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ASSIGNMENT [English]

Month: OCTOBER

Class :XI

SAMPLE PAPER

General Instructions:

1) This question paper contains four sections A, B, C, D. 2) All the questions are compulsory. 3) Please write down the Serial Number before attempting it.

SECTION A (READING)

I- Read the given passage carefully, and answer the questions, by choosing the correct

answer.

BETI BACHAO, BETI PADHAO

1. Girls have been the victims of many crimes in India for years. The most fearful crime was

female foeticide, in which girls were killed in the womb of the mother after sex

determination through ultrasound. “Save the girl child” campaign has been launched by

the government to end gender selective abortions of female foetuses as well as other

crimes against the girl child.

2. Female foeticide was developed in India by people having more interest in a male child

than a female child. It has reduced the girl child sex ratio in India to a great extent. It

was made possible in the country because of availability of ultrasound technology.

3. A huge reduction in the female sex ratio was noticed after the national census of 1991.

Then it was declared as a worsening problem of society after the national census of

2001. Later, the practice of gender selective abortions was banned strictly by the

government in order to control the sex ratio.

4. However, reduction in the female sex ratio continued till 2011. For instance, in Madhya

Pradesh, the ratio was 931 girls/ 1000 boys in 2001, which reduced to 918/1000 in 2011.

It means that, if it still continues, it may reduce to 900/1000 by 2021.

5. Now the ‘ Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao’ scheme has been launched by the government ,

which means ‘ Save the girl child and educate the girl child’. This scheme was launched

by the government of India on 22nd January, 2015 in order to generate awareness about

the girl child as well as improve the welfare of women. This campaign was launched by

organizing activities such as large rallies, wall paintings, television commercials, and

billboards, short animations, video films, essay writing, debates etc, in order to make

more people aware about this problem. It also involved some famous celebrities for

increased awareness. This campaign is supported by various government and non-

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government organizations in India. This scheme has played a great role in spreading

awareness regarding saving the girl child all over the country as well as improving status

of the girl child in Indian society.

(1) “Save the girl child” campaign has been launched by the government to end

…………………… abortions.

(a) Illegal (b) criminal (c ) gender- selective (d) sex – selective

(2) ………………….. has reduced the girl child sex ratio in India to a great extent.

(a) The practice of abortions (b) ultrasound technology

(c) Crime against girls (d) female foeticide

(3) Sex determination was made possible in India due to the availability of……………….

(a) Unscrupulous surgeons (b) ultrasound technology

(c) smart doctors (d) none of the above

(4) The practice of gender selective abortions was banned by the government so as to

…………………………

(a) Control the sex ratio (b) increase the female population

(c) Reduce the male population (d) both b and c

(5) Why was the ‘ Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao’ scheme launched by the government?

(a) For reduction in the female sex ratio

(b) to end gender selective abortions

(c) to generate awareness about the girl child , as well as improve the welfare of

women

(d) None.

(6) What reduction in the child sex ratio was observed in Madhya Pradesh between 2001

and 2011?

(a) 931 girls/1000 boys

(b) 918 girls/1000 boys

(c) both a and b

(d) 901 girls/ 1000 boys

(7) What was noticed about the female sex ratio after the census of 1991?

(a) Huge increase in the female sex ratio

(b) huge reduction in the female sex ratio

(c) gender selective abortions decreased

(d) both b and c

(8) Name the activities being organized in the ‘ Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao’, scheme.

(a) Dance (b) debates (c) large rallies (d) both b and c

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SECTION B [WRITING AND GRAMMAR]

II- Read the questions, and choose the most appropriate answer of the following:

9. Which is the correct place of writing ‘date’, in a notice?

(a) In the center of notice (b) on the left-hand corner

(c) on the top (d) both a and b are acceptable.

10. Notice comes under which category of communication?

(a) Short/ formal (b) short/ informal

(c) very short/ formal (d) both a and c are correct

11. If the name of the issuing authority is not mentioned, in question, then which is the

correct option?

(a) XYZ (B) Fictional name (c) your own name (d) both b and c

III- Read the questions, and choose the most appropriate answer of the following:

12.How should a formal letter be in order to have the desired effect on the recipient?

(a) In correct format

(b) to the point and relevant

(c) grammatically correct

(d) all of the above

13. When registering a complaint, which language is correct for use in a letter?

(a) Formal language (b) formal, polite but firm language

(c) formal ,harsh and rude language (d) none of the above

14. While writing an enquiry letter, which is the correct format to be used?

(a) I would like to ask about…. (b) this is in reference with…

(c) this is to bring in your kind notice….. (d) both b and c are correct

15. One of the following is necessary while writing the speech , name it.

(a) Self-introduction

(b) topic introduction

(c) addressing the judges

(d) both a and b

16. When writing official complaint letters, the concluding lines, should be-….

(a) Kindly look into the matter …..

