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    IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

    1. Immediately fill the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen.

    Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

    2. The Test Booklet consists of90 questions.

    3. There are three parts in the question paper. The distribution of marks subjectwise in each part is as under for each correct

    response.

    PART A PHYSICS (120 marks)

    Question No. 1 to 30 consist ofFour (4) marks for each correct response.

    PART B MATHEMATICS (120 marks)

    Question No. 31 to 60 consist ofFour (4) marks for each correct response.

    PART C CHEMISTRY (120 marks)

    Question No. 61 to 90 consist ofFour (4) marks for each correct response.

    4. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in Instructions No. 3 for correct response of each question.

    1 (minus one) marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score

    will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the Answer sheet.

    5. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, paper, mobile phone, any electronic

    device, etc., except the Admit Card inside the examination hall/room.

    6. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. This space is given at the bottom

    of each page.

    7. On completion of the test, the candiate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall. However,

    the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.

    8. Make sure that the CODE printed of the Answer Sheet is the same c as that on this booklet. In case of discrepancy, the

    condidate should immediately report the matter to the Invigilator fo replacement of both the Test Booklet and the Answer Sheet.

    9. Do not fold or make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

    10. Fill the test cities code in ORS Sheet and for details of cities code see last page this test paper booklet.

    Date : 01-04-2012 Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 360

    ALL INDIA OPEN TEST-2 (AIOT-2)

    TARGET : AIEEE 2012 0

    CODE

    Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

    DONOTBREAKTHESEA

    LSWITHOUTBEING

    INSTRUCTEDTODOSOB

    YTHEINVIGILATOR

    CLASS-XII / XIII COURSE : ALL INDIA TEST SERIES (VIKALP)

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    ERMT3010412C0-1

    PARTA

    SECTION - I

    Straight Objective Type

    This section contains 27 multiple choice

    questions. Each question has 4 choices (1),(2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which

    ONLY ONE is correct.

    1. During ground to ground projectile motion if

    height(h) attained by a particle from ground

    level is given by equation h = (20t 5t2)m. Then

    maximum height attained by particle will be :

    (1) 10 m

    (2) 20 m

    (3) 30 m

    (4) 40 m

    2. Two blocks A and B of masses 4 kg and 8 kg

    respectively are placed on a smooth plane

    surface. A force F of 12 N is applied on A as

    shown. Then the force of contact (in N)

    between A and B is :

    (1) 2 (2) 4

    (3) 8 (4) 12

    3. A cubical block of wood of side length 20 cm,

    floats in oil and water as shown in figure. The

    density of oil is 0.8 g cm3 and density of water

    is 1 g cm3. The mass of the block is :

    (1) 2.08 kg

    (2) 7.04 kg

    (3) 8 kg

    (4) 9.06 kg

    4. An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic process abcda

    which is shown by pressure- density curve.

    P

    d

    a

    b

    c

    1

    (1) Work done by the gas in the process 'bc'

    is positive

    (2) Work done by the gas in the process 'cd'

    is negative

    (3) Internal energy of the gas at state 'a' is

    greater than at state 'c'

    (4) Net work done by the gas in the cycle is

    positive.

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    ERMT3010412C0-2

    5. A rod of length 1m is sliding in a corner as

    shown. At an instant when the rod makes an

    angle of 60 with the horizontal plane, the

    velocity of point A on the rod is 1m/s. The

    angular velocity of the rod at this instant is :

    (1) 2 rad/s

    (2) 1.5 rad/s

    (3) 0.5 rad/s

    (4) 0.75 rad/s

    6. A solid sphere is in pure rolling motion on an

    inclined surface having inclination . Then :

    //////////////////////

    (1) frictional force is acting on sphere down

    the inclined plane

    (2) If increases, friction will decrease .

    (3) Friction will decrease its angular velocity.

    (4) Friction will decrease its linear velocity.

    7. A pendulum consists of a wooden bob of mass

    m and length . A bullet of mass m1 is fired

    towards the pendulum with a speed v1 and it

    emerges from the bob with speed3

    v1. The bob

    just completes motion along a vertical circle.

