answer booklet series ndicds21902 test no. a indian polity
TRANSCRIPT
© NATIONAL DEFENCE INSTITUTTE |CDS-II 2019 TEST SERIES | TEST-02 | INDIAN POLITY-1
CDS-II 2019 INDIAN POLITY Test-02 Answer Key with Explanation Booklet
Answer Booklet Series
INDIAN POLITY-I
ANSWER BOOKLET ENGLISH Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 100
CDS-II 2019 TEST SERIES
INDIAN POLITY-I
ANSWER KEY WITH EXPLANATION
CDS-II 2019 INDIAN POLITY Test-02 Answer Key with Explanation Booklet
Test No.
NDICDS21902 A
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POLITY-1 ANSWER KEY
1 C 21 B 41 A 61 B 81 D
2 D 22 B 42 D 62 C 82 C
3 B 23 C 43 C 63 B 83 D
4 C 24 B 44 D 64 D 84 D
5 A 25 C 45 A 65 A 85 C
6 C 26 B 46 A 66 C 86 A
7 A 27 C 47 A 67 C 87 D
8 D 28 D 48 C 68 A 88 A
9 C 29 B 49 D 69 A 89 B
10 B 30 A 50 A 70 C 90 A
11 C 31 D 51 A 71 A 91 B
12 D 32 A 52 D 72 B 92 D
13 B 33 D 53 D 73 A 93 C
14 A 34 B 54 A 74 C 94 B
15 B 35 D 55 A 75 B 95 D
16 D 36 A 56 C 76 B 96 B
17 A 37 D 57 B 77 D 97 D
18 C 38 C 58 D 78 A 98 D
19 C 39 C 59 D 79 B 99 A
20 D 40 C 60 C 80 C 100 C
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POLITY-1 ANSWER EXPLANATIONS
1. Answer: C
Explanation:
Natural Justice is nowhere used in Indian
Constitution although the Constitution has passed
the golden thread of natural justice. The base of
principle of natural justice is to ensure fairness in
social and economical activities of the people and
also shield individual liberty against arbitrary
action. Natural Justice is firmly grounded to Article
14 and 21 of Indian Constitution. Since violation of
natural justice leads to arbitrariness, so violation of
justice is violation of equality.
The principle of natural justice encompasses the
following rules:
1. No one shall be a judge of his/her own cause.
2. No man shall be punished without being heard.
3. An authority shall act bona fide without any bias.
2. Answer: D
Explanation:
Pro-tem is a Latin phrase which translates to ‘for
the time being’ in English and so the Pro-tem
Speaker is a temporary speaker appointed for a
limited period of time to conduct the works in Lok
Sabha or in state legislatures. Pro-tem speaker is
chosen for the conduct of the house when the Lok
Sabha and Legislative Assemblies have been
elected and the vote for the speaker and deputy
speaker has not taken place.
A Pro-tem speaker is chosen with the agreement of
the members of the Lok Sabha and legislative
assembly. Usually, the senior-most member of the
house is selected for the post who then carries on
the activities till the permanent speaker is chosen.
Hence, option D. is the correct answer.
3. Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement (1) is incorrect: The National Anthem
of India Jana-gana-mana, composed originally in
Bengali by Rabindranath Tagore, was adopted in
its Hindi version by the Constituent Assembly as
the National Anthem of India on 24 January 1950.
It was first sung on 27 December 1911 at the
Kolkata Session of the Indian National Congress.
The design of the National Flag was adopted by the
Constituent Assembly of India on 22 July 1947.
Statement (2) is correct: On January 24, 1950, the
President, Dr.Rajendra Prasad came up with a
statement in the Constituent Assembly, “the song
Vande Mataram, which has played a historic part in
the struggle for Indian freedom, shall be honoured
equally with Jana Gana Mana and shall have equal
status with it”. The first political occasion when it
was sung was the 1896 session of the Indian
National Congress. The song was a part of
Bankimchandra’s most famous novel Anand Math
(1882).
4. Answer: C
Explanation:
A requirement to summon a joint session can never
arise in the case of Money Bill. Article 368 of the
Indian Constitution requires that Constitution of
India can be amended by both Houses of
Parliament by 2/3rd majority. In case of
disagreement between both houses, there is no
provision to summon the joint session of
Parliament.
Joint sitting is an extraordinary machinery
provided by the Constitution to resolve a deadlock
between the two Houses over the passage of a bill.
A deadlock is deemed to have taken place under
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any one of the following three situations after a bill
has been passed by one House and transmitted to
the other House:
1. If the bill is rejected by the other House;
2. If the Houses have finally disagreed as to the
amendments to be made in the bill; or
3. If more than six months have elapsed from the
date of the receipt of the bill by the other House
without the bill being passed by it.
In the above three situations, the president can
summon both the Houses to meet in a joint sitting
for the purpose of deliberating and voting on the
bill. It must be noted here that the provision of joint
sitting is applicable to ordinary bills or financial
bills only and not to money bills or Constitutional
amendment bills. In the case of a money bill, the
Lok Sabha has over riding powers, while a
Constitutional amendment bill must be passed by
each House separately.
5. Answer: A
Explanation: Money bill cannot be returned by the
President to the Parliament for its reconsideration,
as it is presented in the Lok Sabha with his
permission. The President may either give or
withhold assent to a Money Bill. Under the
Constitution, a Money Bill cannot be returned to
the House by the President for reconsideration.
There is no question of joint sitting in case of
money bills because opinion of the Rajya Sabha is
immaterial in their case.
6. Answer: C
Explanation:
Cases when a bill does not lapse:
(1) A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed
by the Lok Sabha does not lapse.
(2) If the President has notified the holding of a
joint sitting before the dissolution of Lok Sabha,
does not lapse.
(3) A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent
of the president does not lapse.
(4) A bill passed by both Houses but returned by
the president for reconsideration of Rajya Sabha
does not lapse.
(5) Some pending bills and all pending assurances
that are to be examined by the Committee on
Government Assurances do not lapse on the
dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
7. Answer: A
Explanation: Scientists of the Vikram Sarabhai
Space Centre (VSSC) celebrated the 50th
anniversary of the successful flight-test of ‘Mrinal.
Mrinal was the Indian space programme’s first
composite solid propellant for launch vehicles. The
propellant was launched from Thumba aboard an
RH-75 sounding rocket on February 21, 1969 by
members of the Propellant Engineering Division
(PED) of the Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre
(VSSC). It was named after Mrinalini 8.Sarabhai
(an Indian classical dancer and wife of the Indian
physicist Vikram Sarabhai). Hence, option A. is the
correct answer.
8. Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement (1) is correct: Andhra Pradesh High
Court is to be the 25th High Court (HC) in the
country. The principal seat of the Andhra Pradesh
High Court is Amaravati, the capital of the State.
According to The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation
Act, 2014, both States were to have a common high
court, till separate ones were formed.
Statement (2) is correct: The institution of high
court originated in India in 1862 when the high
courts were set up at Calcutta, Bombay and
Madras. In 1866, a fourth high court was
established at Allahabad.
Additional Information:
The Constitution of India (Article 214) provides for
a high court for each state, but the Seventh
Amendment Act of 1956 authorised the Parliament
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to establish a common high court for two or more
states or for two or more states and a union
territory. The territorial jurisdiction of a high court
is co-terminus with the territory of a state.
Similarly, the territorial jurisdiction of a common
high court is co-terminus with the territories of the
concerned states and union territory. Delhi is the
only union territory that has a high court of its own
(since 1966)
9. Answer: C
Explanation:
As a convention, a vote-on-account is treated as a
formal matter and passed by Lok Sabha without
discussion. But passing for budget happens only
after discussions and voting on demand for grants.
The constitution says that no money can be
withdrawn by the government from the
Consolidated Fund of India except under
appropriation made by law. For that an
appropriation bill is passed during the Budget
process. However, the appropriation bill may take
time to pass through the Parliament and become a
law. Meanwhile, the government would need
permission to spend even a single penny from April
1 when the new financial year starts. Vote on
account is the permission to withdraw money from
the Consolidated Fund of India in that period,
usually two months. Vote on account is a formality
and requires no debate. Hence, option © is the
correct answer.
10. Answer: B
Explanation:
Any law passed by the Parliament or by legislatures
of India can be declared ultra-vires and null and
void by courts in India. Judicial review is a strong
tool to keep a check on public bodies and rendering
their accountability if their decisions or policies go
outside the powers that have been specified in the
Constitution. It maintains effective checks and
balances by controlling unriddled, arbitrary or
unjust acts taken on behalf of the Executive and the
Legislature. In India, we have the supremacy of the
Constitution where the powers of the Parliament
are circumscribed within the four walls set by the
Constitution.
11. Answer: C
Explanation: Six languages i.e. Tamil, Sanskrit,
Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam and Odia have been
given status of classical languages. The Criteria
adopted by the Government to determine the
eligibility of a language for granting classical
language status, are as under:
(i) High antiquity of its early texts/ recorded history
over a period of 1500-2000 years;
(ii) A body of ancient literature/ texts, which is
considered a valuable heritage by generations of
speakers;
(iii) The literary tradition be original and not
borrowed from another speech community;
(iv) The classical language and literature being
distinct from modern, there may also be a
discontinuity between the classical language and its
later forms or its offshoots.
Proposal for grant of classical status to Marathi
language is under active consideration of the
Government. Himachal Pradesh Assembly recently
passed the Himachal Pradesh Official Language
(Amendment) Bill 2019 to make Sanskrit as the
second official language of the state. The first
official language of Himachal is Hindi. Hence,
option C is the correct answer.
12. Answer: D
Explanation:
Quasi-judicial bodies are institutions which have
powers analogous to that of the law imposing
bodies but these are not courts. They primarily
oversee the administrative zones. The courts have
the power to supervise over all types of disputes but
the quasi-judicial bodies are the ones with the
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powers of imposing laws on administrative
agencies. All the above are quasi-judicial bodies.
13. Answer: B
Explanation: The President is elected by an
Electoral College, which consists of the elected
members of both Houses of Parliament and the
elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of
all the States and also of NCT of Delhi and the
Union Territory of Puducherry. [Article 54 of the
Constitution of India]. As Chairman of Rajya
Sabha, the Vice-President of India is not the
member of either of the houses, so he cannot
participate in the election of President of India. The
Speaker is an elected member of the Lok Sabha.
Hence he has the right to vote in the Presidential
election. Lieutenant Governor of Delhi does not
participate in election of President.
14. Answer: A
Explanation: Tharu tribes are found in West Tarai
region of Himalaya (Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh
and Bihar). Buksaare found in Uttarakhand and
Uttar Pradesh. Kharwar is a community and caste
found in the Indian states of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar,
Jharkhand, West Bengal, Orissa, Gujarat,
Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Delhi and Chhattisgarh.
Hence, option A. is the correct answer.
15. Answer: B
Explanation: The SCO is a permanent
intergovernmental international organization. It is
a Eurasian political, economic, and security
alliance and has been the primary security pillar of
the region. India became a full member of the SCO
in 2017. It was established in 2001. It was preceded
by the Shanghai Five mechanism. The Heads of
State Council (HSC) is the supreme decision-
making body in the SCO. It meets once a year and
adopts decisions and guidelines on all important
matters of the organization. The organization has
two permanent bodies: the SCO Secretariat based
in Beijing. The Executive Committee of the
Regional Anti-Terrorist Structure (RATS) based in
Tashkent.
Membership: Eight member states: India,
Kazakhstan, China, Kyrgyzstan, Pakistan, Russia,
Tajikistan, and Uzbekistan. Four observer states:
Afghanistan, Belarus, Iran and Mongolia. Hence
option B. is the correct answer.
16. Answer: D
Explanation:
Indian Councils Act 1891 introduced an element
of election for the first time. Some of the additional
members of Imperial Legislative council and
Provincial Legislative Councils could be indirectly
elected.
Indian Councils Act 1909 enlarged the size of the
Provincial Councils by including elected non-
official members so that the official majority was
gone. An element of election was introduced in the
Legislative Council at the Centre but the official
majority was maintained.
Government of India Act 1919 – It made Indian
legislature more representative and bi-cameral for
the first time. It was to have an Upper House –
Council of States – composed of 60 members (of
whom 34 were elected) and a Lower House –
Legislative Assembly – composed of 144 members
(of whom 104 were elected).
Government of India Act 1935 – It introduced
diarchy at the centre. Governor General’s functions
were divided into two groups –
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(1)Administration of defence, external affairs,
ecclesiastical affairs and of tribal affairs was to be
done by governor general in his discretion with the
help of ‘counsellors’, appointed by him, who were
not responsible to the legislature.
(2)Regarding matters other than the above reserved
subjects, the governor general was to act on the
advice of ‘council of ministers’ who were
responsible to the legislature.
17. Answer: A
Explanation: Pinaka is a Multi-Barrel Rocket
System to supplement the existing artillery gun at
ranges beyond 30 kilometres to make precision
hits. The guided weapon system is equipped with
state-of-the-art guidance kit comprising of an
advanced navigation and control system. It is
produced in India and developed by the Defence
Research and Development Organisation for the
Indian Army. Hence, option A. is the correct
answer.
SPICE, which stands for Smart, Precise Impact and
Cost-Effective, is a guidance and manoeuvring kit
manufactured by Israel’s Rafael. The SPICE turns
a conventional ‘gravity’ bomb into a sophisticated
long-range munition.
18. Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement (1) is correct: UDAN is an acronym for
“UdeDeshKaAamNagrik”. It is a Regional Air
Connectivity Scheme (RCS) which attempts to
connect smaller towns with bigger cities to develop
the regional aviation market. The scheme provides
VGF for operators who cap fares on regional flights
at ₹2,500 for one hour of flying. Under UDAN-III,
13 airports to get air connectivity for first time.
These include Kalaburagi, Amravati, Car Nicobar
and Kalaikunda. The Airports Authority of India is
the implementing authority.
Statement (2) is correct: Key Features of UDAN
3 included –Inclusion of Seaplanes for connecting
Water Aerodromes, Inclusion of Tourism Routes
suggested by the Ministry of Tourism and Bringing
in a number of routes in the North-East Region
under the ambit of UDAN.
19. Answer: C
Explanation:
The ideals of Liberty, Equality and fraternity and
the ideal of Republic have been brought from
French Constitution.
The term ‘liberty’ means the absence of restraints
on the activities of individuals, and at the same
time, providing opportunities for the development
of individual personalities.
The term ‘equality’ means the absence of special
privileges to any section of the society, and the
provision of adequate opportunities for all
individuals without any discrimination.
The Preamble declares that fraternity has to assure
two things—the dignity of the individual and the
unity and integrity of the nation.
The ideal of justice—social, economic and
political—has been taken from the Russian
Revolution (1917). The term ‘justice’ in the
Preamble embraces three distinct forms—social,
economic and political, secured through various
provisions of Fundamental Rights and Directive
Principles. Hence, option C is the correct answer.
20. Answer: D
Explanation: There should be an Election
commission for the “superintendence, direction
and control of elections” according to Article 324
of the Constitution. The Election Commission
should consist of the Chief Election Commissioner
and any such number of other Election
Commissioners, as the President may from time to
time fix.
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Statement 1 is incorrect: From 1950 until 1989, the
ECI was a single-member body, with only a Chief
Election Commissioner (CEC). Since 1991, it has
continuously been a three member body.
Statement 2 is incorrect: As per the Transaction of
Business provisions of the EC Act, if there is any
difference in the opinion, the decision shall be
taken based on the majority view.
Statement 3 is incorrect: From 1991 to 1993, the
retiring age for CEC was fixed at 65 years and for
other ECs at 62 years but according to the
amendment in the Election Commission
(Conditions of Service) Act, 1991, the retiring age
for all the members of ECI has been fixed at 65
years since 1993.
21. Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect:
Only three subjects are prohibited from
government access – and ‘services’ is not one of
them. Entry 41 of the State List contains the subject
of ‘services’. The Constitution provides for the
clear responsibility of this to the Delhi government.
Under the Government of National Capital
Territory of Delhi (GNCT) Act, 1991; Section 41,
only those matters outside the purview of the
government can be taken up by the Lieutenant
Governor (LG) and services is not one of them.
Statement 2 is correct:
Article 239:
(1) Delhi, although a Union Territory, is not
administered by the President acting through the
Lieutenant Governor (LG) under Article 239.
(2) It is administered under Article 239 AA which
was incorporated in the Constitution of India in
1992. It created a “special” constitutional set up for
Delhi.
(3) It has provisions for popularly elected
Legislative Assembly, a Council of Ministers
responsible to the Legislative Assembly and a
certain demarcation of responsibilities between the
LG and the Council of Ministers.
(4) As per Article 239 AA (3) A., the Delhi
Legislative Assembly can legislate on all those
matters listed in the State List and Concurrent List
as are applicable to the Union Territories.
(5) The public order, police and land are reserved
for the Lieutenant Governor (LG).
22. Answer: B
Explanation:
The government is a major litigant and it is a party
to about 46% of the 13.4 crore cases pending in
various courts in the country, ranging from service
matters to indirect taxes.
Statement 1 is incorrect. Legal Information
Management & Briefing System (LIMBS) is one of
the progressive steps taken by the Ministry of Law
and Justice in the direction of digital India. It is
based on the objective of achieving ‘minimum
government and maximum governance.
Statement 2 is correct: LIMBS helps in reducing
government litigations; reduces the financial
burden, saves time and brings efficiency and
introduces not only transparency but also a sense of
ownership among various stakeholders during the
life cycle of a court case.
Value Addition:
Advantages of LIMBS:
i. Organizing otherwise scattered Information
at one single database and also create a
professional base available for expert
advice
ii. A low cost web technology access to all the
stakeholders involved in a court case in a
coordinated way whereby it provides inputs
which are available seamlessly on 24×7
basis as per the defined access rules.
iii. In this way it is possible to know the various
stages of a case and monitor its progress on
a continued basis through an elaborate set
of user-friendly reports.
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iv. It will help authorities to take ‘data driven
decision making’ and to evaluate the
performance of various stake holders and to
conduct a legal audit.
23. Answer: C
Explanation:
Aadhaar:
The recent Supreme Court verdict:
i. The Supreme Court has struck down
Section 57 of the Aadhaar Act, hence
private companies can no longer ask for a
consumer's Aadhaar details. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
ii. Sharing of data with the specially
authorized officers in interest of national
security is not validated by the verdict. The
apex court asked the Central government to
introduce a strong data protection law as
soon as possible to deal with the matter of
data sharing. Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect.
iii. The linkage of Aadhaar and Permanent
Account Number (PAN) remains
mandatory. PAN is a 10-digit alphanumeric
number issued to Assessee by the Income
Tax Department and is mandatory for filing
income tax returns. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
Additional Information:
i. The need to link Customers bank account
with the Aadhaar number has been done
away with.
ii. Users no longer need to produce their
Aadhaar number for procuring the SIM
cards
iii. The 12-digit unique identification number
need not be produced at the time of school
admissions or enrolment in exams of
NEET, CBSE and UGC The apex court also
asserted that the Aadhaar card will not be
provided to illegal migrants.
24. Answer: B
Explanation:
i. The International Criminal Court (ICC) is
the world’s first intergovernmental legal
body with permanent international
jurisdiction to prosecute individuals for
genocide, crimes against humanity and war
crimes.
ii. It is based in the Hague, Netherlands. India
is not a member of the ICC. US signed the
treaty (Rome Statute) in 2000 but never
ratified it, citing concerns over sovereignty,
similarly is the case with Russia. Israel
signed it for a short period but also never
ratified it into law. China has not signed it.
iii. The ICC has jurisdiction to prosecute
individuals and is independent of United
Nations (UN). But it may receive case
referrals from the UN Security Council and
can initiate prosecutions without UN action
or referral.
iv. Malaysia has ratified the Rome Statute
making it the 124th State party to the
International Criminal Court (ICC).
Philippines announced to withdraw from
International Criminal Court (ICC) citing reason of
international bias.
25. Answer: C
Explanation:
i. The UPSC consists of a Chairman and other
members appointed by the President of
India.
ii. The Constitution, without specifying the
strength of the Commission has left the
matter to the discretion of the President,
who determines its composition.
iii. Usually, the Commission consists of nine to
eleven members including the Chairman.
iv. Further, no qualifications are prescribed for
the Commission’s membership except that
one-half of the members of the Commission
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should be such persons who have held
office for at least ten years either under the
Government of India or under the
government of a State.
v. The Constitution also authorises the
President to determine the conditions of
service of the Chairman and other members
of the Commission.
vi. The entire expenses of the UPSC are
charged on the Consolidated Fund of India.
Hence, the correct answer is option C.
26. Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The North Eastern
Council (NEC) is not a constitutional body, but a
statutory organization established under the North
Eastern Council Act, 1971, as amended in 2002.
Statement 2 is correct: Initially, the NEC was an
Advisory Body for the North Eastern Region
(NER). Now, the NEC is mandated to function as a
Regional Planning Body for the North Eastern
Region. The Council comprises Governors and
Chief Ministers of constituent States and three
members nominated by the President.
Statement 3 is incorrect: It operates under the
Ministry of Development of North-Eastern Region
(DoNER).
27. Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Always being connected
has been taking a toll on workers the world over,
studies show. Various studies found that even if
workers aren’t actively checking work emails after
hours, they can still be harmed by the expectation
that they should be available. It has been found that
that this kind of “always on” work culture creates
anxiety amongst workers.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Article 7 of the
Right to Disconnect Bill says that: Every employee
shall have the right to disconnect out of work hours.
However the 'right to disconnect' means that while
the employer may contact the worker after work
hours, the employee is not obliged to reply or shall
have right to refuse to answer such calls; and B. In
case an employee refuses to reply any call during
out-of-work hours, such employee shall not be
subject to any disciplinary action by the employer
Statement 3 is correct: In Bandhua Mukti Morcha
v. Union of India characterizing Article 21 of the
Indian Constitution as the heart of fundamental
rights, the Court gave it an expanded interpretation.
Bhagwati J. observed: “It is the fundamental right
of everyone in this country… to live with human
dignity free from exploitation. This right to live
with human dignity enshrined in Article 21 derives
its life breath from the Directive Principles of State
Policy and particularly clauses (e) and (f) of Article
39 and Articles 41 and 42 of the Constitution of
India.
28. Answer: D
Explanation:
All the pairs given above are matched correctly.
Port Trust: These are established in the port areas
for two purposes: A. to manage and protect ports;
and B. to provide civic amenities. A port trust is
created by an Act of Parliament. It consists of both
elected and nominated members.
Town Area Committee: A town area committee is
set up for the administration of a small town. It is a
semi-municipal authority and is entrusted with a
limited number of civic functions like drainage,
roads, etc. It is created by a separate act of the State
Legislature.
Special Purpose Agency: The state have set up
certain agencies to undertake designated activities
or specific functions that legitimately belong to the
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domain of municipal corporations or municipalities
or other local urban governments. These are
function based and not area based.
29. Answer: B
Explanation:
Various Law Commissions have been able to make
important contribution towards the progressive
development and codification of laws of the
country. Law Commissions have so far submitted
262 reports.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Law Commission of
India is a non-statutory body constituted by the
Government of India from time to time. The Law
Commission was originally constituted in 1955 and
is re-constituted very three years.
Statement 2 is correct: Cabinet gave approval to
constitute the 21st Law Commission of India for a
period of 3 years (2015-2018). The tenure of the
20th Law Commission was upto 31st August, 2015.
Statement 3 is correct: The Law Commission of
India is an advisory body whose recommendations
are not binding on the government.
Composition
i. A full-time Chairperson;
ii. four full-time Members (including a
Member-Secretary);
iii. Secretary, Department of Legal Affairs as
ex officio Member;
iv. Secretary, Legislative Department as ex
officio Member; and
v. Not more than five part-time Members.
Functions
i. Undertake research in law and review of
existing laws in India for making reforms
therein and enacting new legislations.
ii. Undertake studies and research for bringing
reforms in the justice delivery systems for
elimination of delay in procedures, speedy
disposal of cases, reduction in cost of
litigation etc.
iii. Identify laws which are no longer relevant
and recommend for the repeal of obsolete
and unnecessary enactments.
iv. Suggest enactment of new legislations as
may be necessary to implement the
Directive Principles and to attain the
objectives set out in the Preamble of the
Constitution.
Prepare and submit to the Central Government,
from time to time, reports on all issues, matters,
studies and research undertaken by it and
recommend in such reports for effective measures
to be taken by the Union or any State.
30. Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Sikkim Government has
launched 'One Family, One Job' scheme that
envisions employment to a member of every family
which does not have a government job in the State.
Under the scheme the temporary/ad hoc
appointments being given now would be
regularised over the next five years, and all of them
would become permanent government employees.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Article 16 of the
Indian Constitution states that “There shall be
equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters
relating to employment or appointment to any
office under the State”. However clause 4 of the
same Article also empowers the state to make
provisions for the reservation of appointments or
posts in favour of any backward class of citizens
which, in the opinion of the State, is not adequately
represented in the services under the State. At the
same time the Supreme Court has also observed
that in its ordinary connotation the expression
'class' means a homogenous section of the people
grouped together because of certain likenesses or
common traits, and who are identifiable by some
common attributes such as status, rank, occupation,
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residence in a locality, race religion and the like".
Thus, the scheme is not a violation of Article 16.
31. Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: According to the
Constitution of India, Article 356 deals with the
failure of Constitutional machinery, the
government of the State will not be functional and
the State will come under the direct control of the
Central/Union government through the Governor.
Statement 2 is correct: During the State
Emergency also, the President takes over the work
of the State through the Governor. Until the point
of time when the President's rule is in effect, the
Parliament makes laws on the 66 subjects made on
the State list. The money bills of the State are also
approved by the Parliament during this time.
Statement 3 is correct. When the President's rule
is imposed, the assembly either is dissolved or is
suspended for the time by the President. The State
government comes under the direct control of the
Centre with the executive authority being shifted to
the Governor (As an agent of the Centre) from the
Chief Minister and the Council of Ministers.
32. Answer: A
Explanation:
World's longest salt cave' has been recently
discovered in Israel. Malham Cave in the Negev
Desert is the longest salt cave in the world,
measuring more than 10 kilometres in total length.
The 10 km of passages and chambers inside
Malham Cave, overlooking the Dead Sea, were
mapped out over two years.
33. Answer: D
Explanation:
Justice Pinaki Chandra Ghose is the first anti-
corruption ombudsman of the country. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
The Lokpal act provides for a Chairperson and a
maximum of eight members in the Lokpal panel
and of these, four need to be judicial members.
Hence, statement 2 is correct.
The Chairperson and members will hold office for
a term of five years or till they attain 70 years of
age. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
The jurisdiction of Lokpal extends to the Prime
Minister, Ministers, current and former Members
of Parliament and Members of the Legislative
Assemblies, government employees and
employees of companies funded or controlled by
the Central or State government. Hence, statement
4 is correct.
34. Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The guarantee of equal
justice is meaningless if the poor or illiterate or
weak persons cannot enforce their rights because of
their poverty or illiteracy or weakness. It is
provided in both: the Preamble and the Directive
Principles of the State Policy.
Preamble: WE, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having
solemnly resolved to constitute India into a
SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR
DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its
citizens: JUSTICE, social, economic and political
etc.
Directive Principles of the State Policy
i) Articles 38 and 39 of the Constitution of India
lay down clear mandate in this regard. According
to Article 38 (1) the State shall strive to promote
the welfare of the people by securing and protecting
as effectively as it may a social order in which
justice, social, economic or political, shall inform
all the institutions of the national life.
ii) Article 39-A directs the State to ensure that the
operation of the legal system promotes justice on a
basis of equal opportunity and shall, in particular,
provide free legal aid by suitable legislation or
schemes or in any other way, to ensure that
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opportunities for securing justice are not denied to
any citizen by reason of economic or other
disabilities.
Statement 2 is correct: Key functions of the
NDIAC will include:
(i) Facilitating conduct of arbitration and
conciliation in a professional, timely and cost-
effective manner; and
(ii) promoting studies in the field of alternative
dispute resolution. These are supposed to have a
bearing on Right to Justice.
35. Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: Prohibition of traffic in
human beings and forced labour (1) Traffic in
human beings and begar and other similar forms of
forced labour are prohibited and any contravention
of this provision shall be an offence punishable in
accordance with law (2) Nothing in this article shall
prevent the State from imposing compulsory
service for public purpose, and in imposing such
service the State shall not make any discrimination
on grounds only of religion, race, caste or class or
any of them
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Central
Government is already implementing Unorganized
Workers’ Social Security Act, 2008, to provide
social security relating to life and disability cover,
health and maternity benefits, old age protection to
the unorganized workers including domestic
workers.
36. Answer: A
Explanation:
• DRDO-developed A-SAT system successfully
destroyed a live satellite in the Low Earth Orbit.
Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
• India is only the fourth country after the U.S.,
Russia and China to have the A-SAT technology.
Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
• Mission Shakti does not violate the 1967 Outer
Space Treaty of which India is a signatory. The
treaty prohibits only weapons of mass destruction
in outer space, not ordinary weapons. Hence,
Statement 3 is incorrect.
• The ASAT test was not directed against any
country. India’s space capabilities neither threaten
any country nor are they directed against anyone.
But as an added advantage the capability achieved
through the anti-satellite missile test provides
credible deterrence against threats to our growing
space-based assets from long-range missiles and
proliferation in the types and numbers of missiles.
Hence, Statement 4 is incorrect.
37. Answer: D
Explanation:
(1) Closure motion: Closure is one of the means
by which debate may be brought to an end by a
majority decision of the House, even though all
Members wishing to speak have not done so. At
any time after a motion has been made, any
member may move "That the question is now put".
Such a motion is generally made at the conclusion
of a speech but also at times whilst a member is
addressing the House.
(2) Privilege motion: A privilege motion is moved
against a breach of parliamentary privileges.
Parliamentary privileges are certain rights and
immunities enjoyed by MPs, MLAs, and MLCs,
individually and collectively, so that they can
effectively discharge their functions. When any of
these rights and immunities is disregarded, the
offense is called a breach of privilege and is
punishable under the law of Parliament or the state
legislature.
(3) Adjournment motion: At the end of the
question-hour in the Parliament, motion moved by
a member when it is desired to draw the attention
of the Executive for the purpose of discussing a
definite matter of urgent public importance.
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(4) Censure motion: A motion which seeks to
censure the government for its “lapse”. If the
motion is passed in the Popular House, the Cabinet
resigns. A censure means an expression of strong
disapproval or harsh criticism. It can be a stern
rebuke by a legislature, generally opposition
against the policies of Government or an individual
minister.
38. Answer: C
Explanation:
Article 248 of the Indian Constitution vests the
residuary powers in the Parliament. It says that
Parliament has exclusive power to make any law
with respect to any matter not enumerated in the
Concurrent List or the State List. Entry 97 in the
Union List also lay down that the Parliament has
exclusive power to make laws with respect to any
matter not mentioned in the State List or the
Concurrent List including any tax not mentioned in
either of these Lists.
Point (1) is correct: Decisions of the High Courts
were approved by the Supreme Court in Second
Gift Tax Officer, Mangalore v. D. H. Nazareth. The
Supreme Court had held that the Gift Tax Act was
enacted by the Parliament and no Entry in the
Union List and State List mentions such a tax.
Therefore, Parliament purported to use its powers
derived from Entry 97 of the Union List read with
Article 248 of the Constitution. There is no other
entry which covers the gift tax, the residuary
powers of Parliament were exercised to enact the
law.
Point (2) is correct: The Andhra Pradesh High
Court upheld the validity of Expenditure Tax Act,
1957 as expenditure tax which was not specifically
provided for in any of the entries in List II or List
III, was within the ambit or scope of entry 97 of
List I. So long as it was a tax on expenditure, the
mere fact that in furtherance of the legislative intent
and object, the expenditure on which the tax was
sought to be levied was not necessarily confined to
the expenditure actually incurred by the assesses
himself (in this case it had included the expenditure
of his wife) did not render it other than an
expenditure tax. On appeal, the Supreme Court
upheld the validity of the Expenditure Tax Act,
1957 on the ground that it did not fall within entry
62 List II, but under the residuary powers.
Point (3) is correct: In Jaora Sugar Mills v. the
State of M.P, the validity of the central legislation
was questioned. Gajendragadker C. J., delivering
the judgment of the Supreme Court held that
section 3 of the Central Act did not merely validate
the invalid State Acts, because it would not have
been competent for Parliament to confer
jurisdiction on State Legislatures in that way, but
had included all the States and Notifications in the
Central Act at all material times by virtue of section
3. Parliament had the power to levy the cess as had
been levied in the invalid State Acts, under Article
248 read with entry 97 of the List I.
Point (4) is incorrect: Entertainment tax is a type of
tax which is levied by the government on
entertainment aspects like movie tickets, large
scale commercial shows, and other private festival
celebrations. The authorities responsible for the
collection of entertainment tax from customers are
the State governments.
39. Answer: C
Explanation:
Contempt of the House may be defined generally
as "any act or omission which obstructs or impedes
either House of Parliament in the performance of
its functions, or which obstructs or impedes any
Member or officer of such House in the discharge
of his duty, or which has a tendency directly or
indirectly, to produce such results." It may be stated
that it is not possible to enumerate exhaustively
every act which might be construed by the House
as a contempt of the House.
Options A., B. and D. are correct:
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• Intimidation of Members in connection with their
Parliamentary conduct;
• Giving false or misleading evidence or
information deliberately to the House or a
Committee thereof, by a Member or a witness.
• Obstructing or molesting any witness during his
evidence before a Committee of the House.
Option C. is incorrect: To prohibit the publication
of its debates and proceedings comes under the
powers necessary for the protection of its privileges
and immunities to each House of Parliament
members.
Value Addition: Some of the other important types
of contempt of Parliament are:-
• Speeches or writings reflecting on the House, its
Committees or members;
• Reflections on the character and impartiality of
the Chairman/Speaker in the discharge of his duty;
• Publication of false or distorted report of the
Proceedings of the house;
• Publication oil expunged proceedings of the
House;
• Publication of proceedings of Secret Sessions of
the House;
• Pre-mature publication of proceedings, evidence
or report of a Parliamentary Committee;
• Reflections on the report of a Parliamentary
Committee;
• Molestation of Members on account of their
conduct in the House or obstructing Members
while in the performance of their duties as
Members or while on their way to or coming after,
attending the House or a Committee thereof;
• Offering bribes to Members to influence them in
their Parliamentary conduct;
• Any misconduct or undignified behaviour on the
part of a Member, such as corruption in the
execution of his office as Member, disorderly and
undignified conduct contrary to the usage or
inconsistent with accepted standards of
Parliamentary conduct;
• Obstructing or molesting officers of the House in
the discharge of their duties;
40. Answer: C
Explanation:
• The World Happiness Report is released by the
United Nations Sustainable Development
Solutions Network. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
• The Report ranks countries on six key variables
that support well-being: income, freedom, trust,
healthy life expectancy, social support and
generosity. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
• India has witnessed a sustained drop with a 140th
place this year compared with the 133rd place in
2018. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Finland topped the index of for the second year in
a row. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
41. Answer: A
Explanation:
When the bill is sent to the Governor after it is
passed by the State Legislature, he can
a) Give his assent
b) Withhold his assent
c) Return the bill (if it’s not a money bill) for
reconsideration of the state legislature
d) Reserve the bill for the consideration of the
President. In one case such reservation is
obligatory, that is, where the bill passed by the state
legislature endangers the position of the state high
court. In addition, the Governor can also reserve the
bill if it is of the following nature:
• Ultra-vires, that is, against the provisions of the
Constitution
• Opposed to the Directive Principles of State
Policy
• Against the larger interest of the country
• Of grave national importance
• Dealing with compulsory acquisition of property
under Article 31A of the Constitution
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42. Answer: D
Explanation:
The Electoral Bond Scheme was launched in an
attempt to “cleanse the system of political funding
in the country.” A donor may buy an electoral bond
at specified banks and branches using electronic
modes of payment and after having completed the
KYC (know your customer) requirements. The
political party will have to deposit the encashed
money in a bank account it has informed the
Election Commission about.
Statement 1 is incorrect: The bonds are available
at specified branches of the State Bank of India
(SBI) for 10 days each in the months designated by
the government from time to time.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The bonds may be
bought for any value, in multiples of ₹1,000,
₹10,000, ₹1 lakh, ₹10 lakh or ₹1 crore. The State
Bank of India issued a whopping ₹1,716 crore in
electoral bonds in just two months of 2019. The
RTI replies say electoral bonds worth ₹495.6 crore
were sold in Mumbai in 2019, which is the largest
share (28.9%) of the total amount sold
43. Answer: C
Explanation:
Public Account of India funds being managed by
the Government is a perpetual source of distortion
in our public finances. It is time to separate all
Public Account funds from the cash balances of the
Government and entrust their management to
professional trusts free from Government control.
Statement 1 is correct: According to Article 266,
all other public money received by or on behalf of
the Government of India or the Government of a
State shall be entitled to the Public Account of
India or the Public Account of the State.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Part XII of the Indian
Constitution deals with the government finance
which is organized under three funds. Under article
266(1), all revenues received by the Government of
India or any state, all loans raised by the issue of
treasury bills, loans or ways and means advances
and all money received by the Government in
repayment of loans shall form the Consolidated
Fund of India.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Public Account, which
does not involve revenues or debt of the
Governments but other public money that does not
belong to the Government as such. Thus there is no
legislative control over the use of funds from the
Public Account, and it is this lack of legislative
control that makes the article 266(2) somewhat
intriguing, and this is what also makes it vulnerable
to misuse and subject to many aberrations in our
financial system.
44. Answer: D
Explanation:
According to Article 240 of the Constitution, the
President of India has the power to make
regulations for certain UTs. UTs covered:
(1) the Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(2) Lakshadweep
(3) Dadra and Nagar Haveli
(4) Daman and Diu and
(5) Pondicherry.
The regulations could be for peace, progress and
good government of the UT. The regulation made
by the President may “repeal or amend any Act
made by Parliament or any other law which is for
the time being applicable to the UT.” When the
regulation is announced by the President, it has
the same effect as an Act of Parliament.
Recently, the Union Cabinet has approved the
Promulgation of:
i) The Daman and Diu Civil Courts (Amendment)
Regulation, 2019
ii) The Dadra and Nagar Haveli (Civil Courts and
Miscellaneous Provisions) Amendment
Regulation, 2019 under Article 240 of the
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Constitution. The president of India, in exercise of
his powers under clause (1) of article 239 of the
Constitution of India, appointed the administrator
of union territory of Chandigarh to exercise the
powers and discharge those functions of the central
government. Hence, option D. is the correct
answer.
45. Answer: A
Explanation:
The Union Cabinet has approved the proposal for
accession of India to the Nice, Vienna and
Locarno Agreements.
Statement (1) is incorrect: The Nice Agreement is
on the International classification of goods and
services for the purposes of registration of marks.
Statement (2) is correct: The Locarno Agreement
is for establishing an International classification
for industrial designs.
Statement (3) is incorrect: The Vienna Agreement
is for setting up an International classification of
the figurative elements of marks.
Accession to the Agreements will help the
Intellectual Property Office (IPO) in India to
harmonise the classification systems for
examinational of trademark and design
applications, in line with the classification systems
followed globally. It will also give an opportunity
to include Indian designs, figurative elements and
goods in the international classification systems
and instill confidence in foreign investors in
relation to protection of IPs in India. It will also
facilitate in exercising rights in decision making
processes regarding review and revision of the
classifications under the agreement.
46. Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement (1) is correct: Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya
Janaushadhi Pariyojana (PMBJP)’s objective is to
make available quality generic medicines at
affordable prices to all.
Statement (2) is incorrect: It is implemented by
Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI), under
the administrative control of the Department of
Pharmaceuticals, Ministry of Chemicals &
Fertilizers, Government of India.
Jan Aushadhi Scheme was launched by the
Department of Pharmaceuticals in 2008 across the
country. In 2016, it was again renamed as Pradhan
Mantri Bhartiya Janaushadhi Pariyojana
(PMBJP).7th March 2019 was celebrated as
‘Janaushadhi Diwas’ across India for creating
awareness about use of generic medicines.
47. Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement (1) is correct: Accelerating Growth of
New India’s Innovations or AGNIi is a national
initiative of the Government of India that aims to
support the ongoing efforts to boost the innovation
ecosystem in the country by connecting innovators
across industry, individuals and the grassroots to
the market and helping commercialise their
innovative solutions. It will provide a platform for
innovators to bring their market ready products
and solutions to industry thereby helping propel
India into a new era of inclusive economic
growth.
Statement (2) is incorrect: It is an initiative under
the guidance and support of the Principal Scientific
Adviser to the Government of India. The Prime
Minister’s Science, Technology and Innovation
Advisory Council (PM-STIAC) has recently
launched nine mission of national importance,
including those on artificial intelligence, quantum
computing, electric vehicles and deep ocean
exploration.
48. Answer: C
Explanation:
The Supreme Court ruled that Right to Self-
Defence extends not only to one’s own body but
also to protecting the person and property of
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another. The right also embraces the protection of
property, whether one’s own or another person’s,
against certain specified offences, namely, theft,
robbery, mischief and criminal trespass”. Indian
Penal Code (IPC) Section 96 to 106 of the penal
code states the law relating to the right of private
defence of person and property. Section 97 says
that the right of private defence is of 2 types: (i)
Right of private defence of body, (ii) Right of
private defence of property.
Article 21 declares that no person shall be deprived
of his life or personal liberty except according to
procedure established by law. This right is
available to both citizens and non-citizens. The
Supreme Court has declared the following rights as
part of Article 21: Right to shelter, Right to
reputation, Right to freedom from noise pollution,
Right to sleep Right against bonded labour, Right
against custodial harassment, Right to emergency
medical aid etc. Hence, option C. is the correct
answer.
49. Answer: D
Explanation:
According to the latest annual breakdown of
patent filings released by the World Intellectual
Property Organization (WIPO), more than half of
all international patent applications filed last year
came from Asia. The World Intellectual Property
Organization is one of the 15 specialized agencies
of the United Nations. WIPO was created in
1967"to encourage creative activity, to promote
the protection of intellectual property throughout
the world".
Pair (1) is correctly matched: A patent safeguards
an original invention for a certain period of time.
It is granted by the Government to a
company/individual for an invention.
Pair (2) is correctly matched: Unlike patents, a
trademark protects words and design elements that
identify the source of a product. Brand names and
corporate logos are primary examples. A service
mark is similar, except that it safeguards the
provider of a service instead of a tangible good.
The term “trademark” is often used in reference to
both designations.
Pair (3) is correctly matched: Copyright law
primarily protects original expression in literary,
dramatic, musical and artistic “works”. For as long
as the copyright is in effect, the copyright owner
has the sole right to display, share, perform or
license the material. One notable exception is the
“fair use” doctrine, which allows some degree of
distribution of copyrighted material for scholarly,
educational or news-reporting purposes. Hence,
option D. is the correct answer.
50. Answer: A
Explanation:
Prime Minister Narendra Modi has recently
launched One Nation, One Card for transport
mobility. The Indigenous Automatic Fare
Collection System based on One Nation One Card
Model i.e. National Common Mobility Card
(NCMC) is the first of its kind in India. India’s
First Indigenously Developed Payment Eco-
system for transport consisting of NCMC Card,
SWEEKAR (Swachalit Kiraya: Automatic Fare
Collection System) and SWAGAT (Swachalit
Gate) is based on NCMC Standards. The customer
may use this single card for payments across all
segments including metro, bus, suburban railways,
toll, parking, smart city and retail.
The stored value on card supports offline
transaction across all travel needs with minimal
financial risk. The service area feature of this card
supports operator specific applications such as
monthly passes, season tickets etc. It has been
implemented by the Union Ministry of Housing &
Urban Affairs. National Payments Corporation of
India (NPCI) has been entrusted to prepare the
standards & specifications of the National
Common Mobility Card (NCMC). Centre for
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Development of Advance Computing (C-DAC)
was entrusted the task of finalization of NCMC
specification for AFC system. Hence, option A. is
the correct answer.
51. Answer: A
Explanation:
Pair (1) is correctly matched: A genetic mutation
known as CCR5-delta 32 is responsible for the
two types of HIV resistance that exist. CCR5-delta
32 hampers HIV's ability to infiltrate immune
cells. The mutation causes the CCR5 co-receptor
on the outside of cells to develop smaller than
usual and no longer sit outside of the cell. Various
mutations of the CCR5 gene are known that result
in damage to the expressed receptor. One of the
mutant forms of the gene is CCR5-delta 32, which
results from deletion of a particular sequence of
32 base-pairs.
Pair (2) is correctly matched: CRISPR-Cas9 is a
genome editing tool that is creating a buzz in the
science world. It is faster, cheaper and more
accurate than previous techniques of editing DNA
and has a wide range of potential applications.
Pair (3) is correctly matched: India to Get High-
Performing BullSequana Supercomputers worth Rs
4,500 Crore from France. Atos, a global leader in
digital transformation, announced the installation
of its first supercomputer in India. The
BullSequana, which is the first supercomputer to be
installed as part of the Indian Government’s
National Supercomputing Mission (NSM), was
officially inaugurated at IIT-BHU in Varanasi by
the Prime Minister of India recently.
