

35. How are the bleed air valves actuated? The valves are pressure actuated. Ref. Vol. 2 2.40.1

36. What is the meaning of a momentary VALVE light on the Pneumatic Panel?

In transit - illuminates when valve and switch position disagree. Ref. Vol. 2 2.10.8

37. What is the meaning of an illuminated Isolation VALVE light? Valve and switch position disagree. Ref. Vol. 2 2.10.8

38. Describe the function of the ON (flow bar in view) position of the Engine Bleed Air switch.

Arms the Engine Bleed Air Valve to open when bleed air is available. Ref. Vol. 2 2.10.8

39. What is the meaning of an illuminated Engine Bleed Air OFF light?

Illuminates when the Engine Bleed Air Valve is closed. Ref. Vol. 2 2.10.8

40. Describe the function of the OFF position of the Engine Bleed Air switch.

Closes the Engine Bleed Air Valve. OFF illuminates when the valve is closed. Ref. Vol. 2 2.10.9 & .40.1

41. What is the meaning of an illuminated Engine HI STAGE light? Bleed Air Malfunction (bleed system pressure is excessive). Ref. Vol. 2 2.10.9 & .40.1

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


42. What is the meaning of the BLEED and Engine Bleed OFF lights illuminating simultaneously? Bleed Air Malfunction (bleed air temperature is excessive). Ref. Vol. 2 2.10.9

43. Describe how to reset an ENGINE BLEED VALVE Caution message and Engine BLEED light.

Reset the Engine Bleed Air switch (OFF then ON). Ref. QRH NNC .2.5

44. What is the meaning of an illuminated DUCT LEAK light? A high temperature leak is detected. Ref. Vol. 2 2.10.9

45. What is the required Bleed Air Duct pressure to complete a Engine ground pneumatic

start (Engine start using a huffer ground source)? A duct pressure of 30 psi or greater. Ref. Vol. 1 SP.7.1

---------------------------------767 Differences---------------------------------- Air Conditioning 46. Describe the function of the AUTO position of the Equipment Cooling Selector.

Provides most efficient or best cooling (Allows automatic operations for conditions in the Equipment Cooling System). Ref. Vol. 2 2.20.6

47. Describe the function of the STBY position of the EQUIP COOLING Selector.

Provides maximum cooling (Reconfigures the system for recirculating the cooling air back through the system). Ref. Vol. 2 2.20.6

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


48. Describe the function of the OVRD position of the EQUIP COOLING Selector. Provides differential pressure cooling (Allows conditioned air to be drawn in reverse through the system by differential pressure and exhausted overboard). Ref. Vol. 2 2.20.6

49. What is the meaning of an illuminated Equipment Cooling VALVE light? Cooling valves are not in their commanded position. Ref. Vol. 2 2.20.6

50. What is the meaning of an illuminated Cargo Heat OVHT light? The Cargo Compartment temperature is above standard control range. Ref. Vol. 2 2.10.8 & .20.7

51. What is the meaning of an illuminated NO COOLING light and when is it armed to illuminate? OVRD has been selected and no cooling airflow detected in forward E/E. Armed only in OVRD position. Ref. Vol. 2 2.20.6

52. With an illuminated NO COOLING light, essential avionics and electrical equipment are operational and reliable for what minimum period of time? 90 Minutes. This is for essential equipment on the STBY buses only. Ref QRH NNC.2.6

NOTE: Avionics and electrical equipment and displays (I.E. ADI and HSI), not powered by standby buses, are subject to failure within the 90-minute time period.

53. What position of the EQUIP COOLING Selector is used to remove SMOKE?

OVRD. Ref. Vol. 2 2.20.6

54. The forward, aft, and bulk cargo compartments are provided heat from what source? The cargo compartments are provided heat from the bleed air system. Ref. Vol. 2 2.20.6

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


55. Describe the function of the NORM position of the BULK CARGO HEAT selector.

Selects cargo heat temperature control range same as the forward and aft compartments to maintain a temperature above 45° F. Ref. Vol. 2 2.20.6

56. Describe the function of the VENT position of the BULK CARGO HEAT Selector.

Selects higher temperature range than NORM, and turns on vent fan for the Bulk Cargo compartment to maintain a temperature above 65° F. Ref. Vol. 2 2.20.7

Bleed Air 57. Describe the purpose of the check valves located on both sides of the crossover manifold

on the B767. Prevent the opposite side bleed air from back pressuring the other system. Ref. Vol. 2 2.40.3 & .4 Schematic

58. Describe how bleed air is normally supplied to the center duct on the B767.

From the crossover manifold, which is supplied from either engine or APU. Ref. Vol. 2 2.40.3 & 2.40.4 Schematic

59. Why is the center isolation switch on the B767 guarded and normally kept in the open

position?

Because the crossover manifold is a supply manifold for the center duct systems. Ref. Vol. 2 2.40.3 Schematic

60. What systems use bleed air from the center duct on the B767?

ADP for the C hydraulic system, aft and bulk cargo compartment heat and C hydraulic system reservoir. Ref. Vol. 2 2.40.3 Schematic

61. What does an illuminated Engine Bleed Air OVHT light on the 300ER indicate? Bleed Air Malfunction (bleed air temperature is excessive). Ref. Vol. 2 2.10.14

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


62. What is the meaning of an illuminated center DUCT LEAK light on the B767? A high temperature bleed air leak is detected in the center pneumatic duct. Ref. Vol. 2 2.10.13

63. What are the consequences of a DUCT LEAK in the area between the isolation valves crossover duct on the B767? Flight beyond 6 hours with a duct leak light may result in structural damage.

Ref. QRH NNC .2.1.

64. Describe which bleed air systems are initially affected by a bleed trip.

Respective side pack and wing anti-ice. Ref QRH NNC.2.7

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


CHAPTER 3: ANTI-ICE, RAIN

---------------------------------------757/767-------------------------------------- 1. What part of the engine does the Engine Anti-Ice System heat?

The engine cowl inlets are heated by bleed air. Ref Vol.2 3.20.1

2. When should Engine Anti-Ice be used?

During all ground or flight operations when icing conditions exist or are anticipated. OAT is 50°F (10°C) or less and one of the following conditions exist:

• Visible moisture is present or • Runways and taxiways are wet

Ref Vol.1 SP 3.1

3. What part of the wing does the Wing Anti-Ice System on the B757 heat? The three midwing leading edge slats on each wing. Ref Vol.2 3.20.1

4. When can Wing Anti-Ice be operated? Wing Anti-Ice can be operated in flight only (inhibited on the ground). Ref Vol.2 3.20.1

5. What does the meaning of an illuminated Wing Anti-Ice VALVE or Engine Anti-Ice VALVE light indicate? Valve position disagrees with switch position. Ref Vol.2 3.10.1

6. What does an illuminated ICING light indicate?

Ice Detector System indicates ice buildup on the airplane. Ref Vol.2 3.10.2

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


7. How are all flight deck windows heated? Electrically. Ref Vol.2 3.20.3

8. What type of window heat protection do the forward windows have? The forward windows have anti-icing and anti-fogging. Ref Vol.2 3.20.3

9. What type of window heat protection do the side windows have? The side windows have anti-fogging protection only. Ref Vol.2 3.20.3

10. Describe what happens to the Window Heat System when a Window Heat INOP light illuminates. Window is not being heated. Ref Vol.2 3.10.2

11. When does the Probe Heat operate? Electrical power is applied to the probe heat any time an engine is running. Ref Vol.2 3.20.4

12. What is the meaning of an illuminated Probe Heat light? That probe is not being heated or neither engine is running on the ground. Ref Vol.2 3.10.3 & .4

---------------------------------767 Differences---------------------------------- 13. The wing anti-ice system provides bleed air to what portion of the wing?

Bleed air is provided to the three outboard leading edge slats on each wing. Ref Vol.2 3.20.1

14. How many Ice Detectors are on the aircraft equipped with an Automatic Ice Detection System?

Two. Ref Vol.2 3.20.4

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


15. Describe the function of the AUTO position of the Engine & Wing Anti-Ice Selectors on the aircraft equipped with an Automatic Ice Detection System. Commands the wing and engine anti-ice valves to open and close automatically as directed by the Ice Detection System in flight. The auto function is inhibited on the ground. Ref Vol.2 3.20.4

16. What is the meaning of an illuminated ICING light on the aircraft equipped with an Automatic Ice Detection System? Icing is detected and any selector is OFF or an anti-ice valve is closed. Ref Vol.2 3.10.2

17. What is the meaning of an illuminated ICE DET light on the aircraft equipped with an Automatic Ice Detection System? Both ice detector units have failed. Ref Vol.2 3.20.4

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


CHAPTER 4: AUTOMATIC FLIGHT

---------------------------------------757/767-------------------------------------- 1. How many flight control computers (FCC’s) are installed on the aircraft?

Three. Ref Vol.2 4.20.1

2. What does an illuminated light bar on the lower half of the MCP autopilot switches

indicate?

Indicates a mode is armed or active. Ref Vol.2 4.20.1 3. What indicates an autopilot is engaged in command?

Green CMD Flight Mode Annunciation (FMA) on the ADI. Ref Vol.2 4.10.2

4. What are the color designations for armed modes versus engaged modes on the ADI?

White indicates armed and green indicates active. Ref Vol.2 4.10.15 & 16

5. How can an engaged (captured) pitch or roll mode be disengaged or changed to another mode?

If the mode is WHITE (armed) it may be deselected, if the mode is GREEN (captured) another mode must be selected. Ref Vol.2 4.10.6, .11, & .12

6. What is the meaning of the green box that is momentarily displayed in the ADI?

Indicates a mode change and appears for 10 seconds. Ref Vol.2 4.10.17

7. What is the meaning of the AUTOPILOT light on the Center Forward Panel? A degraded operating condition exists in the engaged autopilot. Ref Vol.2 4.10.19 & .20.2

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


8. How does the Autoflight system respond to failures affecting only an active mode?

• The autopilot remains engaged in stabilizing mode. • An amber line is drawn through the mode annunciation. • The AUTOPILOT light illuminates. • The EICAS caution message AUTOPILOT displays. Ref Vol.2 4.20.2

9. When does the Flight Director Command Bars first appear on the ADI?

When the Flight Director is turned on. Ref Vol.2 4.20.3

10. How are the Flight Directors engaged in the TAKEOFF mode? On the ground, with no autopilot engaged - turn on the F/D switches. Ref Vol.2 4.10.2

11. On takeoff the F/D’s command a pitch to maintain what airspeed? Pitch command greater of V2 + 15 or liftoff speed + 15. Ref Vol.2 4.20.8

12. If an engine fails on the ground during takeoff, the F/D’s command a pitch to maintain what airspeed? V2 or airspeed at lift-off, which ever is greater. Ref Vol.2 4.20.12

13. At lift-off, what do roll commands maintain? Ground track. Ref Vol.2 4.20.12

14. What occurs with a flight director failure in either pitch or roll? The respective steering bars disappear. Ref Vol.2 4.20.3

15. What modes will the Autopilot engage in when CMD is selected with the flight directors on? Engages in the preselected F/D mode(s) except T/O and GA. Ref Vol.2 4.10.2

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


16. What modes will the Autopilot engage in when CMD is selected with both Flight Directors off?

VERTICAL SPEED and HDG HOLD. Ref Vol.2 4.10.2

17. What occurs to the Autoflight System when the HDG SEL mode is activated? Turns to or maintains the heading selected in the MCP heading window. Ref Vol.2 4.20.7

18. With the HDG SEL mode already engaged, which direction will the aircraft turn when a new heading is selected? AFDS controls roll to acquire and hold heading shown in heading window and on map heading markers (heading bug). Ref Vol.2 4.10.8

NOTE: Initial engagement of HDG SEL with a pre selected heading turns the aircraft in the direction giving the least heading change (shortest direction) to the pre selected heading. Once the HDG SEL mode is engaged the aircraft will turn in the same direction as the Heading Selector knob.

