aiims 4 ques

7/22/2019 Aiims 4 Ques

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AHEAD Test and Discussions AIIMS SIMULATED TEST IV1. What is implicated for treatments under general anesthesia?

a. Extract only the most grossly carious or symptomatic

teethb. Treatment can be provided under general anaesthesia for

a child who could be able to cope with operative dental

care under local anaesthesiac. Restoration of ALL carious teeth

d. Placing pit and fissure sealants

2. Children are anatomically and physiologically different

from adults but not in one of the following ways

a. Breathing is through a narrower, more fixed 'wind pipeb. Child is less capable of taking in a bigger volume of air

even when urgently requiredc. The demand for oxygen (consumption) is lower

compared to adultsd. Incidence of periodic breathing and apneas are higher

compared to adults

3. Up to what age children are unable to distinguish

between pressure and pain

a. Infants up to about 2 years b. 5 yrs c. 8 yrs

d. Nearly the age when they are losing their last primary teeth

4. In a case when a child under 16 years says 'no'

a. Continue with the procedureb. Manage by a change in the procedure or by establishing

a temporal respitec. Obtain written consent from the parents

d. Refer the child to a pediatrician or psychologist

5. What can be said truly about the Rectal administration

of a drug)

a. Not as commonly used in world as are the routes ofadministration

b. Absorption from the rectal mucosa is slow

c. Dose needs careful estimation as theres a risk of anoverdose or underdose

d. Consent is not required

6. Which of the following is incorrectly mentioned about

pain control in pedodontics?

a. Common drugs used for pain control in children are

paracetamol and ibuprofenb. Increase in asthma among children requires that safety

ofibuprofen be consideredc. Narcotic analgesics such as codeine or morphine can

be used on childrend. Aspirin is one of the safest drugs to be used among

children7. A 30 year old patient complains of a swelling in the area of

lower rt. Third molar region where he had undergone a

surgery 3 years ago. Early radiographic features reveal

multilocular radioluscency. Histopathogenes is reveals that the

lesion is lined by even layer of parakeratinized squamous

epithelium with a palisaded basal layer and presence of

satellite cysts in capsule. The diagnosis is

a. OKC b. Dentigerous cyst

c. Radicular cyst d. Ameloblastoma

8. The unique pattern of growth of the odontogenic

keratocyst, in comparison to the other cysts is due to

which of the following mechanism-

a. Active epithelial growth

b. Cellular activity in connective tissue capsule

c. Production of bone resorbing factors d. All of these

9. High recurrence rate of keratocysts is due to all factors

except

a. Satellite cysts b. Difficulty of surgical removal

c. Focal areas of active growth of the cyst walld. Cystic contents have a low soluble protein level

10. Epstein pearls area. Same as enamel pearls

b. Imperfection in the tooth budc. Seen in vitamin D deficiency

d. Small keratin cysts of newborn infant

11. Cyst resembling the bunch of grapes is

a. Gingival cyst b. Developmental lateral periodontal cyst

c. Dentigerous cyst d. OKC

12. Most cases of pulpitis are caused by

a. Injudicious cavity preparation

b. Chemical irritation from sterilizing agent

c. Bacterial invasion from bloodstreamd. Bacterial invasion from carious lesion

13. Mears from a lesion showing cells with ballooning

degeneration and multinucleated giant cells are

laboratory features of

a. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis b. Pembhigus

c. Recurrent apthous stomatitisd. Recurrent intraoral herpes simplex infection

14. Which of the following lesion shows intra-epithelial

blisters?

a. Mucous Membrane Pemphigoid b. Pemphigus Vulgaris

c. Erythema muliforme d. Angina bullosa haemorragica

15. Which of the following autoantiboies react with

desmosomal component in Pemphigus?

a. Ig A b. Ig E c. Ig G d. Interferon

16. What is the characteristic feature of Mucous Membrane

Pemphigoid ?

a. Supraepithelial bullaeb. Circulating antibodies present in high concentaration

c. Subepithelial bullae d. Positive Nikolsky sign

17. What is the correct name for the ocular scarring that

may lead to blindness in mucous membrane

pemphigoid?a. Retinopathy b. Cataract c. Symblapharon d. Trachoma

18. Pemphigoid is found to be co- associated with which of

the following lesion?

a. Lichen Planus b. Oral cancer

c. Desquamative gingivitis d. Geographic tongue

19. For a upper molar band, usually the final seating is with

heavy biting force on the

a. Mesiolingual surface b. Distolingual surfacec. Mesiobuccal surface d. Distobuccal surface

20. The cements for orthodontic use, differ from those used

for restorative purposes in that they

Academy of Higher Education and Advancements in Dentistry (A.H.E.A.D)1

R-704, New Rajinder Nagar, New Delhi 110060.Ph: 011 - 28743814, 25716297, 9810187297. Email- [email protected]

www.aheadacademy.com


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AHEAD Test and Discussions AIIMS SIMULATED TEST IVa. Have liquid that contains more free H3PO4b. Are mixed thicker

c. Isolation is not requiredd. Set faster than other cements

21. With both ZnPO4 & GIC, cementation of multiple bands isgreatly facilitated by

a. Using a thinner mix b. Mixing each time a band is seated

c. Using a cold mixing slab. d. Increasing powder liquid ratio

22. The major difficulty with direct bonding of orthodonticattachments is that

a. It is time consumingb. The dentist must be able to judge the proper position

for the attachment and must carry it to space rapidlyand accurately

c. It is difficult in excessive salivation d. All of the above

23. In the original edgewise appliance, without adequate secondorder bends, the incisor teeth are positioned too straight up &

down with the roots too close together, producing an effect

called

a. Orthodontic look b. Prosthodontic look

c. Hollywood smile d. Ugly duckling look24. Anchorage preparation was accomplished by Tweed by

a. Tipping the molars distally b. Tipping the molars mesiallyc. Extruding the molars d. Intruding the molars

25. An Excisional biopsy is characterized by

a. Superficial scrapings from the lesion

b. Including part of the lesion

c. Including normal tissue and most of the lesiond. Including normal tissue and all of the lesion

26. Repeat biopsies are indicated

a. When clinical course differs from the one to be expectedbecause of a reported benign lesion

b. When ulcers fail to heal within 3 daysc. For hyperkeratotic lesions d. For bone pathologies

27. All of the following may be done to arrest intra-

operative hemorrhage except

a. Ligation of cut arteries and veins

b. Pressure application with help of sterile gaugec. Bone compression to arrest bleeding

d. Infiltration of area with lignocaine

28. The most common cause for tooth extraction is

a. Dental caries b. Periodontal disease

c. Trauma d. Hypocalcification

29. The teeth most commonly extracted to orthodontically correctmalocclusion is

a. Canines b. First molarsc. First premolars d. Second premolars

30. Antibiotic prophylaxis is required prior to any surgicalprocedure if the patient is suffering from any of the following

except

a. Ventricular septal defect b. Prosthetic heart valvec. Hypertension

d. Renal dialysis patient with arteriovenous shunt placement

31. Normal overjet values should not exceed 2mm in class 1situation

a. In class 2 the overjet is more than 2 mm and in class 3 the

overjet is less than 2 mm.

b. In class 2 the overjet is more than 3 mm and in class 3 theoverjet is less than 3 mm.

c. In class 2 the overjet is more than 3 mm and in class 3 theoverjet is less than 2 mm.

d. In class 2 the overjet is more than 2 mm and in class 3

the overjet is less than 3 mm

32. Concept of LINGUALIZED OCCLUSION introduced

by Alfred Gysi in 1927 is which of the following

a. Lingualized occlusion uses the maxillary lingual cusp

as the dominant functional element, occluding against

corresponding position of mandibular tooth.b. Lingualized occlusion uses the mandibular lingual cusp

as the dominant functional element, occluding against

corresponding position of mandibular tooth.c. Lingualized occlusion uses the maxillary buccal cusp as

the dominant functional element, occluding againstcorresponding position of mandibular tooth.

d. Lingualized occlusion uses the mandibular buccal cuspas the dominant functional element, occluding against

corresponding position of mandibular tooth.

33. Incorporation of lingualized occlusion in teeth

arrangement involves- Buccolingually the lingual cuspsof the mandibular teeth are located within a line drawn

from the

a. Distal of canine to the buccal and lingual sides of theretromolar pad.

b. Distal of first premolar to the buccal and lingual sides

of the retromolar pad.c. Distal of canine to the buccal and lingual sides of the

mandibular ramus.d. Distal of first premolar to the buccal and lingual sides

of the mandibular ramus.

34. The Concept of Occlusion given by Monson in 1918

which allows the anteroposterior and mesiodistalinclines of the artificial teeth to be arranged in harmony

with a spherical surface is

a. Spherical concept of occlusion.

b. Bonwill's theory of occlusion.c. Conical theory of occlusion.

d. Organic concept of occlusion.

35. The theory of occlusion that proposes that the teeth

move in relation to each other as guided by the condylar

controls and the incisal point and there is a 4 inch

distance between the condyles and between condyles and

incisor point.

a. Spherical concept of occlusion.b. Bonwill's theory of occlusion.

c. Conical theory of occlusion.d. Organic concept of occlusion.

36. All are uses of face bow except

a. When balanced occlusion in eccentric position is desiredb. When a Definite cusp fossa a or cusp tip to cusp incline

Relation is needed

c. When a non cusp form(cuspless) teeth are usedd. For verification of jaw position

37. The smooth part of the right atrium derives from which

of the following embryonic structures?

a. Bulbus cordis b. Primitive atrium





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AHEAD Test and Discussions AIIMS SIMULATED TEST IVc. Primitive ventricle d. Sinus venosus

38. Microscopic examination of a PAS-stained histological

section of a Graafian follicle demonstrates a bright

reddish-pink, acellular ring around the ovum. Which of

the following terms most accurately describes this ring?

a. Corona radiata b. Cumulus oophorus

c. Theca externa d. Zona pellucida

39. Following a surgical procedure on the right side of the neck, apatient can no longer raise his right arm above the horizontal

position. The patient also cannot shrug his right shoulder.

Which of the following nerves was injured?

a. Axillary nerve b. Great auricular nervec. Greater occipital nerve d. Spinal accessory nerve

40. Zygomycosis, a destructive fungal infection of the

sinuses, is likely to reach the brain by which of the

following routes?

a. Cavernous sinus b. External carotid arteryc. Internal carotid artery d. Superior sagittal sinus

41. A surgeon inadvertently sections the recurrent laryngeal

nerve during a procedure. Which of the followingmuscles would retain its innervation subsequent to this

injury?

a. Cricothyroid b. Lateral cricoarytenoidc. Posterior cricoarytenoid d. Thyroarytenoid

42. As a result of a viral infection, a patient has swelling of the leftfacial nerve within the facial canal. The patient's face appears

asymmetrical, and he complains that saliva drips from his

mouth while he is chewing. Paralysis of which of the following

muscles accounts for these symptoms?

a. Buccinator b. Masseter

c. Palatoglossus d. Palatopharyngeus

43. An increase in which of the following best explains the

mechanism by which the cardiac output increases in

severe anemia?

a. Arteriolar diameter b. Blood viscosity

b. Peripheral vascular resistance d. Splanchnic blood flow

44. Which of the following is found in the respiratory zone

of the lung?

a. Goblet cells b. Main bronchic. Mucous cells d. Type I epithelial cells

45. Laboratory studies of an automobile accident victim

show a significant elevation of creatine kinase (CK).

Which of the following tissues is most likely to be the

source of the enzyme?a. Bone b. Brain c. Heart d. Skeletal muscle

46. Which of the following binds to von Willebrand factor at

the platelet membrane?

a. Adenosine diphosphate (ADP b. Calcium

c. Glycoprotein GPIb d. Platelet factor 3 (PF3)

47. Which of the following statements about Troponin C is true?

a. Inhibits the interaction of actin and myosin

b. Attaches the troponin complex to tropomyosinc. Permits the interaction of actin and myosin

d. Is located at the junction of A band and I band48. Which of the following can be determined by calculation

of the clearance of paraaminohippuric acid (PAH)?

a. Extracellular fluid (ECF) volume

b. Effective renal plasma flow (ERPF)

c. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) d. Plasma volume

49. The clearance of several substances was measured at a

constant glomerular filtration rate and constant urine

flow rate, but at increasing plasma concentrations of the

substance. Under these conditions, clearance will

increase at high plasma concentrations for which of the

following substances?

a. Creatinine b. Mannitol c. Penicillin d. Phosphate

50. An individual lacking the enzyme tyrosinase would beparticularly predisposed to develop which of the

following?

a. Glioblastoma multiforme b. Hemangioblastoma

c. Hepatoma d. Melanoma

51. Thiamine is used by which coenzyme in order to prevent

a lactic acid acidosis?

a. Lactate dehydrogenase b. Pyruvate carboxylasec. Pyruvate dehydrogenase d. Pyruvate kinase

52. A patient's lab studies demonstrate a deficiency ofcytochrome C oxidase activity. A defect in which of the

following subcellular organelles would cause this

deficiency?

a. Golgi apparatus b. Lysosomes

c. Mitochondria d. Ribosomes

53. A genetic mutation that results in abnormal stimulatory

G protein (Gs) structure would adversely affect which of

the following mechanisms?

a. Active transport b. Facilitated diffusion

c. Pinocytosis d. Signal transduction

54. Which of the following is the action of dietary fiber?a. Increases the blood cholesterol

b. Decreases the blood cholesterolc. Decreases bowel motility

d. Increases the exposure of gut to carcinogens

55. Which of the following inhibits the activity of acetyl-

CoA carboxylase?

a. Citrate b. Glucagonc. High-carbohydrate, low-fat diet d. Insulin

56. A patient was recently prescribed fludrocortisone inhalationtherapy to improve his current asthma treatment regimen. Ten

days after starting therapy he presents with white patches on

the inside of the cheeks that can be easily wiped off leaving a

red, bleeding, sore surface. This patient would be best treated

with which of the following?

a. Acyclovir Capsules b. Ampicillin Capsules

c. Cephalexin Suspension d. Clotrimazole Troches

57. A patient is suffering from pneumonia, and culture showsnumerous gram-positive cocci that are identified as

Streptococcus pneumoniae. Which of the following immune

effector mechanisms is most important in completely

clearing this infection?

a. ADCC (antibody-dependent cell cytotoxicity)

b. Complement-mediated opsonizationc. Cytotoxic T cell lymphocytes d. LAK cells





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AHEAD Test and Discussions AIIMS SIMULATED TEST IV58. A 33-year-old man with AIDS and a history of shingles

develops a severe, multifocal encephalitis. Which of the

following viruses is the most likely cause of his

encephalitis?

a. Cytomegalovirus b. Herpes simplex type I

c. Herpes simplex type II d. Herpes zoster-varicella

59. A patient with a lung lesion coughs up sputum that

contains thin, acid-fast positive rods. Which of thefollowing features would most likely be associated with

these bacteria?

a. Nutritional requirement for factors V and Xb. Streptokinase

c. Toxic shock syndrome toxin d. Waxy envelope60. A 58-year-old alcoholic with multiple dental caries

develops a pulmonary abscess and is treated with

antibiotics. Several days later he develops nausea,

vomiting, abdominal pain, and voluminous green

diarrhea. Which of the following antibiotics is most

likely responsible for this patient's symptoms?

a. Chloramphenicol b. Clindamycin

c. Gentamicin d. Metronidazole

61. A 37-year-old man is admitted to the hospital withshortness of breath, cyanosis, and fever. Chest x-rays reveal

consolidation of the right lower lobe with relative sparing of

the remaining lobes. A clinical diagnosis of lobar

pneumonia is made and supported by the results of sputum

cultures. Which of the following is the genus of the

bacterium most likely to be isolated from this patient's

sputum?

a. Haemophilus b. Klebsiellac. Streptococcus, alpha-hemolytic

d. Streptococcus, beta-hemolytic

62. At what percentage does shrinkage of fgg take place?a. 10% b. 30% c. 50% d. 75%

63. What is the ideal thickness of free gingival graft?

a. 0.5-1.5mm b. 1-1.5mm c. 1.5-2 mm d. 1.5-2.5mm

64. What is the concentration of edta used as root

conditioning ?

a. 6% b. 12% c. 18% d. 24%

65. Which suture material contains lactide &glycolide?

a. Vicryl b. Descon c. Pds d. Dacron

66. Increased chances of tissue laceration are with

a. Conventional cutting type needle b. Reverse cuttingc. Side cutting d. Taper point

67. Which organisms increase in number in supragingival

plaque after scaling and root planing?

a. Actinobacilli b. Prevotella

c. Porphyromonas d. Coccoids

68. Which of the following factors does not influence

mandibular movements?

a. Muscles and Ligament as force for the movement.

b. Condylar path.

c. Inclination of contacting surfaces of opposite teeth.

d. Tongue musculature

69. When mandible is protruded, disocclusion of posterior

teeth is resulted. This phenomenon is called as

a. Bennet movement b. Christensens phenomenon

c. Spee movement d. Hanaus phenomenon

70. Interocclusal distance is the

a. Value of the vertical dimension of rest in denture.

b. Difference between the occlusal vertical dimension andthe rest vertical dimension.

c. Distance or gap existing between the upper and lower

teeth when the mandible is in the physiologic restposition. It usually is 2 to 4 mm when observed at the

position of the first premolars.d. Clinically recorded rest position.

71. Other names for centric relation are

a. Retruded mandibular position b. Centric jaw relationc. Hinge axis position and d. All of the above

72. How much fluoride is contained in an

average 4.6-ounce tube of toothpaste?a. 50 mg b. 100mg c. 130mgd. 150mg.

73The proportion of a population affectedwith a disease at a given point in time,i.e., (cases)/(population) refers to asa. Incidence b. Prevalence c. Sensitivity d.Specificity

74. Standard TMS pins are used in except

a. Molars b. Premolars

c. Cross splinting of cusps d. Type IV fracture

75. Which of the following is not the requirement of direct

gold restoration?

a. Metholodical condensation b. Systematic polishingc. Extensive cavity preparation d. Ideal surgical filed.

76. Hand condensation of regular cohesive gold restoration

is done by:

a. Black, Woodbury, Ferrier and Loma Linda instrument

setsb. Black, prime, Ferrier and Woodbury instrument sets

c. Black, prime and Woodbury instrument setsd. Prime and Ferrier

77. Class III prepared for direct gold restoration inmandibular anterior teeth does not include

a. Mesial contact area b. Distal contact area

c. All of the contact area d. Lingual area

78. Method used to allow gingival displacements during

indirect procedures for cast construction are:a. String saturated with 1:1000 epinephrine for 10 mins 10 mins

b. Sting saturated with 5% Aluminum chloride solution 10 minsc. Sting saturated with ferric subsurface or with 8% zinc chloride

for 3 minsd. All of the above

79. Nylon pin technique was devised by:

a. Melvin R Luned b. Charles Huery





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AHEAD Test and Discussions AIIMS SIMULATED TEST IVc. Wood Bury d. David Shooshan

80. Which of these can lead to irreversible pulpal injury?

a. Anesthetics containing high concentrations of avasoconstrictor

b. Use of sharp burs c. Appropriate preparation depthd. Ample air and water coolants

81. Deliberate perforation of the apical foramen should be

done for all of the following EXCEPTa. Periapical tenderness b. Pressure sensitivity

c. Developing swelling d. Cracked tooth syndrome

82. Occlusal reduction during endodontic treatment is

indicated for

a. Teeth with irreversible pulpitisb. Teeth that manifest periapical symptoms

c. Only those teeth that fail to respondd. All teeth undergoing root canal treatment

83. Management of a localized soft tissue swelling is facilitated by

a. Antibiotics b. Serratiopeptidase

c. Incision and drainage

d. Subsequent instrumentation of the root canal

84. Onset of acute pain in the middle of endodontic treatmenttherapy in vital teeth can be due to all of the following except

a. Copious sodium hypochlorite irrigationb. Presence of residual pulp tissue c. Undetected canal

d. Hyper occluding temporary filling

85. Calcium hydroxide paste is used as an

a. Inter-appointment intracanal medicament

b. An antimicrobialc. Necrotic tissue dissolver d. All of these

86. A mix of alginate was made, and the setting time was

shorter than previously experienced. The material wastoo stiff at the time of insertion to obtain adequate

seating and surface detail. All of the following are causes

of this problem EXCEPTa. The most common cause for the shorter setting time is too

high a temperature of the mix water.