    Then v1 is :

    (1) g5m

    m

    1

    (2) g5m2

    m3

    1

    (3) g5m

    m

    3

    2

    1

    (4) g5m

    m1

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    ERMT3010412C0-3

    8. A block of unknown mass is at rest on a fixed

    rough, horizontal surface. A horizontal force F

    is applied to the block. The graph in the figure

    shows the acceleration of the block with

    respect to the applied force. The mass of the

    block is

    (1) 0.1 kg

    (2) 0.5 kg

    (3) 2.0 kg

    (4) 0.2 kg

    9. A block weighing 40 N travels down a smooth

    fixed curved track AB joined to a rough

    horizontal surface (figure). The rough surface

    has a friction coefficient of 0.10 with the block.

    If the block starts slipping on the track from a

    point 2.0 m above the horizontal surface, the

    distance it will move on the rough surface is :

    (1) 40 m (2) 20 m

    (3) 15 m (4) 10 m

    10. A positive point charge +Q is fixed in space. A

    negative point charge q of mass m revolves

    around fixed charge in elliptical orbit. The fixed

    charge +Q is at one focus of the ellipse. The

    only force acting on negative charge is the

    electrostatic force due to positive charge. Then

    which of the following statement is true.

    (1) Linear momentum of negative point charge

    is conserved.

    (2) Angular momentum of negative point charge

    about fixed positive charge is not conserved.

    (3) Angular momentum of negative point charge

    about fixed positive charge is conserved.

    (4) Angular velocity of the charge q is

    conserved about +Q charge.

    11. The acceleration of a certain simple harmonic

    oscillator is given by

    a = (35.28 m/s2) cos 4.2t

    The amplitude of the simple harmonic motion

    is

    (1) 2.0 m (2) 8.4 m

    (3) 16.8 m (4) 17.64 m

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    ERMT3010412C0-4

    12. Four cubes of ice at 10C each one gm is

    taken out from the refrigerator and are put in

    150 gm of water at 20C. The temperature of

    water when thermal equilibrium is attained.

    Assume that no heat is lost to the outside and

    water equivalent of container is 46 gm.

    (Specific heat capacity of water =1 cal/gm-C,

    Specific heat capacity of ice = 0.5 cal/gm-C,Latent heat of fusion of ice = 80 cal/gm)

    (1) 0C

    (2) 10C

    (3) 17.9C

    (4) None of these

    13. Uniformly charged infinite wire and uniformly

    charged wire AB lies in a plane. Find the

    force on infinite wire, due to wire AB.

    (1) k12 n 916

    (2) k12 n 925

    (3)9

    25k12

    (4)9

    16k12

    14. An open organ pipe is in resonance in its 2nd

    harmonic with a tuning fork of frequency f1. Now

    it is closed at one end. If the frequency of the

    tuning fork is increased slowly from f1

    then

    again a resonance is obtained when the

    frequency is f2. If in this case the pipe vibrates

    in nth harmonic then

    (1) n = 3, f2

    =4

    3f1

    (2) n = 3, f2

    =4

    5f1

    (3) n = 5, f2

    =4

    5f1

    (4) n = 5, f2

    =4

    3f1

    15. A chord attached about an end to a vibrating

    fork divides it into 6 loops, when its tension is

    36 N. The tension at which it will vibrate in

    4 loops is:

    (1) 24 N

    (2) 36 N

    (3) 64 N

    (4) 81 N

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    ERMT3010412C0-5

    16. If radius of a resistor is decreased by 0.5% by

    stretching then percentage change in

    resistance :

    (1) 0.5 %

    (2) 1%

    (3) 1.5%

    (4) 2%

    17. The temperature of an spherical isolated black

    body falls from T1to T

    2in time 't'. Then time t is

    (1)

    12 T

    1

    T

    1t

    (2)

    21

    22 T

    1

    T

    1t

    (3)

    31

    32 T

    1

    T

    1t

    (4)

    41

    42 T

    1

    T

    1t

    18. The charge on capacitor in two different RC

    circuits 1 and 2 are plotted as shown in figure.

    Choose the correct statement(s) related to the

    two circuits.

    (1) Both the capacitors are charged to the

    same magnitude of charge

    (2) The emf's of cells in both the circuits are

    equal.

    (3) The emf's of the cells must be different

    (4) The emf E1 is equal to E2

    19. An infinitely long current carrying wire is placed

    along x-axis such that it lies between x = 0 to

    x = + (infinity). The current is in direction of

    positive x-axis. Let B1, B

    2and B

    3be the

    magnitude of magnetic field at points A(a, a),

    B(0, a) and C(a, a) respectively. Then pick

    the incorrect option.

