ANS 215 Practice Final Exam

1. The major site for nutrient absorption is the _____.a. Mouthb. Small intestinec. Large intestined. Stomach

2. Saliva contains enzymes that break down proteins.a. Trueb. False

3. Which of the following is not a function of the stomach?a. The stomach mechanically digests food.b. The stomach chemically digests carbohydrates.c. The stomach serves as a temporary holding area for ingested food.d. The stomach produces intrinsic factor.

4. The increased concentration of HCO3- in blood draining from the stomach is called ______.a. Bicarbonate loading.b. The alkaline tide.c. The chloride shift.d. The enterogastric reflex

5. Digestion of carbohydrates and proteins by brush border enzymes occurs within the ______ of the small intestine.

a. Villib. Microvillic. Circular foldsd. Goblet cells

6. ______ is not found in pancreatic secretions.a. Bicarbonateb. Cholecystokinin (CCK)c. Procarboxypeptidased. Chymotrypsinogen

7. In order to prevent self-digestion of the pancreas, activation of pancreatic proteases occurs in the:a. Duodenumb. Pancreasc. Stomachd. Gallbladder

8. During the intestinal phase of gastric regulation:a. Hormones reduce chief cell activity.b. Secretin causes more HCl release.c. The gastroeneteric reflex reduces stomach activity.d. The stomach is initially stimulated and later inhibited.

9. What is the main organic molecule digested in the stomach?a. Proteinsb. Lipidsc. Carbohydratesd. Nucleic acids

10. Which regulatory chemical stimulates gastric gland activity and motility?a. Gastrinb. Secretinc. Histamined. CCK

11. What would be the effect of stripping the small intestines of their villi?a. Greater absorption of nutrients would occur.b. Decreased surface area for absorption would cause weight loss to occur.c. A duodenal ulcerd. The large intestine would take over as the primary absorptive site.

12. The final product of carbohydrate digestion is:a. Glycogenb. Polysaccharidesc. Monosaccharidesd. Disaccharides

13. Which of the following cells produce HCl?a. Parietal cellsb. G cellsc. Chief cellsd. Enteroendocrine cells

14. The arrival of chyme containing a mixture of fats, carbohydrates, and proteins into the duodenum over a period of time would cause:

a. an increase in secretin release from the duodenum.b. diminished gallbladder contractions.c. a decrease in bicarbonate secretion from the pancreas.d. a parasympathetic reflex which would promote gastric contractions.

15. Rhythm of peristalsis in the stomach is controlled by:a. Duodenal enteroendocrine cells b. Parietal cellsc. Chief cellsd. Pacemaker cells

16. Sympathetic stimulation of the gastrointestinal tract will increase peristalsis and gastric secretions.

a. Trueb. False

17. Monogastric salivary glands produce all of the following EXCEPT:a. mucin b. salivary pepsinc. salivad. Bicarbonatee. salivary amylase

18. All of the following are functions of cholecystokinin (CCK) EXCEPT:a. stimulates gallbladder contractionb. promotes secretion of pancreatic enzymesc. increases gastric HCl productiond. induces the movement of bile into common bile ducte. causes hepatopancreatic sphincter to relax

19. Parietal cells use the enzyme carbonic anhydrase to form the H+ ions in the hydrochloric acid that they secrete.

a. Trueb. False

20. Air moves into the lungs because:a. The volume of the lungs decreases with inspiration.b. Contraction of the diaphragm decreases the volume of the pleural cavity.c. The gas pressure in the lungs becomes lower than the outside pressure as the

diaphragm contracts.d. The thorax is muscular.

21. Alveolar ventilation rate is:a. The utilization rate of oxygen by alveolar cells to support metabolism.b. Movement of dissolved gases from the blood into the alveoli.c. The movement of air into and out of the alveoli during a particular time.d. The movement of dissolved gases from the alveoli to the blood.

