aipmt paper 2

Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014

Path to Success

CAREER INSTITUTEKOTA (RAJASTHAN)

T M

FORM NUMBER

CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME(ACADEMIC SESSION 2013-2014)

PAPER CODE

Hindi

AIPMT (11TH Syllabus)

0 1 C M 2 1 3 0 7 7

Corporate Office

CAREER INSTITUTE

“SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005Trin : +91 - 744 - 2436001 Fax : +91-744-2435003

E-Mail: [email protected] Website: www.allen.ac.in

Kota | Chandigarh | Ahmedabad

DATE : 19 - 01 - 2014

MAJOR TEST # 02

ENTHUSIAST COURSETARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014

INSTRUCTIONS ()

1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only.If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination andshall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.

2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.

31807203. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.

4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.

5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.

6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.

17. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball

Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.

OMR

8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.

Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so /

Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Your FormNo. & Complete Test Details.

Correction Form No. Test Details [email protected] mail

19–01–2014PRE-MEDICAL : ENTHUSIAST COURSE

H - 1/32Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 201401CM213077

MAJOR TEST

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING

HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

1. ˆ ˆ ˆA 3i 2 j k

. If A B

is a unit vector along

X-axis, then B

is :-

(1) i (2) ˆ ˆ ˆ2i 2 j k

(3) ˆ ˆ ˆ2i 2 j k (4) ˆ ˆ ˆ3i j k

2. A cup of tea cools from 80°C to 60°C in 40 sec.

The ambient temperature is 30°C. In cooling from

60°C to 50°C. It will takes :-

(Use Newton's law of cooling)

(1) 35 sec (2) 30 sec

(3) 32 sec (4) 48 sec

3. A golf ball of mass 0.05 kg placed on a tee, is struck

by a golf stick. The speed of the golf ball as it leaves

the tee is 100 m/s, the time of contact between them

is 0.02 s. If the force decreases to zero linearly with

time, then the force at the beginning of the contact

is :-

(1) 500 N (2) 250 N

(3) 200 N (4) 100 N

4. A metal ball falls from a height of 32 m on a steel

plate. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.5, to what

height will the ball rise after second bounce ?

(1) 2m (2) 4m

(3) 8m (4) 16m

5. A solid sphere falls with a terminal velocity of

20 m/s in air. If it is allowed to fall in vacuum :-

(1) terminal velocity will be 20 m/s

(2) terminal velocity will be less than 20 m/s

(3) terminal velocity will be greater than 20 m/s

(4) no terminal velocity will be attained

6. Which of the following have same dimensions :-

(i) Work (ii) Energy

(iii) Power (iv) Torque

(1) Only (i) and (ii)

(2) (i), (ii) & (iii)

(3) (i), (ii) & (iv)

(4) (ii), (iii) & (iv)

1. ˆ ˆ ˆA 3i 2 j k

. A B

, X-

B

(1) i (2) ˆ ˆ ˆ2i 2 j k

(3) ˆ ˆ ˆ2i 2 j k (4) ˆ ˆ ˆ3i j k

2. 80°C 60°C 40 sec 30°C 60°C 50°C (1) 35 sec (2) 30 sec

(3) 32 sec (4) 48 sec

3. 0.05 kg 100 m/s 0.02 (1) 500 N (2) 250 N

(3) 200 N (4) 100 N

4. 32 m 0.5 ?(1) 2m (2) 4m

(3) 8m (4) 16m

5. (terminal

velocity) 20 m/s :-(1) 20 m/s (2) 20 m/s (3) 20 m/s (4)

6. (i) (ii)

(iii) (iv)

(1) (i) (ii)(2) (i), (ii) (iii)(3) (i), (ii) (iv)

(4) (ii), (iii) (iv)

19–01–2014TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014

H - 2/32 Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014 01CM213077

MAJOR TEST

7. The velocity (v) of a body moving along the

positive x-direction varies with displacement (x)

from the origin as v k x , where k is a constant.

Which of the graphs shown in figure correctly

represents the displacement-time (x-t) graphs of

the motion ?

(1)

x

tO

(2)

x

tO

(3)

x

tO

(4)

x

tO

8. The radius of gyration of a uniform disc about

a line perpendicular to its plane is equal to its

radius (r). Then the distance of that line from

centre of disc is :-

(1) r

2(2)

r

2(3)

r

3(4)

r

3

9. Six identical rods are joined end to end, to form

a hexagon mass of each rod is m and length

is . Then moment of inertia of system w.r.t. an

axis passing through centre and perpendicular to

plane is :-

(1) 6m2 (2) 5m2

(3) 10m2 (4) None

10. Which of the following expressions does not

represent SHM :-

(1) A cos t (2) A sin 2t

(3) A sin t + B cost (4) A sin2 t

11. A bread gives 5 kcals of heat to a person. How much

height he can jump against gravity by using this

energy if his efficiency is 30% and mass is 60 kg

(1) 15.5 m (2) 10.5 m

(3) 2.5 m (4) 5 m

12. A police van moving on a highway with a speed of

36 km h–1 fires a bullet at a thief's car speeding away

in the same direction with a speed of 108 km h–1.

If the muzzle speed of the bullet is 140 ms–1, with

what speed will the bullet hit the theif's car?

(1) 120 ms–1 (2) 130 ms–1

(3) 140 ms–1 (4) 150 ms–1

7. x-(v),

(x) v k x

k

(x-t)

(1)

x

tO

(2)

x

tO

(3)

x

tO

(4)

x

tO

8. (r)

:-

(1) r

2(2)

r

2(3)

r

3(4)

r

3

9. m

:-

(1) 6m2 (2) 5m2

(3) 10m2 (4)

10. :-(1) A cos t (2) A sin 2t

(3) A sin t + B cost (4) A sin2 t

11. 5 kcals

30% 60 kg

(1) 15.5 m (2) 10.5 m

(3) 2.5 m (4) 5 m

12. 36 km h–1 108 km h–1 140 ms–1 (1) 120 ms–1 (2) 130 ms–1

(3) 140 ms–1 (4) 150 ms–1



MAJOR TEST

13. A toy gun uses a spring of force constant k. When

charged before being triggered in the upward

direction, the spring is compressed by a

distance x. If mass of the shot is m, on being

triggered it will go upto a height of :-

(1)

2kx

mg(2)

2x

kmg(3)

2kx

2mg(4)

2 2k x

mg

14. The least coefficient of friction for an inclined

plane inclined at an angle of 30° with horizontal,

in order that a solid cylinder will roll down without

slipping is :-

(1) 1

3(2)

1

3(3)

1

3 3(4) 3

15. Two springs of constants k1 and k2 have equal

highest velocities, when executing SHM. Then,

the ratio of their amplitudes (given their masses

are equal) will be :-

(1) k1/k2 (2) (k1/k2)1/2

(3) k2/k1 (4) (k2/k1)1/2

16. One gm of ice at 0°C is added to 5 g of water

at 10°C. If the latent heat is 80 cal/g, final

temperature of the mixture is :-

(1) 5°C (2) 0°C

(3) –5°C (4) None of these

17. A mass 'm' rests on a horizontal surface. The

coefficient of friction between the mass and

surface is s. The mass is pulled by a force 'F' as

shown. Find limiting friction between the mass

and the surface :-

(1) s mg

(2) s[mg – ( 3 /2)F]

m

30°

F

(3) s[mg – F/2]

(4) s(mg + F/2)

18. If the system is in equilibrium in both the cases

then value of m is :-

16kg m

21

4kgm

21

(1) 4 kg (2) 8 kg

(3) 16 kg (4) 32 kg

13. k x m :-

(1)

2kx

mg(2)

2x

kmg(3)

2kx

2mg(4)

2 2k x

mg

14. 30°

:-

(1) 1

3(2)

1

3(3)

1

3 3(4) 3

15. k1 k2

():-

(1) k1/k2 (2) (k1/k2)1/2

(3) k2/k1 (4) (k2/k1)1/2

16. 0°C 1 5 10°C 80 cal/g

(1) 5°C (2) 0°C

(3) –5°C (4)

17. m

s

F

:-(1)

s mg

(2) s[mg – ( 3 /2)F] m

30°

F

(3) s[mg – F/2]

(4) s(mg + F/2)