19. What roll modes does the BANK LIMIT Selector affect?

HDG SEL only. Ref Vol.2 4.10.8

20. What happens when the autopilot is engaged in HDG HOLD in a turn?

Levels the wings then maintains present heading. Ref Vol.2 4.10.9 & .20.7

21. What switch should be pressed first when executing a Localizer Back Course approach?

Either switch if outside LOC capture range, but B/CRS first if inside capture range. If localizer is captured before pressing B/CRS switch AFDS will track the localizer front course (outbound). Ref Vol.2 4.10.12

NOTE: B/CRS first is recommended at all times.

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


22. What course must be set in the ILS Control Panel when executing a Localizer Back Course approach?

Front course. Ref Vol.2 4.10.12 & 11.10.15

23. How do you deselect a Localizer or Localizer Back Course approach PRIOR to localizer intercept?

Push B/CRS or LOC a second time or selecting another roll mode. Ref Vol.2 4.10.12

24. How do you deselect a Localizer or Localizer Back Course approach AFTER the localizer has been captured?

Select another roll mode, or push a GA switch, or disengage the Autopilot and turn off both F/Ds. Ref Vol.2 4.10.11 & .12

25. How is aircraft speed controlled when the IAS/MACH display is blank and VNAV is the active mode?

FMS controls speed. Ref Vol.2 4.10.5

26. What speed will the Autoflight System maintain when the FL CH switch is pushed? Holds existing airspeed. Ref Vol.2 4.10.7

27. How is aircraft speed maintained during FL CH operations? AFDS commands pitch to hold IAS/MACH window airspeed. Ref Vol.2 4.10.7

28. What appears in the VERT SPD window when the vertical speed mode is initially engaged? Current vertical speed. Ref Vol.2 4.10.9 & .20.9

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


29. Can Vertical Speed mode be activated before selecting a new altitude in the MCP?

Yes, Vertical Speed mode permits flight from selected altitude. Ref Vol.1 SP.4.2

30. What altitude will the autopilot hold after pressing the Altitude HOLD switch?

The altitude at the time the switch was pushed. Ref Vol.2 4.10.10

31. Which mode of the Autothrottle system is normally used for takeoff? EPR. Ref Vol.2 4.20.12

32. What is the function of the autothrottle EPR mode? Autothrottle controlling to the selected EPR reference thrust. Ref Vol.2 4.20.6

33. What does THR HOLD indicate? Thrust levers remain in existing position or where manually placed. Ref Vol.2 4.20.6

34. When does the submode of THR HOLD become engaged during takeoff? 80 KIAS. Ref Vol.2 4.20.11 & .12

35. How does the Autothrottle System operate when in the SPD mode?

Thrust is controlled to maintain the selected speed in the IAS/MACH window. Ref Vol.2 4.20.6

36. How does the thrust management computer control the Autothrottle system while VNAV is engaged? Automatically from the FMC. Ref Vol.2 4.20.10

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


37. How does the auto-throttle system operate during FLCH climbs and descents? Thrust is set to a maximum of selected mode reference thrust during climbs and to a minimum thrust (idle) during descent. Ref Vol.2 4.20.6

38. When will an automatic Autothrottle disconnect occur? • Either engine placed in reverse • Fault in the Autothrottle system

Ref Vol.2 4.20.10

39. How is the Autothrottle system manually disconnected? • Positioning the A/T arm switch to off. • Pushing either thrust lever A/T disconnect switch. Ref Vol.2 4.20.10

40. What is the minimum amount of Autopilots required for a AUTOLAND?

Two. Ref Vol.1 NP.10.8 41. What type of approaches is the APP switch is used for?

ILS (localizer & glideslope). Ref Vol.2 4.20.13

42. Describe what happens when the APP switch us pushed?

• Arms LOC and GS. • If an autopilot is engaged it will arm the other autopilots. • Buses separate to provide independent sources of power to the autopilots

Ref Vol.2 4.10.12

43. When will bus separation occur during an autoland?

By pushing the Mode Control Panel APP switch with an A/P engaged. Ref Vol.2 4.10.11

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


44. How can another pitch or roll mode be engaged after localizer and/or glideslope modes are captured? With LOC captured, select another roll mode. With G/S captured, select another pitch mode. With LOC and G/S both captured, you must select GA or disengage the Autopilots and turn both F/D’s off. Ref Vol.2 4.10.12

45. How can you disarm the Approach mode before the localizer and glideslope have been captured? Push APP a second time. Ref Vol.2 4.10.12

46. Once localizer and glideslope are captured, how can they be deactivated?

Disengaging the Autopilot and turning both Flight Directors off, or by selecting GA mode. Ref Vol.2 4.20.2

47. What happens when the localizer is captured? LOC appears green in each ADI, ILS frequency change is inhibited, and the Heading Bug slews to the selected ILS front course. Ref Vol.2 4.10.11 & .20.15

48. What is the maximum intercept angle to capture the localizer? 120 degrees. Ref Vol.2 4.10.11 & .20.7

49. What happens during an automatic approach at 1500 feet RA with the localizer and glideslope captured? ASA annunciates LAND 3, multi A/P engagement and rudder control engagement, FLARE and ROLLOUT armed. Ref Vol.2 4.20.15

50. When does the autopilot control the rudder? During a multiple autopilot approach with LAND 3 or LAND 2 annunciated. Ref Vol.2 4.20.13

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


51. What is the meaning of the LAND 2 annunciation?

Below 1500 feet RA with LOC and G/S captured, indicates a minimum of two A/P systems and their inputs are operating normally. Ref Vol.2 4.10.13

52. What is the meaning of the LAND 3 annunciation? Below 1500 feet RA with LOC and G/S captured, indicates all 3 A/P systems and inputs are operating normally. Ref Vol.2 4.10.13

53. What is the meaning of a NO LAND 3 annunciation? Indicates a fault condition exists which results in a LAND 2 condition. Ref Vol.2 4.10.13

54. What is the meaning of a NO AUTOLAND annunciation? Indicates fault conditions exist which preclude the use of the autopilots for an automatic landing. Ref Vol.2 4.10.13

55. What happens during an AUTOLAND at 500 feet RA?

Begins runway alignment. Ref Vol.2 4.20.15


LAND 2/NO LAND 3 is inhibited, and electrical system auto power transfer inhibited (bus isolation). Ref Vol.2 4.20.15

57. What changes to the ASA display can occur below 200 feet during an AUTOLAND? The ASA display cannot change except to indicate a NO AUTOLND condition. Ref Vol.2 4.20.6

58. What happens during an AUTOLAND at 45 feet RA? FLARE capture. Ref Vol.2 4.20.13

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


59. What happens during an AUTOLAND at 25 feet RA on the B757?

Throttles go to IDLE and ADI changes from SPD to IDLE. Ref Vol.2 4.20.14


Rollout engages. Ref Vol.2 4.20.14

61. What happens during an AUTOLAND at 5 feet RA plus 2 seconds?

GA is inhibited. Ref Vol.2 4.20.15

62. During the AUTOLAND ground ROLLOUT, what autopilot controls are used to keep the airplane on the localizer centerline? Rudder and nose wheel steering. Ref Vol.2 4.20.14

63. When can manual steering be used after an AUTOLAND? After the A/P’s are disengaged. Ref Vol.2 4.20.14

64. How many autopilots are required for an automatic Go-Around? One. Ref Vol.2 4.20.15

65. When does the GA mode become automatically armed?

Glideslope capture or flaps not up. Ref Vol.2 4.20.15

66. Can the Autoflight System perform an automatic engine-out Go-Around?

Yes. Ref Vol.2 4.20.16

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


67. What do the autopilots initially command for pitch and roll during an automatic Go-Around? • Autothrottle increases thrust to establish a 2000 FPM rate of climb • Increases pitch to hold existing speed or selected MCP speed whichever is higher • Roll commands bank to maintain ground track

Ref Vol.2 4.20.16

68. What occurs during an automatic Go-Around once a climb rate of 2000 FPM is reached?

Autothrottles control thrust to maintain rate of 2000 FPM. Ref Vol.2 4.20.16

69. How can the GA mode be terminated below 400 feet RA?

A/P’s disengaged and both F/Ds turned off. Ref Vol.2 4.20.16

70. What happens at level off during an automatic Go-Around if multiple autopilots are engaged? Pitch mode changes to ALT HOLD, and all autopilots except first engaged in CMD automatically disengage. Ref Vol.2 4.20.15 & 16 & FCTM 4.44

71. What happens during an automatic engine-out Go-Around when the Autoflight System reverts to single autopilot operation?

Rudder returns to the trimmed position. Ref Vol.2 4.20.16

72. What happens if windshear is detected and either GA switch is pushed?

Activates the Windshear Recovery Guidance System. Ref Vol.2 4.20.17

73. What happens during a windshear condition if Go-Around is activated and the Flight Directors are OFF?

F/D command bars automatically appear to provide appropriate commands. Ref Vol.2 4.20.3

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


74. Describe the pitch command during a Windshear recovery? 15 degrees nose up or slightly below the pitch limit, whichever is lower. Ref Vol.2 4.20.17

75. What speed limits are monitored by the AFDS and TMC? Flap placard speeds, max angle of attack (alpha speed) and maximum speed (VMO). Ref Vol.2 4.20.17

76. What is the meaning of the ALPHA annunciation? Approaching max angle of attack. Ref Vol.2 4.20.17

77. What happens to the fast/slow pointer when a speed limit is exceeded? The pointer changes color to amber and flashes. Ref Vol.2 4.20.17

---------------------------------767 Differences---------------------------------- 78. When do the throttles move to idle during an AUTOLAND on the B767-200?

45 feet RA. Ref Vol.2 4.20.11

79. When do the throttles move to idle during an AUTOLAND on the B767-300 & 300ER?


B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


CHAPTER 5: COMMUNICATIONS

---------------------------------------757/767-------------------------------------- 1. What is the function of the BOOM/OXY switch on the Audio Select Panel?

BOOM - transmits from the Boom Microphone OXY - transmits from the Oxygen Mask Microphone Ref Vol.2 5.10.1

2. What would be the result of decreasing the sensitivity too far on the HF Radio? Prevents reception, including SELCAL monitoring. Ref Vol.2 5.20.2

3. What are the cabin indications when the ALERT switch on the Flight Deck Handset is pushed? Calls all flight attendant stations. Ref Vol.2 5.10.11

4. What is the primary purpose of the center VHF radio?

ACARS data. Ref Vol.2 5.20.2

---------------------------------767 Differences---------------------------------- 5. What is the function of the HF/SAT XFR switch located on the HF/SAT Select Panel?