22. Which of the following is NOT a function of the conducting zone?a. Warming of airb. Transport of airc. Cleansing of aird. Gas exchange

23. Anatomic dead space plus the nonfunctional alveolar space equals the physiologic dead space.a. Trueb. False

24. All of the following factors will cause the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to be lower EXCEPT:

a. lower pHb. rising body temperature

c. lower pO2 in tissuesd. elevated 2,3-diphosphoglyceric acid levelse. lower carbon dioxide concentrations

25. Which of the following are not contained in the respiratory zone?a. Alveolib. respiratory bronchiolesc. all of the above are parts of the respiratory zoned. none of the above are correct

26. Boyle's lawa. delineates the direct relationship between volume and pressureb. states that the total pressure of a mixed gas is the sum of the partial pressures of its

constituentsc. explains why inspiration and expiration are possibled. explains why it is difficult to make soup at high altitudee. a and c are correct

27. Inspiration requires all of the following, excepta. contraction of the diaphragmb. rise in thoracic volumec. rise in intrapulmonary pressured. flow of air down is pressure gradiente. all of the following are required for inspiration

28. Expired air consists mostly ofa. CO2b. O2c. Bicarbonated. N2e. H2O

29. According to the hemoglobin saturation curve discussed in classa. hemoglobin affinity for O2 drops at increasing PO2b. hemoglobin saturation follows a hyperbolic relationship with respect to PO2c. nearly all carried O2 is released at regular PO2 of the tissuesd. alveolar PO2 is 60 mmHg higher than that of the tissuese. none of the above are correct

30. Which of the following stimuli (blood levels) are incorrectly matched to their effect?a. increased PO2 : decreased respiration rateb. decreased 2,3-DPG : increased oxyhemoglobin levelsc. increased PCO2 : increased respiration rated. decreased temperature : increased O2 hemoglobin saturatione. all of the above appear correctly matched

31. The single greatest factor responsible for respiration rate isa. PO2

b. blood pHc. PCO2d. atmospheric N2 levelse. activity status of animal

32. Dalton’s Lawa. That each gas in a mixture of gases exerts pressure in proportion to its percentage in

the total mixtureb. Explains why it is difficult to make soup at high altitudec. That the amount of gas that will dissolve in a liquid is proportional to the partial pressure

of the gas. d. All of the above

33. Henry’s Lawa. That each gas in a mixture of gases exerts pressure in proportion to its percentage in the

total mixtureb. Explains why it is difficult to make soup at high altitudec. That the amount of gas that will dissolve in a liquid is proportional to the partial

pressure of the gas. d. All of the above

34. What is the primary difference the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system?

a. The somatic nervous system enables us to control our involuntary muscles, while the autonomic nervous system controls our glands.

b. The somatic nervous system allows us to control our skeletal muscles, and the autonomic nervous system controls activity that humans cannot consciously control, such as pumping of the heart and the movement of food through the digestive tract.

c. The autonomic nervous system allows us to consciously control our skeletal muscles, and the somatic nervous system controls activity that humans cannot consciously control, such as the pumping of the heart and the movement of food through the digestive tract.

d. The autonomic nervous system enables us to control our involuntary muscles, while the somatic nervous system controls our gland.

35. Which of the following membrane ion channels open and close in response to changes in the membrane potentials?

a. Voltage-gated channelsb. Chemically gated channelsc. Mechanically gated channelsd. Non-gated channels

36. The sensory, or afferent, division of the peripheral nervous system transmits information from the _________ to the CNS.

a. Kidneyb. Skin c. Heart

d. Stomach

37. Which of the following statements best describes the membrane situation in the resting state in the neuron?

a. All the voltage-gated Na+ and K+ channels are closed.b. Only the voltage-gated K+ channels are open. c. Only the voltage-gated Na+ channels are open.d. Only the voltage-gated K+ are closed.

38. Which of the following electrical events occurs when a certain threshold is reached?a. Resting membrane potentialb. EPSPc. Action potentiald. IPSP

39. During which phase of an action potential are voltage-gated K+ channels open, while voltage gated Na+ channels closed?

a. Repolarizing phaseb. Resting statec. Regenerationd. Depolarizing phase

40. A potential of -90 mV is considered:a. A normal resting potential.b. A graded potential c. Depolarizedd. Hyperpolarized

41. Which of the following statements concerning inhibitory synapses (IPSPs) is correct?a. The postsynaptic membrane becomes less permeable to potassium.b. Channels allow both sodium and potassium ions to diffuse simultaneously

through the membrane.c. Postsynaptic membrane becomes more permeable to potassium and chloride. d. The postsynaptic membrane becomes less permeable to sodium.

