CHEAPEST PMT ONLINE TEST SERIESAIIMS/NEET TOPPER PREPARE QUESTIONS

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NEETPractice

10 Fully Solved Model Papers

NEET-2016 Phase I-II included

3 Full length Model Papers

Outside NCERT Questions Covered

An Authentic Practise Book for NEET Exam

Set 15Based on NCERT

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1 Practice paper

1. Two charges each of +10µC are placed 5 mm apart. Magnitude of electric field at a point P on the axis of the dipole 15 cm away from its centre O on the side of the positive charge in N/C:

a. × 62.9 10 b. × 62.6 10 c. × 63.5 10 d. × 65.12 10

2. Which one of the following is the basic properties of charge?a. Quantisation b. Additivity c. Conservation d. All of these

3. In the given configuration, if a small negative charge moves from B to A then, what is the effect on kinetic energy:

a. Increase b. Same c. Decrease d. First increase then decrease

4. A parallel plate capacitor consists of two large plane parallel plates separated by small distance. What is magnitude of electric field in region I:

a. Zero b. ε0

QA

c. ε0

Q2A

d. ε0

3Q2A

Physics5. A storage battery of emf 8V and internal

resistance 0.5V, is being charged by a 120 V dc supply using a series resistor of 15.5Ω. What is the terminal voltage of the battery: a. 6.5V b. 11.5V c. 9.5V d. 7.5V

6. Four resistances are connected in circuit in the given figure. The electric current flowing through 4Ω and 6Ω resistance is respectively

a. 2A, 4A b. 1A, 2A c. 1A, 1A d. 2A, 2A

7. A wire has resistance 12Ω. It is bent in the form of a circle. The effective resistance between the two points on any diameter is equal to:a. Ω3 b. Ω12 c. Ω6 d. Ω24

8. Two wires of the same dimensions but resistivities ρ1 and ρ2 connected in series. The equivalent resistivity of the combination is:

a. ρ + ρ1 2 b. ρ + ρ1 2

2c. ( )ρ + ρ1 22 d. ρ ρ1 2

9. 9. Circular coil of wire consisting of 100 turns, each of radius 8 cm carries a current of 0.4A. Magnitude of the magnetic field at the centre of the coil:a. −× 43.1 10 T b. −× 32.4 10 T c. −× 21.36 10 T d. −× 31.44 10 T

10. A long straight wire carries a current of 35A. Magnetic field at a point 20cm from the wire is:a. 55.2 10 T−× b. 553.5 10 T−× c. 52.6 10 T−× d. 51.6 10 T−×

2 Practice Paper - 1

11. Which one of the following has resultant magnetic moment equal to zero?a. Paramagnetic b. Ferromagnetic c. Diamagnetic d. Ferrimagnetic

12. A magnet of magnetic moment M is situated with its axis along the direction of a magnetic field of strength B. The work done in rotating it by an angle of 180o will be:a. –MB b. +MB c. Zero d. +2MB

13. The dimension of magnetic flux isa. MLT-2A-2 b. ML2T-2A-2 c. ML2T-1A-2 d. ML2T-2A-1

14. Magnetic flux linked with a coil, in Wb, is

given by the equation φ 2= 3t + 4t + 9 then the magnitude of induced emf at t = 2 sec will be:a. 16V b. 4V c. 8V d. 2V

15. An ideal coil of 10H is joined in series with a resistance of 5Ω and a battery of 5V. 2 sec after joining, the current flowing in ampere in the circuit will be:

a. 1 –e b. e-1 c. 11e

− d. e

16. An alternating voltage is connected in series with a resistance R and an inductance L. If the potential drop across the resistance is 200V and across the inductance is 150V, then voltage applied is:a. 350V b. 250V c. 300V d. 500V

17. The impedance of a circuit consists of 3Ω resistance and 4Ω resistance. The power factor of the circuit is:a. 0.4 b. 1 c. 0.6 d. 0.8