(b) kindly solve our problem else I will…..

(c) looking forward for early solution ….

(d) both a and c

IV- Rearrange the following words/ phrases to make meaningful sentences by selecting the

correct option in each line:

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17. P: be the cost

Q: should improve the health

R: I think the government

S: service, whatever

(a) RPQS (b) RSQP (c) QSRP (d) RQSP

18. P: of the building will be

Q: looking amazing

R: year this part

S: this time next

(a) SPQR (b) PSQR (c) SRPQ (d) QSRP

SECTION C (LITERATURE)

V. Read the extracts and answer the questions:

A. Each one holding one of my mother’s hands,

And she the big girl – some twelve years or so.

All three stood still to smile through their hair.

19. Which poem are these lines taken from?

(a) The Photograph ( b) A Photograph

(c) My Photograph (d) Beautiful Photograph

20. Who is the speaker?

(a) Robinson (b) Paulson (c) Shirley Toulson (d) Kinley Toulson

21. Who is the twelve-year-old girl?

(a) Betty (b) the poet’s mother (c) the poet (d) Dolly

22. Who are the three mentioned in the above lines?

(a) Betty, Dolly, and the poet

(b) Betty, Dora, & poet

(c) The poet’s mother & her cousins

(d) Both a & b

VI. Answer the following questions by choosing the right option:

23. What did the author learn in the city school?

(a) Scriptures (b) Yoga (c) Science and Music (d) dance

24. What does the poet mean by ‘terribly transient feet’?

(a) Human life prone to changes (b) the sea doesn’t change

(c) Trembling feet (d) eternal nature.

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25. “We’re not afraid to die….if we can all be together”. The statement of Jonathan reveals

he was:

(a) Fearless (b) brave (c) loving (d) both a &b

VII. Answer the following questions by choosing the right option:

26. Assertion: No member of the Garoghlanian family could be a thief.

Reason: They were proud first, honest next and stealing was unimaginable in their clan.

Options:

(a) both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A & R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false

(d) R is true but A is false.

27. Assertion: ‘Have you come back? Said the woman. ‘I thought that no one had come back.’

Reason: Speaker expected author’s mother to survive during the war and come looking for

her.

Options:

(a) Both A & R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) A is correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) Both A & R are false

(d) A is true, but R is false

28. What do you know about Uncle Khosrove?

(a) A man with a crazy streak in his trait

(b) a man very popular among the Assyrians

(c) a humble and helpful person.

(d) a rude man

VIII. STAND ALONE MCQ’s

29. How did the explosion affect the ship?

(a) A torrent of green and white water broke over the ship (b) The ship started sinking

(c) The ship turned upside down

(d) None of the above

30. “I was in a room I knew and did not know.”What does author mean by this?

(a) She saw familiar things but in unfamiliar surroundings

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(b) She saw unfamiliar things but in familiar surroundings

(c) She did not recognize the things she saw

(d) She did not want to remember anything

31. What sort of cue did Shastri suggest for the girl’s name? (a) Something found in the forest (b) Something found in the ocean (c) Something found in the sky (d) None of the above

32. What does the Chinese Landscape depict? a. They are not real and one can enter from any viewpoint b. they produce an actual viewpoint c. they are not imaginary d. None of the above

33. What does CT scan stand for? (a) Computed Telegraphy (b) Computed Tomography Scan (c) Car Topology (d) Computer Technology

34. How did Carter remove the resins?

(a) with the help of chisel and hammer

(b) with the help of chemicals

(c) with the help of machinery

(d) with the help of manpower

35. What happened after the hand pumps started to block up with the debris floating around

the cabins in the chapter “We are not afraid to die if we all can be together”?

(a) the author connected an electric-pump to an out-pipe

(b) by taking out water with the help of bucket

(c) by repairing hand pump (d) the author found another hand pump

ACCOUNTANCY OCTOBER ASSIGNMENT

CLASS XI

CH: DEPRECIATION, PROVISIONS AND RESERVES

Question 1.

Which of the following methods of depreciation is not recognized by Income Tax Law?

(a) Straight line Method

(b) None of these

(c) Both, Straight Line and Diminishing Balance Methods

(d) Diminishing Balance Method

Question 2.

Which of the following is the example of Capital Reserve?

(a) Workmen’s Compensation Fund

(b) None of these

(c) Premium Received on issue of shares or debentures

(d) General Reserve

Question 3.

Which of the following is the example of Revenue Reserve?

(a) Profit on Redemption of Debentures

(b) Profit on Revaluation of Fixed

(c) Investment Fluctuation Fund

(d) Profit on Re-issue of forfeited shares

Question 4.