    (1) B1

    > B2

    > B3

    (2) B2

    =2

    BB 31

    (3) B1

    : B2

    : B3

    = 12 : 1 : 12

    (4) 21

    B

    BB22

    31

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    ERMT3010412C0-6

    20. A non conducting ring of radius R and mass

    m having charge q uniformly distributed over

    its circumference is placed on a rough

    horizontal surface. A vertical time varying

    uniform magnetic field B = 4t2 is switched

    on at time t=0. The coefficient of friction

    between the ring and the table, if the ring

    starts rotating at t =1 sec, is :

    (1) g

    qmR4(2) mg

    qR4

    (3) mgqR8

    (4) mg2

    qR

    21. A spherical liquid drop of radius R is divided

    into eight equal droplets. If surface tension is

    T, then work done in the process will be

    (assume isothermal condition) :

    (1) 2R2 T

    (2) 3R2 T

    (3) 4R2

    T(4) 2RT2

    22. The following truth table corresponds to the

    logic gate

    A 0 0 1 1

    B 0 1 0 1

    X 0 1 1 1

    (1) NAND (2) OR

    (3) AND (4) XOR

    23. In the following circuit readings in ammeters

    A1 and A2 will be-

    10

    10

    A1

    A2

    2V

    (1) 0.2 A, zero

    (2) Zero, 0.2 A

    (3) 0.2 A, 0.2 A

    (4) 0.2 A, 0.4 A

    24. The value of current in two series LCR circuits

    at resonance is same when connected across

    a sinusoidal voltage source. Then:

    (1) both circuits must be having same value

    of capacitance and inductor

    (2) in both circuits ratio of L and C will be

    same

    (3) for both the circuits XL/XC must be same

    at that frequency

    (4) both circuits must have same impedance

    at all frequencies.

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    ERMT3010412C0-7

    SECTION - II

    Reasoning Type

    This section contains 3 reasoning type

    questions. Each question has 4 choices (1),

    (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is

    correct.

    25. STATEMENT1: In the photo electric effect

    experiment, saturation is achieved and cross

    section area of electrons beam is also uniform.

    Electrons density at section (1) and section (2)

    will be same.

    STATEMENT2: At saturation, current

    through each section will be same.

    (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

    Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

    Statement-1.

    (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

    Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

    Statement-1

    (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

    (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

    26. STATEMENT-1 : In alpha decay of different

    radioactive nuclides, energies of alpha particles

    has been compared. It is found that as energy

    of alpha particle increases the half life of the

    decay decreases.

    STATEMENT-2 : More is the energy in any

    decay process, more is the probability ofdecaying the nuclide which leads to faster rate

    of decay.

    (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

    Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

    Statement-1.

    (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

    Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

    Statement-1

    (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

    (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

    27. STATEMENT-1 : Two coherent point sources

    of light having nonzero phase difference are

    seperated by small distance. Then on the

    perpendicular bisector of line segment

    joining both the point sources, constructive

    interference cannot be obtained.

    STATEMENT-2 : For two waves from

    coherent point sources to interfere

    constructively at a point, the magnitude of

    their phase difference at that point must be

    2m where m is a nonnegative integer) .

    (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

    Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

    Statement-1

    (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

    Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

    Statement-1

    (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

    (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is

    True.

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    ERMT3010412C0-8

    SECTION - III

    Comprehension Type

    This section contains 1 paragraph. Based upon each paragraph, 2 multiple choice questions

    have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY

    ONE is correct.

    Paragraph for Question Nos. 28 to 30

    Consider a transparent homogenous hemisphere of refractive index n = 2 in front of which a

    small object is placed in air as shown in figure.

    28. Calculate value of x so that the final image of the small object OA will be virtual :

    (1) 2 R (2) 3 R (3)2

    R(4) 1.5 R

    29. The position of image from P after refraction from curved surface (For x = 2R)

    (1) R (2) 2 R (3) 4 R (4) 1.5 R

    30. The nature of final image of the object OA when x = 2 R :

    (1) Erect and magnified (2) Inverted and magnified

    (3) Erect and same size (4) Inverted and same size

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    ERMT3010412C0-1

    PARTA

    SECTION - I

    Straight Objective Type

    This section contains 27 multiple choice

    questions. Each question has 4 choices (1),(2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which

    ONLY ONE is correct.

    1. During ground to ground projectile motion if

    height(h) attained by a particle from ground

    level is given by equation h = (20t 5t2)m. Then

    maximum height attained by particle will be :

    (1) 10 m

    (2) 20 m

    (3) 30 m

    (4) 40 m

    2. Two blocks A and B of masses 4 kg and 8 kg

    respectively are placed on a smooth plane

    surface. A force F of 12 N is applied on A as

    shown. Then the force of contact (in N)

    between A and B is :

    (1) 2 (2) 4

    (3) 8 (4) 12

    3. A cubical block of wood of side length 20 cm,

    floats in oil and water as shown in figure. The

    density of oil is 0.8 g cm3 and density of water

    is 1 g cm3. The mass of the block is :

    (1) 2.08 kg

    (2) 7.04 kg

    (3) 8 kg

    (4) 9.06 kg

    4. An ideal gas undergoes a cyclic process abcda

    which is shown by pressure- density curve.

    P

    d

    a

    b

    c

    1

    (1) Work done by the gas in the process 'bc'

    is positive

    (2) Work done by the gas in the process 'cd'

    is negative

    (3) Internal energy of the gas at state 'a' is

    greater than at state 'c'

    (4) Net work done by the gas in the cycle is

    positive.

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    ERMT3010412C0-2

    5. A rod of length 1m is sliding in a corner as

    shown. At an instant when the rod makes an

    angle of 60 with the horizontal plane, the

    velocity of point A on the rod is 1m/s. The

    angular velocity of the rod at this instant is :

    (1) 2 rad/s

    (2) 1.5 rad/s

    (3) 0.5 rad/s

    (4) 0.75 rad/s

    6. A solid sphere is in pure rolling motion on an

    inclined surface having inclination . Then :

    //////////////////////

    (1) frictional force is acting on sphere down

    the inclined plane

    (2) If increases, friction will decrease .

    (3) Friction will decrease its angular velocity.

    (4) Friction will decrease its linear velocity.

    7. A pendulum consists of a wooden bob of mass

    m and length . A bullet of mass m1 is fired

    towards the pendulum with a speed v1 and it

    emerges from the bob with speed3

    v1. The bob

    just completes motion along a vertical circle.

    Then v1 is :

    (1) g5m

    m

    1

    (2) g5m2

    m3

    1

    (3) g5m

    m

    3

    2

    1

    (4) g5m

    m1

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    ERMT3010412C0-3

    8. A block of unknown mass is at rest on a fixed

    rough, horizontal surface. A horizontal force F

    is applied to the block. The graph in the figure

    shows the acceleration of the block with

    respect to the applied force. The mass of the

    block is

    (1) 0.1 kg

    (2) 0.5 kg

    (3) 2.0 kg

    (4) 0.2 kg

    9. A block weighing 40 N travels down a smooth

    fixed curved track AB joined to a rough

    horizontal surface (figure). The rough surface

    has a friction coefficient of 0.10 with the block.

    If the block starts slipping on the track from a

    point 2.0 m above the horizontal surface, the

    distance it will move on the rough surface is :

    (1) 40 m (2) 20 m

    (3) 15 m (4) 10 m

    10. A positive point charge +Q is fixed in space. A

    negative point charge q of mass m revolves

    around fixed charge in elliptical orbit. The fixed

    charge +Q is at one focus of the ellipse. The

    only force acting on negative charge is the

    electrostatic force due to positive charge. Then

    which of the following statement is true.

    (1) Linear momentum of negative point charge

    is conserved.

    (2) Angular momentum of negative point charge

    about fixed positive charge is not conserved.

    (3) Angular momentum of negative point charge

    about fixed positive charge is conserved.

    (4) Angular velocity of the charge q is

    conserved about +Q charge.

    11. The acceleration of a certain simple harmonic

    oscillator is given by

    a = (35.28 m/s2) cos 4.2t

    The amplitude of the simple harmonic motion

    is

    (1) 2.0 m (2) 8.4 m

    (3) 16.8 m (4) 17.64 m

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    ERMT3010412C0-4

    12. Four cubes of ice at 10C each one gm is

    taken out from the refrigerator and are put in

    150 gm of water at 20C. The temperature of

    water when thermal equilibrium is attained.

    Assume that no heat is lost to the outside and

    water equivalent of container is 46 gm.

    (Specific heat capacity of water =1 cal/gm-C,

    Specific heat capacity of ice = 0.5 cal/gm-C,Latent heat of fusion of ice = 80 cal/gm)

    (1) 0C

    (2) 10C

    (3) 17.9C

    (4) None of these

    13. Uniformly charged infinite wire and uniformly

    charged wire AB lies in a plane. Find the

    force on infinite wire, due to wire AB.

    (1) k12 n 916

    (2) k12 n 925

    (3)9

    25k12

    (4)9

    16k12

    14. An open organ pipe is in resonance in its 2nd

    harmonic with a tuning fork of frequency f1. Now

    it is closed at one end. If the frequency of the

    tuning fork is increased slowly from f1

    then

    again a resonance is obtained when the

    frequency is f2. If in this case the pipe vibrates

    in nth harmonic then

    (1) n = 3, f2

    =4

    3f1

    (2) n = 3, f2

    =4

    5f1

    (3) n = 5, f2

    =4

    5f1

    (4) n = 5, f2

    =4

    3f1

    15. A chord attached about an end to a vibrating

    fork divides it into 6 loops, when its tension is

    36 N. The tension at which it will vibrate in

    4 loops is:

    (1) 24 N

    (2) 36 N

    (3) 64 N

    (4) 81 N

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    ERMT3010412C0-5

    16. If radius of a resistor is decreased by 0.5% by

    stretching then percentage change in

    resistance :

    (1) 0.5 %

    (2) 1%

    (3) 1.5%

    (4) 2%

    17. The temperature of an spherical isolated black

    body falls from T1to T

    2in time 't'. Then time t is

    (1)

    12 T

    1

    T

    1t

    (2)

    21

    22 T

    1

    T

    1t

    (3)

    31

    32 T

    1

    T

    1t

    (4)

    41

    42 T

    1

    T

    1t

    18. The charge on capacitor in two different RC

    circuits 1 and 2 are plotted as shown in figure.

    Choose the correct statement(s) related to the

    two circuits.

    (1) Both the capacitors are charged to the

    same magnitude of charge

    (2) The emf's of cells in both the circuits are

    equal.

    (3) The emf's of the cells must be different

    (4) The emf E1 is equal to E2

    19. An infinitely long current carrying wire is placed

    along x-axis such that it lies between x = 0 to

    x = + (infinity). The current is in direction of

    positive x-axis. Let B1, B

    2and B

    3be the

    magnitude of magnetic field at points A(a, a),

    B(0, a) and C(a, a) respectively. Then pick

    the incorrect option.

    (1) B1

    > B2

    > B3

    (2) B2

    =2

    BB 31

    (3) B1

    : B2

    : B3

    = 12 : 1 : 12

    (4) 21

    B

    BB22

    31

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    ERMT3010412C0-6

    20. A non conducting ring of radius R and mass

    m having charge q uniformly distributed over

    its circumference is placed on a rough

    horizontal surface. A vertical time varying

    uniform magnetic field B = 4t2 is switched

    on at time t=0. The coefficient of friction

    between the ring and the table, if the ring

    starts rotating at t =1 sec, is :

    (1) g

    qmR4(2) mg

    qR4

    (3) mgqR8

    (4) mg2

    qR

    21. A spherical liquid drop of radius R is divided

    into eight equal droplets. If surface tension is

    T, then work done in the process will be

    (assume isothermal condition) :

    (1) 2R2 T

    (2) 3R2 T

    (3) 4R2

    T(4) 2RT2

    22. The following truth table corresponds to the

    logic gate

    A 0 0 1 1

    B 0 1 0 1

    X 0 1 1 1

    (1) NAND (2) OR

    (3) AND (4) XOR

    23. In the following circuit readings in ammeters

    A1 and A2 will be-

    10

    10

    A1

    A2

    2V

    (1) 0.2 A, zero

    (2) Zero, 0.2 A

    (3) 0.2 A, 0.2 A

    (4) 0.2 A, 0.4 A

    24. The value of current in two series LCR circuits

    at resonance is same when connected across

    a sinusoidal voltage source. Then:

    (1) both circuits must be having same value

    of capacitance and inductor

    (2) in both circuits ratio of L and C will be

    same

    (3) for both the circuits XL/XC must be same

    at that frequency

    (4) both circuits must have same impedance

    at all frequencies.