18. When light wave suffers reflection at the interface from air to glass, the change in phase of the reflected wave is equal to:

a. Zero b. 2π c. π d. 2π

19. A convex mirror of focal length ‘f’ forms an

image which is 1n

times the object. The

distance of the object from the mirror is:

a. ( )1−n f b. ( )1−nf

n

c. ( )1+nf

n d. ( )1+n f

20. If two waves represented by 1y 4Sin t= ω and 2y 3Sin t

3π = ω +

interfere at a point,

the amplitude of the resulting wave is:

a. 7 b. 5 c. 6 d. 3.5

21. A radioactive substance disintegrates 164

of initial value in 60 sec. the half life this substance:a. 5 s b. 10 s c. 30 s d. 20 s

22. The velocity of an electrons in the first orbit of hydrogen atom is v, then the velocity of an electron in the 2nd orbit of He+ is:

a. 2v b. v2

c. v d. v4

23. The ratio of the largest to shortest wavelength in Balmer series of Hydrogen spectra is:

a. 259

b. 176

c. 9

5 d. 5

4

24. The diode shown in the circuit is a silicon diode. The potential difference between the point A and B will be:

a. 6V b. 0.7V c. 0.6V d. Zero

25. The combination of the gates shown in the figure below produces:

a. NOR b. OR c. AND d. XOR

26. Two bodies are thrown up at angles of 450 and 60o respectively, with the horizontal. If both bodies attain same vertical height, then the ratio of velocities with which these are thrown is:

3NEET Practice Set

a. 23

b. 23

c. 32

d. 32

27. A ball is thrown upwards from the ground with an initial speed of u. The ball is at a height of 80m at two times, the time interval being 6s. Magnitude of u:a. 30 m/s b. 50 m/s c. 20 m/s d. 10 m/s

28. A radio wave frequency 840 MHz is sent towards an aeroplane. The frequency of the radio echo has a frequency 2.8 KHz more than the original frequency. Then velocity of aeroplane is:a. 3 km/s b. 2 km/s c. 4 km/s d. 0.5 km/s

29. The equation of a transverse wave is given by y = 20 Sin π(0.02x - 2t) where y and x are in cm and t in sec. The wavelength in cm will be:a. 50 b. 200 c. 5 d. 100

30. A body cools from 80oC to 70oC in 6 minutes. Under identical external condition to cool from 60oC to 50oC, it will take:a. < 6 minutes b. 6 minutes c. > 6 minutes d. None

31. Stationary waves are set up in an air column. If velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s and frequency is 165 Hz, the distance between the nodes is:a. 2m b. 0.5m c. 1m d. 4m

32. Number of beats heard for the super position of y = a Sin 320πt and y = a Sin 326πt is:a. 6 b. 12 c. 3 d. 4

33. Frequency of the first overtone of a closed pipe of length lc is equal to that of the second overtone of an open pipe of length l0. Then the ratio lc /lo is equal to:a. 1/2 b. 3 c. 1 d. 2

34. The disc of a siren has n holes and the frequency of its rotation is 300 rpm. It produces a note of wavelength 2.4m, when the velocity of sound in air is 360 m/s. Then value of n is:

a. 36 b. 30 c. 5 d. 24

35. If a three block each of mass 4 kg. The table is smooth, the pulley is light and smooth, the string is light and inextensible. The tension in the string connecting B and C is:

a. 4g b. 4g/3 c. 4g/3 d. 8g/3

36. A body moving along a straight line with uniform acceleration ‘a’ it covers a distance S1 in the first t seconds and a distance S2 in the next t seconds, a is then given by:

a. 1 22

S St+ b. 1 2

2

3S St−

c. 2 12

S St− d. 1 23S S

2t−

37. A vessel has a height of 50 cm. What is the maximum distance at which water can fall from a hole on its side:a. 25 cm b. 40 cm c. 33.3 cm d. 50 cm