18. m :-

16kg m

21

4kgm

21

(1) 4 kg (2) 8 kg

(3) 16 kg (4) 32 kg

Key Filling



MAJOR TEST

19. Two bodies of masses m and 4m are placed at a

distance r. The gravitational potential at a point

on the line joining them where the gravitational

field is zero, is :-

(1) –6Gm

r(2) –

9Gm

r(3) zero (4) –

4Gm

r

20. Two simple harmonic motions of angular

frequency 100 rad/s and 1000 rad/s have the same

displacement amplitude. The ratio of their

maximum acceleration is :-

(1) 1 : 103 (2) 1 : 104

(3) 1 : 10 (4) 1 : 102

21. In the following figure, a P–V curve is drawn for

a gas the work done in the process will be–

(1) 1 Joule (2) 2 Joule

(3) 4 Joule (4) –2 Joule

22. Mass of a particle is 0.50 kg. It is moving initially

with the speed of 80 m/s towards East. At t = 0,

when particle is at x = 0, a force of 20 N directed

towards west is being applied on it for 4 sec. Its

position after 5 sec is -

(1) 80 m (2) 0 (3) –40 m (4) –80 m

23. A particle of mass m moving towards east with

speed v collides with another particle of same

mass and moving towards the north with same

speed v. If the two particles stick to each other

the new particle of mass 2 m will have a speed

of :-

(1) v (2) v/2

(3) v / 2 (4) v 2

24. Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely

as the nth power of distance. Then the time period

of a planet in circular orbit of radius R around

the sun will be proportional to-

(1) n+1

2R

(2)

n -12R

(3) Rn (4) n-22R

19. m 4m r

(1) –6Gm

r(2) –

9Gm

r(3) (4) –

4Gm

r

20. 100 rad/s 1000 rad/s

:-

(1) 1 : 103 (2) 1 : 104

(3) 1 : 10 (4) 1 : 102

21. P–V

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) –2

22. 0.50 kg 80 m/s t = 0 x = 0 20 N

4 sec 5 sec -(1) 80 m (2) 0 (3) –40 m (4) –80 m

23. v m

(v) 2 m

:-

(1) v (2) v/2

(3) v / 2 (4) v 2

24. n

R

-

(1) n+1

2R

(2)

n -12R

(3) Rn (4) n-22R



MAJOR TEST

25. A body oscillates with an amplitude of 10 cm on

a horizontal platform. The maximum angular

frequency with which the platform can vibrate

vertically such that the body of mass 10 kg will

not leave contact, is :-

(1) 1 rad/sec (2) 10 rad/sec

(3) 20 rad/sec (4) None of these

26. 140 calories of heat is required to raise the

temperature of 2 moles of a gas at constant pressure

from 0°C to 10°C. How much heat will be required

to heat it from 0°C to 10°C at constant volume :-

(1) 60 cal (2) 100 cal

(3) 140 cal (4) 180 cal

27. Two billiards ball P and Q, each of mass 20g and

moving in opposite directions with speed of

5m/s each, collide and rebound with the same

speed. If the collision lasts for 10–3 sec, which of

the following statement are true ?

(1) The impulse imparted to each ball is

0.8 N-s


0.4 N-s and the force exerted on each ball is

400 N


0.4 kg m/s and the force exerted on each ball

is 4 × 10–5 N

(4) The impulse and the force on each ball are

equal in magnitude and opposite in direction

28. A block of mass m moving at a velocity collides

with another block of mass 2m at rest. The lighter

block comes to rest after collision. Then the

coefficient of restitution is :-

(1) 1

2(2) 1

(3) 1

3(4)

1

4

29. The height at which the acceleration due to gravity

becomes g

9 (where g = the acceleration due to

gravity on the surface of the earth) in terms of R,

the radius of the earth, is :-

(1) R

2(2) 2R (3) 2R (4)

R

2

25. 10 cm

10 kg :-(1) 1 rad/sec (2) 10 rad/sec

(3) 20 rad/sec (4)

26. 2 0°C 10°C.

140 0°C 10°C :-

(1) 60 cal (2) 100 cal

(3) 140 cal (4) 180 cal

27. 20g P Q,

5 m/s

10–3 sec,

(1) 0.8 N-s

(2) 0.4 N-s

400 N

(3) 0.4 kg m/s

4 × 10–5 N

(4)

28. m 2m :-

(1) 1

2(2) 1

(3) 1

3(4)

1

4

29. R

g

9 (g = )

:-

(1) R

2(2) 2R (3) 2R (4)

R

2



MAJOR TEST

30. The equation for the displacement of a stretched

string is given by, y = 4 sin 2t x

0.02 100

.

Where, y and x are in cm and t in sec. The

(i) frequency (ii) velocity of the wave

(iii) maximum particle velocity are :-

(1) 50 Hz, 50 m/s, 20 m/s

(2) 50 Hz, 20 m/s, 50 m/s

(3) 50 Hz, 50 m/s, 2 m/s

(4) 50 Hz, 50 m/s, 4 m/s

31. If Em refers to the maximum intensity of

radiations and m is the wavelength corresponding

to the maximum intensity of radiations, the Wein's

displacement law tells that:-

(1) Increase in Em when temperature is increasing

(2) Decreasee in Em when temperature is

increasing

(3) Increase in m when temperature is increasing

(4) Decrease in m when temperature is increasing

32. For which of the following graphs, the average

velocity of a particle moving along a straight line

for time interval 0 to t must be negative :-

(1)

timet0

x

Position

(2)

timet0

v

Velocity

(3)

Velocity

0 t/3 t

time (4)

Position

0t

x

33. A car of mass 1000 kg accelerates uniformly from

rest to a velocity of 54 km/hr in 5 sec. The average

power of the engine during this period in watt

is :- (neglect friction)

(1) 2000 (2) 22500

(3) 5000 (4) 2250

30.

y = 4 sin 2t x

0.02 100

y x t (i)

(ii) (iii) :-(1) 50 Hz, 50 m/s, 20 m/s

(2) 50 Hz, 20 m/s, 50 m/s

(3) 50 Hz, 50 m/s, 2 m/s

(4) 50 Hz, 50 m/s, 4 m/s

31. Em m

:-

(1) Em

(2) Em

(3) m

(4) m

32.

0 t

(1)

timet0

x

Position

(2)

timet0

v

Velocity

(3)

Velocity

0 t/3 t

time (4)

Position

0t

x

33. 1000 5 54 :- ( )(1) 2000 (2) 22500

(3) 5000 (4) 2250

Use stop, look and go method in reading the question



MAJOR TEST

34. A small ball of density is immersed in a liquid

of density (>) to a depth h and released. The

height above the surface of water up to which the

ball will jump is :-

(1) – 1 h

(2) –1 h

(3) 1 h

(4) 1 h

35. A transverse wave is described by the equation

y = y0sin 2x

ft

. The maximum particle

velocity is equal to four times the wave velocity if

(1) = 0y

4

(2) =

0y

2

(3) = y0 (4) = 2y0

36. The temperature of an ideal gas is –68°C. To what

temperature should it be heated so that the average

translational kinetic energy of the molecules be

doubled :-

(1) 547°C (2) 137°C

(3) –272°C (4) 820°C

37. Position vector of a particle is given as

2 2ˆ ˆr (t 4t 6)i (t ) j

. The time after which,

the velocity vector and acceleration vector

becomes perpendicular to each other is equal to :-

(1) 1 sec (2) 2 sec

(3) 1.5 sec (4) 10 sec

38. A particle moves on a rough horizontal ground

with initial velocity v0. If (3/4)th of its kinetic

energy is lost due to friction in time t0, then

coefficient of friction between the particle and the

ground is :-

(1) 0

0

v

2gt (2) 0

0

v

4gt (3) 0

3v

4gt (4) 0

0

v

gt

39. The density of water at the surface of ocean is .

If the bulk modulus of water is B, then the density

of ocean water at depth, when the pressure is p0

and p0 is the atmospheric pressure, is :-

(1) 0

pB

B – –1 p (2) 0

pB

B –1 p

(3) 0

pB

B – p (4) 0

pB

B p

34.

(>) h

:-

(1) – 1 h

(2) –1 h

(3) 1 h

(4) 1 h

35.

y = y0sin 2x

ft

:-

(1) = 0y

4

(2) =

0y

2

(3) = y0 (4) = 2y0

36. –68°C :-

(1) 547°C (2) 137°C

(3) –272°C (4) 820°C

37. 2 2ˆ ˆr (t 4t 6)i (t ) j

(1) 1 sec (2) 2 sec

(3) 1.5 sec (4) 10 sec

38. v0

t0 (3/4)th

:-

(1) 0

0

v

2gt (2) 0

0

v

4gt (3) 0

3v

4gt (4) 0

0

v

gt

39. B p0 (p0 )

(1) 0

pB

B – –1 p (2) 0

pB

B –1 p

(3) 0

pB

B – p (4) 0

pB

B p



MAJOR TEST

40. It takes 2.0 seconds for a sound wave to travel

between two fixed points when the day

temperature is 10°C. If the temperature rises to

30°C the sound wave travels between the same

fixed points in :-

(1) 1.9 sec (2) 2.0 sec

(3) 2.1 sec (4) 2.2 sec

41. The degree of freedom f for a gas is given by :-

(1) V2C

R(2)

V

P V

2C

C C

(3) 2

1 (4) All the the above

42. Two bodies A and B of masses 15 kg and

10 kg in contact with each other rest on a table

against a rigid wall as shown in the figure.

Coefficient of friction between the bodies and the

table is 0.2. If a force 300 N is applied horizontally

to A, then force exerted by B on A is :-

15 kg 10 kg

A B

300 N

(1) Zero (2) 150 N

(3) 250 N (4) 300 N

43. Four rods AB, BC, CD and DA have mass m,

2m, 3m and 4m respectively. The centre of mass

of all the four rods :-

A B

CD

1 2

3 40

(1) Lie in region 1 (2) Lie in region 2

(3) Lie in region 3 (4) Lie at 0

44. Two wires of the same material and same mass

are stretched by the same force. Their lengths are

in the ratio 2 : 3. Their elongations are in the ratio:-

(1) 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 3 (3) 4 : 9 (4) 9 : 4

45. The frequency of a tuning fork is 256 Hz. The

velocity of sound in air is 344 ms–1. The distance

travelled (in meters) by the sound during the time

in which the tuning fork completes 32 vibrations

is :-

(1) 21 (2) 43 (3) 86 (4) 129

40. 10°C 2

30°C

:-

(1) 1.9 sec (2) 2.0 sec

(3) 2.1 sec (4) 2.2 sec

41. f :-

(1) V2C

R(2)

V

P V

2C

C C

(3) 2

1 (4)

42. 15 kg

10 kg A B 0.2. A 300 N B A

15 kg 10 kg

A B

300 N

(1) (2) 150 N

(3) 250 N (4) 300 N

43. m, 2m, 3m 4m AB, BC, CD

DA :-

A B

CD

1 2

3 40

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 0

44. 2 : 3 :-(1) 3 : 2 (2) 2 : 3 (3) 4 : 9 (4) 9 : 4

45. 256 Hz 344 ms–1 32 :-

(1) 21 (2) 43 (3) 86 (4) 129



MAJOR TEST

46. What is the total number of electrons present

in 18 ml of water :-

(1) 10 (2) 10 × 6.023 × 1023

(3) 23

10

6.023 10 (4) 6.02 × 1023

47. H2O2 can oxidise :-

(1) Mn2+ in alkaline medium

(2) MnO4– in acidic medium

(3) F– in acidic medium

(4) All

48. Which of the following is correct :-

(1) If under some conditions, CCl4 & SiCl

4

hydrolyse then Kc for CCl4 hydrolysis will

be larger (Kc = equilibrium constant)

(2) If under some conditions, CCl4 & SiCl4

hydrolyse then Kc for SiCl4 hydrolysis will

be larger

(3) Kc for CCl

4 hydrolysis = K

c for SiCl

4

hydrolysis

(4) None

49. Consider the following two reactions :

(i) Propene + H2 Propane, H

1

(ii) Cyclopropane + H2 Propane, H

2

Then, H2

– H1 will be :

(1) 0 (2) 2BEC – C

– BEC = C

(3) BEC = C

(4) 2BEC = C

– BEC – C

50. O–C

O

2NO Product is :-

(1) O–C

O NO2

(2) O–C

O

NO2

(3) O–C

O

O N2

(4) O–C

ONO2

46. 18 ml :-

(1) 10 (2) 10 × 6.023 × 1023

(3) 23

10

6.023 10 (4) 6.02 × 1023

47. H2O2 :-(1) Mn2+ (2) MnO

4–

(3) F– (4)

48. :-(1) CCl4 SiCl4

CCl

4 Kc

(Kc = equilibrium constant)

(2) CCl4 SiCl

4 SiCl

4K

c

(Kc = equilibrium constant)

(3) CCl4 Kc = SiCl4

Kc

(4) 49.

(i) Propene + H2 Propane, H

1

(ii) Cyclopropane + H2 Propane, H

2

H2 – H

1

(1) 0 (2) 2BEC – C

– BEC = C

(3) BEC = C

(4) 2BEC = C

– BEC – C

50. O–C

O

2NO :-

(1) O–C

O NO2

(2) O–C

O

NO2

(3) O–C

O

O N2

(4) O–C

ONO2

Take it Easy and Make it Easy



MAJOR TEST

51. 6 × 1020 molecules of CO2

are removed from

220 milligram of CO2. What are the remaining

moles of CO2 :-

(1) 4 × 10-3moles (2) 5 × 10-3 moles

(3) 2 × 10-3 moles (4) 6 × 10-3 moles

52. No. of pair of F atoms which subtents 90° angle

on S in SF6 will be :-

(1) 6 (2) 8

(3) 12 (4) 16

53. Symmetrical H bonding will occur in :-

(1) HF------HF

(2)H H H

O--------H–O

H

+

(3) F --------H–F

(4) All

54. For the reaction PCl5(g) PCl

3(g) + Cl

2(g),

the forward reaction at constant temperature is

favoured by :-

(i) Introducing inert gas at constant volume

(ii) Introducing Cl2 gas at constant volume

(iii) Introducing an inert gas at constant pressure

(iv) Increasing the pressure of the container

(v) Introducing PCl5

(1) (iii), (iv) & (v) (2) (iii) & (v)

(3) (i), (ii) & (v) (4) Only (iii)

55. The correct increasing order of reactivity for

following molecules towards electrophilic

aromatic substitution.

OH

NO2

OH

OMe

OH OH

Cl

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(1) I < IV < II < III

(2) I < IV < III < II

(3) I < III < II < IV

(4) I < III < IV < II

56. What is the empirical formula of the compound

containing H, C, O and N in the mass ratio of

1 : 3 : 4 : 7 respectively :-

(1) HC3O4N7 (2) H4CON2

(3) HC4O

2N

2(4) None

51. 220 CO2 6 × 1020

CO2 :-

(1) 4 × 10-3 (2) 5 × 10-3

(3) 2 × 10-3 (4) 6 × 10-3

52. F S 90° :-(1) 6 (2) 8

(3) 12 (4) 16

53. Symmetrical H bonding :-(1) HF------HF

(2)H H H

O--------H–O

H

+

(3) F --------H–F

(4) 54. PCl

5(g) PCl

3(g) + Cl

2(g)

:-

(i)

(ii) Cl2

(iii)

(iv)

(v) PCl5

(1) (iii), (iv) & (v) (2) (iii) & (v)

(3) (i), (ii) & (v) (4) Only (iii)

55.

OH

NO2

OH

OMe

OH OH

Cl

(I) (II) (III) (IV)

(1) I < IV < II < III

(2) I < IV < III < II

(3) I < III < II < IV

(4) I < III < IV < II

56. H, C, O N 1 : 3 : 4 : 7 :-(1) HC3

O4N

7(2) H

4CON

2

(3) HC4O2N2 (4)



MAJOR TEST

57. Which is correctly matched :-

Compound No. of No. of

pp dp

(1) SO3 3 0

(2) SO2 1 0

(3) XeO3

2 1

(4) POCl3 0 1

58. 200 mL gas A at 300 torr and 300 mL gas B

at 200 torr are taken in a container of 2L. Then

find out partial pressure of gas A in mixture.

(1) 20 torr (2) 30 torr

(3) 50 torr (4) 100 torr

59. If degree of ionisation of 0.001 M CH3COOH

is 2 × 10–2 %. Then find out the ionisation

constant of acetate ion :-

(1) 2 × 10–11 (2) 4 × 10–11

(3) 2.5 × 10–4 (4) 2.5 × 10–3

60. Which of the following compounds is most

basic ?

(1) –NH2 (2) –NH2O N–2

(3) –CH NH2 2

• •

(4) –N–COCH3

• •

H61. The energy of the electron in the first orbit of

He+ is –871.6 × 10–20 J. The energy of the

electron in the first orbit of hydrogen would be:-

(1) –871.6 × 10–20 J (2) –435.8 × 10–20 J

(3) –217.9 × 10–20 J (4) –108.9 × 10–20 J

62. Which correctly matched :-

Facts Reason

(1) Aq. solution of Ka of H3BO3 < 10–7

Borax is alkaline

(2) In recovery of NH3 4N H

generate NH3

from NH4Cl in solvay in acidic medium

process, acidic due to acid base

medium is required reaction

(3) SnCl4 can be reduced Due to inert pair

by Cr2(SO4)3 effect, SnCl2 is

more stable than

SnCl4

(4) AlCl3 can form non In dimer form of

planar dimer AlCl3, hybridisation

of Al = sp2

57. :-

Compound No. of No. of

pp dp

(1) SO3 3 0

(2) SO2 1 0

(3) XeO3

2 1

(4) POCl3 0 1

58. 2 L 300 torr 200 mL A 200 torr

300 mL B A (1) 20 torr (2) 30 torr

(3) 50 torr (4) 100 torr

59. 0.001 M CH3COOH

2 × 10–2 % :-(1) 2 × 10–11 (2) 4 × 10–11

(3) 2.5 × 10–4 (4) 2.5 × 10–3

60. ?

(1) –NH2 (2) –NH2O N–2

(3) –CH NH2 2

• •

(4) –N–COCH3

• •

H

61. He+ –871.6 × 10–20 J

:-

(1) –871.6 × 10–20 J (2) –435.8 × 10–20 J

(3) –217.9 × 10–20 J (4) –108.9 × 10–20 J

62. :-

(1) Borax H3BO

3Ka < 10–7

(2) solvay NH4Cl 4NH

NH3 NH3

(3) SnCl4 Cr2(SO4)3 SnCl2, SnCl4

(4) AlCl3 AlCl3 Al

= sp2



MAJOR TEST

63. Rate of diffusion of NH3 is double of X

2 gas.

Then find out molecular weight of X2 gas.

(1) 68 (2) 17

(3) 34 (4) 136

64. A buffer solution with pH = 9 is to be prepared

by mixing NH4Cl and NH

4OH. Calculate the

number of moles of NH4Cl that should be added

to one litre of 1.0 M NH4OH [K

b = 1.8 × 10–5]

(1) 3.4 (2) 2.6

(3) 1.5 (4) 1.8

65. Among the following four compounds :-

(a) phenol (b) methyl phenol

(c) metanitrophenol (d) paranitrophenol,

The acidity order is :

(1) c > d > a > b (2) c > d > c > b

(3) b > a > c > d (4) d > c > a > b

66. The first emission line in the atomic spectrum

of hydrogen in the Balmer series appears at :-

(1) 15R

cm36

(2)

13Rcm

4

(3) 17R

cm144

(4)

19Rcm

400

67. Which is correct order :-

(1) Cl2 < F2 < Br2 < I2 (Bond length)

(2) F2 > Cl2 > I2 > Br2 (Oxidising power)

(3) F > Cl > Br > I (Electron affinity)

(4) HF < HCl < HBr < HI (acidic order)

68. A compound of Xe and F is found to have

53.5% Xe. What is the oxidation number of Xe

in this compound ? [Atomic weight of

Xe = 132]

(1) –4 (2) 0 (3) +4 (4) +6

69. Which of the following are tertiary radicals :–

(a)

CH3

CH3

CCH3 (b) CH3 CH

CH3

(c)

CH3

CCH3 C H2 5(d)

CH3

CCH3 CH2

CH3

(1) a and b (2) b and c

(3) a and c (4) b and d

63. NH3 X

2

X2

(1) 68 (2) 17

(3) 34 (4) 136

64. pH = 9 NH4Cl NH

4OH

1.0 M NH4OH

NH4Cl

[Kb = 1.8 × 10–5]

(1) 3.4 (2) 2.6

(3) 1.5 (4) 1.8

65. :-(a) (b) (c) (d) ,

:(1) c > d > a > b (2) a > d > c > b

(3) b > a > c > d (4) d > c > a > b

66. :-

(1) 15R

cm36

(2)

13Rcm

4

(3) 17R

cm144

(4)

19Rcm

400

67. :-(1) Cl2 < F2 < Br2 < I2 ()(2) F2 > Cl2 > I2 > Br2 ()(3) F > Cl > Br > I ()(4) HF < HCl < HBr < HI ()

68. Xe F 53.5% Xe Xe

[X

e = 132]

(1) –4 (2) 0

(3) +4 (4) +6

69. (3°)

(a)

CH3

CH3

CCH3 (b) CH3 CH

CH3

(c)

CH3

CCH3 C H2 5(d)

CH3

CCH3 CH2

CH3

(1) a b (2) b c(3) a c (4) b d



MAJOR TEST

70. Hydration of C CH

in presence of

H2SO

4 / HgSO

4 gives

(1) COCH3

(2) CH CH OH2 2

(3) CH CH2 3

(4) CH CHO2

71. Out of first four ordits of H-atom. The radius

ratio of two orbits is 1: 4. The difference of

energy of these orbits will be :-

(1) 12.09 eV or 3.4 eV

(2) 13.6 eV or 3.4 eV

(3) 2.55 eV or 10.2 eV

(4) 3.4 eV or 0.85 eV

72. Which statement is correct :-

(1) Na + Liq NH3 can act as reducing agent

(2) KO2 can oxidise CO2 into O2

(3) Both Li3N & Mg3N2 can exist

(4) All

73. Which of the following oxides cannot work as

a reducing agent?

(1) CO2

(2) NO2

(3) SO2

(4) ClO2

74. The IUPAC name for

H

C=O

OH

is :-

(1) 2–Hydroxy cyclopentanal

(2) 2–Formyl–1–hydroxy cyclopentane

(3) 2–Hydroxy cyclopentane carbaldehyde

(4) Cyclopentane–2–ol–1–al

75. The major product obtained on treatment of

CH3CH

2CH(F)CH

3 with CH

3O–/CH

3OH is

(1) CH3CH

2CH(OCH

3)CH

3

(2) CH3CH CHCH

3

(3) CH3CH

2CH CH

2

(4) CH3CH

2CH

2CH

2OCH

3

76. The no. of C-C links in fullerine is x. Then total

C in fullerine is :-

(1) 2x

3(2)

5x

6

(3) 6

x5

(4) x

3

70.C CH

H2SO

4 / HgSO

4

(1) COCH3

(2) CH CH OH2 2

(3) CH CH2 3

(4) CH CHO2

71. H-1 : 4 :-

(1) 12.09 eV 3.4 eV

(2) 13.6 eV 3.4 eV

(3) 2.55 eV 10.2 eV

(4) 3.4 eV 0.85 eV

72. :-(1) Na + Liq NH3

(2) KO

2, CO

2, O2

(3) Li3N Mg

3N

2

(4) 73.

(1) CO

2(2) NO

2(3) SO

2(4) ClO

2

74.

H

C=O

OH

IUPAC

(1) 2–(2) 2––1–(3) 2–(4) –2––1–

75. CH3CH

2CH(F)CH

3 CH

3O–/CH

3OH

(1) CH

3CH

2CH(OCH

3)CH

3

(2) CH3CH CHCH

3

(3) CH3CH

2CH CH

2

(4) CH3CH

2CH

2CH

2OCH

3

76. fullerine C-C links x fullerine

C :-

(1) 2x

3(2)

5x

6

(3) 6

x5

(4) x

3



MAJOR TEST

77. Which of the following compounds can not exist?

(a) K2[CuI4] (b) TlI3 (c) PbI2 (d) SCl6

Correct code is :-

(1) c, d (2) a, b (3) a, d (4) a, c, d

78. For the process H2O() (1 bar, 373 K) H

2O(g)

(1 bar, 373 K), the correct set of

thermodynamic parameters is :

(1) G = 0, S = +ve (2) G = 0, S = –ve

(3) G = +ve, S = 0 (4) G = –ve, S = +ve

79. The IUPAC name of the given compound is :-

Br Cl CHO

(1) (2R, 4Z)-4-bromo-2-chloro-2-methyl-4-hexenal

(2) (2R, 4E)-4-bromo-2-chloro-2-methyl-4-hexenal

(3) (2Z, 5R)-3-bromo-5-chloro-5-formyl-2-hexene

(4) (2S, 4E)-4-bromo-2-chloro-2-methyl-4-hexenal

80. If water pollution continues at its present rate,

it will eventually :-

(1) Stop water cycle

(2) Prevent precipitation

(3) Make oxygen molecules unavailable to

water plants

(4) Make nitrate molecules unavailable to water

plants

81. Which statement is correct :-

(1) IP of Cl > EA of Cl [IP = Ionisation potential

EA = electron affinitiy]

(2) Conduction of H+ < Conduction of Li+

(3) IP of F– > IP of Cl–

(4) All

82. H2 can't be prepared using :-

(1)electrolysis

Ba(OH) solution+

Ni electrode

2

–

H O2

(2) Zn 2 4dil.H SO

(3) Zn 3Conc.HNO

(4) NaCl aq. solution electrolysis

Hg Cathode

83. The species which by definition has zero standard

molar enthalpy of formation at 298 K is

(1) Br2(g) (2) Cl

2(g)

(3) H2O (g) (4) CH

4 (g)

84. The minimum number of carbon atoms in

ketone to show metamerism :–

(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6

77. ?(a) K2[CuI4] (b) TlI3 (c) PbI2 (d) SCl6

:-(1) c, d (2) a, b (3) a, d (4) a, c, d

78. H

2O() (1 bar, 373 K) H

2O(g) (1 bar, 373 K),

(1) G = 0, S = +ve (2) G = 0, S = –ve

(3) G = +ve, S = 0 (4) G = –ve, S = +ve

79. IUPAC :-

Br Cl CHO

(1) (2R, 4Z)-4--2--2--4-(2) (2R, 4E)-4--2--2--4-(3) (2Z, 5R)-3--5--5--2-(4) (2S, 4E)-4--2--2--4-

80. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

81. :-(1) IP of Cl > EA of Cl [IP =

EA = ](2) H+ < Li+ (3) IP of F– > IP of Cl–

(4) 82. H

2 :-

(1)

Ba(OH) solution+

Ni electrode

2

–

H O2

(2) Zn 2 4dil.H SO

(3) Zn 3Conc.HNO

(4) NaCl aq. solution electrolysis

Hg Cathode

83. (1) Br

2(g) (2) Cl

2(g)

(3) H2O (g) (4) CH

4 (g)

84. :–(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6



MAJOR TEST

85. An increase in CO2 concentration in the

atmosphere will result in :-

(1) Adverse effect of natural vegetation

(2) Global warming

(3) Temperature decrease in global atmosphere

(4) Genetic disorders in plants and animals

86. If A is tetravalent atom & form AB4, then

compound will have zero dipole moment if :-

1 2

4

5

6 7

8

3

Body centre

Cube

A

(a) All B are placed at 1, 2, 3, 4

(b) B are placed at 2, 4, 6, 8

(c) B are placed at 1, 3, 6, 8

(d) B are placed at 1, 3, 7, 5

Correct Code is :-

(1) a, b, c, d (2) b, c, d

(3) b, d (4) a, c

87. Which of the following can perform redox

reaction with water :-

(1) Li Metal (2) Na metal

(3) F2(4) All

88. Standard enthalpies of formation of O3,

CO2, NH

3 and Hl are 142.2, –393.2, –46.2 and

25.9 kJ mol–1 respectively. The order of their

increasing stabilities will be :

(1) O3, CO

2, NH

3, HI (2) CO

2, NH

3, HI, O

3

(3) O3, HI, NH

3, CO

2(4) NH

3, HI, CO

2, O

3

89. Which of the following is optically active :-

(1)

OH

OH

(2)

OH

CH3

(3)

OH

(4)

CH3

90. Acid rain occure due to atmospheric pollution

of

(1) SO2

(2) NH3

(3) CO2

(4) N2O

85. CO2

:-(1) (2) (3) (4)

86. 'A' AB4 , zero

dipole moment :-

1 2

4

5

6 7

8

3

Body centre

Cube

A

(a) All B are placed at 1, 2, 3, 4

(b) B are placed at 2, 4, 6, 8

(c) B are placed at 1, 3, 6, 8

(d) B are placed at 1, 3, 7, 5

:-(1) a, b, c, d (2) b, c, d

(3) b, d (4) a, c

87. Redox :-(1) Li Metal (2) Na metal

(3) F2(4)

88. O3, CO

2, NH

3 Hl

142.2, –393.2, –46.2 25.9 kJ mol–1

(1) O3, CO

2, NH

3, HI (2) CO

2, NH

3, HI, O

3

(3) O3, HI, NH

3, CO

2(4) NH

3, HI, CO

2, O

3

89. :-

(1)

OH

OH

(2)

OH

CH3

(3)

OH

(4)

CH3

90. (1) SO

2(2) NH

3(3) CO

2(4) N

2O



MAJOR TEST

91. Read the following statements :-

(A) They are immotile, they float on the surface

of water, with the help of low molecular

weight stored fats.

(B) They enter in to host cells and capture its

all metabolic activities.

(A) and (B) statement are related with which

option respectively ?

(1) Dinoflagellates, Virus

(2) Diatoms, Bacteria

(3) Virus, Diatoms

(4) Diatoms, Virus

92. Sexual reproduction oogamous type and

accompaned by complex post fertilization

development can be observed in-

(1) Chorophyceae

(2) Phaeophyceae

(3) Xanthophyceae

(4) Rhodophyceae

93. The digestive tract of Doliolum & Salpa can be

represented as :-

(1) Incomplete type

(2) Tube within a tube

(3) Blind sac

(4) Pseudocoel type

94. Identify true statements :

(A) Cnidarians have blind-sac body plan

(B) Digestion in Ctenophora is both intra as well

as extracellular

(C) Agnathans are endoparasite in fishes.

(D) Ichthyophis belongs to tetrapoda group

(1) A, C and D (2) A, B and D

(3) B and D (4) A and D

95. Which of the following family belongs to subclass

gamopetalae ?

(1) Brassicaceae (2) Malvaceae

(3) Solanaceae (4) Leguminosae

91.

(A)

(B)

(A) (B)

(1) ,

(2) ,

(3) ,

(4) ,

92.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

93. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

94.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) A, C D (2) A, B D

(3) B D (4) A D

95. ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)



MAJOR TEST

96. The four sketches (A, B, C and D ) given below,

represent four different types of cells. Which one

of these is correctly identified in the option given,

along with its correct shape and character :-

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

Cell Shape Character

1. (C) Nerve cellBranchedand long

Chloroplastpresent

2. (A) Red blood cellRound andBiconcave

Cell membraneabsent

3. (D) Sieve tube cell ElongatedChromoplastpresent

4. (B)White bloodcells

AmoeboidRibosomepresent

97. The both strands of DNA run in opposite

direction, and they are called :-

(1) Parallel (2) Semi conservative

(3) Conservative (4) Anti parallel

98. In biological nitrogen fixation, the ammonia

synthesis by nitrogenase enzyme requires a very

high input of energy and that is :-

(1) 16 ATP for each NH3 produced




99. Which of the following are correctly matched ?

(A) Ethylene – Thinning of cotton, cherry and

walnut

(B) ABA – Antagonist to Gibberellic acids

(C) Cytokinin – Speed up the malting process in

brewing industry

(D) Auxins – Prevent fruit and leaf drop at early

stages

Choose the correct option :

(1) (A), (B) and (D) (2) (A) and (B)

(3) (B), (C) and (D) (4) (C) and (D)

96. (A, B, C D ) :-

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

1. (C)

2. (A)

3. (D)

4. (B)

97. DNA :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

98. :-(1) NH

3 16 ATP

(2) NH3 32 ATP

(3) NH3 8 ATP

(4) NH3 4 ATP

99. ?

(A) – (B) – (C) –

(D)–

:

(1) (A), (B) (D) (2) (A) (B)

(3) (B), (C) (D) (4) (C) (D)



MAJOR TEST

100. In human being, the second cervical vertebral

helps in rotatory movements of head through

knob-like process called :-

(1) Metapophysis

(2) Prezygapophysis

(3) Postzygapophysis

(4) Odontoid process

101. Agar-Agar, which is used in culture media due

to its high capacity of water imbibition is obtained

from :-

(1) Laminaria (2) Porphyra

(3) Chondrus (4) Gelidium

102. In which of the following group there is no

independent free living existance of gametophyte?

(1) Thallophyta (2) Pteridophyta

(3) Bryophyta (4) Gymnosperm

103. Given diagram below is the body organisation of

animal, select the correct animal

(1) Lancelet (2) Neophron

(3) Taenia (4) Physalia

104. In dicot root cork cambium develops in

the

(1) Pith region (2) Cortical region

(3) Epidermal region (4) Stelar region

105. Carpophore is found in :-

(1) Castor (2) Coriander

(3) Gram (4) Pea


(i) Presence of DNA

(ii) Presence of cristae

(iii) Ribosome

(iv) Enzyme for carbohydrate synthesis

(v) Site for oxidative phosphorylation

How many of the above statements are similar in

mitochondria and chloroplast ?

(1) Two (2) Five (3) Four (4) Three

100. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

101. ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

102. (1) (2) (3) (4)

103. :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

104. () (1) () (2) (3) (4)

105. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

106. :-(i) DNA(ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (1) (2) (3) (4)



MAJOR TEST

107. In the structure of DNA molecule at each step of

ascent, the strand turns :-

(1) 36º (2) 20º (3) 40º (4) 75º

108. In flowering plants, photosynthesis is essentially a light

dependent reaction in which hydrogen from a suitable

oxidisable compound reduces carbon dioxide to

carbohydrates, this oxidisable compound is -

(1) H2O (2) H

2S

(3) H2O or H2S (4) C6H12O6

109. What is the characteristic of metanephric kidney :-

(1) Hypotonic urine production

(2) Excess secretion of uric acid

(3) Loop of Henle

(4) Hormone production

110. Which statement is wrong ?

(1)Postzygapophysis is present in ATLAS

(2)Coronoid fossa is found in humerus

(3)Centrum is absent in ATLAS

(4)Prezygapophysis is absent in 2nd cervical

vertebrae

111. Which structure is formed in the life cycle of moss

between spore and main plant ?

(1) Prothallus (2) Spore mother cell

(3) Protonema (4) Embryo

112. Choose the incorrect statement about

Phycomycetes-

(1) Some members are found in aquatic habitats.

(2) Spores are endogenously produced in

sporangium.

(3) A zygospores is formed by reduction

division.

(4) They show all type of syngamy.

113. During the embryonic development, coelom is

formed by splitting of mesodermal plate. This type

of coelom is found in

(1) Pila (2) Antedon

(3) Hookworm (4) All of the above

114. The cells of phelloderm (secondary cortex) are

(1) Collenchymatous

(2) Sclerenchymatous

(3) Parenchymatous

(4) Meristematic

107. DNA :-(1) 36º (2) 20º (3) 40º (4) 75º

108. -

(1) H2O (2) H

2S

(3) H2O H2

S (4) C6H

12O

6

109. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

110. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

111.

?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

112.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

113. :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

114. ()

(1) ()

(2) ()

(3) ()

(4)



MAJOR TEST

115. Which set's member have same edible part ?

(1) Pear & Apple (2) Grape & Coconut

(3) Litchi & Apple (4) Coconut & Apple

116. Which events is not related with meiosis I :-

(1)Segregation of homologous chromosomes

(2)Crossing over between non sister chromatids

(3)Seperation of sister chromatids

(4) Condensation of chromatin

117. In full turn of B-DNA , How many steps are

present -

(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 5

118. Radioisotopic technique was used to establish

some facts regarding :

(1) light reaction of photosynthesis

(2) biosynthetic phase of photosynthesis

(3) both (1) and (2)

(4) neither light reaction nor biosynthetic phase

of photosynthesis

119. Which one of following correctly explains the

function of a specific part of a human nephorn :-

(1) Afferent arteriole : Carries the blood away

from the glomerulus toward renal vein

(2) Podocytes : Create minute spaces (slit pores)

for the filtration blood into the Bowman's

capsule

(3) Henle's loop : Most reabsorption of the major

substance from the glomerular filtrate

(4) Distal convoluted tubule : Reabsorption of K+

ions into the surrounding blood capillaries

120. Consider the following statements and select the

option which includes all the correct ones:-

(a) Partial pressures of O2 and CO

2 in Alveolar

air are 104 mmHg and 40 mm Hg

(b) Partial pressures of O2 and CO

2 in

deoxygenated blood are 40 mmHg and 45 mmHg respectively

(c) Partial pressures of O2 and CO

2 in

deoxygenated blood are 95 mmHg and40 mm Hg

(d) Partial pressures of O2 and CO

2 in Atmospheric

air are 40 mmHg and 46 mm Hg

Options :

(1) Statements a,b and c are correct

(2) Statements a,b,c and d are correct

(3) Statements a, b are correct

(4) Staements c and d are correct

115. ?(1) (2)

(3) (4) 116. -I :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

117. B-DNA -(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 5

118. :

(1) (2) (3) (1) (2) (4)

119. :-(1) :

(2) : ()

(3) :

(4) : K+

120. :-

(a) O2 CO

2

104 mmHg 40 mm Hg

(b) O2 CO

2

40 mmHg 45 mmHg

(c) O2 CO

2

95 mmHg 40 mm Hg

(d) O2 CO

2

40 mm Hg 46 mmHg

:

(1) a,b c

(2) a,b,c d

(3) a b

(4) c d



MAJOR TEST

121. Choose the correct match :-

(1) Gonyaulax - Water bloom

(2) Algin - obtained by red algae

(3) Carrageen - obtained by green algae

(4) Dinoflagellates - Chief producers in oceans

122. Mad cow disease (Bovine spongiform

encephalopathy), potato spindle tuber disease,

Aster yellow disease of sun flower and tungro

disease of rice are respectively, caused by :-

(1) Prions, Virus, Mycoplasma, Viroids

(2) Viroids, Prions, Mycoplasma, Virus

(3) Virus, Viroids, Mycoplasma, Prions

(4) Prions, Viroids, Mycoplasma, Virus

123. In the above given diagram match the coelomic

condition with respective animals :-

(A) (B)

(C)

(1) (A) Pteropus

(B) Planaria

(C) Hookworm

(2) (A) Liver Fluke

(B) Macaca

(C) Wuchereria

(3) (A) Ascaris

(B) Fasciola

(C) Corvus

(4) (A) Hyla

(B) Ancylostomata

(C) Taenia

124. Lenticels are formed by the activity of

(1) Vascular cambium

(2) Cork cambium

(3) Both vascular & cork cambium

(4) None of these

121. :-

(1) -

(2) -

(3) -

(4) -

122. (), , :-

(1) , , ,

(2) , ,

(3) , , ,

(4) , , , 123.

:-

(A) (B)

(C)

(1) (A) (B) (C)

(2) (A) (B) (C)

(3) (A) (B) (C)

(4) (A) (B) (C)

124. (1) () (2) () (3)

(4)



MAJOR TEST

125. Which pair is not incorrect ?

(1) Leaf tendril – Opuntia

(2) Leaf bladder – Nepenthes

(3) Leaf pitcher – Nepenthes

(4) Leaf spine – Sweet pea

126. During gamet formation, the enzyme recombinase

participates during :-

(1)Prophase II (2) Anaphase I

(3)Anaphase II (4) Prophase I

127. In full turn of B-DNA, How many N2-bases are

present -

(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 5

128. Except for plants in shade or in dense forests, light

is rarely a limiting factor in nature. This statement

is supported by which of the following facts ?

(1) Light causes the excitation of chlorophyll

(2) Light causes the splitting of water

(3) Light saturation occurs at 10 percent of the full

sunlight

(4) Light causes the breakdown of chlorophyll at

low light intensity

129. Which one of the following pairs of the kind of

cells and their secretion of correctly matched

(1) Oxyntic cells - A secretion with pH

between 2.0 and 3.0

(2) Alpha cells of islets - Secretion that

of Langerhans decreases blood sugar

level

(3) Kupffer cells - A digestive enzyme

that hydrolyses

nucleic acids

(4) Sebaceous glands - A secretion that

evaporates for cooling


(A) Relaxation of diaphragm and inter costal

muscles.

(B) Increase in the volume of thoracic chamber

(C) Lifts up the ribs and the sternum

(D) Intra pulmonary pressure is higher than

atmospheric pressure.

(E) Increase the pulmonary volume.

How many statements are correct about

expiration :-

(1) Two (2) Three

(3) Four (4) One

125. ?

(1) –

(2) –

(3) –

(4) – 126.

:-(1) II (2) I(3) II (4) I

127. B-DNAN2

-(1) 10 (2) 20 (3) 30 (4) 5

128. ?

(1) (2) (3) 10

(4)

129.

(1) - 2.0 3.0 pH

(2) -

(3) -

(4) -

130.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

(E) (Expiration) (1) (2) (3) (4)



MAJOR TEST

131. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

132.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

133. :-(1) (2) (3)

(4) 134. ()

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

135.

(A) ()

(B) (prostomium)

(C)

(D) 4th, 5th 6th

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

131. Which bacteria is responsible for wine turn sour :-

(1) Clostridium butylicum

(2) E.coli

(3) Bacillus thuringiensis

(4) Acetobacter aceti

132. Cross section of animal body is given below.

Which one of the following creature will satisfy

the above cross section :-

(1) Planaria (2) Pleurobrachia

(3) Ancylostoma (4) Nereis

133. Creatures with single opening serving both as

mouth and anus is found in :-

(1) Coelenterates & Aschelminthes

(2) Platyhelminthes & Ctenophora

(3) Coelenterate & Porifera

(4) All of the above

134. Vascular cambium of dicot root originates from

(1) Tissue located just below the phloem bundles

& a portion of pericycle tissue.

(2) Tissue located just below the xylem bundles

& a portion of pericycle tissue.

(3) Tissue located just below the xylem bundles

& a portion of endodermis tissue.

(4) Tissue located just below the phloem bundles

& a portion of endodermis tissue.

135. How many of the given statements are correct for

earth worm

(A) The dorsal surface of the body is marked by

a dark median mid dorsal line (dorsal blood

vessel)

(B) The first body segment is called prostomium

(C) Calciferous glands, present in the stomach

neutralise the humic acid present in humus

(D) Blood glands are present on the 4th, 5th and 6th

(1) Four (2) Three

(3) Two (4) One



MAJOR TEST

136. Which one of the following does not have nuclear

membrane :-

(1)Chlamydomonas (2) Azolla

(3)Rhizobium (4) Amoeba

137. Which of the following statements is not correct

regarding diffusion ?

(1) It is the only means for gaseous movement

within the plant body

(2) It is a slow process and is not dependent on

a living system

(3) In diffusion, molecules move in a random

fashion with the help of energy expenditure

(4) In diffusion, substances moving from regions

of higher concentration to regions of lower

concentration

138. If the energy released by respiratory substrate is

to be useful to the cell, it should be able to utilise

it to synthesise other molecules that the cell

requires. Which of the following strategies will

be helpful to achieve this goal ?

(1) Oxidise the respiratory substrate only in the

absence of O2

(2) Oxidise respiratory substrate not in one step

but in several small steps

(3) Utilise only glucose as a respiratory substrate

(4) Oxidise the respiratory substrate only in the

cytoplasm

139. Amount of saliva secreted daily in humans is :-

(1) 250 ml (2) 500 ml

(3) 100 ml (4) 1000 ml–1200 ml

140. Which of the following structure receives and

integrates visual, tactile and auditory inputs :-

(1) Cerebellum (2) Pons

(3) Mid brain (4) Medulla

141. Read the following statement carefully

(A) Gymnosperms are exclusively heterosporous.

(B) All Pteridophyte's sporophytes are may be

monoecious or dioecious.

(C) Double fert ilization is character of

spermatophytes.

(D) Spermatophytes are completely successful

land plant.

Which of the above statements are incorrect ?

(1) A, B, C (2) A, D

(3) B, C (4) B, C, D

136. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

137.

?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

138. ?

(1) O2

(2)

(3) (4)

139. :-(1) 250 ml (2) 500 ml

(3) 100 ml (4) 1000 ml–1200 ml

140. :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

141.

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) A, B, C (2) A, D

(3) B, C (4) B, C, D



MAJOR TEST

142. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

143. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

144. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

145. ______ ______ (1) 2–20, 4 (2) 9–10, 14–16

(3) 1–10, 2 (4) 14–16, 9–10

146. :-

(1)

(2) N-

(3) (4)

147. :

(1) (2) (3) (4)

148. CoA :-(1) NAD+

(2) NAD+

(3) NAD+

(4) NAD+

149.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

142. Animals possess various type of symmetry, select

the incorrectly matched :-

(1) Echinodermates possess radial symmetry

(2) Arthropods possess bilateral symmetry

(3) Sponges are mostly symmetrical

(4) All of these

143. Closed blood vascular system found in :-

(1) Bombyx (2) Sepia

(3) Balanoglossus (4) Ascidia

144. The cells of the tunica layer divide in :-

(1) Periclinal plane

(2) Anticlinal plane

(3) All planes

(4) None of the above

145. On an average, female cockroach produce ______

oothecae, each ootheca containing______eggs.

(1) 2–20, 4 (2) 9–10, 14–16

(3) 1–10, 2 (4) 14–16, 9–10

146. The monomer units of chitin or fungal cellulose

is

(1) Mannitol

(2) N-Acetyl glucosamine

(3) Ascorbic acid

(4) Glucuronic acid

147. The inner wall of each guard cell, towards the pore

or stomatal aperture, is :

(1) thick and nonelastic

(2) thick and elastic

(3) thin and elastic

(4) thin and nonelastic

148. In aerobic respiration when pyruvic acid is

converted into acetyl CoA :-

(1) both pyruvic acid and NAD+ get oxidised

(2) both pyruvic acid and NAD+ get reduced

(3) pyruvic acid get reduced and NAD+ get

oxidised

(4) pyruvic acid get oxidised and NAD+ get

reduced

149. Kupffer cells are same in function to

(1) Dust cells

(2) Deiter cells

(3) Quartz cells

(4) Hensen's cells



MAJOR TEST

150. Read the following statements :- (A-D)

(A) The medulla contains centres, which control

respiration, cardiovascular reflexes and gastric

secretions.

(B) The organ of corti is a structure which contains

hair cells that act as auditory receptors and is

located on the basilar membrane.

(C) Inner ear also contains a complex system

located above the cochlea called vestibular

apparatus.

(D) The cerebellum integrates information

received from the semicircular canals of the

ear and the auditory system.

How many of the above statements are true :-

(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 2

151. In the five kingdom classification, which kingdom

occupies intermediate position from phylogenetic

point of view ?

(1) Monera (2) Mycota

(3) Plantae (4) Protista

152. The phyla showing radial symmetry :-

(1) Echinodermata, Coelenterata and Ctenophora

(2) Porifera, Coelenterata an Echinodermata

(3) Protozoa and Coelenterata, Ctenophora

(4) Coelenterata, Ctenophora and Annelida

153. The members of phylum Aschelminthes are called

round worms, having numerous distinguishiable

character, but which of the following can not be

considered as their character?

(1) These are pseudocoelomate animals

(2) They are bilaterally symmetrical

(3) Organ system level of body organisation

(4) Round worms are monoecious.

154. The meristematic tissue present near the nodes

is

(1) Apical meristem

(2) Primary meristem

(3) Lateral meristem

(4) Secondary meristem

150. :- (A-D)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

:-(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 1 (4) 2

151.

?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

152. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

153.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

154.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Time Management is Life Management



MAJOR TEST

155. A few statements are made about thecharacteristics of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.Mark the correct statement :-

(1) All porokaryotes lack nuclear envelope but

nuclear envelope is present in mitochondria

of eukaryotes.

(2) All eukaryotes have a cell wall surrounding

the cell membrane but cell wall is absent in

mycoplasma.

(3) All eukaryotic cells are identical but all

prokaryotic cells are not identical.

(4) Most of eukaryotic chromosomes are

associated with histone protein but the

genome of chloroplast lack histones

156. Arachidonic acid is :-

(1) Non–essential fatty acid (NEFA)

(2) Polyunsaturated fatty acid (PUFA)

(3) Essential fatty acid

(4) (2) & (3) both

157. Which of the following is/are pre-requisite (s) for

imbibition ?

(a) Presence of mucilage in the adsorbent

(b) Affinity between the adsorbent and the liquid

(c) Water potential gradient between the

adsorbent and the liquid

(d) Presence of cuticle on the surface of the

adsorbent

Choose the correct option :

(1) (b) and (c) (2) only (b)

(3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (d)

158. Which of the following ratio is correct regarding

dehydrogenation : decarboxylation : substrate

level phosphorylation in TCA cycle ?

(1) 1 : 1 : 2 (2) 3 : 2 : 1

(3) 4 : 3 : 1 (4) 4 : 2 : 1

159. The course of blood from heart to the lungs and

back to the heart is called :-

(1) Systemic circulation

(2) Pulmonary Circulation

(3) Blood circulation

(4) Single circuit circulation

160. Which of the following pair is not matched

correctly :-

(1) Sex pheromone – civetone

(2) Aggregation pheromone – muskone

(3) Alarm pheromone – formic acid

(4) First aid hormone – kinins

155. :-(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

156. :-

(1) (NEFA)

(2) (PUFA)

(3) (4) (2) (3)

157. ?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

:

(1) (b) (c) (2) (b)

(3) (a), (b) (c) (4) (a) (d)

158. : :

?

(1) 1 : 1 : 2 (2) 3 : 2 : 1

(3) 4 : 3 : 1 (4) 4 : 2 : 1

159. :-(1) (2) (3) (4)

160. :-

(1) –

(2) –

(3) –

(4) –



MAJOR TEST

161. Read the following statement

(A) Inclusion bodies which are found in

prokaryotic cells are not bounded by any

membrane system.

(B) Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis.

(C) Pili are surface structure of the bacteria

which may be play role in motility.

(D) Cell membrane of prokaryotes is

structurally similar to the eukaryotes.

Choose the option of correct statements :-

(1) A, B, C and D (2) B, C and D

(3) A, B and D (4) A, C and D

162. Consider the following statements:

Aurelia typically has

A. A radially symmetrical body

B. A gastovascular body

C. Both a polyp and medusoid form.

(1) A, B and C are correct

(2) B and C are correct

(3) A and B are correct

(4) A and C are correct

163. Which of the following statements is wrong ?

(1) Intercellular material of cartilage is solid

(2) The bone cells are present in the lacunae

(3) Communication junctions are present in

cardiac muscles

(4) Bone has pliable ground substance

164. Pulvinate leaf base & root nodules are found in:-

(1) Solanaceae

(2) Liliaceae

(3) Fabaceae

(4) Brassicaceae

165. In a given diagram of cell membrane, which letterrepresents a molecule of integral protein,cholesterol, and sugar respectively :-

R QP

SP

(1)P,Q,R (2) R,P,S

(3)Q,R,P (4) S,P,R

161. (A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) A, B, C D (2) B, C D(3) A, B D (4) A, C D

162.

A.

B.

C.

(1) A, B C

(2) B C

(3) A B(4) A C

163.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 164. :-

(1) (2) (3) (4)

165. :-

R QP

SP

(1)P,Q,R (2) R,P,S

(3)Q,R,P (4) S,P,R



MAJOR TEST

166. How many types of pyrimidine N2 bases may

present in a nucleic acid :-

(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 1

167. Which of the following is wrong statement ?

(1) Potassium is involved in the maintenance of

the turgidity of cells

(2) Nitrogen accumulates in older leaves and is

one of the major constituents of proteins and

nucleic acids

(3) Chlorine is essential for the water splitting

reaction in photosynthesis

(4) Copper is involved in redox reactions and is

reversibly oxidised from Cu+ to Cu+2

168. Which of the following plant growth regulators, is

derivative of accessory photosynthetic pigments ?

(1) Abscisic acid

(2) Gibbesellic acid

(3) Indole-3-acetic acid

(4) Ethylene

169. The main difference in the structure of arteries and

veins is :-

(1) Tunica interna - made up of simple squamous

epithelium

(2) Tunica media is less developed in veins

(3) Tunica externa is less developed in veins

(4) Tunica externa is well develope in arteries

170. In which of the following defect of eye, a watery

liquid oozes out from eyes in excess amount so

eyes become red due to irritation –

(1) Astigmatism (2) Cataract

(3) Trachoma (4) Night blindness

171. Which statement is correct about Pteridophyte ?

(1) Gametophyte is autotrophic, while sporophyte

is parasite.

(2) Sporophyte is semiparasite and gametophyte is

autotrophic

(3) Both gametophyte and sporophyte are usually

autotrophic.

(4) Only sporophyte is autotrophic, while

gametophyte is parasitic.

166. N2

(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 1

167. ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Cu+ Cu+2

168. ?

(1)

(2)

(3) -3-

(4)

169. :-

(1) -

(2) -

(3) -

(4) -

170.

–

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

171.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)



MAJOR TEST

172. In the evolutionary history of the animal kingdom,

which of the following features have evolved for

the first time in phylum Aschelminthes ?

A. Metameric segmentation

B. organ level of organisation

C. Closed circulatory system

D. Tube within a tube plan

E. Bilateral symmetry

Select the correct answer -

(1) B and D

(2) A, B, C

(3) Only E

(4) Only D

173. Which one of the statements is incorrect ?

(1) Factors for blood clotting present in blood

plasma found in an inactive form

(2) Plasma without clotting factor is called serum

(3) Basophils are involved in inflammatory

reactions

(4) Neutrophil are the most and eosinophils are

the least among leucocytes

174. Swollen placenta & oblique septum is found in

family :-

(1) Asteraceae (2) Liliaceae

(3) Fabaceae (4) Solanaceae

175. Which of the following is not correctly matched :-

(A) Formation of cell – Golgi body

plate

(B) Catalase enzyme – SER

(C) Connect cytoplasm – Plasmodesmata

of adjacent animal

cells

(D) Cytochrome p450– SER

(E) Anthocyanine – Chromoplast

pigment

(F) Protein factory of – Nucleolus

cell

(1) B, D, E, F (2) C, D, E, A

(3) E, C, B, A (4) F, E, C, B

176. Position of nitrogen in purine N2 bases are :-

(1) 1, 3, 5, 7 (2) 1, 5, 7, 9

(3) 1, 3, 6, 7 (4) 1, 3, 7, 9

172.

A.

B.

C.

D.

E.

(1) B D

(2) A, B, C

(3) E

(4) D173.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

174. :-

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

175. :-(A) –

(B) – SER

(C) –

(D) p450 – SER

(E) –

(F) –

(1) B, D, E, F (2) C, D, E, A

(3)E, C, B, A (4) F, E, C, B

176. N2

(1) 1, 3, 5, 7 (2) 1, 5, 7, 9

(3) 1, 3, 6, 7 (4) 1, 3, 7, 9



MAJOR TEST

177. Which of the following symptoms is/are caused

by the deficiency of potassium ?

(1) Chlorosis (loss of chlorophyll)

(2) Necrosis (death of tissue)

(3) Inhibition of cell division


178. Which of the following events in plants is/are

affected by interaction of more than one PGR ?

(1) Apical dominance

(2) Abscission and senescence

(3) Dormancy in seeds/buds


179. Our heart consists of :-

i. Epithelial tissue ii. Connective tissue

iii. Muscular tissue iv. Neural tissue

(1) Only iii (2) i & ii only

(3) ii, iii & iv only (4) All of these

180. Which of the following is not the function of

parasympathetic nervous system :-

(1) Constricts pupils

(2) Inhibits secretion of lachrymal glands

(3) Stimulates contraction of arrector pilli muscles

(4) Erection of penis

177. ?

(1) ()

(2) ()(3) (4)

178. ?(1) (2) (3) (4)

179. :-i. ii. iii. iv. (1) iii (2) i ii(3) ii, iii iv (4)

180. :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Your moral duty

is to prove that is



MAJOR TEST

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /

aipmt paper 2

Documents