Selects HF or SATCOM radio for transmit/receive control. Ref Vol.2 5.10.7

6. What is the meaning of an illuminated HF Transfer light located on the HF/SAT Select Panel? Indicates the associated HF radio is being used to transmit/receive. Ref Vol.2 5.10.7

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


7. What is the meaning of an illuminated SAT Transfer light located on the HF/SAT Select Panel? Indicates the associated SATCOM radio is being used to transmit/receive. Ref Vol.2 5.10.7

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


CHAPTER 6: ELECTRICAL

---------------------------------------757/767-------------------------------------- 1. What does the External Power AVAIL light indicate when illuminated?

External power plugged in and power quality is acceptable. Ref Vol.2 6.10.2

2. When selected manually, what electrical power source will trip off any existing power source?

External power. Ref Vol.2 6.20.2

3. What does an illuminated APU Generator OFF light indicate? With the APU running and the APU generator breaker was commanded to close but remained open because of a fault or the APU Generator Control switch is selected off. Ref Vol.2 6.10.1

4. What is the purpose of the ON position in the Engine Generator Control switch? Arms the Generator Breaker to close automatically when generator power is available. Ref Vol.2 6.10.2

5. What does a Generator OFF light indicate when illuminated?

The Generator Control Breaker is open. Ref Vol.2 6.10.2

6. What does an illuminated Generator DRIVE light indicate?

High oil temperature or low oil pressure. Ref Vol.2 6.10.3

7. When can a disconnected IDG be reconnected? Only on the ground and requires maintenance to reconnect. Ref Vol.2 6.10.3

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


8. How does the loss of the left AC bus affect the Autoflight System? Loss of power to the left and center FCC’s. This will render the autopilots inoperative (above 200 feet). Ref QRH NNC.6.2

9. What happens during a AUTOLAND if one of the Generators fails below 200 feet?

Autoland will continue. Loss of associated Autopilot will occur and the ASA will not change from Land 3. Ref Vol.2 6.20.3 & .4

10. What is the purpose of the Bus Tie System?

PPI +3 • P - Prevents paralleling of the left or right main AC buses. • P - Provides power to both main AC buses. • I - Isolates faults.

+ • 1. Allows the DC Bus Tie Breaker to close with the loss of DC power. • 2. Allows the Capt’s Flight Instruments to remain powered with the loss of the Left AC

bus. • 3. Allows the F/O’s Flight Instruments to remain powered with the loss of the Right AC

bus. Ref Vol.2 6.20.2 & 6.20.4 & .6

11. What are the priorities for automatically powering the left and right main busses? Respective IDG, APU, opposite IDG. Ref Vol.2 6.20.3

12. What happens to the Electrical System when the engines are started with external or APU electrical power in use? The IDG automatically powers the respective main bus and the previous power source is disconnected from that bus. Ref Vol.2 6.20.1

13. What does an illuminated AC Bus ISLN light indicate when the Bus Tie switch is in the AUTO position? A fault has occurred automatically opening the AC bus tie breaker . Ref Vol.2 6.20.2

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


14. With a left AC bus fault, will the Captain’s Flight Instruments fail? No, They will automatically be powered from the right main AC bus. Ref Vol.2 6.20.4

15. With the Bus Tie Switches in AUTO, what happens to a DC bus if its respective TRU fails? Powered by the opposite DC bus thru the DC Bus Tie Breaker. Ref Vol.2 6.20.6

16. What items are normally powered by the Ground Handling Bus?

Cargo handling and equipment. Ref Vol.2 6.20.3 17. How is the Ground Handling Bus powered?

On the ground with external power connected to the aircraft or from the APU Generator.

Ref Vol.2 6.20.3

18. What is the main source of power for the Aircraft Battery Charger?

Ground Service Bus. Ref Vol.2 6.20.3

19. What items are normally powered by the Ground Service Bus? Main (aircraft)battery charger, APU battery charger, and misc. cabin/system loads. Ref Vol.2 6.20.3

20. What is the normal source of power for the Ground Service Bus? Right main AC bus. Ref Vol.2 6.20.3

21. What are the alternate sources of power for the Ground Service Bus? The APU Generator or External Power. Ref Vol.2 6.20.3

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


22. What buses are powered by the utility buses? Left and Right galley buses. Ref Vol.2 6.20.3

23. What normally powers the left and right utility busses? Their respective main AC bus. Ref Vol.2 6.20.3

24. What conditions would cause Utility bus load shedding? BOSS • B - Both Thrust Levers advanced to takeoff range on the ground with single power source • O – Overload (electrical load exceeds power available) • S – Starting Engines with the APU providing electrical power to the utility busses • S – Single Generator source inflight

Ref Vol.2 6.20.4

25. What happens to the utility busses when a single engine generator is powering the electrical system and an additional power source becomes available? Electrical power is automatically restored to the Utility Buses (auto reset). Ref Vol.2 6.20.4

26. What is the purpose of Automatic Load Shedding? To ensure power is available to critical and essential equipment. Ref Vol.2 6.20.4

27. What is the function of the OFF position of the STBY power selector? The standby buses are unpowered. Ref Vol.2 6.10.4

28. What is the function of the BAT position of the STBY power selector? Powers STBY Buses from the main (aircraft) battery. Ref Vol.2 6.10.4

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


29. How is the STBY DC bus normally powered (electrical power established on all buses)? The left DC system powers the Standby DC Bus. Ref Vol.2 6.20.8

30. How is the STBY AC bus normally powered (electrical power established on all buses)? The left AC system powers the Standby AC Bus . Ref Vol.2 6.20.9

31. How is the STBY AC bus powered during standby power operations? With the battery switch on and the standby power selector in AUTO, the main battery powers the Standby Inverter which provides AC power to the standby bus. Ref Vol.2 6.20.9

32. What electrical component is capable of providing temporary power to the Standby Power System should a loss of all generators occur? Main (aircraft) Battery. Ref Vol.2 6.20.8

33. How long is the Main (aircraft) Battery capable of powering the Standby Power System?

30 minutes. Ref QRH NNC.6.3

34. What causes a Standby Power Bus OFF light to illuminate? Standby AC or DC Bus is not powered. Ref Vol.2 6.10.4

---------------------------------767 Differences---------------------------------- 35. What are the main differences in the 767ER Electrical System?

L and R AC Transfer bus and HDG. Ref Vol.2 6.20.4

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


36. When will the Hydraulic Driven Generator (HDG) activate automatically? When both the left and right AC busses are unpowered. Ref Vol.2 6.20.13

37. Which Hydraulic System drives the HDG?

Center. Ref Vol.2 6.20.13

38. What does the HDG provide power to? • Battery and Hot Battery buses • Standby AC and DC buses • Left and Right AC Transfer bus • Either the Captain’s or First Officer’s Flight Instrument Transfer bus Ref Vol.2 6.20.13

39. How can the First Officer's flight instruments be powered from the HDG?

Select ALTN on the FLT INSTR BUS PWR switch. Ref Vol.2 6.20.4

40. When operating on Standby Power (both main AC Buses not powered and the HDG not

installed or not operating), describe what effect battery depletion will have on the gear and flaps. Flight beyond 30 minutes will result in complete loss of electrical power and the inability to extend gear and flaps. Ref QRH NNC.6.7 NOTE: The ADP in the Center Hydraulic system requires DC power to operate. When the ADP quits, there will be no Center hydraulic system pressure, therefore no way to operate the gear and no flaps hydraulically (ADP air supply valve will close when DC power is lost). There is no reference for this explanation.

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


CHAPTER 7: ENGINES, APU ENGINES

---------------------------------------757/767-------------------------------------- 1. Where are the primary engine indications normally displayed?

On the upper EICAS display. Ref Vol.2 7.11.1

2. What happens to the engine indications if one of the EICAS displays fails?

Compacted mode. Ref Vol.2 7.21.2

3. Describe the function of the AUTO position of the Standby Engine Indicator Selector.

Powers up if AC power is lost, if EICAS fails, or if a CRT has failed and STATUS selected on ground. Ref Vol.2 7.11.15

4. Which engine displays have operating limits indicated by red lines? N1, EGT, N2, oil pressure and oil temperature. Ref Vol.2 7.21.2

5. How can you remove the overspeed / overtemperature exceedance information from the EICAS display?

Push MAX IND RESET button on the EICAS control panel. Ref Vol.2 7.11.22

6. What is the meaning of an amber REV & green REV annunciations appearing above EPR indicator?

Amber - Reverser in transit. Green - Reverser is fully deployed. Ref Vol.2 7.11.3

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


7. What is the primary instrument is for setting thrust on the B757?

EPR. Ref Vol.2 7.21.3

8. Describe how the MAX EPR Limit is displayed on the EPR indicator.

Dual amber radials on the periphery of the EPR indicators. Ref Vol.2 7.21.3

9. What normally controls the Maximum Certified Thrust Limit (dual amber radials on inside of the EPR indicator)?

EEC’s or the TMC. Ref Vol.2 7.21.3

10. When will the autothrottles NOT use the Thrust Reference Limit?

TMC in MAN. Ref Vol.2 7.21.4

11. How are the thrust modes selected when operating in VNAV?

By the FMC. Ref Vol.2 7.21.5

12. What is the purpose of the Command Sector? Displays momentary difference between engine EPR and EPR commanded by thrust lever position. Ref Vol.2 7.11.4 & .21.3

13. What is the meaning of the red radial line on the inner periphery of the EGT indicator?

EGT maximum start limit. Ref Vol.2 7.11.6

14. What color will the EGT pointer and counter turn when reaching the Maximum Continuous EGT Limit? Amber except during Takeoff or Go Around amber color change will be delayed for five minutes. Ref Vol.2 7.11.6

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


15. How long is the EGT indication inhibited from changing to amber during Takeoff or Go Around?

5 minutes. Ref Vol.2 7.21.2

16. When is the Thermal Anti-Ice (TAI) Bug displayed on the B757? Displays a minimum cursor only when operating on a single bleed source. Ref Vol.2 7.11.7

17. What is the meaning of the amber TAI bug?

Displayed when engine anti-ice is on and N1 is below the minimum required for operation. Ref Vol.2 7.11.7

18. When does the magenta Fuel On Command Bug appear on the N2 indicator?

Engine is shutdown on the ground or in flight when X-BLD displayed. Ref Vol.2 7.11.8

19. When does the In-Flight Start Envelope appear on EICAS?

In flight with the Fuel Cutoff switch in the cutoff position, and engine N2 RPM is below idle. Ref Vol.2 7.11.8

20. How long can the engine be operated with the oil temperature above the red line limit? No time allowed - engine must be shutdown. Ref Vol.2 7.11.12 & QRH NNC.7.18

21. How long can the engine can be operated with the oil temperature in the amber band on the B757? If temperature is in the amber range for 20 minutes accomplish the engine failure or shut down checklist. Ref QRH NNC.7.18

22. What is the meaning of an illuminated L or R OIL PRESS light? Oil pressure at or below minimum or a switch malfunction. Ref Vol.2 7.11.12

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


23. What color will the oil pressure pointer and digital readout change to when the oil pressure drops below the minimum operating limit? Red. Ref Vol.2 7.11.12

24. What is the minimum engine oil quantity for engine start? 17 quarts. Ref Vol.1.NP.20.16

25. What is the function of the GRD position of the Engine Start Selector? Opens the Start Valve and arms the ignition. Ref Vol.2 7.11.19

26. What is the meaning of an illuminated Start VALVE light? Disagreement. Valve not in commanded position or open above 50% N2. Ref Vol.2 7.11.19

27. What is the engine starter duty cycle? • Continuous for 5 minutes. • Cool for 30 seconds per minute of operation. • After 2 consecutive5 minute cycles, cool the starter for 10 minutes prior to each subsequent starter duty cycle. Ref Vol.2 7.21.8

28. At what N2% should the FUEL CONTROL switch be placed to RUN during engine start on the B757? When N2 reaches 25% or if 25% not achievable, max motoring with a minimum of 18% N2. Ref Vol.1 NP.20.27

29. What is the meaning of an illuminated SPAR VALVE light? Fuel spar valve is not in commanded position. Ref Vol.2 7.11.18

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


30. What is the meaning of an illuminated ENG VALVE light? Engine Fuel Valve is not in commanded position. Ref Vol.2 7.11.18

31. When does the Engine Start Selector return to the AUTO position during engine start?

50% N2. Ref Vol.2 7.11.19

32. When does continuous ignition occur with the Start Selector in the AUTO position? Engine Anti Ice is on or slats extended. Ref Vol.2 7.11.20

33. Describe how ignition is supplied during Engine Anti-Ice operations. Ignition is automatic with the start selector switch in AUTO and the selected Ignition system fires continuously with engine Anti-Ice selected ON. Ref Vol.2 7.11.20

34. Which position of the Engine Start Selector commands both igniters to operate regardless of Ignition Selector position?

FLT. Ref Vol.2 7.11.20

35. What is the time limit for igniter operation?

No limit. Ref Vol.2 7.11.20

36. What is the primary source of power for the EEC’s? Its own permanent magnet alternator. Ref Vol.2 7.21.6

37. What is the function of the ALTN position of the EEC Power Switches on the B-757? Powers the EEC from airplane power. Ref Vol.2 7.11.4

NOTE: Used for maintenance purposes only, unless directed per MEL for dispatch.

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


38. What happens to the EEC on the B757 if the primary channel fails?

Automatically switches to the Secondary channel. Ref Vol.2 7.21.6

39. What happens to the EEC on the B757 if both EPR modes and both N1 modes fail?

N2 Primary Channel is automatically selected and the L or R ENG LIM PROT light and advisory message appears. If the Thrust Lever position is then pushed to full forward position, message will change to a caution. Ref Vol.2 7.21.7

40. What is the meaning of an illuminated ENG LIM PROT light on the B757? The EEC is operating in N2 control mode and automatic thrust limit protection is not available. Ref Vol.2 7.21.7

---------------------------------767 Differences---------------------------------- 41. At what N2% should the FUEL CONTROL switch be placed to RUN during engine start

on the B767? When N2 reaches 25% or if 25% not achievable, max motoring with a minimum of 15% N2. Ref Vol.1 NP.20.27

42. How long can the engine can be operated with the oil temperature in the amber band on the B767? If temperature is in the amber range for 15 minutes (GE) or 20 minutes (PW) accomplish the engine failure or shut down checklist. Ref QRH NNC.7.22

43. What is the meaning of an illuminated EEC ALTN light on the B767PW (FADEC)?

The EEC is operating in alternate (N1)mode. Ref Vol.2 7.11.19 NOTE: A FADEC (Full Authority Digital Electronic Control) engine has no mechanical cable

linkage between the thrust levers and engine.

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


44. What is the meaning of an illuminated EEC ALTN light on the B767GE (FADEC)? The EEC is operating in alternate mode. Ref Vol.2 7.12.20

NOTE: A FADEC (Full Authority Digital Electronic Control) engine has no mechanical cable linkage between the thrust levers and engine.

45. What is the meaning of an illuminated EEC INOP light on the B767GE (NON-FADEC)?

It is either failed or selected off. Ref Vol.2 7.12.19 NOTE: A NON-FADEC engine has mechanical cable linkage between the thrust levers and

engine.

46. Why does the procedure for an EEC INOP on the B767GE (NON-FADEC) call for reducing the thrust levers to mid position before turning OFF the EEC control switch? Prevents exceeding thrust limits. Ref QRH NNC 7.11

47. What will occur if the Thrust Levers are manually advanced to the full forward position and both EEC's are OFF on the B767GE (NON-FADEC)? A left and right EEC OFF caution message is displayed. Ref Vol.2 7.22.7 & QRH NNC 7.11 NOTE: With Thrust Levers in this position, engines may overspeed.

48. What is the primary indication for setting thrust is on the B767 (GE)? N1. Ref Vol.2 7.22.1 & 7.22.3

APU

---------------------------------------757/767-------------------------------------- 49. What is the maximum altitude for APU electrical power?

Aircraft service ceiling. Ref Vol.2 7.30.1

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


50. APU Bleed Air is available to what maximum altitude? Approximately 17,000 feet. Ref Vol.2 7.30.1

51. What does a momentary APU FAULT light indicate during the start cycle? APU fuel valve in transit. Ref Vol.2 7.15.1

52. How is fuel supplied to the APU during start on an unpowered aircraft? DC Fuel pump in the left main tank. Ref Vol.2 7.30.1

53. How is fuel supplied to the APU when AC power is available? Left FWD AC fuel pump. Ref Vol.2 7.30.1

54. Where are the APU’s EGT and RPM indications located? Status page. Ref Vol.2 7.15.2

55. What are the APU starter duty limitations? 3 start attempts in a 60 minute period. Ref Vol.2 7.30.1

56. What is the meaning of the APU RUN light? APU is at normal operating speed and may be used to supply electrical power and bleed air.

Ref Vol.2 7.30.2

57. How do you cancel an APU shutdown signal if the APU is inadvertently turned OFF and the RUN light is still illuminated? Select START. Ref Vol.2 7.30.2

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


58. Will the APU shutdown immediately if selected off with the APU BLEED valve open? No, a time delay is incorporated to allow for APU cool down. Ref Vol.2 7.30.2

59. How will turning the BATTERY switch to OFF with the APU running affect the APU on the ground?

APU will shutdown after a cool down cycle. Ref Vol.2 7.30.2

60. How does an APU FAULT light affect APU operation?

Immediate APU shutdown with no timed cool down. Ref Vol.2 7.30.2

61. How do you reset APU fault detection circuitry in the case of a transient fault?

Select OFF. Ref Vol.2 7.30.2

62. What is the meaning of an APU FUEL VAL message? Valve versus switch position disagreement. Ref Vol.2 7.30.2

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


CHAPTER 8: FIRE PROTECTION

---------------------------------------757/767-------------------------------------- 1. Describe what to do if the Engine or APU Fire switch cannot be pulled in the event of a

fire or passenger evacuation.

Manual unlocking of the switch is accomplished by pushing the fire override switch located beneath the fire switch. Ref Vol.2 8.20.2

2. What happens when an Engine Fire switch is pulled?

• Arms both Fire Bottles & silences the Fire Bell • Trips associated Engine Generator off • Closes associated Fuel Valves • Closes associated Engine Bleed Air Valves • Shuts off hydraulic fluid to the associated Engine Driven Hydraulic Pump Ref Vol.2 8.10.1

3. With an engine fire, how can the fire bell be silenced?

• Extinguishing the fire • Pulling the engine fire switch • Pushing either master warning/caution reset switch.

Ref Vol.2 8.20.2

4. What is the meaning of an L or R ENG OVHT light and EICAS caution message?

Overheat is detected in the engine. Ref Vol.2 8.20.2

5. How many fire bottles are available for engine fires?


B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


6. Describe what happens when a Cargo Compartment ARM switch is pushed.

FWD - • Silences the bell & Arms the bottles • turns off both Recirc Fans AFT - • Silences the bell & Arms the bottles • turns off the right Recirc Fan Ref Vol.2 8.10.3

7. What indications on the overhead panel would you expect to see illuminated after pushing the AFT Cargo Compartment ARM switch on a B-757? Right Recirc Fan INOP light. Ref Vol.2 8.10.3

8. How many fire bottles are available for cargo fires?


9. What happens when the APU fire switch is pulled?

• Arms the Fire Bottles and silences the Fire Bell (silences Ground Horn if on the ground). • Closes the APU Fuel Valve • Shuts down the APU • Trips the APU Generator off • Closes the APU Bleed Air Valve Ref Vol.2 8.10.4

10. Describe what happens when an APU fire occurs on the ground?

On the ground, a fire warning horn on the nose gear strut sounds and a fire warning light on the APU ground control panel illuminates. Ref Vol.2 8.20.3

11. Why does the APU SHUTDOWN switch on the Ground Control Panel have to be pushed before discharging a fire bottle?

Pushing the shutdown switch arms the fire extinguisher bottles as well as the Items covered in question 9. Ref Vol.2 8.10.6

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


12. How many fire bottles are available to the APU? Two. Ref Vol.2 8.20.4 NOTE: With some exceptions.

13. What does the main wheel well fire detection system consist of? A single fire loop in each main wheel well. Ref Vol.2 8.20.4 NOTE: Testing of the wheel well fire detection system is done manually by pressing the Wheel (WHL) Well fire test switch. The wheel well fire detection system has NO automatic testing or system monitoring.

14. What type of fire protection is provided for the main gear wheel well? The main gear wheel well has fire detection and warning only. There is no fire extinguishing system. Ref Vol.2 8.20.4

15. How long will the main gear wheel well fire warning lights remain illuminated? As long as the fire signal exists. Ref Vol.2 8.20.4

16. Describe when the Engine and APU Fire Detection Systems are tested. Automatically when electrical power is applied or manually by using the FIRE/OVHT test panel. Ref Vol.2 8.20.6

NOTE: With electrical power applied continuous system monitoring is accomplished automatically. If a fault is detected in a loop the system will continue to operate with the operational loop and an associated status message will be displayed for the faulty loop.

17. When is system monitoring of the Cargo Smoke Detectors accomplished? When the Cargo Smoke Detection System is tested. Ref Vol.2 8.20.5

18. When is a Cargo Smoke Detection System tested? During a manual test or automatically when electrical power is applied or transferred from one source to another. Ref Vol.2 8.20.5

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


19. What are the cockpit indications of a failure of an Engine Fire Detection System? The SYS FAIL light illuminates along with an EICAS Advisory message. Ref Vol.2 8.20.1

20. Why is it important to push the System Fail Reset switch after a FAIL P-RESET light illuminates?

Resetting allows monitoring of the remaining systems and extinguishes the FAIL light. Ref Vol.2 8.10.7

---------------------------------767 Differences---------------------------------- 21. Describe what happens when a Cargo Compartment ARM switch is pushed on the B767?

• Silences the Bell & Arms the bottles • Turns off both Recirc fans

Ref Vol.2 8.10.3 & .20.5

22. What indications on the overhead panel would you expect to see illuminated after

pushing a Cargo Compartment ARM switch on a B767?

Both recirculating fan INOP lights. Ref Vol.2 8.10.3

23. When does the second cargo fire bottle discharges on the B767-300? The second fire bottle discharges at a later time at a reduced flow rate into the selected compartment. Ref Vol.2 8.20.5

24. How many cargo fire bottles are available on the B767ER?

Three. Ref Vol.1 DF.20.3

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


CHAPTER 9: FLIGHT CONTROLS

---------------------------------------757/767-------------------------------------- 1. How many ailerons are installed on the B757?


2. How are the Ailerons trimmed?

Dual aileron trim switches on the aft pedestal must be pushed together to command trim changes. Ref Vol.2 9.10.6

3. What causes the MACH/SPEED TRIM light to illuminate on the B757?

Mach/Speed Trim system is inoperative. Ref Vol.2 9.10.4

4. What condition causes the STAB TRIM light to illuminate? Electric and Alternate Stabilizer trim is ½ the normal trim rate. Ref Vol.2 9.10.4

5. Describe how to override a jammed control column.

Sufficient forward or aft pressure to disconnect column then use the free control column for pitch inputs. Ref Vol.2 9.20.3

6. How are the Stabilizer Trim Motors are powered?

Hydraulically. Ref Vol.2 9.20.5

7. When will the stabilizer trim OFF flag appear in the Stabilizer Trim Indicator?

When the Stabilizer Trim Indicator is inoperative. Ref Vol.2 9.10.4

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


8. What condition causes the UNSCHED STAB TRIM light to illuminate? Uncommanded stabilizer motion detected. Ref Vol.2 9.10.4 NOTE: Recommended answer, Runaway or Wrong way. Runaway is the stabilizer is moving with no command input. Wrong way is the stabilizer is moving opposite of what the autopilot or mach speed trim (757) is commanding.

9. What do the STAB TRIM CUTOUT switches do in the cutout position?

Removes hydraulic power to the respective Stabilizer Trim Control Module. Ref Vol.2 9.10.4

10. At what rate will the autopilot trim the stabilizer?

½ rate and uses only one Stabilizer Trim Control Module. Ref Vol.2 9.20.5

11. What type of trim will override the input of Electrical Trim switches on the control wheel?

Alternate Trim Lever or ALTN STAB TRIM switch input. Ref Vol.2 9.20.5

12. What happens if a control column input is made opposing the direction of stabilizer trim? Trim commands are interrupted. Ref Vol.2 9.20.6

13. Which Hydraulic Systems supply pressure to the rudder?

All three. Ref Vol.2 9.20.4

14. What will cause the YAW DAMPER INOP light to illuminate?

The Yaw damper is commanded off or the Yaw Damper is inoperative. Ref Vol.2 9.10.7

15. Describe the function of the Rudder Ratio System.

Limits rudder deflection at high airspeeds. Ref Vol.2 9.20.7

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


16. When will the RUDDER RATIO light be illuminated?

Rudder Ratio system has failed or not receiving left hydraulic system pressure. Ref Vol.2 9.10.7 17. Which Hydraulic System powers the Rudder Ratio Changer?

Left. Ref Vol.2 9.20.7

18. What condition will illuminate the SPOILERS light?

One or more spoiler pairs are not in the signaled (commanded) position. Ref Vol.2 9.10.9

19. What two conditions will illuminate the SPEED BRAKES light? Flaps in landing position with speedbrakes extended or a radio altitude 800 feet or below with speedbrakes extended. Ref Vol.2 9.10.9

20. When would automatic speedbrake deployment occur? Speedbrake Lever armed, Landing Gear fully on the ground (not tilted), and Thrust Levers are at idle. Ref Vol.2 9.20.8

21. When will the speedbrakes deploy if they are not armed prior to landing? On the ground when either Reverse Thrust Lever is moved to the reverse idle detent. Ref Vol.2 9.20.8

22. On the ground, what causes the speedbrake lever to return to the DOWN position and all spoiler panels to retract? Either thrust lever is advanced to the takeoff thrust position. Ref Vol.2 9.10.8

23. What will cause the AUTO SPDBRK light to illuminate? A fault is detected. Ref Vol.2 9.10.9

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


24. What happens to the Slats and Flaps when Flaps 1° is selected? Slats move to midrange and flaps extend to 1°. Ref Vol.2 9.20.9

25. How does a stall warning affect the Auto Slat System on the B757? It causes the Auto Slat System to automatically extend the slats from midrange to the fully extended landing position. Ref Vol.2 9.20.10

26. When do the slats move to the landing position? Selection of flaps 25°. Ref Vol.2 9.20.9

27. Describe the function of the Flap Load Relief System on the B757.

If the flaps 30° airspeed placard limit is exceeded with flaps 30°, the flaps automatically retract to the 25° position. Ref Vol.2 9.20.9

28. What illuminates the TRAILING EDGE light? A flap disagree exists or a flap asymmetry exists or Flap Load Relief system is not operating when required. Ref Vol.2 9.10.11

29. What illuminates the LEADING EDGE light?

A slat disagree exists or a slat asymmetry exists. Ref Vol.2 9.10.12

30. Describe what happens when either ALTN Flaps switch is placed in the ALTN position on the B757.

Arms the selected LE slat or TE flap alternate (electrical) drive unit and shuts off hydraulic power to both slat and flap drive units. Ref Vol.2 9.10.12

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


31. What type of asymmetry and load relief protection are available when using ALTN extension?

None, except for the 757 LE slats. They still have asymmetry protection. Ref Vol.2 9.20.10

32. When do the slats extend to the LANDING position during alternate extension on the B757?

When flaps 20 is selected. Ref Vol.2 9.20.10

---------------------------------767 Differences----------------------------------

33. How many ailerons are installed on the B767?

Four. Ref Vol.2 9.20.2 & .3

34. When do the outboard ailerons on the B767 operate?

At low airspeeds. Ref Vol.2 9.20.6

35. What does an illuminated AILERON LOCK light on the B767 indicate? Aileron lockout actuator disagrees with the commanded position. Ref Vol.2 9.10.9

36. When does the Pitch Enhancement System operate on the B767? Automatically with a Loss of L and C Hydraulic Systems. Ref Vol.2 9.20.5

37. What type of stabilizer trim is available when the Pitch Enhancement System is operating on the B767? Electric (yoke) trim only at 1/4 the normal rate. Ref Vol.2 9.20.5

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


38. What happens to the slats and flaps on the B767 when flaps 1° is selected?

Slats go to midrange position and the flaps remain retracted. Ref Vol.2 9.10.10

39. What flap positions does the Flap Load Relief System operate on the 767ER? Flaps in 25° or 30° - automatically retract to 20°. Ref Vol.2 9.20.9

40. Describe what happens when either ALTN Flaps switch is placed in the ALTN position on the B767.

Arms the selected LE slat or TE flap alternate (electrical) drive unit and shuts off hydraulic power to the selected slat and flap drive units. Ref Vol.2 9.10.16

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


CHAPTER 10: FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS

---------------------------------------757/767-------------------------------------- 1. Describe how the Command Airspeed bug on each pilot's airspeed indicator is

controlled.

MCP IAS/MACH selector or the FMC when IAS/MACH window is blank. Ref Vol.2 10.30.1

2. When does the Radio Altimeter display height above the ground? 2500 feet AGL. Ref Vol.2 10.10.2

3. What would the indication be of an inoperative Radio Altimeter tape indicator? Warning flag. Ref Vol.2 10.30.4

4. Describe how to control what is displayed in the left and right DME indicators. VOR DME is displayed except when ILS is selected on the associated (L or R) EFIS Control Panel resulting in ILS DME to be displayed. Ref Vol.2 10.30.6

5. What is the meaning of an "L" proceeding the distance on the DME indicator? Valid ILS DME is available. Ref Vol.2 10.30.6

6. What is the meaning of dashes appearing in the DME display?

No computed data. Ref Vol.2 10.30.6

7. What is the attitude information source for the Standby Attitude Indicator?

Self contained gyro. Ref Vol.2 10.40.2

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


8. What is the ILS information source for the Standby Attitude Indicator?

Center ILS receiver. Ref Vol.2 10.40.2

9. Describe the function of the PLI.

Pitch limit at which stick shaker activation occurs for the existing flight conditions. Ref Vol.2 10.10.2

10. When is the Pitch Limit Indicator (PLI) in view?

Flaps extended. Ref Vol.2 10.10.2

11. At what altitude during descent does the runway symbol starts rising?


12. What happens to the ADI Decision Height indication when descending below decision height?

Display changes from white to amber increases in size and “DH” flashes momentarily. Ref Vol.2 10.10.2

13. When does the DH alert automatically reset and how can it be removed from the ADI? Automatically on Touchdown, or climbing 75 feet above the selected DH and manually by pushing the reset switch on the EFIS control panel. Ref Vol.2 10.10.2

14. When will the Localizer and Glideslope scale and pointer not display on the ADI?

Anytime an ILS frequency is not selected (standby position) on the ILS Control panel. Ref Vol.2 10.10.3

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


15. Below 500 feet how are significant deviations from localizer or glideslope presented? The respective deviation scale changes color from white to amber and the associated pointer flashes. Ref Vol.2 10.20.2

16. What are the indications of an ILS receiver failure? LOC and GS flags. Ref Vol.2 10.10.48

17. How large of an airspeed deviation does the Fast/Slow Indicator show?

+/- 10 knots. Ref Vol.2 10.10.3

18. What does the distance & ETA that is displayed referenced to in the upper corners of the HSI in MAP mode?

Distance to the active waypoint and ETA at the active waypoint. Ref Vol.2 10.10.9 & .10

19. How many degrees of the compass rose are displayed when HSI is in Exp VOR or ILS Mode?

70°. Ref Vol.2 10.10.26

20. What is indicated at the top of the HSI compass rose when operating in the MAP mode?

Track. Ref Vol.2 10.20.4

21. What mode must the HSI be in to display localizer and glideslope information?

Expanded or Full ILS. Ref Vol.2 10.10.28

22. What is the meaning of the "M" displayed to the right of the heading display on the HSI?

Magnetic is the current reference heading. Ref Vol.2 10.10.26

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


23. What does the Heading Bug correspond to on the HSI? Heading set in the MCP. Ref Vol.2 10.10.25

24. A tuned VOR is displayed in what color on the HSI?

Green. Ref Vol.2 10.10.29

25. What is the color of additional NAVAIDS that are not being used for navigation on the HSI?

Cyan (C). Ref Vol.2 10.10.29

26. How long of an interval does each segment of the Position Trend Vector represent?

30 seconds. Ref Vol.2 10.10.32

27. Describe how to distinguish the active waypoints from other waypoints.

The active waypoint is magenta (M). Ref Vol.2 10.10.33

28. What range must the HSI range selector be in for the WPT switch to function?

40 NM or lower. Ref Vol.2 10.10.60

29. What is the meaning of the green arc on the HSI MAP? Indicates the approximate map position where the MCP altitude is reached. Ref Vol.2 10.10.34

30. What does the small green circle (altitude profile point and identifier) on the HSI MAP represents? FMC calculated points: Top of climb, Top of descent, Step climb, End of descent. Ref Vol.2 10.10.35

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


31. What is the deviation when in VNAV and the Vertical Deviation Pointer is deflected full scale?

400 feet. Ref Vol.2 10.10.35

32. What range must the HSI be in order to observe the airport symbol with a small runway centerline extension?

80 NM or greater. Ref Vol.2 10.10.36

33. Describe how to display radar returns on the HSI. By using the WXR switch on the respective EFIS Control Panel. Ref Vol.2 10.20.5

34. Which HSI modes can display radar returns?

Expanded VOR, Expanded ILS, MAP. Ref Vol.2 10.10.41

NOTE: On some aircraft CTR MAP.

35. What color is used to designate turbulence on the radar display? Magenta. Ref Vol.2 10.10.41

36. In what direction is the static map oriented when in the PLAN mode? True north up orientation. Ref Vol.2 10.10.21

37. Which Instrument Source Select switch may restore Flight Director Command Bars? FLT DIR source selector. Ref Vol.2 10.10.50

38. Which Instrument Source Select switch is used to remove a HSI MAP FAIL flag? FMC switch. Ref Vol.2 10.20.6

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


39. How many Symbol Generators are on the aircraft? Three. Ref Vol.2 10.20.1

40. Which Symbol Generator serves as a backup for either pilot's ADI or HSI? Center. Ref Vol.2 10.20.1

41. Which Instrument Source Select switch may restore a blanked ADI and HSI? EFI switch. Ref QRH NNC.10.1

42. With both Captain and F/O’s Electronic Flight Instrument (EFI) switch in the normal position which ILS normally supplies information to the Captain's and F/O's ADI and HSI displays? Left ILS to the Captain’s displays and right ILS to the F/O’s displays. Ref Vol.2 10.10.51 & .54

43. Which ILS receiver may be used as a backup for either pilot's ADI or HSI displays? Center ILS. Ref Vol.2 10.10.51

44. Which Instrument Source Select Switch should be pushed to restore ILS indications?

EFI switch. Ref Vol.2 10.10.51

45. Which Instrument Source Selector should be pushed to remove an ADI RA flag? EFI switch. Ref Vol.2 10.10.51

46. What EICAS indications would be displayed if both Instrument Source Select EFI switches were placed into the ALTN position?

INSTR SWITCH caution message is displayed. Ref Vol.2 10.10.51

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


47. How is attitude information supplied to the ADI’s?

Respective IRS with the center IRS as an alternate source. Ref Vol.2 10.20.1 & .2

48. Which Instrument Source Select switch is used to remove an ATTITUDE Flag?

IRS switch. Ref Vol.2 10.10.51 & .54

49. Which Instrument Source Select switch may restore a HSI HEADING flag?


50. What is the normal source of heading information to the RDMI’s?

Opposite IRS. Ref Vol.2 10.10.51 & .54

51. What is the alternate source of heading information for either pilot's RDMI?

Center IRS. Ref Vol.2 10.10.51 & .54

52. Which Instrument Source Select switch may restore a RDMI HEADING flag?


53. What is the normal airspeed and mach information source for left and right airspeed indicators? Respective L and R Air Data Computers. Ref Vol.2 10.10.52 & .55

54. Which Instrument Source Select switch may remove an AIRSPEED flag? AIR DATA switch. Ref Vol.2 10.10.52

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


55. What is the normal source of altitude information for the altimeters?

Respective Air Data Computer. Ref Vol.2 10.10.52 & .55

56. What is the backup source of altitude information for each altimeter?

Opposite Air Data Computer. Ref Vol.2 10.10.52

57. Which Instrument Source Select switch may remove an altimeter OFF flag?

AIR DATA switch. Ref Vol.2 10.10.52

58. What is the information source for the vertical speed indicators? Respective IRS & Air Data Computer input with the center IRS and opposite Air Data Computer as a backup when selected. Ref Vol.2 10.10.50 & .51

59. Which Instrument Source Select switch may restore a VSI flag?

IRS or AIR DATA switch. Ref Vol.2 10.10.51 & 52

---------------------------------767 Differences---------------------------------- 60. Describe the function of the TRUE position of the HSI Heading Reference Switch on the

767ER.

References each compass card to true north regardless of latitude. Ref Vol.2 10.10.48

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


CHAPTER 11: FLIGHT MANAGEMENT, NAVIGATION ---------------------------------------757/767--------------------------------------

1. What is the directional reference for IRS track, wind direction, and heading displays on

the IRS Mode Selector Panel?

True. Ref Vol.2 11.10.9

2. What crew inputs are required before the IRS can complete alignment and enter the

NAV mode? Present position (Latitude & Longitude) must be entered. Ref Vol.2 11.20.2

3. Where is present position normally entered during alignment?

On the CDU position initialization page. Ref Vol.2 11.20.2

4. Where may present position be entered if the FMS CDU’s are unavailable?

Through the IRS Mode Selector Keyboard. Ref Vol.2 11.20.2

5. Approximately how much time will a full IRS preflight alignment take?

10 minutes. Ref Vol.2 11.20.2

6. Approximately how much time is required to accomplish IRS Fast realignment? 30 seconds. Ref Vol.2 11.20.2

7. Explain what will happen to the IRS System if an error is detected in the present position that has been entered.

ALIGN light(s) will flash. Ref Vol.2 11.10.11

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


8. Explain what happens to the IRS System if present position is not entered after being in the ALIGN mode for approximately 10 minutes.

ALIGN lights will flash. Ref Vol.2 11.10.11 &.20.2

9. Explain what will happen to the IRS System if the aircraft is moved during IRS alignment. The ALIGN lights flash and manual alignment must be restarted. Ref Vol.2 11.10.11 &. 20.2

10. What are the causes of a flashing ALIGN light during the Initial alignment process? • Significant difference between the position of the IRU at shutdown and the position entered. • No present position entered. • Aircraft movement was detected during the alignment process. Ref Vol.2 11.10.11

11. What is the meaning of an illuminated ON DC light?

Normal AC power has failed and IRS is operating on DC backup power. Ref Vol.2 11.10.11

12. What is the normal source of electrical power for the IRU’s? AC power from the left and right electrical systems. Ref Vol.2 11.20.3

13. What is the meaning of an illuminated DC FAIL light?

DC backup power for the related IRS has failed. IRS is operating on normal AC power. Ref Vol.2 11.10.11

14. What is the Alternate electrical power source for the IRU’s? The Main (airplane) Battery. Ref Vol.2 11.20.3

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


15. Which IRU's remain powered after 5 minutes when AC power is lost on the aircraft on the B757?

The right with some exceptions. Ref Vol.2 11.20.3

16. What happens when AC power is removed from the aircraft prior to turning off the IRU’s?

The ON DC light illuminates and the ground-call horn will sound providing an alert that a battery drain condition exists. Ref Vol.2 11.10.11

17. Describe the function of the IRS ATTITUDE mode, after alignment is lost in flight?

Used to provide ADI attitude and magnetic heading. Ref Vol.2 11.20.3

18. Describe how to remove the HEADING flags when an IRU is in the ATTITUDE mode.

HDG entry is made on the FMS CDU POS INIT page or the IRS Mode Selector Panel. It must be periodically updated. Ref Vol.2 11.20.3

19. When is the ILS frequency change inhibited? When all three Autopilots are armed and either Localizer or Glideslope is captured. Ref Vol.2 11.10.15

20. How do you park (standby position) an ILS frequency on the ILS control panel?

Rotate the ILS Frequency Selector until dashes are displayed. Ref Vol.2 11.10.15

21. What display ranges can turbulence be shown? Only on 40 NM or less. Ref Vol.2 11.10.20

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


22. When will the True Heading automatically be displayed?

Above 73° north latitude or below 60° south latitude. Ref Vol.2 11.20.1

23. In normal operation how are the VOR's tuned?

By the FMC. Ref Vol.2 11.20.4

24. What mode must the HSI Mode Selector be in for FMC (automatic) tuning of the VOR’s?

MAP or PLAN. Ref Vol.2 11.20.4

25. How many VOR radios are installed?


26. How many ILS receivers are installed and how are they tuned?

Three. By a single control panel on the pedestal. Ref Vol.2 11.20.5

27. How many DMEs are installed? Two. Ref Vol.2 11.20.3

28. How many transponders are installed? Two with a single control panel. Ref Vol.2 11.20.7

29. How many FMCs are installed? Two. Ref Vol.2 11.30.1

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


30. Are both FMCs providing commands to the autopilots and autothrottle at the same time? No, one accomplishes flight management tasks while the other one monitors and is standing by to replace the first one if a fault occurs. Ref Vol.2 11.30.1 NOTE: The left FMC is the master except when the right autopilot is in command, or all autopilots are disengaged, or the left flight director is off and the right flight director is on.

31. What are indications of a single FMC failure? • Scratch pad displays SINGLE FMC OPERATION. • L (or R) FMC FAIL EICAS Advisory message. • HSI displays a MAP and VTK flag on failed FMC side. Ref Vol.2 11.32.3

32. What happens to the loaded flight plan when the navigation database is changed?

All previously entered route data is removed. Ref Vol.2 11.40.7

---------------------------------767 Differences---------------------------------- 33. Which IRU's remain powered after 5 minutes when AC power is lost on a

B767-200/300? Right. Ref Vol.2 11.20.3

34. Which IRU's remain powered after 5 minutes when AC power is lost on a B767ER?

Left and Center. The right is limited for 5 minute operation. Ref Vol.2 11.20.3

35. How many ADF receivers are installed on the B767ER?


B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


36. Describe how to park the ADF receivers installed on the B767ER? Dial in a frequency of 100.0 on the ADF receivers. Ref Vol.2 11.20.3

37. Describe how to display route data on the HSI Map display during a dual FMC failure on the B767ER. Selecting the CDU position (Alternate Navigation system) on instrument source selector panel. Ref Vol.2 11.20.3

38. Which CDU pages are available when operating in the CDU position (Alternate Navigation system) on the B767ER? IRS LEGS and IRS PROGRESS pages Ref Vol.2 11.50.2

39. Are LNAV and VNAV modes available while operating in the CDU position (Alternate Navigation system) on the B767ER? No. Ref Vol.2 11.50.1

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


CHAPTER 12: FUEL

---------------------------------------757/767--------------------------------------

1. Why will center tank fuel be used before the main tank fuel with all fuel tank pumps operating? Center tanks fuel pumps have twice the pump output pressure of the main pumps. Ref Vol.2 12.20.1

2. When will the center tank pumps operate?

When the respective engine is above 50% N2. Ref Vol.2 12.20.2

3. What is the meaning of an illuminated FUEL CONFIG light on the B757? • Center tank fuel pump switches off with more than 1200 pounds in the center tank. • Fuel imbalance of 1800 pounds between the left and right main tanks. • Less than 2200 pounds in either main tank.

Ref Vol.2 12.20.2

4. What does a fuel pump PRESS light indicate?

Low pump output pressure. Ref Vol.2 12.10.2

5. What is the purpose of the crossfeed valve? To allow any fuel pump to supply fuel to either engine. Ref Vol.2 12.20.2

6. What does an illuminated crossfeed VALVE light indicate?

Valve is not in the selected position. Ref Vol.2 12.10.2

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


7. Can fuel balancing be done in any phase of flight?

Yes Ref Vol.2 12.20.4

8. What is the approximate total fuel capacity of the B757?

Left main: 14,500 Right main: 14,500 Center: 46,000 Total: 75,000 pounds

Ref Vol.1 DF.10.4

---------------------------------767 Differences---------------------------------- 9. What is the meaning of an illuminated FUEL CONFIG light on the B767?

• Center tank fuel pump switches off with more than 1200 pounds in the center tank. • Fuel imbalance of 2000 pounds +/- 500 pounds between the left and right main tanks. • Less than 2200 pounds in either main tank.

Ref Vol.2 12.20.1 & .3 10. What is the approximate fuel capacity of the B767-200/300?


Ref Vol.1 DF.20.5

11. What is the approximate total fuel capacity of the 767ER?


Ref Vol.1 DF.20.5

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


12. When can fuel jettison be accomplished on the 767ER? Anytime when activated. Ref QRH NNC.12.2

13. Which fuel tank has jettison capability on the 767ER? Center. Ref Vol.2 12.20.8

14. At what rate is fuel jettisoned on the 767ER?

2600 PPM. Ref Vol.2 12.20.8

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


CHAPTER 13: HYDRAULICS

---------------------------------------757/767-------------------------------------- 1. What is the meaning of an illuminated hydraulic SYS PRESS light?

System pressure is low. Ref Vol.2 13.10.1

2. What is the meaning of an illuminated RSVR light on the B757?

Reservoir quantity is low or Reservoir pressure is low. Ref Vol.2 13.10.1

3. What is the normal service level for a full Hydraulic System reservoir? 1.00 Ref Vol.2 13.10.2

4. What status page indication is displayed when the hydraulic reservoir requires servicing? RF (Magenta). Ref Vol.2 13.10.2

5. What is the meaning of an illuminated pump PRESS light? Pump output pressure is low. Ref Vol.2 13.10.1

6. What is the meaning of an illuminated pump OVHT light?

Pump temperature is high. Ref Vol.2 13.10.2

7. When will the left and right Hydraulic System electric pumps on the B757 operate?

Continuously with the switch ON. Ref Vol.2 13.10.2

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


8. Which system is powered by all three hydraulic systems?

Flight controls. Ref Vol.2 13.20.1 & .2

9. Which components are powered by the left hydraulic system on the B757? Flight controls, left engine thrust reverser, flaps & slats, landing gear, nose wheel steering and alternate brakes. Ref Vol.2 13.20.3

10. Which Hydraulic System powers high load components (flaps, slats, gear, & steering) on B757?

Left system. Ref Vol.2 13.20.3

11. Which hydraulic system supplies pressure to the Alternate Brakes on the B757?

Left system. Ref Vol.2 13.20.3 12. What is the purpose of the L Hydraulic System reserve fluid on the B757?

To supply the Power Transfer Unit (PTU). Ref Vol.2 13.20.3

13. Which components can be powered from the PTU on the B757?

Flaps, Slats, Gear and Steering. Ref Vol.2 13.20.4

14. When will the PTU automatically operate on the B757?

Left engine fails (shutdown) or Left Engine Driven Pump pressure is low and the right engine is operating. Ref Vol.2 13.20.4

15. Which Hydraulic System(s) use 2 electric motor driven pumps?


B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


16. Which systems are powered by the center hydraulic system? Flight controls only. Ref Vol.2 13.20.5

17. What is the purpose of the C Hydraulic System reserve fluid on the B757?

Provides fluid for RAT. Ref Vol.2 13.20.5

18. Which Hydraulic System is supplied by the RAT?

Center - primary flight controls. Ref Vol.2 13.20.5

19. In flight what causes the RAT to automatically deploy?

Both engines fail. Ref Vol.2 13.20.6

20. How can the RAT be manually deployed?

Push the RAT switch. Ref Vol.2 13.20.6

21. What is the meaning of an illuminated green PRESS light in the RAT switch?

RAT is deployed and producing hydraulic pressure. Ref Vol.2 13.10.4

22. What is the minimum airspeed to ensure proper RAT operation?

130 knots. Ref Vol.2 13.20.6

23. Which systems are powered by the right hydraulic system on the B757? Flight controls, right engine thrust reverser, normal brakes, and reserve brakes. Ref Vol.2 13.20.4

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


24. Which hydraulic system supplies pressure to the Normal Brakes on the B757?

Right. Ref Vol.2 13.20.4

25. Which Brake System is active during single engine taxi operation with all pump switches ON?

Normal. Ref Vol.2 14.20.3

26. What is the reserve fluid in the right reservoir is used for on the B757?

Reserve Brakes. Ref Vol.2 13.20.4

---------------------------------767 Differences---------------------------------- 27. What is the meaning of an illuminated RSVR light on the B767?

Reservoir quantity is low. Ref Vol.2 13.10.1

28. When will the left and right electric demand pumps on the B767 operate?

Respective Engine Pump pressure is low. Ref Vol.2 13.10.2

29. Which components are powered by the left hydraulic system? Flight controls and left thrust reverser (with some exceptions). Ref Vol.2 13.20.5

30. Which components are powered by the center hydraulic system? Flight controls, flaps/slats, landing gear, nose wheel steering, alternate brakes, reserve brakes, and HDG(ER). Ref Vol.2 13.20.6 & .7

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


31. When will the HDG on the 767ER operate?

Loss of both main AC buses. Ref Vol.2 13.20.8 & 6.20.13

32. Which Hydraulic System powers high load components (flaps, slats, gear, & steering) on the B767? Center. Ref Vol.2 13.20.7

33. Which Hydraulic System powers the B767 landing gear?

Center. Ref Vol.2 13.20.6 & .7

34. What is the normal source of hydraulic pressure for the nose wheel steering on the B767?


35. Which Hydraulic System supplies pressure to the alternate brakes on the B767?

Center system. Ref Vol.2 13.20.7

36. What is the purpose of the Air driven demand pump? It provides additional hydraulic power either on demand or continuously for periods of high system demand. Ref Vol.2 13.20.7

37. What is the function of the AUTO position of the ADP Selector on the B767?

Operates automatically when system pressure is low or high system demand (Flap/Slat operation, Gear retraction, or Ground Spoiler operation). Ref Vol.2 13.10.2 & .20.7

38. Which Hydraulic System has reserve fluid on the B767? Center only. Ref Vol.2 13.20.7

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


39. What is the reserve fluid in the center Hydraulic System is used for on the B767?

Reserve Brakes and Steering. Ref Vol.2 13.20.7

40. Which components are powered by the right hydraulic system? Flight controls, right thrust reverser (with some exceptions), and normal brakes. Ref Vol.2 13.20.6

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


CHAPTER 14: LANDING GEAR

---------------------------------------757/767-------------------------------------- 1. What can be done to raise the Landing Gear after takeoff if the Gear Lever will not

move to the UP position?

Push LOCK OVRD then raise handle. Ref QRH NNC 14.6

2. What is the meaning of an illuminated Landing GEAR Disagree light?

Gear position disagrees with the lever position. Ref Vol.2 14.10.1

3. Describe how the Alternate Gear Extension System operates on the B757. Fluid in the supply line to a dedicated DC powered electric hydraulic pump is pressurized to release door and gear uplocks. Ref Vol.2 14.20.2

4. Which lights may remain illuminated after performing the Alternate Gear Extension procedure?

DOORS light. Ref Vol.2 14.20.2

5. What is the meaning of an illuminated DOORS light? A door is not closed. Ref Vol.2 14.10.1

6. Which Hydraulic System powers the Normal Brake System on the B757?


7. What is the meaning of an illuminated BRAKE TEMP light? A wheel brake temperature is in high range (5 or above). Ref Vol.2 14.10.1 & .20.6

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


8. How is the Alternate Brake System is activated?

Automatically with low right hydraulic system pressure. Ref Vol.2 14.20.3

9. What are the indications of an activated Alternate Brake system, other than right hydraulic system low-pressure indications? Selection of the Alternate Brake system is automatic with no indications. Ref Vol.2 14.20.3

10. Which Hydraulic System powers the Alternate Brake System on the B757?

Left. Ref Vol.2 14.20.3

11. What is the meaning of an illuminated BRAKE SOURCE light prior to Reserve Brake switch activation?

Normal and Alternate Brake Hydraulic System pressures are low. Ref Vol.2 14.10.6

12. What happens when the RESERVE BRAKES switch is pushed on the B757? Right hydraulic system reserve fluid is provided to the right hydraulic system electric pump. Pump pressure is then supplied to the normal brake system only. Ref Vol.2 14.20.3

13. Which Hydraulic System provides pressure to the reserve brakes on the B757?


14. What is the purpose of the brake accumulator? If right (normal)/reserve, and alternate brake hydraulic power is lost, the Brake Accumulator can provide several braking applications or parking brake application. Ref Vol.2 14.20.4

15. What does the amber band on the Brake Pressure Gauge represent? Accumulator precharge only. No brake pressure available in this range. Ref Vol.2 14.20.4

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


16. How do you conserve accumulator pressure when operating with only accumulator brakes?

Apply steady increasing pressure. Ref QRH NNC 14.2

17. Which Brake Systems have Anti-Skid capability on the B757? Normal, Alternate, Reserve, and Accumulator. Ref Vol.2 14.20.4 NOTE: Since the Accumulator provides brake pressure through the Normal Brake System, it also has Anti-Skid capability.

18. What is the meaning of an illuminated ANTISKID light? Fault is detected in the antiskid system. Ref Vol.2 14.10.7

19. What is the meaning of an illuminated OFF light in the ANTISKID switch? Antiskid system is inoperative or the Antiskid switch is selected off. Ref Vol.2 14.20.4

20. Which Brake Systems can power the Autobrakes System?

Normal/Reserve brake system. Ref Vol.2 14.20.4

21. When are the autobrakes activated during a rejected takeoff? On the ground, above 85 knots, and both thrust levers are retarded to idle. Ref Vol.2 14.20.4

22. What kind of braking capability is provided with the Autobrakes selected to RTO? Maximum braking pressure. Ref Vol.2 14.20.4

23. Which has the greatest braking capability, MAX AUTO or full manual braking?

Full manual braking. Ref Vol.2 14.20.5

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


24. When are the autobrakes applied during landing?

Wheel spin up after landing and both thrust lever at idle. Ref Vol.2 14.20.5

25. When are the Autobrakes deactivated? FSTOP

• Fault (autobrake or antiskid) • Speedbrake Lever moved to the down detent after deployment on the ground • Thrust Lever or Levers advanced after landing • Off selected • Pedal braking applied

Ref Vol.2 14.20.5

26. What is the meaning of an illuminated AUTOBRAKES light? Autobrakes are disarmed or inoperative. Ref Vol.2 14.10.4 & .20.5

---------------------------------767 Differences---------------------------------- 27. How are the uplocks released on the B767 using the Alternate Gear Extension System?