According to Companies Act, 1956 Secret Reserves can be created by:

(a) Only Private Company

(b) Banking and insurance companies

(c) Only Public Company

(d) Companies Registered under Companies Act

Question 5.

The loss on sale of an asset is debited to:

(a) Profit and Loss Account

(b) Trial Balance Cr. Side

(c) Balance Sheet

(d) Trading Account

Question 6

Depreciation is Charged on :

(a) Current Assets

(b) Fixed Tangible Assets

(c) None of these

(d) Both Current and Fixed Assets

Question 7.

At the end of the year, Depreciation Account is transferred to :

(a) Balance Sheet

(b) Trading Account

(c) Profit & Loss Appropriation Account

(d) Profit & Loss Account

Question 8.

Provision is created by debiting :

(a) Profit and Loss Account

(b) None of these

(c) Profit and Loss Appropriation Account

(d) Trading Account

Question 9.

The cause of Depreciation is :

(a) Wear and tear

(b) Obsolescence

(c) All of these

(d) Usage of Asset

Question 10.

Depreciation is a process of :

(a) Allocation

(b) Valuation

(c) None of these

(d) Depletion

Question 11.

Under Reducing Balance Method, depreciation to be charged :

(a) Scrap Value

(b) None of these

(c) Real Value

(d) Original value

Question 12.

The depreciation charged on an asset will be credited to :

(a) Depreciation A/c

(b) Asset A/c

(c) Bank A/c

(d) Cash A/c

Question 13.

Every fixed asset loses its value due to use or other reasons. This decline in the value of asset

is known as

(a) Amortization

(b) Provisions

(c) Depreciation

(d) Devaluation

Question 14.

Following are the causes of Depreciation except

(a) Wear and tear due to use or passage of time.

(b) normal factors

(c) Expiration of legal rights.

(d) Obsolescence.

Question 15.

Following are the causes of Depreciation except

(a) Natural resources

(b) Fixed asset

(c) Liabilities

(d) Intangible assets

Question 16.

An alternative term used for accumulated depreciation expenses?

(a) Provision for depreciation

(b) Cumulative depreciation

(c) Targeted depreciation

(d) Depletion

Question 17.

Depreciation charged under diminishing method

(a) Increase every year

(b) Decrease every year

(c) Increase in one year and decrease another year

(d) Same every year

Question 18.

Which of the following is not a type of reserve

(a) Provision for bad debt

(b) General reserve

(c) Workmen compensation fund

(d) Retained earnings

Question 19.

What is depreciation?

(a) Cost of using a fixed asset

(b) The value of asset

(c) Portion of a fixed assets cost consumed during the current accounting

(d) Cost of fixed asset’s repair

Question 20.

Depreciation helps in determining

(a) Accurate level of profit

(b) Increases the value of asset

(c) Revenue generation

(d) Increase the burden of tax

Question 21.

What is the rate of charging depreciation under diminishing method?

(a) 12% p.a.

(b) 15% p.a.

(c) 10% p.a.

(d) Not fixed

Question 22.

Under which depreciation method the amount of depreciation expenses remains same

throughout the useful life of a fixed asset

(a) Straight line method

(b) Reducing balance method

(c) Number of units produced method

(d) Machine hours method

BUSINESS SERVICES

ASSIGNMENT FOR OCTOBER

CLASS-11

Instruction-

*Complete all questions as per instructions in your class note

1.Which of the following is a contract of ‘Utmost Good Faith’?

(a) Life insurance (b) Fire insurance

(c) Marine insurance (d) None of these

2.For which insurance principle of Indemnity is not applicable?

(a) Fire insurance (b) Life insurance

(c) Marine insurance (d) All the above

3._____________refer to the facility in which a customer is allowed to overdraw his current

account upto an agreed limit.

4.____________________account interlinks the savings bank account with a deposit account

and any amount in excess of a predetermined amount is automatically transferred to a fixed

deposit.

5.Under which insurance subject matter is ship,cargo or freight?

6.Match the following

1.It is meant for large value transactions. The minimum amount to be remitted through this facility is Rs 2 Lakh

a)Mitigation

2.It is the duty of insurer to take reasonable steps to minimize the loss or damage

b)Bank draft

3.It is an order issued by a bank on any branch of the same bank to pay the specified amount to the person.

c)RTGS

7.Explain the following term: -

a)NEFT andRTGS (c) Cash credit

b) Fixed Deposit (d) Insurable interest

8.Muskan insured her cargo ship against perils of sea through marine insurance policy of

rs100000,During the voyage,the sea water entered into the ship and the cargo was

damaged.She suffered a loss of rs600,000.She filed a claim for the loss against the insurance

company.

(i)Can Muskan recover the loss from insurance company?

(ii)Which principle of insurance has been highlighted in the given case.

9. