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8/22/2019 Aiims3 Ques

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AHEAD Test and Discussions AIIMS SIMULATED TEST III1. Which of these is indicated in highly carious mouths?

a. Starting with few restorations in a mouth in which the cariesprocess is still active

b. Repeated restorations in failed casesc. Managing a child's grossly carious teeth by multiple extractions

d. Fluoride varnish applications or disclosing agents

2. Where a child has multiple open cavities, what is the

strategy to be followed?a. Attempt is made to render the cavities caries free

b. Infected tissue is removed under local anesthesiac. The provision of long definitive treatment is maded. Minimal tissue is removed allowing placement of temporary

dressing

3. What is wrong in the order in which items of operative care

are provided?

a. Small, simple restorations should be completed first

b. Extractions should be the first itemsc. Quadrant dentistry should be practiced

d. Endodontic treatment should follow completion of simple

restorative treatment

4. Which of these will you restore first?

a. Maxillary anterior b. Maxillary posterior teethc. Mandibular anterior d. Mandibular posterior teeth

5. Which of the following is not true regarding the need for a

recall in pediatric patients?

a. Rate of progression ofdental caries can be more rapid in

children than in adultsb. erosive tooth wear is faster in primary than in permanent

teethc. periodic assessment of oro facial growth and the

developing occlusion is requiredd. Monitoring of periapical lesions including cysts around

erupting teeth

6. Which of these should not be duration of a recall visit?

a. 3 months b. 12 months c. 6 months d. 18 months

7. The process of dental caries consists of aa. Dissolution of enamel matrix by proteolytic bacteria and

destruction of dentin by acidogenic microorganism

b. Demineralization of tooth substance and lysis of organic

elements by an adherent community of micro-organisms.

c. Dissolution of enamel and dentin by acids produced by

bacteria.

d. Dissolution of tooth by acids exclusively

8. A constant feature associated with radicular cyst is

a. Impacted tooth b. Missing tooth

c. Non vital tooth d. Anomalous tooth

9. A patient exhibits marked attrition of deciduous and permanentteeth and radiograph reveals a marked tendency towards

obliteration of many pulp canals. The patients mother and

brother also have history of this condition. The most likely

diagnosis is

a. Enamel hypoplasia b. Dentinogenesis imperfecta

c. Mottled enamel d. Enamel hypomaturation

10. A 45 yr old pt. comes to a dental clinic with a pus drainagethrough the apical region of the lower left first molar. This tooth is

symptomless and is absolutely discoloured. Histopathogenesis

reveals the presence of hyaline eosinophilic bodies along with the

presence of cholesterol crystals. Radiographic features shows

round or ovoid well circumscribed radiolucency at the rootapex.These findings would suggest

a. Radicular cyst b. Dentigerous cystc. Keratocyst d. Simple bone cyst

11. The radiographic examination of a 10 year old child disclosed acircumscribed radiolucent lesion 2cm in diameter in lower right

molar region. Scalloping is a prominent feature particularly

around and between the roots of teeth. The lesion was sharply

outlined but lacked a radio-opaque periphery was somewhat

irregularly shaped and extended 5 to 6mm above apices of molars

and 10 mm inferiorly towards the lower border of mandible.

There is no epithelial lining.

a. Dentigerous cyst b. Radicular cystc. Keratocyst d. Solitary bone cyst

12. Gorlins syndrome is

a. Autosomal dominant trait associated with keratocyst

b. Autosomal recessive trait associated with keratocystc. X linked recessive trait associated with keratocyst

d. X linked dominant trait associated with keratocyst

13. A triad of symptoms including recurring oral ulcers,

recurring genital ulcers, and eye lesions are feature of

a. Steven Johnsons syndrome b. Behets syndromec. Osteoartheritis d. Aperts Syndrome

14. MAGIC Syndrome has all of the following feature except

a. Mouth ulcer b. Genital ulcerc. Erythema Multiforme d. Inflammed cartilage

15. Harpengina can be distinguished from primary herpes simplexvirus infection by all of the following features except

a. Herpangina occurs in epidemics; HSV infections do not.b. Lesions of herpangina occur on the pharynx and posterior

portions of the oral mucosa whereas HSV primarilyaffectsthe anterior portion of the mouth.

c. Lesions of herpangina tend to be bigger than those ofHSV.

d. Herpangina does not cause a generalized acute gingivitis

like that associated with primary HSV infection.16. Which of the following has the clinical features of

Unilateral vesicles on an erythematous base chiefly

occurring along the course of the nerve?

a. Chickenpox b. Acute lymphonodular pharyngitis

c. Herpes Zoster d. Hand foot and Mouth disease

17. The nerves most commonly affected with HZ are all except

a. C3 b. C4 c. L1,L2d. First division of Trigeminal nerve

18. Treatment of ANUG for routine cases involves all except

a. Debridement & Irrigation b. Curettage

c. Hydrogen peroxide 1.5to 2%in water mouth rinses thrice a day

d. Antibiotics

19. It is no longer appropriate to routinely place bands on all

teeth that are to receive fixed attachments because

a. Bonded attachments are less irritating to gingivalb. Bonded attachments are less prove to produce decalcification

c. Both (a) & (b) d. Bonded attachments are more esthetic

20. All of the following are the indications for banding rather thanbonding except one

a. Teeth that will receive heavy intermittent forces against theattachments

b.Teeth with short clinical crowns

c.Teeth that will need both labial & lingual attachmentsd.Teeth with Long clinical crowns

21. The gingival margin of the band should

Academy of Higher Education and Advancements in Dentistry (A.H.E.A.D)1

R-704, New Rajinder Nagar, New Delhi 110060.Ph: 011 - 28743814, 25716297, 9810187297. Email- [email protected]

www.aheadacademy.com


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AHEAD Test and Discussions AIIMS SIMULATED TEST IIIa. go slightly subgingival

b. clear the gingival margin by at least 2 mmc. clear the gingival margin by more than 2 mm

d. Remain slightly supragingival

22. A brass wire separator is normally left in place for

a. 1 2 hrs b. 1 2 days

c. 5 7 days d. 10 12 days

23. Separating springs which exert a scissors action above

enough for banding in approximately

a. 1 day b. 1 week

c. 2 weeks d. 3 4 weeks

24. The necessary force to seat a preformed band should be

supplied by

a. Masticatory muscles of the patient

b. Arm strength of the dentistc. Arm strength of the dental assistant

d. Tongue pressure of the patient

25. Sterilization implies

a. Destruction of pathogenic bacteriab. Destruction of non-pathogenic bacteria

c. Destruction of bacteria and virusesd. Destruction of all forms of microbial and viral life

26. In an autoclave, minimum required temperature to

positively destroy all living organisms is

a. 1340 F b. 1210 F c. 1210 C d. 1340 C

27. Flash method of steam sterilization implies

a. Heating at 1340 F for 3 minutesb. Heating at 1340 C for 3 minutes

c. Heating at 1210 F for 3 minutes

d. Heating at 1210 F for 20 minutes

28. All of the following are true except

a. Dry heat can be used to sterilize dental handpieces,

powders, oil etc.b. It is also a good method of sterilization for objects that

cant withstand steam or boiling waterc. Compared to moist heat, it is a rapid method of sterilization

d. Dry heat do not attack glass and will not rust instruments

29. Which of the following procedure is both diagnostic as well

as curative

a. Exfoliative cytology b. Punch Biopsy

c. Incisional Biopsy d. Excisional Biopsy

30. Which of the following procedure is least invasive

a. Exfoliative cytology b. Punch Biopsy

c. Incisional Biopsy d. Excisional Biopsy

31. Accurately recorded centric relation aids in proper

adjustments of condylar guidances for control of

a. Eccentric movements. b. Tongue movements.c. Border movements d. Bennet movements

32. An accurate centric relation orients the

a. Lower cast to the opening axis of the articulator and the

mandible.b. Upper cast to the opening axis of the articulator and the

mandible.

c. Lower cast to the closing axis of the articulator and themandible.

d. Upper cast to the closing axis of the articulator and themandible.

33. Errors in mounting casts on articulator can be detected

when

a. Centric relation is used as the horizontal reference position.

b. Centric occlusion is used as the horizontal referenceposition.

c. Centric relation is used as the vertical reference position.

d. Centric occlusion is used as the vertical reference position.

34. Which of the following statement about centric relation is

incorrect

a. This position is more constant and definite than vertical

dimension, and is independent of the presence or absence ofteeth

b. Errors in mounting casts on articulator can be detectedwhen centric relation is used as the horizontal reference

position.c. It's a position from which all other eccentric movements

occur. It's an intersection of right and left border position.d. Accurately recorded centric relation aids in proper

adjustments of incisal guidances for control of eccentricmovements.

35. Incisal guidance: is measured as,

a. It is usually expressed in degrees of angulation from thehorizontal by a line drawn in the sagittal plane between theincisal edges of the upper and lower incisor teeth when

closed in centric occlusion.b. It is usually expressed in degrees of angulation from the

vertical by a line drawn in the sagittal plane between theincisal edges of the upper and lower incisor teeth when

closed in centric occlusion.c. It is usually expressed in degrees of angulation from the

horizontal by a line drawn in the coronal plane between the

incisal edges of the upper and lower incisor teeth when

closed in centric occlusion.d. It is usually expressed in degrees of angulation from the

vertical by a line drawn in the coronal plane between theincisal edges of the upper and lower incisor teeth when

closed in centric occlusion.

36. With a given vertical overlap incisal guide angle can be

made flatter by

a. Increasing the horizontal overlap and by reducing vertical

overlap.b. Increasing the horizontal overlap and by increasing vertical

overlap.c. Reducing the horizontal overlap and by reducing vertical

overlap.d. Reducing the horizontal overlap and by increasing vertical

overlap.37. A woman suffers a fracture of the left tenth and eleventh

ribs. Which of the following organs is most likely to have

been injured by these fractured ribs?

a. Descending colon b. Jejunumc. Left adrenal gland d. Spleen

38. The tongue will move in which direction when protuded

with surgical damage to the right hypoglossal nerve?

a. Downward b. Upwardc. Directly forward d. To the right

39. You are asked to hold your upper arm against your lateral

chest wall, with the palm upward. You then rotate the hand

so that the palm faces downward, without bending thewrist. This motion is known as:





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AHEAD Test and Discussions AIIMS SIMULATED TEST IIIa. Abduction of the forearm b. Adduction of the forearmc. Flexion of the forearm d. Pronation of the forearm

40. An otherwise healthy student taking no medications is

concerned because he has noticed several painless uniform

"large bumps" at the back of his tongue. These are most

likely

a. Aphthous ulcers b. Candidal colonies

c. Circumvallate papillae d. Filiform papillae

41. Attempts to straighten out a flexed thigh cause great pain in

a patient with appendicitis. This is due to the position of the

appendix near which muscle?

a. Adductor magnus b. Biceps femorisc. Gluteus maximus d. Psoas major

42. Which of the following structures does the fetal allantoic

duct become in the adult?

a. Cloaca b. Medial umbilical ligamentc. Urachus d. Ureter

43. Under normal conditions, the main drive for respiration is the

a. Arterial PCO2 acting through central chemoreceptors

b. Arterial PCO2 acting through peripheral chemoreceptorsc. Arterial pH acting through central chemoreceptors

d. Arterial pH acting through peripheral chemoreceptors

44. Which of the following types of nerve fibers carry pain that

is aching, burning, sometimes throbbing, and poorly

localized?

a. Group II fibers b. Group III fibers

c. Type C fibers d. Substance P

45. If a drug is taken that stimulates sympathetic cholinergic

neurons, which of the following responses is expected?

a. Bradycardia b. Bronchoconstriction

c. Diaphoresis d. Increased gastrointestinal motility

46. If a drug is taken that stimulates sympathetic cholinergic

neurons, which of the following responses is expected?

a. Bradycardia b. Bronchoconstriction

c. Diaphoresis d. Increased gastrointestinal motility

47. One hour before a dental procedure a patient receives four

500-mg amoxicillin capsules. On arriving at the dental office

the dentist notices that the patient has maculopapular rash

and is wheezing. The effector cell in this type of

hypersensitivity is a(n)

a. Eosinophil b. Mast cell c. Megakaryocyte d. Neutrophil

48. An increase in which of the following is the most likely

explanation for the swelling in the legs seen with congestive

heart failure?

a. Interstitial colloid osmotic pressure b. Lymph flowc. Plasma colloid osmotic pressure d. Right atrial pressure

49. An infant diagnosed with phenylketonuria would be

expected to be deficient in which of the following

nonessential amino acids, assuming that it is not obtained

from dietary sources?

a. Asparagine b. Cysteine c. Glutamine d. Tyrosine

50. Which of the following cofactors is required fordecarboxylation of alpha-ketoacids?

a. Vitamin B1 b. Vitamin B2 c. Vitamin B3 d. Vitamin B5

51. Albinism is a disorder involving what substance?

a. Aromatic amino acids b. Branched chain amino acidsc. Glycolipids c. Glycoproteins

52. A woman vegetarian is found to have a severe riboflavin

deficiency. The function of which of the following enzymes

in the citric acid cycle would be most directly affected by

the riboflavin deficiency?

a. Aconitase b. Citrate synthasec. Isocitrate dehydrogenase d. Succinate dehydrogenase

53. Which of the following pairs of enzymes is required for the

process of gluconeogenesis?

a. Fructose-1,6-bisphosphatase and pyruvate carboxylase

b. Glucose-6-phosphatase and phosphofructokinase-1c. Glucose-6-phosphatase and pyruvate dehydrogenase

d. Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase and glucokinase

54. Cyanide poisoning will directly affect which anabolic

process?

a. Breaking of covalent bonds in glucose molecules

b. Formation of carbon dioxide

c. Formation of GTP from GDPd. Movement of hydrogen ions through channels in the

respiratory enzymes

55. Global eradication of Lyme disease is unlikely in the

foreseeable future because Borrelia burgdorferi

a. Can be maintained in nature indefinitely by a tick vectorb. Has a tough outer coat that is resistant to environmental

stressesc. Has humans as its primary reservoir

d. Is resistant to antibiotics and disinfectants

56. A patient experiences a severe bite wound from a pit bull.

He receives a booster injection of tetanus toxoid and an

injection of penicillin G. Several days later, the wound isinflamed and purulent. The exudate is cultured on blood

agar and yields gram-negative rods. Antibiotic sensitivity

tests are pending. Which of the following is the most likely

pathogen?

a. Bartonella henselae b. Brucella canisc. Clostridium tetani d. Pasteurella multocida

57. A patient with nuchal rigidity and headache undergoes

lumbar puncture. The CSF contains markedly increased

numbers of lymphocytes, leading to a presumptive

diagnosis of viral meningitis. Which of the following groups

of viruses is most likely to be involved?

a. Adenoviruses b. Enterovirusesc. Human papillomaviruses d. Poxviruses

58. A patient who is unable to tolerate clindamycin therapy for

the treatment of an intraoral anaerobic infection would be

most likely prescribed which of the following agents?

a. Ciprofloxacin b. Metronidazolec. Tetracycline d. Tobramycin

59. Serum analysis of a symptomatic patient yields elevated

ALT, HBsAg, Anti-HBc, HBeAg, and bilirubin. All other

values are normal. What is the hepatitus B status of this

recruit?

a. Asymptomatic carrier b. Chronic active carrierc. Fulminant hepatitis B

d. Recovered from acute self-limited HBV





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AHEAD Test and Discussions AIIMS SIMULATED TEST III60. A 23-year-old woman has Toxic Shock Syndrome. A diffuse

erythematous rash with areas of desquamation over the

hands and feet is noted. Infection with which of the

following agents is the most likely cause of these signs and

symptoms?

a. Clostridium perfringens b. HIV-1

c. Shigella dysenteriae d. Staphylococcus aureus61. Diameter of bristle in soft tooth brush is:

a. 0.1 mm b. 0.2mm c. 0.3mm d. 0.4mm

62. Debris from orthodontic appliances and fixed prosthesis is

more efficiently removed by

a. Manual tooth brush b. Rinsing

c. Oral irrigation device d. Powered brush

63. 1g of plaque(net weight)contains how many bacteria?

a. 2 x 103 b. 2x108 c. 2x1011 d. 2 x 1013

64. Oxygen tension in a periodontal pocket is

a. 1-2 %o2 b. 5-10% o2 c. 10-15 % o2 d. 15-20% o2

65. Which of the following is incorrect?

a. Microbes that need positive eh for viability are aerobesb. Those that need ve eh are anaerobes

c. Older plaque eh is 141 mv d. Older plaque eh is 41mv

66. At what level does mucogingival line lie interdentally from

the level of crest of alveolar bone

b. 3mm b. 4mm c. 5mm d. 7mm

67. In complete denture patients incisal guidance is not present

and it is arbitrarily set using a standard incisal guide value

while arranging the anterior teeth. Which of the following

statement is incorrecta. A steep inclined plane, is detrimental to the stability equilibrium

of the denture-base hence the incisal guidance should be as flat asaesthetics and phonetics will permit.

b. When the arrangement of the anterior teeth necessitates a verticaloverlap, a compensating horizontal overlap should set to prevent

dominant incisal guidance (anterior interference) from upsettingthe occlusal balance on the posterior teeth.

c. If the incisal guidance is steep, it requires steep cusps, a steep

occlusal plane, or a steep compensating curve effect an occlusalbalance.

d. The angle formed by this protrusive path to the vertical plane is

called as the incisal guide angle.

68. The occlusal plane is determined by the lower anterior teeth andthe commissure of the mouth. Which of the following statement

about setting up of the denture occlusal plane is incorrect

a. The occlusal plane should terminate posteriorly at the junction

of anterior one-third and posterior two-third of the retromolarpad.

b. The parotid papilla is on the average 3.3 mm above theocclusal plane and it can be used as a guide for establishing the

height of the occlusal plane.c. If the occlusal plane is too low, then the tongue can overlap the

lower teeth and cause tongue bitting.d. From cuspid to cuspid, the rim is inclined slightly backwards.

69. The lower posterior teeth should not crowd the tongue or

interfere with its normal function. Incorrect statement

about tongue position with respect to denture teeth is

a. The buccal cusps of the molars are approximately in

vertical alignment with the mylophyoid ridge.b. At rest, after swallowing, the tip of the tongue touches the

lingual surfaces of the lower anterior teeth.

c. The lateral border of the tongue will be at the level of thelingual contour of the lower natural posterior teeth.

d. The dorsal surface of the tongue is nearly level with theocclusal surface of the posterior teeth.

70. Curve of Spee cannot be copied onto the denture in the same wayas seen in natural dentition because in natural dentition

a. Christensens phenomenon exists.

b. The radii of the curve depends on the angle of the incisalguidance and the condylar guidance.

c. There is no balanced occlusion.

d. Condylar paths are dependent on TMJ anatomy

71. Which of the following is NOT a majormechanisms of action for fluoride incaries inhibition?

a. Increases remineralization of enamel.

b. Inhibits carbohydrate metabolism

c. Reduces enamel solubility.

d. ability to prevent reduction of the pH of plaque

72. A parent of a 6-year old child asks aboutfluoride supplementation. The childweighs 20 kg and lives in a fluoride-deficient area with less than 0.3 ppm offluoride ion in drinking water. What doyou recommend?

a. Sodium fluoride, 1-mg tablets, to be chewed and swallowed

at bedtime.

b. Sodium fluoride, 2-mg tablets, to be chewed and swallowed

at bedtime.

c. Topically applied gels of 2.0% NaF

d. Mouth rinses of 0.2% NaF weekly

73. If dentin wall have been dried during bonding then they

may be re-wetted with:a. Gluma densensitizer b. Water unsaturated applicator tipc. Phosphoric acid d. Ethyl alcohol

74. During conventional class III tooth preparation remaining oldrestorative material on the axial wall should be removed except:

a. The periphery of remaining restorative material is not intactb. The use of underlying dentin is necessary to effect a stronger

bond

c. The tooth pulp was symptomatic pre operatived. Excavation nearer to the pulp

75. Initially, the axial wall depth of beveled conventional class

III tooth preparation is

a. 0.2 mm b. 0.5 mmc. 0.75 1.25 mm d. 1.25 mm

76. Length wise direction of gingival retention groove is

a. An angle bisects the junction of axial and external wallsb. Parallel the DEJ without undermining the adjacent enamel

of dentin supportc. Both a & b

d. Parallel to the long axis of the tooth

77. Most used methods for creating a working cast with

removable dies from an elastic impression require two

pours. The first and second pours are made to

a. Produce removable dies and establish intra arch

relationshipb. Produce removable dies





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AHEAD Test and Discussions AIIMS SIMULATED TEST IIIc. Establish inter arch relationshipd. Produce dies with established paths of placement

78. Pindex system to make dies offers many advantages EXCEPT:

a. The first pour becomes the die segment and can be made

quickly and easily.

b. Dowel pins can be positioned precisely where needed.c. Dowel pins are automatically positioned parallel, which

facilitates die removal.

d. Type 4 gypsum can be treated to create a more abrasion-resistant die surface by this system

79. An acute apical periodontitis is found

a. Around vital teeth. b. Around non vital teeth

c. Around vital as well as non vital teeth.

d. Around teeth with purulent exudates around the apex

80. Which of these neurochemicals induce a state of hypera-

lgesia in local nerve fiber?

a. Serotonin b. Prostaglandinc. Both of these d. Histamine

81. Pain which is electrical, shocking, short, lasting several

seconds but not longer than a minute and is confined to one

side and involve one division of the nerve isa. Herpes zoster b. Trigeminal neuralgia

c. Myocardial pain d. Impacted tooth or cyst of third molar

82. Latent virus of herpes zoster resides in the

a. Stellate ganglion b. Cervical ganglionc. Sphenopalatine ganglion d. Gsserian ganglion

83. Aspects of a patient's medical background that might have

been implicated in spontaneous pulpal degenera-tion are all

of these except

a. Sickle cell anemia b. Herpes zoster

c. Vitamin D resistant rickets d. Bells palsy

84. Which of these is not a primary treatment for hypersen-

sitivity?

a. Use of physical agents b. Iontophoresis technique

c. Laser technology d. Endodontics

85. The surface of a high-strength dental stone die was abradedduring preparation of the wax pattern. Type 4 gypsum can be

treated to create a more abrasion-resistant die surface by a. Immersing the die in hardening solutions resulting in a higher

setting expansion of high-strength dental stoneb. Immersing the die in colloidal silica

c. Immersing the impression in 2% glutaraldehyded. Immersing the die in saturated calcium sulfate dihydrate solution

slurry water.

86. A dental stone master cast for a complete denture was placed in abowl of water before it was mounted on an articulator.Inadvertently, the cast was left in the water overnight. After the

cast was mounted and dried, an unusually rough surface

appeared. What is the possible solution to this problem

a. Avoid immersing of the cast in waterb. Use a saturated calcium sulfate dihydrate solution slurry

water to immerse the castc. Immersing the cast in colloidal silicad. Mount the cast on the articulator after a gap period of six hours

87. A gypsum investment was mixed with water in the

proportions as recommended by the manufacturer, but the

working time was too short to invest the wax pattern. All of

the following are causes of this problem EXCEPT

a. The powder may have been contaminated by water, from high

humidity or a wet dispensing spoon.b. The temperature of the mixing water may have been higher than

23 degree celsius.c. Under mixing and too short mixing shortens the working time.

d. The mixing bowl or spatula may have been contaminated withparticles of set investment containing calcium sulfate dihydrate,

accelerating the reaction.

88. The boxing edge of a dental stone master cast was trimmed on a

model trimmer several days after it had been poured. Trimmingwas much more difficult than when done soon after the dentalstone had set. Why was the cast more difficult to trim?

a. Soaking the cast in slurry water was not done

b. Compressive strength of dental stone increases to abouttwice that when wet

c. Temperature of water poured on model trimmer was lessthan 35 degree celsius.

d. Pouring of the cast was done too rapidly

89. The recommended total dose of diethylcarbamazine (DEC)

for mass drug administration in areas where W. bancrofti

infection is endemic is:

a. 36 mg/kg body weight b. 46 mg/kg body weightc. 60 mg/kg body weight d. 72 mg/kg body weight

90. Which one of the following represents filaria endemicity rate?

a. Microfilaria rate b. Filaria disease rate

c. Mosquito infestation rated. Combination of microfilaria and disease rate

91. Match List-I (Trace elements) with List-II (Deficiency states) andselect the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

a. Magnesium 1.Growth failure

b. Iodine 2.Tetanyc. Zinc 3.Protein energy malnutrition

d. Selenium 4.Goitre

Codes:

A. a b c d B. a b c d C. a b c d D. a b c d4 2 3 1 2 4 1 3 4 2 1 3 2 4 3 1

92. Classification of grades of protein energy malnutrition

given by Indian Academy of Paediatrics has adopted:

a. ICMR standards

b. Standards developed by National Institute of Nutrition,Hyderabad

c. Local standards d. NCHS standards

93. Flouxetine is a:

a. Anti. psychotic drug b. Used in opiate poisoning

c. Tricyclic antidepressant

d. Selective sacrotin reuptake inhibitor

94. Advantages of regional analgesia blockade are all these except:

a. A reduced need for opioids

b. Early resumption for normal activity and ambulationc. A quick awakening from general anaesthesis

d. Increase of the stress response

95. Oxytocin is characterized by all except:

a. Circulates entirely in free form b. Plasma half life 5-7 minutesc. Level increase during labor d. Released in pulsatile fashion

96. Ethambutol toxicity leads to:

a. Steven Johnson syndrome b. Pupillary dilatation

c. Visual loss with color vision defects d. Bulls eye retinopathy





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AHEAD Test and Discussions AIIMS SIMULATED TEST III97. Advantages of the paralleling technique are all of the

following EXCEPT

a. Increased exposure time due to long coneb. Little or no root superimposition on a maxillary molar view

c. Accurate diagnosis of periodontal bone height (given

minimal distortion)

d. Image formed is dimensionally accurate

98 . Which of the following is not a disadvantage of the bisectingtechnique?

a. Image on x-ray film may be dimensionally distortedb. Increased exposure time

c. Due to the use of a short cone (which results in divergent

rays), the image is not a true reproduction of the objectd. May not be able to judge the correct alveolar bone height

99 . Which of the following is a major disadvantage of the

paralleling technique?a. The image formed on the film will not have dimensional

accuracy

b. Due to the amount of distortion, periodontal bone height cannot

be accurately diagnosed

c. An increase in exposure time is necessary due to the use of along cone

d. An increase in exposure time is necessary due to the use of ashort cone

100 .The two x-ray techniques that are utilized in dentistry for

taking periapical films are

a. Bisecting technique and Paralleling technique

b. Perpendicular technique and Paralleling technique

c. Bisecting technique and perpendicular technique

d. cross arch technique and Paralleling technique




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