An electric motor mechanically trips the locking mechanism for each gear. Ref Vol.2 14.20.2

28. What is the meaning of an illuminated TAIL SKID light on the –300 & -300ER? Tailskid position disagrees with Landing Gear Lever position. Ref Vol.2 14.10.2

29. Which Hydraulic System powers the normal brakes on the B767? Right. Ref Vol.2 14.20.3

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


30. Which Hydraulic System powers the alternate brakes on the B767?


31. Which Hydraulic System powers the reserve brakes on the B767?


32. What is the backup source of hydraulic pressure for Nose Wheel Steering System on the B767?

Center reserve fluid using the C-1 hydraulic pump, which is activated by the RESERVE BRAKES and STEERING switch. Ref Vol.2 13.20.7 & 14.20.3

33. Which Brake Systems have Anti-Skid capability? Normal, Alternate, Reserve, and Accumulator. Ref Vol.2 14.20.3 & .4

NOTE: Since the Accumulator provides brake pressure through the Normal Brake System, it also has Anti-Skid capability.

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


CHAPTER 15: WARNING SYSTEMS

---------------------------------------757/767-------------------------------------- 1. How many EICAS computers are installed?


2. What is the function of the AUTO position of the EICAS computer selector? Automatically transfers to the right computer if the left computer fails. Ref Vol.2 15.10.6

3. How many events will the EICAS retain? Only the last manual event. Ref Vol.2 15.20.9

4. Describe how EICAS responds to a failure of a CRT Display.

Compacted display mode on the operable CRT display. Ref Vol.2 15.20.10

5. Which level of EICAS messages require immediate crew awareness and corrective action?

Warnings. Ref Vol.2 15.20.2

6. How can EICAS warning messages be cleared? Only by correcting the condition causing the warning. Ref Vol.2 15.20.3

7. What type of abnormal situation is indicated by a bell aural?

Fire warning. Ref Vol.2 15.20.5

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


8. When are the MASTER WARNING lights and Fire Bell inhibited?

Nose gear strut extension for 20 seconds or 400 feet RA (whichever occurs first). Ref Vol.2 15.20.6

9. Which non-normal situations does a siren aural indicate? Cabin altitude, Autopilot disconnect, Configuration, or Overspeed warnings. Ref Vol.2 15.20.4

10. When is the Takeoff Configuration Warning System ARMED?

On the ground and thrust is in the takeoff range on either engine. Ref Vol.2 15.20.11

11. What conditions will cause a takeoff configuration warning?

On the ground, thrust is in the takeoff range on either engine and any of the following conditions exist: • Flaps not in TO position • Speedbrakes (spoilers)not down • Stabilizer units set greater than green band • Park brake set

Ref Vol.2 15.20.11

12. When will the Landing Configuration Warning alert the crew if the gear is not down and locked?

In flight and aircraft is at or below 800 feet RA with either thrust lever set to idle or any time the flaps are in a landing position(25 or 30). Ref Vol.2 15.20.11

13. How do you silence the siren for a Landing Configuration Warning?

By pressing the MASTER WARNING/CAUTION reset switch or correcting the configuration. Resetting MASTER WARNING/CAUTION switch will not silence for flaps in landing position and gear not down. Ref Vol.2 15.20.12

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


14. What type of non-normal situation is indicated by a voice aural? Time critical alert conditions. Ref Vol.2 15.20.5

15. Which level of EICAS messages requires immediate crew awareness and possible corrective action?

Cautions. Ref Vol.2 15.20.2

16. How is the Caution Beeper silenced?

Caution beeper will sound four times and silences automatically. Ref Vol.2 15.20.5

17. When are the MASTER CAUTION lights and beeper inhibited?

On the ground with both fuel cutoff switches in cutoff or during takeoff at 80 knots and ends at 400 feet RA or 20 seconds after rotation whichever occurs first. Ref Vol.2 15.20.7 & .8

18. How does an abort above 80 knots affect the MASTER CAUTION lights and beeper?

Inhibited until slowing below 75 knots. Ref Vol.2 15.20.7

19. Which level of EICAS messages require routine crew awareness and possible corrective action?

Advisories. Ref Vol.2 15.20.2

20. How can you distinguish EICAS Caution messages from Advisory messages?

Advisories are indented one character to the right. Ref Vol.2 15.10.4 & .20.3

21. How can you identify the most recent EICAS message? The most recent message is displayed at the top of its respective level. Ref Vol.2 15.20.3

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


22. Describe how EICAS responds to an engine shutdown.

L or R ENG SHUTDOWN message inhibits associated Cautions and Advisories. Ref Vol.2 15.20.8

23. What is the function of the CANCEL switch?

Displays next page if additional pages exist or cancels Caution and Advisory messages when the last page is displayed. Ref Vol.2 15.10.7

24. What is the function of the RECALL switch?

Displays the first page of any previously canceled EICAS messages if conditions still exist. Ref Vol.2 15.10.7

25. What is the meaning of a STATUS cue appearing in the upper left corner of the lower EICAS display? A new STATUS message exists. Ref Vol.2 15.10.2

26. Where are the EICAS status messages located?

Right side of the STATUS page. Ref Vol.2 15.10.5

27. What is the purpose of a status message? Status messages identify system faults affecting aircraft dispatch. Ref Vol.2 15.20.3

28. When will the altimeter ALT light illuminate when approaching a selected altitude? Between 250 and 750 feet of the selected altitude. Ref Vol.2 15.10.11

29. When will the altimeter ALT light extinguish when approaching a selected altitude?

250 feet prior to reaching the selected altitude. Ref Vol.2 15.20.13

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


30. What are the indications that appear when a deviation from 250 feet of the selected altitude occurs?

Master Caution and Caution Aural, EICAS Caution message and ALT ALERT light. Ref Vol.2 15.20.13

31. What is the meaning of an illuminated ALT ALERT light? Between 250 and 750 feet deviation from selected altitude. Ref Vol.2 15.10.11

32. When is the Altitude Alerting inhibited? Gear down and locked. Ref Vol.2 15.20.9

33. How can the GPWS GLIDESLOPE caution can be canceled?

When below 1000 feet RA by pushing the GND PROX G/S INHB switch. Ref Vol.2 15.10.14

34. What is the function of the OVRD position of the Ground Proximity Warning switches?

• GND PROX FLAP OVRD inhibits ground proximity flap cautions. • GND PROX / CONFIG GEAR OVRD inhibits ground proximity gear cautions and landing

configuration warning siren. Ref Vol.2 15.10.13

35. When is the Stall Warning (stick shaker) armed to operate? In flight. Ref Vol.2 15.20.12

36. What happens if the Stall Warning System is tested with leading edge slats in the takeoff position and the left hydraulic system is pressurized on the B757? Slats extend from the takeoff position (midrange) to the landing position. Ref Vol.2 15.20.12

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


37. When are Windshear Alerts available? During takeoff, approach, and landing. Ref Vol.2 15.20.19

38. What is the definition of a TCAS Traffic Advisory or TA? A traffic advisory is a prediction that another airplane will enter the conflict airspace in 35 to 45 seconds. Ref Vol.2 15.10.24

39. What is the definition of a TCAS Resolution Advisory or RA? Prediction that another aircraft will enter TCAS conflict airspace within 20 to 30 seconds. Ref Vol.2 15.20.24

40. What is the meaning of a filled red square TCAS symbol?

RA - immediate threat. Ref Vol.2 15.20.24

41. What is the meaning of a filled amber circle TCAS symbol?

TA - potential conflict. Ref Vol.2 15.20.24

42. What is the meaning of a hollow white diamond TCAS indication?

Other traffic (non threatening) that is neither a Resolution Advisory, Traffic Advisory, or Proximate Traffic. Ref Vol.2 15.20.25

---------------------------------767 Differences----------------------------------

43. What happens on the B-767 if the angle of attack continues to increase after the stick shaker is activated and the slats and flaps are retracted?

The Control Nudger moves the column forward. Ref Vol.2 15.20.11

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


NON-NORMAL CHECKLIST – RECALL ITEMS ABORTED ENGINE START Fuel Control Switch.…………………………………………………………………..CUT OFF

Ref QRH Tab O or 7 APU FIRE APU Fire Switch.………………………………………………………..PULL AND ROTATE

Rotate to the stop and hold for 1 second.

Ref QRH Tab 7 or 8 DUAL ENGINE FAILURE Engine Start Selectors (Both)……………………………………………………………….FLT Thrust Levers (Both)…………………………………………………………………….CLOSE Fuel Control Switches (Both)…………………………………………CUT OFF, THEN RUN

Ref QRH Tab O or 7 ENGINE FIRE OR SEVERE DAMAGE OR SEPARATION Autothrottle Arm Switch…………………………………………………………………...OFF Thrust Lever……………………………………………………………………………..CLOSE

Ref QRH Tab O, 7 or 8 ENGINE LIMIT OR SURGE OR STALL Autothrottle Arm Switch…………………………………………………………………...OFF Thrust Lever…………………………………………………………………………...RETARD

Retard until indications remain within normal limits or the thrust lever closed.

Ref QRH Tab O or 7

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


ENGINE TAILPIPE FIRE Fuel Control Switch.…………………………………………………………………..CUT OFF

Ref QRH Tab O or 7 SMOKE OR FUMES AIR CONDITIONING Oxygen Masks And Smoke Goggles…………………..…………………………… ON, 100% Crew Communications……………………………………………………………ESTABLISH

Ref QRH Tab O, 2 or 8 SMOKE OR FUMES OR FIRE ELECTRICAL Oxygen Masks And Smoke Goggles…………………..…………………………… ON, 100% Crew Communications……………………………………………………………ESTABLISH

Ref QRH Tab O, 6 or 8 SMOKE OR FUMES REMOVAL Oxygen Masks And Smoke Goggles…………………..…………………………… ON, 100% Crew Communications……………………………………………………………ESTABLISH

Ref QRH Tab O or 8 CABIN ALTITUDE OR RAPID DEPRESSURIZATION Oxygen Masks ………………...………………………………………..…………….ON, 100% Crew Communications……………………………………………………………ESTABLISH

Ref QRH Tab O or 2

B757/767 STUDY GUIDE 04/15/04


PASSENGER EVACUATION 1. If you need to evacuate the passengers, how do you perform the procedure?

By referring to the Passenger Evacuation checklist on the back cover of the QRH.

2. If you can’t get to or read the Passenger Evacuation checklist what do you do?

Follow the steps in the Emergency Evacuation Flow/Philosophy. Ref. QRH CI.2.8.

1. Stop 2. Shutdown 3. Configure 4. Evacuate

3. What is each step in the Emergency Evacuation Flow/Philosophy?

STOP

Parking Brake Handle………………………………………………...PULL, THEN SET

SHUT DOWN

Engine and APU Fire Switches (All)…..…OVERRIDE AND PULL, THEN ROTATE

CONFIGURE

Cabin Altitude Mode Selector……………………………………………………….MAN Cabin Altitude Manual Control…………………………………………………..CLIMB

EVACUATE

Passenger Evacuation……………………………………………...…………...INITIATE

(For more information, see QRH CI.2.8)

757 -767 pilot study guide -qbank

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