42. Which of the following defines “integration”?a. Increasing the level of one substance in response to a decrease in the level of

anotherb. Monitoring changes both inside and outside the body.c. Activating effector organs. d. Processing and interpretation of sensory input and determining what should

be done each moment in the body.

43. The sodium-potassium ion pump will:a. Pump one sodium ion out of the cell for every ion of potassium it brings into the

cell.

b. Pump three potassium ions out of the cell for every two sodium ions it brings into the cell.

c. Pump three sodium ions out of the cell for every two ions of potassium it brings into the cell.

d. Pump one potassium ion out of the cell for every ion of sodium it brings into the cell.

44. A neuron will not respond to a second stimulus of equal strength to the first stimulus to which it has already responded because:

a. The neuron is myelinated. b. Action potential generation is an all-or-none phenomenon.c. The neuron is in the absolute refractory period.d. Neurons are self-propagating cells.

45. The ________ cells are found in the CNS and the ________ cells are found in the PNS, both wrapping around nerve fibers:

a. Schwann cells, Oligodendrocytesb. Oligodendrocytes, Schwann cellsc. Oligodendrocytes, Astrocytesd. Astrocytes, Schwann cell

46. What is the correct sequence of the following events?1. Neurotransmitter is released2. Action potential reaches the axon terminal3. Calcium ions enter the axon terminal 4. Neurotransmitter binds to receptors on the post-synaptic cell5. The post synaptic cell depolarizes.

a. 2, 3, 1, 4, 5b. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5c. 2, 1, 3, 5, 4d. 3, 2, 1, 5, 4

47. The _________ serve as a communication network that coordinates the contraction of each myofibril that makes up the muscle fiber.

a. T-tubulesb. Thin filamentsc. Z discsd. A bands

48. Acetylcholinesterase:a. Activates acetylcholine.b. Breaks down acetylcholine.c. Is another name for acetylcholine.d. Helps acetylcholine bind to its receptor.

49. Myofibrils are composed of repeating contractile elements called:

a. Actinb. Myofilamentsc. Sarcomeresd. Myosin

50. What would happen if a muscle became totally depleted of ATP?a. The muscle would remain in a contracted state due to an inability to break

actin-myosin cross bridges.b. The muscle would exhibit isometric contraction.c. The muscle would relax and lengthen due to an inability to sustain actin-myosin

cross-bridges. d. The muscle would exhibit isotonic contraction.

51. As an axon enters a muscle, it branches into a number of axonal terminals, each of which forms a neuromuscular junction with a single fiber. A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it supplies is called a:

a. Neuromuscular junction.b. Motor end plate.c. Motor unit.d. Synaptic knob.

52. What is the ion released from the terminal cisternae that combines with troponin and removes the blocking action of tropomyosin, resulting in the formation of the cross bridge?

a. Na+b. K+c. Mg2+

d. Ca2+

53. The sequence of electrical changes that occurs along the sarcolemma when a muscle fiber is stimulated is known as the:

a. Membrane repolarizationb. Membrane hyperpolarizationc. Action potential d. Motor end plate potential

54. Elasticity refers to the ability of a muscle fibers to:a. Shorten forcibly when adequate stimulatedb. Receive and respond to a stimulusc. Be stretchedd. Recoil and resume its resting length after being stretched

55. Which of the following is a regulatory protein of muscle?a. Actinb. Myosinc. Tropomyosin d. Ca2+

56. The principle that states the force of contraction is dependent on the degree of stretch or contraction prior to stimulation is the:

a. Length-tension relationshipb. Sliding filament theoryc. Muscle toned. Summation principle

57. What is it called when there is no relaxation at all between muscle contraction stimuli?a. Unfused tetanyb. Fused tetanyc. Temporal summationd. Spatial summation

58. Cardiac output is:a. The number of times the heart beats in one minute.b. The number of impulses fired by the SA node in one minute.c. The amount of blood pumped out of the heart during every ventricular contractiond. The amount of blood pumped out of each ventricle in one minute

59. Choose the correct sequence of current flow through the heart wall.a. SA node, Purkinje fibers, AV node, AV bundle of His, right and left bundle

branches.b. AV node, Purkinje fibers, AV node, AV bundle of His, right and left bundle

branches.c. SA node, AV node, AV bundle of His, right and left bundle branches,

Purkinje fibers.d. AV node, SA node, Purkinje fibers, AV bundle of His, eight and left bundle

branches.