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    ERMT3010412C0-7

    SECTION - II

    Reasoning Type

    This section contains 3 reasoning type

    questions. Each question has 4 choices (1),

    (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is

    correct.

    25. STATEMENT1: In the photo electric effect

    experiment, saturation is achieved and cross

    section area of electrons beam is also uniform.

    Electrons density at section (1) and section (2)

    will be same.

    STATEMENT2: At saturation, current

    through each section will be same.

    (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

    Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

    Statement-1.

    (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

    Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

    Statement-1

    (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

    (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

    26. STATEMENT-1 : In alpha decay of different

    radioactive nuclides, energies of alpha particles

    has been compared. It is found that as energy

    of alpha particle increases the half life of the

    decay decreases.

    STATEMENT-2 : More is the energy in any

    decay process, more is the probability ofdecaying the nuclide which leads to faster rate

    of decay.

    (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

    Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

    Statement-1.

    (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

    Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

    Statement-1

    (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

    (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True

    27. STATEMENT-1 : Two coherent point sources

    of light having nonzero phase difference are

    seperated by small distance. Then on the

    perpendicular bisector of line segment

    joining both the point sources, constructive

    interference cannot be obtained.

    STATEMENT-2 : For two waves from

    coherent point sources to interfere

    constructively at a point, the magnitude of

    their phase difference at that point must be

    2m where m is a nonnegative integer) .

    (1) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

    Statement-2 is a correct explanation for

    Statement-1

    (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True;

    Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for

    Statement-1

    (3) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False

    (4) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is

    True.

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    ERMT3010412C0-8

    SECTION - III

    Comprehension Type

    This section contains 1 paragraph. Based upon each paragraph, 2 multiple choice questions

    have to be answered. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY

    ONE is correct.

    Paragraph for Question Nos. 28 to 30

    Consider a transparent homogenous hemisphere of refractive index n = 2 in front of which a

    small object is placed in air as shown in figure.

    28. Calculate value of x so that the final image of the small object OA will be virtual :

    (1) 2 R (2) 3 R (3)2

    R(4) 1.5 R

    29. The position of image from P after refraction from curved surface (For x = 2R)

    (1) R (2) 2 R (3) 4 R (4) 1.5 R

    30. The nature of final image of the object OA when x = 2 R :

    (1) Erect and magnified (2) Inverted and magnified

    (3) Erect and same size (4) Inverted and same size

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    ERMT3010412C0-9

    (SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

    PART- B

    SECTION - I

    Straight Objective Type

    This section contains 25 questions. Each

    question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for

    its answer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

    31. Consider the function f(x) = x2 + bx + c where

    D = b2 4c > 0. If b = 0, c < 0 then number of

    points of non differentiability of |f(|x|)| are

    (1) 1

    (2) 2

    (3) 3

    (4) 4

    32. )x!n(sinlim

    40

    n

    , n N and x is a rational

    number.

    (1) 0

    (2) 1

    (3) 1/2

    (4) does not exist

    33. If f(x) = 5x2

    ax

    3

    x 23 has negative point of

    minima then

    (1) a < 1

    (2) a > 2

    (3) a < 2

    (4) a > 2

    34. dxxsecxsinx3

    is equal to

    (1)2

    1[sec2x tanx] + c

    (2)2

    1[xsec2x tanx] + c

    (3)2

    1[xsec2x + tanx] + c

    (4) 2

    1

    [sec2x + tanx] + c

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    ERMT3010412C0-10

    (SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

    35. If i = 1 then the value of

    100

    0n

    !n)i( is

    (1) 2i + 94

    (2) 2i + 95

    (3) 96 + 2i

    (4) 98 + 2i

    36. A person always prefer to drink ' juice' and

    milk shake in his breakfast. In how many ways

    he can drink them if there are 4 types of juice,

    3 types of milk shake, two types of tea and

    two types of coffee.