52. Answer: D
Explanation:
Six Scorpene class submarines are being built
under Project 75. The submarines are designed by
French naval defence and energy group DCNS
and manufactured by the Mazagon Dock
Shipbuilders Limited (MDSL), Mumbai under a
2005 contract worth $3.75 billion.
(i) INS Kalvari: It was commissioned in
December 2017.
(ii) INS Khanderi: It was launched in January
2017, is currently undergoing series of trials and is
expected to be commissioned by May 2019.
(iii) INS Karanj: It was launched on 31 st January
2018.
(iv) INS Vela: It was launched in May 2019.
(v) INS Vagir and Vagsheer: The remaining two
submarines are in the series are in advanced stages
of manufacturing and trials.
The entire project is expected to be completed by
2020. The fifth submarine Vagir, is in the final
stages of being booted together. The ‘Boot
Together’ is where the five separate sections are
welded together to form the submarine. INS
Vikrant is the first aircraft carrier built in India and
the first aircraft carrier built by Cochin Shipyard in
Kochi for the Indian Navy. Hence option D. is
correct.
53. Answer: D
Explanation:
The Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act 2013 allows for
setting up of anti-corruption ombudsman called
Lokpal at the Centre. A Lokayukta is to be
appointed in every state within one year of the
passing of the Act (but several states are yet to
appoint such an institution).
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Selection procedure of Lokpal: The five-member
selection committee comprises the following –
Prime Minister (chairperson), Lok Sabha Speaker,
Leader of the Opposition, Chief Justice of India and
an eminent jurist nominated by the President. The
Lokpal will consist of a chairperson and a
maximum of eight members. Chairperson should
have been a Chief Justice of India, or is or has been
a judge of the Supreme Court, or an eminent person
who fulfils eligibility criteria as specified. 50% of
the members are to be judicial members, provided
that not less than 50% of the members belong to the
Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, OBCs,
minorities, and women. Hence, option D. is the
correct answer.
54. Answer: A
Explanation:
Interpol is ‘NOT’ a unit or part of united nation
system. It is an independent international
organization. It issues 8 types of notices (7 of
which are colour-coded) which are in the form of
alert/requests allowing police in member countries
to share critical crime-related information.
1. Red Notice: To seek the location and arrest of a
person wanted by a judicial jurisdiction or an
international tribunal with a view to his/her
extradition. It is the ‘closest instrument to an
international arrest warrant’.
2. Blue Notice: To locate, identify or obtain
information on a person of interest in a criminal
investigation.
3. Green Notice: To warn about a person’s
criminal activities if that person is considered to
be a possible threat to public safety.
4. Yellow Notice: To locate a missing person or to
identify a person unable to identify
himself/herself.
5. Black Notice: To seek information on
unidentified bodies.
6. Orange Notice: To warn of an event, a person,
an object or a process representing an imminent
threat and danger to persons or property.
7. Purple Notice: To provide information on
modus operandi, procedures, objects, devices or
hiding places used by criminals.
8. Interpol-UNSC Special Notice: To inform
Interpol’s members that an individual or an entity
is subject to UN sanctions.
55. Answer: A
Explanation:
The Group of Seven (G-7) is a forum of the
world’s seven most industrialized economies. It
consists of Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan,
the United Kingdom, and the United States. The
G-7 meets on an annual basis in a rotating
member country to discuss international economic
and monetary issues. The European Union is also
represented at the G7 summit. The G-6 was
formed in 1975 and consisted of France,
Germany, Italy, Japan, the United States and the
United Kingdom; Canada was invited to join the
group in 1976 creating the G-7.
In 1998, Russia was added to the G-7 as a full
member, making the group of world leaders the
G-8. The acceptance of Russia created the G-8
from 1998 to 2014. In 2014, Russia was
suspended from the group after the annexation of
Crimea and tensions in Ukraine. Hence, option A.
is the correct answer.
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Italy is projected to be the first G7 nation to
officially endorse China’s Belt and Road Initiative
(BRI).
56. Answer: C
Explanation:
According to the Election Commission of India
(ECI), in the 2019 Indian General Election, service
Voters are going to play a crucial and decisive role
in cases of close contests. Service voter are those
who have service qualification. They include
member of Armed Forces of the Union of India,
members of Armed Police forces of the States
serving outside that state and persons employed
under Government of India on posts outside India.
Service Voter can cast his/her vote by proxy also.
They may appoint (By applying to returning officer
in Form 13 F of ECI) any person as his/her proxy
to cast vote on his/her behalf in his/her at the
polling station. Proxy should be a registered voter
of that constituency.
Eligible Organizations: As per existing
arrangements, members of India Army, Navy and
Air force, Boarder Road Organisation, BSF, ITBP,
Assam Rifles, NSG, CRPF, CISF and SSB are
eligible to be registered as service voters.
The key bill to allow proxy voting rights to
overseas Indians and make electoral law gender
neutral for service voters was passed by Lok Sabha
in August, 2018 and has been awaiting Rajya Sabha
nod. Hence, option C. is the correct answer.
57. Answer: B
Explanation:
The authority to enact laws for elections to the
offices of President and Vice-President and to
Parliament and State Legislatures has been reposed
by the Constitution in Indian Parliament (Articles
71 and 327). Laws relating to conduct of elections
to municipalities, panchayats and other local bodies
are framed by the respective State Legislatures
(Articles 243 K and 243 ZA).
All doubts and disputes relating to the elections to
the office of President and Vice-President are dealt
with by the Supreme Court (Article 71), whereas
the initial jurisdiction to deal with all doubts and
disputes relating to the elections to Parliament and
State Legislatures vests in the High Court of the
State concerned, with a right of appeal to the
Supreme Court (Article 329). The disputed matters
relating to elections to municipalities, etc. are
decided by the lower courts in accordance with the
laws made by the respective State Governments.
Hence, option B. is the correct answer.
58. Answer: D
59. Answer: D
It required that three not two of the six
members of the Viceroy’s executive
council were to be Indian.
60. Answer: C
The term untouchability has not been defined in the
constitution
61 :B
62 :C
63 :B
64: D
65:A
66 :C
67 :C
68 :A
69 :A
70 :C
71 :A
72 :B
73 :A
74 :C
75 :B
76 :B
77: D
78 :A
79 :B
80 :C
81: D
82 :C
83: D
84: D
85 :C
86 :A
87: D
88 :A
89 :B
90 :A
91 :B
92: D
93 :C
94 :B
95: D
96 :B
97: D
98: D
99 :A
100 :C
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