60. Identify the correct sequence of blood flow through the chambers of the heart.a. Right ventricle, left ventricle, left atrium, lungs, right atriumb. Left atrium, left ventricle, right, ventricle, right atrium, and lungsc. Left ventricle, left atrium, lungs, right ventricle, right atriumd. Right atrium, right ventricle, lungs, left atrium, left ventricle

61. The absolute refractory period refers to the time during which:a. The muscle cell is not in a position to respond to a stimulus of any strength.b. The muscle cell is ready to respond to a threshold stimulus.c. The muscle cell is ready to respond to any stimulus.d. A cardiac muscle cannot respond to any stimulus and lasts only 1 to 2

milliseconds.

62. The pacemaker of the heart is the:a. AV nodeb. Bundle of His

c. The bundle branchesd. SA node

63. The ability of some cardiac muscle cells to initiate their own depolarization and cause depolarization of the rest of the heart is called:

a. An action potential b. Automaticity c. Fibrillation d. A functional syncytium

64. On the electrocardiogram, repolarization of the atria is represented by the:a. P waveb. QRS complexc. T waved. It does not appear since it is obscured by the QRS complex

65. Which of the following structures allow one cardiac cell to electronically stimulate another by allowing ion flow across the intercalated discs?

a. Fascia adherensb. Gap junctionsc. Desmosomesd. Intercellular folds

66. Which of the following would lead to a decrease in heart rate?a. Norepinephrineb. Parasympathetic stimulationc. Exercised. Sharply decrease blood volume

67. Which of the following statements is incorrect?a. The firing of the SA node stimulates both atria to contract almost simultaneously. b. The signal to contract is delayed at the AV node, allowing the ventricles to fill

with blood.c. Firing signals reach the papillary muscles before the rest of the ventricular

myocardiumd. Ventricular contraction begins the AV valves and progresses downward to

the apex of the heart.

68. Stimulation of a cardiac cella. Is initiated by Na+ diffusion into the cellb. Is stimulated by Ach binding to Na and K channelsc. Triggers the expulsion of Ca out of the cellsd. Is unnecessary, as the cell fires spontaneously, without preceding changes in

membrane potential

69. Repolarization in cardiac muscle

a. Occurs at a faster rate than in skeletal muscleb. Is determined by Na levels in the cellc. Results from the gradual inactivation of Ca channelsd. Is determined by the opening of Na channels

70. A “foreign” molecule which can invoke the immune response is called a(n):a. Hapten b. antibody c. immunoglobulin d. antigen

71. Active artificially acquired immunity is a result of:a. Antibodies passed on from mother to baby through breast milk.b. Vaccination.c. Injection of an immune serum.d. Antibodies passed on from mother to fetus through the placenta.

72. Complement proteins work by:a. Forming pores in the membranes of target cells.b. Phagocytosis of target cells.c. Neutralization of antigens.d. Producing antibodies.

73. Lymphocytes that develop immunocompetence in the thymus are:a. T lymphocytes.b. NK cells.c. B lymphocytes.d. Cytotoxic T cells.

74. The immune cell that allows for subsequent recognition of an antigen, resulting in a secondary response, is called a(n):

a. Helper T cell.b. Memory cell.c. Antigen-presenting cells.d. Plasma cell.

75. These molecules are secreted by leukocytes and macrophages and result in a fever.

a. Histamineb. Antibodiesc. Pyrogensd. Heparin

76. Which of the following is a nonspecific barrier defense?a. Macrophages b. Natural killer cellsc. Mucous membranes d. Complements

77. Which statement below is characteristic of a secondary humoral response?a. It results in less memory cell circulation.b. It results in less antibody secretion.c. It triggers fever.d. It occurs much more rapidly than a primary response.