    (1) 1681

    (2) 1680

    (3) 1682

    (4) 1684

    37. If A is 5 5 skew symmetric matrix then its

    trace is equal to

    (1) 5

    (2) 5

    (3) |A|5

    (4) 1

    38. The probability that a leap year will have 53

    Monday or 53 Tuesday is

    (1)7

    1

    (2)7

    2

    (3)7

    3

    (4)7

    4

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    ERMT3010412C0-11

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    39. If the product of n positive number is nn, then

    their sum is

    (1) a positive integer

    (2) divisible by n

    (3) equal to n +n

    1

    (4) never less than n2.

    40. The locus of the centres of the circle

    x2 + y2 2ax 2by + 2 = 0, where a and b are

    parameters, if the tangents from the origin to

    each of the circles are orthogonal.

    (1) straight line

    (2) parabola

    (3) ellipse

    (4) circle

    41. If | ba

    | < | ba

    |, then the angle between

    a

    and b

    lies in the interval

    (1)

    2,

    2

    (2) (0, )

    (3)

    ,2

    (4)

    2

    3,

    2

    42. If the normals at points P(t1) and Q(t

    2) on the

    parabola y2 = 4ax intersect at R on the curve

    then

    (1) t1= t

    2

    (2) t1

    t2

    = 4

    (3) t1

    t2

    = 2

    (4) t1t2

    = 1

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    ERMT3010412C0-12

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    43. The orthocentre of the triangle having sides

    x y + 1 = 0, x + y + 3 = 0 and 2x + 5y 2 = 0

    is

    (1) (2, 1)

    (2) (2,1)

    (3) (2, 1)

    (4) (2,1)

    44. The latusrectum of the ellipse

    x2 tan2 + y2 sec2 = 1 is2

    1then

    20 is equal to

    (1)

    3

    (2)4

    (3)12

    5

    (4)8

    45. If sin + cos = a, then sin3 + cos3 =

    (1) )a3(2

    a 2

    (2) )3

    a(2

    a 2

    (3) )3a(2

    a 2

    (4) )2a(a 2

    46. Which of the following equation is linear ?

    (1) xlogx

    y

    dx

    dy

    (2) 0x4

    dx

    dyy 22

    (3) (2x2 + y3)

    dx

    dy= 3y

    (4) none of these

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    ERMT3010412C0-13

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    47. If sin1

    4tan sin1

    y

    3

    6

    = 0 and x2 = y

    then x is equal to

    (1) 2

    (2) 4

    (3) 2

    (4) 3

    48. If A and B are two events such that

    0 < P(A) < 1 and 0 < P(B) < 1 and

    P(A B) + P(A) P(B) = P(A) + P(B). Then

    (1) A and B are dependent events.

    (2) A and B are independent events.

    (3) A B is a disjoint set.

    (4) none of these

    49. The product of r consecutive integers is

    divisible by

    (1) r4

    (2)

    1r

    1k

    2k

    (3) r !

    (4) none of these

    50. If the fourth term (which is independent of x )

    in the expansion of

    n

    x

    1ax

    is

    2

    5, then

    (1) a =3

    1, n = 6

    (2) a =3

    1, n = 5

    (3) a = 2, n = 3

    (4) a =21 , n = 6

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    ERMT3010412C0-14

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    51. The domain of definition of the function

    f(x) =

    4

    xx5log

    2

    10 is

    (1) (1, 4)

    (2) (0, 5)

    (3) [1, 4]

    (4) (0, 5]

    52. The false statement in the following is

    (1) p (~p) is a contradiction

    (2) (p q) (q p) is a contradiction

    (3) ~ (~p) p is a tautology

    (4) p (~p) is tautology

    53. Let I be the set of all non-zero integers and a

    relation R is defined as (x, y) R xy = yx

    for x, y I {0}, then relation R is

    (1) reflexive but not symmetric

    (2) symmetric but not reflexive

    (3) reflexive and symmetric both

    (4) equivalence relation

    54. For the curve yn = an1x, if the subnormal at

    any point is a constant then n =

    (1) 1

    (2) 2

    (3) 1

    (4) 2

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    ERMT3010412C0-15

    (SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

    55. If f(x) =

    x4

    3,x

    9

    2sin3

    4

    3x0,1

    , then

    (1) f(x) is continuous at x = 0

    (2) f(x) is continuous at x =

    (3) f(x) is continuous at x =4

    3

    (4) f(x) is discontinuous at x =4

    3

    SECTION - II

    Reasoning Type

    This section contains 5 reasoning typequestions. Each question has 4 choices (1),

    (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is

    correct.