b. Aging of the alginate powder in a warm, humid

atmosphere can affect the setting

c. The increased amount of powder causes the setting or

gelation time to be less than normally experienced.

d. Use of water substantially less than the 21degree Celsius

87. An alginate impression was taken of a patient with a

fixed appliance, and tearing of the impression occurred

in critical areas as a result of severely undercut areas.Choose the INCORRECT statementa. Strength of the alginate improves quite rapidly for5 to 10

minutes after setting, and the impression can be left in the

mouth a few extra minutes before removal.

b. Tear strength is a function of the rate of removal of the

impression, and rapid rates enhance the chances of an

acceptable impression.

c. Mixes with low powder/liquid ratios have higher tear

strengths

d. To obtain a smooth consistency that will record the

desired level of surface detail, the ratio must not be

increased or decreased beyond the limit.

88. An alginate impression is to be taken of a patient known

to have a problem with gagging. The dentist should

follow all of the following precautions EXCEPT

a. Insertion of the impression material into the mouth can

be delayed until just before the end of the working

time, but allowing enough time to seat the impression.b. The impression should then be removed at the earliest

possible time after it sets

c. A fast-setting alginate can be selected that not only setsin a shorter time

d. The anterior part of the maxillary tray should be seated

before the posterior portion

89. The set alginate impression separated from the tray

during removal from the mouth, resulting in distortion

and tearing of the impression. Which factor is LEAST

LIKELY to be the remedy of this problem?

a. A change in the brand of alginate to one that adheres tothe metal tray

b. Select a tray with perforations that provides mechanicalretention.

c. Use commercial tray adhesives specifically formulated

for retention of alginate impressions.d. Make a smooth, creamy mix of alginate

90. The World Health Organization criterion for evidence of

a xerophthalmia problem in the community is:

a. Night blindness prevalence of more than 1% in 6

months to 6 years age groupb. Prevalence of Bitots spots more than 2% in 6 months

to 6 years age groupc. Serum retinol of less than 10 microgram/100 ml in

more than 3% in 6 months to 6 years age group

d. Corneal ulcers in more than 0.5% of population of 6months to 6 years age group

91. The index for chronic malnutrition is:

a. Weight for age b. Height for agec. Weight for height d. Quetlets index

92. All the following steps are recommended under Baby FriendlyHospital Initiative promoted by the WHO and UNICEF

except:

a. Allowing mothers and infant to remain together for 24

hours a dayb. Mother to initiate breast feeding after 4 hours of normal

delivery

c. Giving newborn infant no food or drink other thanbreast milkd. Encouraging breast feeding on demand

93. In a stable situation:

a. Incidence = Prevalence + Durationb. Prevalence = Incidence Duration

c. Incidence = Prevalence Durationd. Prevalence = Incidence + Duration

94. The local anaethetic known to cause Methaemoglobina-

emia as adverse effect is:

a. Lidocaine b. Bupivacaine c. Tetracaine d. Prilocaine

95. Which of the following skeletal muscle relaxants

undergoes Hoffmann elimination?





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AHEAD Test and Discussions AIIMS SIMULATED TEST IVa. Pancuronium b. Rocuronium

c. Atracurium d. Succinyl choline

96. Which of the follwing antitubercular drugs does not

cause hepatotoxicity?

a. Isoniazid b. Ethambutolc. Pyrazinamide d. rifampicin

97. The betablocker having intrinsic sympathomimeticactivity is:

a. Propronolol b. Atenolol c. Sotalol d. Pindolol

98. Kllovoltage controls the speed of:

a. Photons b. Electrons c. Anodes d. Cathodes

99. The most effective means in reducing the time of

exposure, the amount of radiation reaching the patient

and the amount of radiation scattered to the dentist is:

a. A lead apron b. Ultra-speed film

c. Lead diaphragms d. Increasing target-film distance

100. All of the following are true concerning collimation

except

a. It prevents overexposure to patients

b. It increases the area of patient exposure

c. It reduces secondary radiation to the filmd. It reduces secondary radiation to the patient




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