78. Which of the following is a characteristic of a secondary immune response?a. A secondary immune response is started by naïve lymphocytes, while the

primary immune response is initiated by memory cells.b. A secondary immune response does produce as many antibodies compared to a

primary immune response.c. A secondary immune response is slower than a primary immune response.d. A secondary immune response lasts longer than a primary immune response.

79. In the list below, which type of cell is involved in adaptive immunity?a. Natural killer cellsb. Neutrophilsc. B cellsd. Macrophages

80. Which of the following is not a sign of inflammation?a. Rednessb. Feverc. Swelling d. Pain

81. Humoral immunity is provided by:

a. T cells.b. Interferons.c. Antibodies.d. Complement proteins.

82. _______is the property of lymphocytes that prevents them from attacking the body’s own cells.

a. Immunological memory b. Self-tolerancec. Antigenicityd. Immunocompetence

83. Without this cell, there is no immune response?a. Cytotoxic T cellb. B cellc. Macrophages d. Helper T cell

84. How is Na+ reabsorbed?a. Osmosisb. Facilitated diffusionc. Active transport using ATPd. Diffusion

85. Major calyces are:a. Cone-shaped structures located in the renal medulla.b. Large branches of the renal pelvis.c. The expanded ends of renal pyramids.d. Expanded ends of nephrons.

86. The basic functional unit of the kidney is the:a. Major calyx. b. Nephron.c. Glomerulus.d. Loop of Henle.

87. The blood supply to the nephron is the:a. Renal artery.b. Segmental artery.c. Interlobular artery.d. Afferent arteriole.

88. The Bowman’s capsule and glomerulus make up the:a. Collecting system.b. Renal corpuscle.c. Papilla. d. Loop of Henle.

89. The most important factor affecting the glomerular filtration rate is:a. Blood hydrostatic pressure. b. Capsular hydrostatic pressure.c. Capsular osmotic pressure.d. Blood osmotic pressure.

90. When the concentration of ADH increases:a. More salt is secreted by the nephron.b. Less water is reabsorbed by the nephron and collecting duct.c. Less urine is produced.d. The specific gravity of the urine decreases.

91. Which process results in increased glomerular filtration in response to hormone release?

a. Tubuloglomerular responseb. Renin-angiotensin mechanismc. Myogenic mechanismd. Countercurrent mechanism

92. Which structure is the muscular tube that delivers urine to the bladder?a. Urethrab. Papillary ductc. Renal pelvisd. Ureter

93. Which substance would NOT normally be expected in urine?a. Proteinb. Nitrogenous wastec. Sodium d. Chloride

94. Arrange the following structures in the correct sequence in which urine passes through them to the external environment. (1) ureter, (2) renal pelvis, (3) calyx, (4) urinary bladder, (5) urethra

a. 3, 4, 1, 5, 2b. 2, 4, 1, 3, 5c. 3, 2, 1, 4, 5d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

95. In situations where there is an extreme change in blood pressure (mean arterial pressure less than 80 or greater than 180 mm Hg), extrinsic controls take precedence over intrinsic controls.

a. True b. False

96. Water can leave the ascending limb of the loop of Henle. a. Trueb. False

97. The descending limb of the loop of Henle is relatively impermeable to solutes and freely permeable to water.

a. True b. False

98. If the efferent arteriole constricts while the afferent arteriole remains unchanged, the glomerular filtration rate:

a. Cannot be determined.b. Increases.c. Does not change.d. Decrease.

99. The renal ___________is continuous with the ureter.a. Medullab. Cortexc. Pelvisd. Glomerulus

100. All of the following functions are carried out the renal tubules, except:a. Filtration b. Reabsorptionc. Secretiond. Formation of urine

101. All of the following would stimulate the release of renin from granular cells. Except

a. Hemorrhaging or dehydration.b. Inhibition by the macula densa cells.c. Stimulation of the granular cells by the sympathetic nervous system.d. Reduced stretching of the granular cells.

102. Which of the following substances is the largest component of urine by weight after water?

a. Uric acidb. Creatininec. Uread. Inulin

103. Which of the following is a function of the urinary system?a. Filter plasmab. Regulate blood pressurec. Regulate pHd. All of the above