    56. STATEMENT- 1 : ii is an imaginary number.

    STATEMENT- 2 : i = 1 is an imaginary

    number

    (1) Statement -1 is True, Statement -2 is True; Statement -2 is a correct explanation for

    Statement -1

    (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True ;

    Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation

    for Statement-1

    (3) Statement -1 is True, Statement -2 is False

    (4) Statement -1 is False, Statement -2 is True

    57. If z1 z

    2and |z

    1+ z

    2| =

    21 z

    1

    z

    1 then

    STATEMENT- 1 : z1z

    2is unimodular.

    STATEMENT- 2 : z1

    and z2

    both are

    unimodular.

    (1) Statement -1 is True, Statement -2 is True

    ; Statement -2 is a correct explanation for

    Statement -1

    (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True ;

    Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation

    for Statement-1

    (3) Statement -1 is True, Statement -2 is False

    (4) Statement -1 is False, Statement -2 is

    True

    58. STATEMENT- 1 : The function f(x) = esinx,

    x

    2

    3,

    2is decreasing function.

    STATEMENT- 2 : Composition of two

    decreasing function is an increasing function.

    (1) Statement -1 is True, Statement -2 is True

    ; Statement -2 is a correct explanation for

    Statement -1

    (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True ;

    Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation

    for Statement-1

    (3) Statement -1 is True, Statement -2 is False

    (4) Statement -1 is False, Statement -2 is

    True

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    59. STATEMENT- 1 : Angle between the tangents

    drawn from any point on the directrix to

    parabola y2 = 4ax is 90.

    STATEMENT- 2 : Directrix is the director

    circle of parabola.

    (1) Statement -1 is True, Statement -2 is True

    ; Statement -2 is a correct explanation for

    Statement -1

    (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True ;

    Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation

    for Statement-1

    (3) Statement -1 is True, Statement -2 is False

    (4) Statement -1 is False, Statement -2 is

    True

    60. STATEMENT- 1 :

    2/

    02 4)x(tan1

    dx.

    STATEMENT - 2 :

    a

    0

    dx)x(f =2

    1

    a

    0

    dx)]xa(f)x(f[ is valid for

    2/

    0

    n xtan1

    dxif and only if n is rational.

    (1) Statement -1 is True, Statement -2 is True

    ; Statement -2 is a correct explanation for

    Statement -1

    (2) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True ;

    Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation

    for Statement-1

    (3) Statement -1 is True, Statement -2 is False

    (4) Statement -1 is False, Statement -2 is

    True

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    Name of the Candidate Roll Number

    I have read all the instructions and

    shall abide by them.

    --------------------------------Signature of the Invigilator

    I have verified all the information

    filled in by the Candidate.

    --------------------------------Signature of the Candidate

    (Space for rough work)

    Example for Filling Test Cities Code in ORS :

    If your Test centre is BHAGALPUR and test code is 06 then fill in ORS :

    (a)

    (b)

    TEST CODE TEST CENTRE TEST CODE TEST CENTRE TEST CODE TEST CENTRE

    01 AGARTALA 02 AGRA 03 AHMEDABAD

    04 AJMER 05 BENGALURU 06 BHAGALPUR

    07 BHAGALPUR 08 BHATINDA 09 BHILAI

    10 BHOPAL 11 BHUBNESHWAR 12 BIKANER

    13 BOKARO 14 CHANDIGARH 15 DEHRADUN

    16 DEOGARH (RANCHI IC) 17 DHANBAD 18 GANGAPUR CITY

    19 GUWAHATI 20 GWALIOR 21 HARIDWAR

    22 INDORE 23 JAMMU & KASHMIR (J&K) 24 JAIPUR

    25 JAMSHEDPUR 26 JODHPUR 27 KANPUR

    28 KOLHAPUR 29 KOLKATA 30 KOTA

    31 LUCKNOW 32 MATHURA 33 MENGALURU

    34 MUMBAI 35 MUZAFFARPUR 36 NAGPUR

    37 NEW DELHI 38 PATNA 39 RAIPUR

    40 RANCHI 41 SAKTI NAGAR (NTPC) 42 SRI GANGANAGAR

    43 UDAIPUR 44 VARANASI 45 SAMASTIPUR