38. Acceleration due to gravity become g2

[where g = acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the earth] at a height equal to:

a. 4R b. R4

c. R2

d. 2R

39. During an adiabatic process, the cube of the pressure is found to be the inversely proportional to the fourth power of the volume. Then the ratio of specific heat is:a. 1 b. 1.33 c. 1.67 d. 1.4

40. A shell of mass 20 kg at rest explodes into two fragments whose masses are in the ratio 2 : 3. The smaller fragment moves with a velocity of 6 ms-1. The kinetic energy of larger fragment will be:a. 96 J b. 216 J c. 149 J d. 360 J

4 Practice Paper - 1

41. Two identical rods AC and CB made of two different metals having thermal conductivities in the ratio 2 : 3 are kept in contact with each other at the end C as shown. A is at 100oC and B is at 25oC. Then the junction C is at:

a. 55oC b. 60oC c. 75oC d. 50oC

42. A body of mass 10 kg moves at a constant speed of 10 m/s. A constant force then acts for 4 sec on the body and gives it a speed of 2 m/s in opposite direction. Magnitude of the force acting on the body is:a. 30 N b. 20 N c. 15 N d. 110 N

43. A 130 m long train is moving in upward direction with speed 72 km/hr. Another train of 120 m long is moving in downward direction with speed of 108 km/hr. The time in which second train crosses the first train will be?a. 5 s b. 10 s c. 12 s d. 15 s

44. A string is wound around the rim of a mounted flywheel of mass 20 kg and radius 20 cm. A steady pull of 25 N is applied on the cord (Neglecting friction and mass of string) the angular acceleration of the wheel is:a. 50 s-2 b. 25 s-2 c. 12.5 s-2 d. 6.25 s-2

45. What is the radius of curvature of a double convex lens made of glass of refractive index 1.55. If its focal length is 20 cm:a. 22 cm b. 25 cm c. 30 cm d. 30 cm

46. The law of definite proportion is not applicable to nitrogen oxide because:a. Nitrogen atomic weight is not constantb. Nitrogen molecular weight is variablec. Nitrogen equivalent weight is variabled. Oxygen atomic weight is variable

47. The hydride ions (H-) are isoelectronic with:a. Li b. He+

c. He d. Be

Chemistry

48. The magnetic quantum number specifies:a. Size of orbitalsb. Shape of orbitalsc. Orientation of orbitalsd. Nuclear stability

49. Chloride of an element a gives neutral solution in water. The element in the periodic table belongs to: a. 1th group b. 3rd groupc. 5th group d. 1st transition series

50. If the atomic no. of element X is 7. The best electron dot symbol for the element is:a. b. c. X d.

51. o-nitrophenol is more volatile than p-nitrophenol due to:a. Intramolecular H-bondingb. Intemolecualr H-bondingc. Resonance d. Inductive effect

52. The r.m.s velocity of hydrogen is 7 times the r.m.s velocity of nitrogen. If T is the temperature of the gas, then:a. T(H2) = T(N2) b. T(H2) > T(N2)c. T(H2) < T(N2) d. T(H2) = 7 (N2)

53. The resultant heat change in a reaction is the same whether it takes place in one or several stages”. This statement is called:a. Lavoisier and laplaces lowb. Hess’s Lawc. Joule’s Lawd. Le-chatolier’s principle

54. It the equilibrium constant for the

reaction, 2 2 3N + 3H 2NH

then the equilibrium constant for the reaction

2 2 32N + 6H 4NH

would be equal to:a. k2 b. k c. 1

k d.

