aieee 2012 fst1 qns

♣ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. AIEEE/FST 1/PMC/Obj/Qns - 1

BRILLIANT’S

FULL SYLLABUS TEST 1 FOR STUDENTS OF

OUR ONE/TWO-YEAR POSTAL COURSES

TOWARDS

ALL INDIA ENGINEERING ENTRANCE EXAMINATION, 2012

Time: 3 hours Maximum marks: 360 IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

Name of the Candidate (in Capital letters) :_____________________________________________

Roll Number: in figures

: in words ___________________________________________________________

Examination Centre Number:

Name of Examination Centre (in Capital letters): ________________________________________

Candidate’s Signature: ____________________ Invigilator’s Signature:___________________

PHYSICS – MATHEMATICS – CHEMISTRY

1. The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 360.

2. There are three parts in the questions paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Mathematics and Chemistry having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4(four) marks for each correct response.

3. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in instruction No. 2 for correct response of each question. ¼ (one fourth) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.

4. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each question will be treated as wrong response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly as per instruction 3 above.

5. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking response on side-1 and side-2 of the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

6. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any electronic device etc; except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.

7. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given at the bottom of each page and in 3 pages at the end of the booklet.

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AIEEE / FST1

18.12.2011

2

♣ Brilliant Tutorials Pvt. Ltd. AIEEE/FST 1/ PMC/Obj/Qns - 2

1. The volume of a body varies with time as

V = αt + β

2t where t is measured in

seconds and V is measured in cubic

metres. The S.I. units of the constants α

and β are

(1) ms, m2s2 (2) m2s–1, m2/s 2

(3) m3/s, m3s2 (4) m3s, m3/s–2

2. A particle starts rotating from rest,

according to the equation, θ = − +

3t t5,

50 2

where θ is in radian and t is in second. The angular velocity of the particle after

25 seconds is

(1) 37 rad s–1 (2) 35 rad s–1

(3) 33 rad s–1 (4) 31 rad s–1

3. A steel drill making 240 rev/min is used to drill a hole in a block of steel. The mass of

the steel block and the drill is 200 g. When the entire mechanical work is

utilized in producing heat and the rate of

rise in temperature of the block and the

drill is 1.2°C/s. The torque required to

drive the drill is (specific heat of steel =

0.1 and J = 4.2 J/cal)

(1) 2.5 N-m (2) 3.0 N-m

(3) 3.5 N-m (4) 4 N-m

4. A uniform disc of radius r is made to spin

about its axis at an angular velocity ω and carefully placed on a rough

horizontal surface of coefficient of

friction µ. The time taken by the disc to

come to rest on placing it with its plane

on the table is

(1) ω

⋅

µ

3 r

4 g (2)

ω⋅

µ

1 r

2 g

(3) ω

⋅

µ

2 23 r

4 g (4)

ω⋅

µ

2 21 r

2 g

5. The angular momentum about the axle

of a flywheel increases from 2.5 kg-m2/s

to 7.5 kg-m2/s. The moment of inertia of

the wheel about the axle is 0.25 kg-m2.

The work done on the flywheel is

(1) 60 J (2) 80 J

(3) 100 J (4) 120 J

6. This question has statement 1 and

statement 2. Of the four choices given

after the statements, choose the one that best describes the two statements.

Statement 1: When the units of force and distance are doubled, the

unit of work will be four times.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

PART I : PHYSICS

3


Statement 2: The unit of work is independent of the unit of

force and distance.

(1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is the correct

explanation of statement 1.

(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is

true, Statement 2 is not the correct

explanation of statement 1.

(3) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is

true.


false.

7. Two trains A and B of length 500 m each are moving on two parallel tracks with a

uniform speed of 90 km/h in the same direction with A ahead of B. The driver of

B decides to overtake A and accelerates

by 2 ms–2. After 40 seconds, the guard of B just brushes past the driver of A. The

original distance between the trains A

and B is

(1) 650 m (2) 600 m

(3) 550 m (4) 500 m

8. A shot is fired from a gun on the top of a

cliff 80 m high with a velocity of 60 ms–1

at an elevation of 30°. The horizontal

distance between the vertical line through the gun and the point where the

shot strikes the ground is (g = 10 ms–2)

°30

80m

RA B

x′O

O

−160ms

(1) 240 3 m (2) 220 3 m

(3) 240 2 m (4) 220 2 m

9. From the surface of a rocky sphere of

density 3.0 g/cm3 a gold ball is thrown

with a velocity of 40 ms–1 so that the ball

do not return to the surface. The radius of the rocky sphere is

(1) 28.9 km (2) 30.9 km

(3) 31.6 km (4) 32.4 km

10. A spherical ball of radius 1.5 × 10–4 m and

density 104 kg/m3 falls under gravity

through a distance h before entering a water tank. Even after entering the

water, the velocity of the ball does not

change. Viscosity of water is 10–5 N-s/m2.

The value of h is (g = 10 ms–2)

(1) 95.48 m (2) 98.74 m

(3) 101.25 m (4) 104.25 m


4


11. Three cylindrical rods P, Q and R of equal lengths and same diameters are joined in

series. Their thermal conductivities are 3 k,

2 k, 1.5 k respectively. In steady state, the free ends of the rods P and R are at

150°C and 30°C respectively. Assuming

negligible loss through curved surface, the temperature at the two junction

points are

P Q R

3 k PQT 2 k QRT 1.5 k

°30 C

°150 C

(1) 84.8°C (2) 83.9°C

(3) 83.3°C (4) 82.5°C

12. A 300 gm mass is pushed to the left so

that the spring of negligible mass gets compressed 0.25 m from its equilibrium

position. When the system is, the mass shoots to the right. Ignoring friction, the

speed with which the mass will shoot

away is

−=

1k 500 Nm

(1) 11.6 ms–1 (2) 11.3 ms–1

(3) 10.8 ms–1 (4) 10.2 ms–1

13. A vessel in the form a long cylinder of radius 0.15 m was being filled with water

flowing out at uniform rate from a tap. A

person observes resonance condition at intervals of 75 sec with a tuning fork of

484 Hz. The rate of supply of water in m3 per

second is. (Velocity of sound in air is

340 ms–1)

(1) 2.8 × 10–3 (2) 3.3 × 10–3

(3) 2.8 × 10–4 (4) 3.3 × 10–4

14. A transverse progressive wave is given by

the equation y = 2 cos [π (0.5x – 200t)]

where x and y are in cm and t in second. Which of the following statements is true

for this wave?

(1) Wavelength 4 cm and frequency

100 Hz

(2) Wavelength 2 cm and frequency 200 Hz

(3) Amplitude 2 cm and velocity 400 cm s–1

(4) Amplitude 2 cm and wavelength 2 cm

15. This question has statement 1 and statement 2. Of the four choices given

after the statements, choose the one that best describes the two statements.

Statement 1: The blood pressure in humans

is greater at the feet than

that at the brain.

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORKSPACE FOR ROUGH WORKSPACE FOR ROUGH WORKSPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

5


Statement 2: Pressure of liquid at any point is proportional to

height, density of liquid and

acceleration due to gravity.

P = hρg.

(1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.

(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1.

(3) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.

(4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.

16. In a parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C, a metal sheet is inserted

between the plates, parallel to them. The

thickness of the sheet is half of the separation between the plates. The

capacitance now becomes

(1) 2C (2) 3C

2 (3)

C

2 (4)

C

4

17. A ring is made of a wire having a

resistance R = 10 Ω. The points at which

current carrying conductors should be

connected so that the resistance R

between these points will be 1 Ω is

(1) 4.87 : 2 (2) 5.62 : 2

(3) 7.84 : 1 (4) 8.45 : 1

18. In the camera flash circuit shown in

Figure, a 2500 µF capacitor is charged by

3 V cell. When flash is required, the

energy stored in the capacitor is made

to discharge through a discharge tube in 0.1 ms giving a powerful flash. The power

of the flash is

µ2500 F3 V+

−

(1) 112.5 W (2) 11.25 W

(3) 112.5 kW (4) 11.25 kW

19. Two cells with the same e.m.f. E and different internal resistances r1 and r2 are

connected in series to an external resistance R. The value of R to be

selected such that the p.d. across the first

shell to become zero is

2r

E E

1r

I

R


6


(1) 1

2

r

r (2) 2

1

r

r

(3) r1 + r2 (4) r1 – r2

20. The potential difference between points

A and B balances at 40 cm length of

potentiometer wire PQ. To balance the potential difference between the points

B and C distance from P, at which the jockey J to be pressed is

= Ωr 1

12 VDE

A

PΩ10

Ω10

C

Q

Ω4

B

J40

(1) 24 cm (2) 28 cm

(3) 32 cm (4) 36 cm

21. A current i flows along the network

MNOPQRM as shown. The resultant

magnetic induction at the point S is

2ON

Q P

SM R

2

(1) µ

π

0i

4 (2)

µ− ⋅

π

0i2

8

(3) µ

−

π

0i2 (4) µ

⋅

π

0i1

4 2

22. A coil of inductance 600 mH and

resistance 4 Ω is connected to a source

of voltage 2 V. The current reaches half of its steady state value in

(1) 0.4 s (2) 0.3 s

(3) 0.2 s (4) 0.1 s

23. A galvanometer of coil resistance 15 Ω

gives a full scale deflection for a current

of 2.5 mA. The magnitude of shunt


7


resistance and series resistance to convert it into ammeter of range 0 – 7.5 A

and voltmeter are of range 0 – 10 V.

(1) 0.005 Ω, 3985 Ω

(2) 0.004 Ω, 3965 Ω

(3) 0.03 Ω, 3945 Ω

(4) 0.05 Ω, 3925 Ω

24. The change in the focal length of the lens, when a convex lens of focal length

24 cm and refractive index 1.54 is immersed

in water of refractive index 1.33 is

(1) 4.34 cm (2) 3.98 cm

(3) 3.53 cm (4) 3.32 cm

25. If a torch is used in the place of mono-

chromatic light In Young’s double slit experiment, the nature of fringes will be

(1) Fringes will occur as from mono-

chromatic source

(2) No fringes will be seen

(3) Fringes will appear for a moment

and then disappears

(4) Only bright fringes will appear

26. Two metal plates having a potential difference of 1600 V are 0.04 m apart

horizontally. A particle of mass 1.92 × 10–15 kg

is suspended in equilibrium between the plates. Taking e as elementary charge,

the charge on the particle is (g = 10 ms–2)

(1) 2e (2) 3e

(3) 5e (4) 7e

27. Density of hydrogen nucleus in S.I. units is

(R0 = 1.2 fermi) and mass of proton is

1.67 × 10–27 kg)

(1) 2.11 × 1017 kgm–3

(2) 2.11 × 1015 kgm–3

(3) 2.31 × 1017 kgm–3

(4) 2.31 × 1015 kgm–3

28. After two hours, one sixteenth of the initial

amount of a radioactive isotope left

undecayed. The half-life of the isotope is

(1) 1 min (2) 45 min

(3) 30 min (4) 15 min

29. The r.m.s. value of a carrier voltage is 110 V. After amplitude modulation by a sinusoidal

audio frequency voltage, the r.m.s value

becomes 120 V. The modulation index is

(1) 0.51 (2) 0.56

(3) 0.62 (4) 0.66


8


30. This question has statement 1 and

statement 2. Of the four choices given

after the statements, choose the one

that best describes the two statements.

Statement 1: When GaAs p-n junction

diode is forward biased, it

emits light.

Statement 2: The recombination of elec-

tron hole pairs release

energy in the form of visible

radiation.

(1) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is the correct explanation of Statement 1.

(2) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is true, Statement 2 is not the correct explanation of Statement 1.

(3) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true.

(4) Statement 1 is true, Statement 2 is false.


9


31. Let f : (– 1, 1) → R be a differentiable

function with f(0) = – 1 and f′(0) = 1.

g(x) = [f(2f(x) + 2)]2, then g′(0) =

(1) 4 (2) – 4 (3) 0 (4) – 2

32. If (a, a2) falls inside the angle made by

the lines y = x

4, x > 0 and y = 5x, x > 0,

then ‘a’ belongs to

(1)

1, 5

4 (2)

− −

13,

2

(3)

10,2 (4) (5, ∞)

33. The maximum value of |z| when z

satisfies the condition + =2

z 2z

is

(1) −3 1 (2) 2 3

(3) +3 1 (4) +2 3

34. If the coefficient of x7 in

+

112 1

axbx

equals the coefficient of x4 in

−

112 1

axbx

,

then a and b satisfy the relation

(1) a – b = 1 (2) a + b = 1

(3) =a

1b

(4) ab = 1

35. If sin2 A = x, then sin A sin 2A sin 3A sin 4A

is a polynomial in x, the sum of whose

coefficients is

(1) 0 (2) 40 (3) 168 (4) 336

36. If n positive integers are taken at random and multiplied together, the probability

that the last digit of the product is 2, 4, 6

or 8 is

(1) −

n n

n

5 3

5 (2)

+n n

n

4 2

5

(3) −

n n

n

3 2

5 (4)

−n n

n

3 2

4

37. The number of real solutions of the

equation cos5 x + sin3 x = 1 in the interval

[0, 2π ] is

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) infinite

38. In a ∆ABC, cot A = (x3 + x2 + x)1/2,

cot B = (x + x–1 + 1)1/2 and

cot C = (x–3 + x–2 + x–1)–1/2, then the

triangle is

(1) isosceles (2) obtuse angled

(3) right angled (4) None of these


PART II : MATHEMATICS

10


39. A pole of height h stands at one corner of a park in the shape of an equilateral

triangle. If α is the angle which the pole

subtends at the midpoint of the opposite side, the length of each side of the park

is

(1)

α

3h cot

2 (2)

α

2h cot

3

(3)

α

3h tan

2 (4)

α

2h tan

3

40. If a circle passes through the point (a, b)

and cuts the circle x2 + y2 = 4

orthogonally, then the locus of its centre is

(1) 2ax + 2by + (a2 + b2 + 4) = 0

(2) 2ax – 2by – (a2 + b2 + 4) = 0

(3) 2ax – 2by + (a2 + b2 + 4) = 0

(4) 2ax + 2by – (a2 + b2 + 4) = 0

41. The value of ‘a’ for which the quadratic

equation 3x2 + 2(a2 + 1)x + (a2 – 3a + 2) = 0 possesses roots of opposite sign, lies in

(1) (– ∞, 1) (2) (– ∞ , 0)

(3) (1, 2) (4)

3, 2

2

42. Suppose for each n∈N,

(12 – a1) + (22 – a2) + … + (n2 – an) =

1

3

n(n 2 – an), then an equals

(1) n (2) n – 1

(3) n + 1 (4) 2n

43. If p + q + r = a + b + c = 0, then the

determinant ∆ =

pa qb rc

qc ra pb

rb pc qa

equals

(1) 0 (2) 1

(3) pa + qb + rc (4) None of these

44. A person is known to speak the truth 4

times out of 5. He throws a die and

reports that it is a six. The probability that it is actually a six is

(1) 1

3 (2)

2

9 (3)

4

9 (4)

5

9

45. One of the points of contact of a

common tangent to the parabola y2 = 8x

and the ellipse + =

2 2x y1

4 15 on the ellipse is

(1)

1 15,

2 4 (2)

−

1 15,

2 4

(3)

−

1 15,

2 4 (4) None of these


11


46. If the vectors = − +

AB 3 i 4 k and

= − +

AC 5 i 2 j 4 k are the sides of a

∆ABC. The length of the median through

A is

(1) 14 (2) 18

(3) 29 (4) None of these

47. The value of ∫1.5

2

0

x[x ]dx is

(1) 2.25 (2) 0.25

(3) 1.5 (4) 0.75

48. The degree of the differential equation

− −3/2 1/22 1y y 4 = 0 is

(1) 6 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 4

49. If −

=

+

2

2

x 1f(x)

x 1 for every real number x,

then the minimum value of f

(1) is – 1

(2) is 0

(3) is 1

(4) does not exist

50. Let B and C be two square matrices such

that BC = CB and C2 = 0. If A = B + C,

then A3 – B3 – 3B2C =

(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) – 1 (4) 2I

51. The ratio in which zx-plane divides the line segment AB joining the points A(4, 2, 3)

and B(– 2, 4, 5) is equal to

(1) 1 : 2 internally (2) 1 : 2 externally

(3) – 2 : 1 (4) None of these

52. The sum of terms in the nth bracket of the series (1) + (2 + 3 + 4) + (5 + 6 + 7 + 8 + 9)

+ …. is

(1) n3 – (n – 1)3 (2) + +

2n 3n 2

6

(3) n3 + (n – 1)3 (4) + +

3 3n (n 1)

9

53. (p ∧ q) ∧ (~ q) is

(1) a tautology

(2) a contradiction

(3) a statement whose truth value depends on p

(4) a statement whose truth value depends on q

54. The normal to the curve x = a(cos θ + θ sin θ),

y = a (sin θ – θ cos θ) at any point θ is such

that

(1) It passes through the origin

(2) It makes angle π

+ θ

2 with the x-axis

(3) It passes through π

− a , a2

(4) It is at a constant distance from the origin


12


55. Area of the greatest rectangle that can

be inscribed in the ellipse + =

2 2

2 2

x y1

a b is

(1) 2ab (2) ab

(3) ab (4) a

b

Questions 56 to 60 are Assertion – Reason type questions. Mark your responses from the following options:

(1) Both statement 1 and statement 2

are true but statement 2 is not the

correct reason for statement 1


false

(3) Statement 1 is false, Statement 2 is true

(4) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are true and Statement 2 is the

correct reason for Statement 1

56. Statement 1: If 3 + ix 2 y and x 2 + y + 4i are conjugate complex numbers,

then x 2 + y 2 = 5.

Statement 2: If the sum and product of two complex numbers are

real, then they are conj-ugate complex numbers.

57. Statement 1: The inverse point of (2, – 3) w.r.t. the circle

x2 + y2 + 6x – 4y – 12 = 0 is

+ −

1 1,

2 2

Statement 2: For the circle S = 0 with centre C and radius r, two

points P, Q are said to be

inverse points with respect to S = 0 if C, P, Q are

collinear.

58. Statement 1: The curve y = x1/3 has a point of inflection at x = 0.

Statement 2: A point where y″ fails to

exist can be a point of inflection.

59. Statement 1: Lines →

= − + λ + −1r i j ( i j k ) ,

→

= − + µ + −2r 2 i j ( i j k ) do

not intersect.

Statement 2: Skew lines never intersect.

60. Statement 1: The equation sin x = x2 + x + 1

has only one solution.

Statement 2: sin x takes value ‘a’ exactly

two times when we take

one complete rotation covering all the quadrants

starting from x = 0.


13


61. Alum is used in purifying water by

(1) Forming silicon complex with clay particles

(2) Sulphate part combines with dirt and

removes it

(3) Coagulating the colloidal mud

particles

(4) Making mud water soluble

62. Which electron in a hydrogen atom

requires the largest amount of energy

during the following transition?

(1) From n = 1 to n = 2

(2) From n = 2 to n = 3

(3) From n = ∞ to n = 1

(4) From n = 3 to n = 5

63. What is the equivalent mass of KIO3 in the

given reaction?

KIO3 + 2KI + 6HCl → 3ICl + 3KCl + 3H2O

(1) 214 (2) 428 (3) 107 (4) 53.5

64. If 340 g of a mixture of N2(g) and H2(g) in

the correct 1 : 3 ratio give a 20% yield of

NH3. The mass of NH3. produced would

be:

(1) 16 g (2) 17 g (3) 20 g (4) 68 g

65. The pH of a solution is obtained by mixing 100 ml of 0.2 M HCl and 100 ml of 0.3 M

NaOH will be

(1) 12.7 (2) 3 (3) 1 (4) 2

66.

OH

2 2 5CO C H

H

H

2 2 5CO C H

3CH

I

3CH

2 2 5CO C H

2EtCO

3H C

H

H

II

I and II are

(1) Enantiomers

(2) Diastereomers

(3) Structural isomers

(4) Two are of same compound


PART III : CHEMISTRY

14


67. The correct order of stability of alkenes

for the following alkenes

=C C

R

RR

R

=C C

R

HR

R

I II

=C C

R

H R

R

=C C

R

H

R

H

is

III IV

(1) IV > III > II > I

(2) III > II > IV > I

(3) II > III > I > IV

(4) I > II > III > IV

68. Heat of neutralization of oxalic acid is

– 53.35 kJ mol– 1 using NaOH. Hence ∆H

of ionization of oxalic acid is

θ ++

22 2 2 4H C OH C O 2H is

(1) 5.88 kJ (2) – 5.88 kJ

(3) – 13.7 kcal (4) 3.95 kJ

69. True statement regarding carbocation is

(1) It has trigonal planar structure and

C+ is sp3 hybridized.

(2) It has pyramidal structure and C+ is

sp2 hybridized.

(3) It has trigonal planar structure and

C+ is sp2 hybridized.

(4) It has pyramidal structure and C+ is

sp3 hybridized.

70. The electronegativity of caesium is 0.7

and that of chlorine is 3.5. The bond

formed between the two is

(1) covalent (2) electrovalent

(3) coordinate (4) metallic

71. What is the hydrogen ion concentration

in a solution whose pH = 4.3?

(1) 5.012 × 10–5 (2) 8.113 × 10–5

(3) 6.714 × 10–5 (4) 3.012 × 10–4

72. For which of the following equations, will

∆H be equal to ∆E?

(1) + →2(g) 2(g) 2 ( )

1H O H O

2

(2) H2(g) + I2(g) → 2HI(g)

(3) 2NO2(g) → N2O4(g)

(4) 4NO2(g) + O2(g) → 2N2O5(g)

73. The ionic product of water will increase if

(1) pressure is decreased

(2) H+ are added

(3) OH are added

(4) temperature is increased


15


74. Non-stoichiometric metal deficiency is shown in the salts of

(1) all metals

(2) alkali metals only

(3) alkaline earth metals

(4) transition metals only

75. In piperidine NH , the hybrid

state of nitrogen as

(1) sp (2) sp2 (3) sp3 (4) dsp2

76. 0.01 M of H2A has pH equal to 4. If 1ak for

the acid is 4.45 × 10–7 , the concentration

of HA– ion in solution would be

(1) 0.01 M (2) 4.45 × 10–5

(3) 8.0 × 10–5 (4) unpredictable

77. C(Diamond) → C(Graphite) ∆H = – ve. This

shows that

(1) Graphite has more energy than dia-

mond

(2) Both are equally stable

(3) Graphite is more stable than diamond

(4) Stability cannot be predicted

78. The solubility of A2 X3 in water is mol dm–3.

Its solubility product is

(1) 6y4 (2) 64y4

(3) 36y5 (4) 108y5

79. The critical temperature of O2 is less than

H2O because the H2O molecules have:

(1) Fewer electron than O2

(2) Two covalent bonds

(3) V-shape structure

(4) Dipole moment

80. Which of the following statement is

wrong?

(1) The stability of hydrides increase from

NH3 to BiH3 in group 15 of the

periodic table.

(2) Nitrogen cannot form dπ -pπ bond.

(3) Single N-N bond is weaker than the single p-p bond.

(4) N2O4 has 2 resonance structures.

81. Ethylene glycol is used as an antifreeze in

radiators in cold countries. Mass of ethylene

glycol which should be added to 4 kg of

H2O to prevent it form freezing at – 6°C

will be : (Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol–1

and molar mass of ethylene glycol = 62 g

mol–1).

(1) 804.32 g (2) 204.30 g

(3) 400.00 g (4) 304.60 g


16


82. The value of enthalpy change (∆H) for

the reaction

C2H5OH() + 3O2(g) → 2 CO2(g) + 3H2O()

at 27°C is – 1366.5 kJ mol–1. The value of

∆U (internal energy change) for the

above reaction at this temperature will

be

(1) – 1369.0 kJ (2) – 1364.0 kJ

(3) – 1361.5 kJ (4) – 1371.5 kJ

83. The products obtained on heating solid

LiNO3 will be

(1) Li2O + NO2 + O2 (2) Li3N + O2

(3) Li2O + NO + O2 (4) LiNO3 + O2

84. The non-aromatic compound among the

following is

(1) S

(2)

(3)

(4)

85. Which one of the following complex can

exhibit (t′) geometrical isomerism?

(1) [Ni(NH3)5Br]+

(2) [Co(NH3)2(en)2]3+

(3) [Cr(NH3)4(en)]3+

(4) [Co(en)3]3+

[en-ethylenediamine]

86. Which gas is adsorbed in maximum amount

by activated charcoal at identical con-ditions?

(1) N2 (2) CO2

(3) Cl2 (4) O2

87. Among the following, paramagnetic

compound is

(1) Na2O2 (2) O3

(3) N2O (4) KO2

88. Consider the following E° values + +3 20Fe /FeE

= + 0.77 V, +

°= −2Sn /Sn

E 0.14 V . The °

cellE for

the reaction.

+ + ++ → +

3 2 2(s) (aq) (aq)Sn 2Fe 2Fe Sn is

(1) 0.63 V (2) 1.40 V

(3) 0.91 V (4) 1.68 V


17


89. For 1 M solution of HA having α > 0.05, the dissociation constant Ka in terms of van’t

Hoff factor (i) can be written as

(1) −

2(i 1)

i (2)

+2(i 1)

i

(3) −

2

i

(i 1) (4)

−

−

2(i 1)

2 i

90. Which set of molecule is polar?

(1) p-dimethoxy benzene and p-dinitro

benzene

(2) BF3 and ICl3

(3) SF4 and SiF4

(4) p-dimethoxy benzene and trans 1-chloro propene


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