2

1k

55. The pH of a soft drink is 3.82. Its hydrogen ion concentration will be:a. 2 11.96 10 mol L− −× b. 3 11.96 10 mol L− −×c. 4 11.5 10 mol L− −× d. 5 11.5 10 mol L− −×

5NEET Practice Set

66. A lake with an inflow of domestic sewage rich in organic waste may result in:a. Drying of the lake very soon due to algal

bloomb. An increase production of fish due to lot of

nutrientsc. Death of fist due to lack of oxygend. Increased population of aquatic food used

organisms

67. The ratio of cationic radius to anionic radius in an ionic crystal is greater than 0.732. Its coordination number is:a. 6 b. 1 c. 8 d. 4

68. The ratio of the value of any colligative property for KCl solution to that for sugar solution is nearly:a. 1 b. 0.5 c. 2.0 d. 3

69. Beryllium is placed above magnesium in the second group. Beryllium dust, therefore when a added to MgCl2 solution will:a. Have no effectb. Precipitate Mg metalc. Precipitate MgOd. Lead to dissolution of Be metal

70. Which graph represents zero – order reaction [A(g) → B(g)]:

a. b.

c. d.

71. Which of the following electrolytes is least effective in causing flocculation of ferric hydroxide sol:a. K4[Fe(CN)6] b. K2CrO4c. KBr d. K2SO4

72. Zone refining is a technique used primarily for which one of the following process:a. Alloying b. Temperingc. Sintering d. Purification

56. When KMnO4 acts as an oxidizing agent and ultimately forms [MnO4]-2, MnO3, Mn+2 then the number of electrons transferred in each case respectively are:a. 4, 3, 1, 5 b. 1, 5, 3, 7c. 1, 3, 4, 5 d. 3, 5, 7, 1

57. When same amount of zinc is treated separately with excess of sulphuric acid and excess of sodium hydroxide, the ratio of volumes of hydrogen evolved is:a. 1 : 1 b. 1 : 2 c. 2 : 1 d. 9 : 4

58. Which is most basic in character?a. CsOH b. KOHc. NaOH d. LiOH

59. Carborundum is:a. SiC b. PbC c. CaC d. SnC

60. All bonds in benzene are equal due to:a. Tautomerism b. Inductive effectc. Resance d. Isomerism

61. In the formation of methane molecule, carbon makes use of:a. sp – hybridized orbitalsb. sp3 – hybridized orbitalsc. sp3 – hybridized orbitalsd. Unhybridized orbitals

62. Which of the following does not react with methane under normal condition?a. l2 b. Cl2 c. Br2 d. F2

63. Baeyer’s reagent is:a. Alkaine KMnO4 solutionb. Acidic KMnO4 solutionc. Neutral KMnO4 solutiond. Aqueous bromine solution

64. Which of the following decolourize KMnO4 (Neutral or slightly alkaline)?a. Ethane b. Ethenec. Acetylene d. Both B and C

65. The reaction of benzene with chlorine in the presence of FeCl3 gives:a. Benzene hexachlorideb. Chlorobenzenec. Benzyl chlorided. Benzoly chloride

6 Practice Paper - 1

73. The correct ordect order of solubility in water for He, Ne, Ar, Kr, Xe, is:a. He > Ne > Ar > Kr > Xeb. Ne > Ar > Kr > He > Xec. Xe > Kr > Ar > Ne > Hed. Ar > Ne > He > Kr > Xe

74. Which of the following is the correct sequence of atomic weights of given elements?a. Fe > Co > N b. Co > N > Fec. Ni > Co > Fe d. Fe > Ni > Co

75. Cuprammonium ion [Cu(NH3)4]2+ is:a. Tetrahedral b. Square planarc. Triangular bipyramid d. Octahedral

76. The oxidation number of Cr in [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3 is:a. 8 b. 6 c. 4 d. 3

77. Which of the following will not undergo nucleophile substitution?

a. II, III and IV b. II and IVc. III and IV d. Only IV

78. Phenol is less acidic than:a. Ethanol b. o-nitraphenolc. Methanol d. p-methylphenol

79. Paraldehyde is:a. A trimer of formaldehydeb. A trimer of acetaldehydec. A hexamer of formaldehyded. A hevamer of acetaldehyde

80. Which of the following is the strongest base?

a. b.

c. d.

81. An isocyanide on hydrolysis gives:a. Amideb. Carboxylic acid and ammonia

c. N-substituted amided. 1o- amine and formic acid

82. Toilet soab is:a. A mixture of calcium and sodium salts of

higher fatty acidsb. A mixture of potassium stearate and glyc-

erolc. A mixture of sodium salts of higher fetty

acidsd. A mixture of potassium salts of higher

felty acids

83. Which one among the following is a thermosetting plastic?a. PVC b. PVAc. Bakelite d. Perspex

84. Antiseptic chloroxylenol is:a. 3-chloro-4, 5-dimethylphenolb. 4-chloro-3, 5-dimethylphenolc. 5-chloro-3, 4-dimethyphenold. 4-chloro-2, 5-dimethyphenol

85. AgCl dissolves in ammonia solution giving:a. 2 4Ag , NH+ + and Cl− b. Ag(NH3)+ and Cl−

c. Ag2(NH3)+ and Cl− d. Ag ( )3 2NH + and Cl−

86. 0.53g of Na2CO3 has been dissolved in 100 ml of a sodium carbonate solution. The normality of the solution:

a. N5

b. N2

c. N10

d. N

87. Which one of the following is expected to exhibit optical isomeris? (en = ethylenediamine):a. Cis-[Ft (NH3)2Cl2] b. trans – [it (NH3)2Cl2]c. Cis-[CO (en)2Cl2]+ d. trans-[CO (en)2Cl2]+

88. A strong base can abstract an -hydrogen from:a. Ketone b. Alkane c. Alkene d. Amine

89. Iodoform test is not given by:a. Ethanol b. Ethanolc. 2-pentanone d. 3-pentanone

90. Amides may be converted into amines by a reaction named after?a. Hoffmann b. Claisenc. Perkin d. Kekule

7NEET Practice Set

Biology

91. Which is the first step of taxonomy?a. Nomenclature b. Identificationc. Classification d. Hierarchical arrangement

92. Which is the most effective way to conserve the plant diversity of an area?a. By creating botanical gardenb. By developing seed bankc. By creating biosphere reserved. By tissue culture method

93. Who prepare red list for endangered species?a. Botanical survey of Indiab. Geologica survey of Indiac. Zoological survey of Indiad. All of the above

94. The zoological parks are working under supervision of_________a. CZA b. IABG c. ICBN d. ICZN

95. Who is ‘father of Taxonomy’ among the following:a. Aristole b. Maheswaric. Birbal sahani d. Linnaeus

96. The study of Algae is called ________a. Taxonomy b. Algologyc. Mycology d. Lichenology

97. Cell wall of fungus made up of ________a. Protein b. Carbohydratesc. Chitin d. Cellulose

98. Which animal is umbrella-shaped and free swiming ________a. Jelly-fish b. Aureliac. Hydra d. A & B

99. Ascaris is found in:a. Tissue b. Alimentary canalc. Body cavity d. Lymph nodes

100. Companion cells are found in:a. Phloem b. Endodermisc. Xylem d. Stomata

101. Radial vascular bundle are found in ______a. Flower b. Leaf c. Root d. Stem

102. Collenchyma shows deposition of ______a. Resin b. Ligininc. Pectin d. Suberin

103. Which tissue is always absent in root?a. Sclerenchyma b. Meristematicc. Collenchyma d. Parenchyma

104. Which cells regulate the function of sieve tube?a. Companion cells b. Guard cellsc. Balliform cells d. Passage cells

105. Give examples of elastic bond:a. Cartilage b. Tendonc. Ligament d. (b) and (c) both

106. What is phyllotaxy:a. Arrangement of leaves on stemb. Folding leaf in the budc. (a) & (b) Bothd. None of the above

107. In monocot male gametophyte is:a. Nucleus b. Microsporec. Tetral d. Megaspore

108. The eye of potato called as ______a. Axillary bud b. Accessory budc. Opuntia d. Aspargaus

109. Phyllode is present in:a. Euphorbia b. Australian acaciac. Opuntia d. Asparagus

110. What is the edible part in coconut?a. Endosperm b. Fruit wallc. Entire seed d. None of the above

111. Parallel venation is a charactgeristic of:a. Grasses b. Parasitic plantsc. Legames d. Xerophytic plants

112. Modified stem of _______ protect the plant from graxing animal:a. Aloe vera b. Gloriosa superbac. Datura festuosa d. Cariss a carandus

113. Which of these characters do not belong to compositae?a. Syngenesious stamensb. Ligulate ray flowersc. Basal ovulesd. Five lobed stigma

8 Practice Paper - 1

114. What is the name of second segment of walking leg of cockroach?a. Femur b. Coxac. Tarsus d. Trochanter

115. What is the smallest cell?a. Mycoplasm b. Yeastc. Bacteria d. Blue Green Algae

116. Who mention that the presence of a cell wall is an unique character of the plant cell?a. Virchow b. Schleidenc. Schwann d. Robert Hook

117. Which the following regarding to examples of keto sugar is not correctly?a. Fructose b. Ribulosec. Ribose sugar d. Dinydroxy acetose

118. Lipids are relatively not soluble in ______a. Ether b. Waterc. Benzene d. Chloroform

119. The structure of protein can be destroyed by which rays:a. Radio waves b. Ultra violet raysc. Infra red rays d. Micro waves

120. Find out the incorrect pair:a. Telophase - Chromatin is observedb. G1 phase - New DNA is synthesizedc. Prophase - Nuclear membrane disintegratesd. Zygote - synapsis

121. Which elements are readily mobilized in plants?a. S, N, Mo b. K, N, Moc. P, S, N d. S, N, B

122. Which element is necessary to stabilize ribosomes?a. Mn b. Ni c. Mo d. Mg

123. Calvin cycle represents one of the following phenomenon:a. Dark respirationb. Dark phosphorylationc. Oxidative carboxylationd. Reductive catboxylation

124. Hill reaction takes place:a. In the absence of CO2b. In the presence of carbon dioxidec. In the absence of a suitable electron acceptord. None of the above

125. Which is the product of aerobic respiration?a. Malic acid b. Ethyl alcoholc. Pyruvic acid d. Lactic acide

126. Which of the following is water stress hormone?a. Benxyl amino purineb. 2, 4 - dichlorophenoxy acetic acidc. Ethylened. Abscisic acid

127. What is 2 - 4 D?a. Weedicide b. Rodenticidec. Wormicide d. Insecticide

128. What is the dental formula of teeth (Adult):a. 2123/2123 b. 2103/2103c. 2003/2003 d. 2120/2120

129. Crown of teeth is made up of:a. Dentine b. Enamelc. Cement d. Aereolar

130. Sound production in human is controlled bya. Nares b. Lungsc. Larynx d. Pharynx

131. The metal ion present in haemoglobin is:a. Iron b. Magnesiumc. Copper d. Zinc

132. Blood is flowing in pulmonary vein is:a. Oxygenated b. Deoxygenatedc. Mixed d. None of the above

133. The wave representing of ventricles diastole isa. P b. Q c. R d. T

134. ADH is secreted by:a. Liver b. Neurohypophysisc. Kidney d. JG cells

135. What is the function of renin?a. Degradation of angiotensinogenb. Stimulation of corpus lutecimc. To reduce blood pressured. Vasodilation

136. Where do pollen grains germinate?a. Anther b. Stylec. Stigma d. Pollen tube

137. How many eggs contains embryo sac:a. 3 eggs b. 2 eggsc. 1 egg d. 4 eggs

9NEET Practice Set

138. Wind pollination requires that the pollen grains:a. Heavy and wet b. Heavy and non-stickyc. Light dry d. Heavy and sticky

139. What is scutellum:a. An endosperm b. A seed coatc. An embryo d. A cotyledon

140. Which hormone is released from testes?a. Testosterone b. Estrogenc. Progesterone d. Relaxin

141. What is length a vas deference? a. 45 inch b. 45 mmc. 45 cm d. 4.5 meter

142. What percentage of semen is produced by seminal vasicles?a. 50% b. 55% c. 60% d. 65%

143. When did ‘Induced abortion Act’ came into force by Government of India?a. 1st April 1971 b. 1st April 1972c. 1st April 1973 d. 1st April 1974

144. Give full from of ELISA?a. Enzyme linked Immuno Absorbant Assayb. Enzyme linked Immuno Assayc. Enzyme live Implantations Assayd. Enzyme live Immuno Absorbant

145. This ration 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 shows ________ cross:a. Monohybrid crossb. Dihybrid crossc. Back cross d. Dihybrid test cross

146. Crossing over during meiosis occurs between:a. Sister chromatidsb. Non sister chromatidsc. Centromeresd. Non-homologus chromosomes

147. Punnet square is used to know:a. Outcome of a crossb. Probable result of a crossc. Types of gametesd. Number of gametes

148. Which factor in nature causes discontinuous variation in a population?a. Recombination b. Shuffling of porental genec. Mutationd. Gene flow

149. Nucleus of a cell is the site of synthesis of:a. DNA b. m-RNA c. t-RNA d. All

150. Non-sense codon stakes part in:a. Formation of unspecified amino acidb. Terminating message of gene controlled

protein synthesisc. Releasing t-RNA from polynucleotide chain d. Conversion of sense DNA into non-sense

one151. Which one is a Ribozyme?

a. Melicase b. Pepticyl transferasec. Ribonuclease - P d. Both (b) & (c)

152. Scientific name of Human beings:a. Homo erectus b. Homo habilisc. Homo sapiens d. Hominidae

153. The first organism to be found on a bare rock is a can __________a. Moss b. Alagec. Lichen d. Fern

154. Who performed this famous experiment to prove origen of life?a. Oparin and Haldane b. Spallanzani and Pasteurc. Urey and Miller d. Fox and pasteur

155. Who is known as the Father of modern bee science:a. Fabian b. Kurainc. Whenson d. Huber

156. Callus is obtained during which time in tissue culture?a. 2 to 3 days b. 2 to 3 monthsc. 2 to 3 weeks d. 2 to 3 hours

157. What is the aim of embryo culture?a. Sub culturingb. Uses of 2, 4 - D and cytokininc. Protoplast isolationd. Growth of plant lets from dormant seeds

158. Through plant tissue culture growing the cell, tissue and organ in culture medium is called:a. Totipotency b. Stored foodc. Inter specific hybridizationd. Dormancy

159. Which one is odd?a. Cannabinoids b. Ganjac. Charas d. Smack

10 Practice Paper - 1

160. What is the full foem IARI:a. Indian Agriculture Research Instituteb. International Agrochemical Research Institutec. Indian Agrochemical Research Instituted. Indonesia Agronomy Research Institute

161. Which is used to prevent blood clotting in blood vessels?a. Steriods b. Cyclosporin-Ac. Streptokinase d. Statins

162. Ti plasmid naturally occurs in:a. Agrobacterium b. Corynebacteriumc. Staphylococcus d. Vibrio

163. The plasmid derived from E. coli is:a. pBR327 b. pBR322c. Both (a) and (b) d. None

164. What were the earlier sources of Insulin?a. Cattle and pig b. Camal and pigc. Cattle and dog d. Dog and Pig

165. Earlier which animals were used to test the safety of polio vaccine:a. Transgenic rat b. Transgenic pigsc. Transgenic mice d. Transgenic sheep

166. A plant formed by the combination of Algae and fungi is a pioneer of which type of succession:a. Xerosere b. Hydroserec. Mesosere d. None of these

167. Water holding capacity of land depends on?a. Soil compositionb. Grain sizec. Aggregation of graind. All of these

168. Food component of the grazing food chain:a. Decomposer b. Primary producerc. Photosynthetic organismd. Secondary consumers

169. Which of the following is placed in upper most (highest) level of ecological pyramids:a. Herbivoresb. Carnivoresc. Primary & secondary producersd. Primary & secondary consumer

170. In ecosystem the source of energy is:

a. ATP b. Sunc. The green plant d. Sugar

171. It helps in absorbtion of phosphorus?a. Leaves b. Mycorrhiza c. Root d. Stem

172. Ranthambore national park is situated in:a. Maharashtra b. Rajasthanc. Gujrat d. UP

173. Which animal has become extinct from Indiaa. Snow leopard b. Hippopotamusc. Wolf d. Cheetah

174. Petroleum is a:a. Synthetic product b. Renewable resourcec. Non-renewable resource d. Inconvenient resource

175. Which of the following is considered a hot-spot of biodiversity in India?a. Western ghats b. Indo-Gangetic plainc. Eastern ghats d. Aravalli hills

176. The nature of climax community ultimately depends on:a. Climateb. Bed rockc. Soil organismsd. Pool of available nutrients

177. Green - House effect refers to:a. Production of cerealsb. Cooling of earthc. Trapping UV raysd. Warming of Earth

178. Which of the following is pollution related disorder?a. Fluorosis b. Leprosyc. Pneumonicosis d. Silicosis

179. Montreal protocol which calls for appropriate action to protect the ozone layer from “Human activities” was passed in the year:a. 1986 b. 1987 c. 1988 d. 1985

180. Which one of the following is not a bioindicator of water pollution?a. Sludge worms b. Blood worms c. Stone filies d. Sewage fungus

NEETPractice

10 Fully Solved Model Papers

NEET-2016 Phase I-II included

3 Full length Model Papers

Outside NCERT Questions Covered

An Authentic Practise Book for NEET Exam

Set 15Based on NCERT

ALTIS VORTEX

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NEET 2017

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Aim4Aiims has taken a step forward for the aspirants and bringing an online test series for the aspirants to prepare for the medical entrance examination. Aim4Aiims will be conducting online tests on the pattern of NEET and AIIMS MBBS Entrance examination. Aim4Aiims will be providing more than 40 tests including chapter wise tests, mixed tests and major tests.

Features of Aim4Aiims Online Test Series:

Authentic previous years questions from AIIMS examQuestions made by excellent minds from AIIMS-New DelhiOnline assessment after the testQuestions on latest pattern, syllabus and Chapter wise weight ageAnalysis of questions attempted including time taken, response rate, solution and areas of improvementInteractive Dashboard gives students an actual competitive environment and makes them prepare for the target exam

It is very simple to talk and read about Time Management but is a very difficult job to follow. The time management plays an essential role to prepare for any entrance examination. Aim4Aiims Online Test Series will give an opportuni-ty to assess your preparation in time constraint manner. During exams often student find himself running out of time. Managing your time well is very important factor while appearing for exam. It will definitely make a difference to your results.

After taking test most of the students give feedback that paper was too good, they could have attempted it more but they ran short of time.Now students can learn to manage time with Aim4Aiims Online Test Series Platform. It will be coming up with a “Time Taken” filter which indicates the list of questions where extra time has been taken by students and allows them to bookmark the questions for further revision and practice.

Aim4Aiims Online Test Series will make you learn to distribute your valuable time wisely, review yourself, check the time devoted to each question while taking the test, analyse, practice and improve. Hence better time management and dreamed results.

ONLINE TEST SERIES

Fee Structure

Note : Test Series Date schedule and syllabus is matched with the ALLEN schedule Also one can give test any time after concern date

For registartion and Demo visit aim4aiims.in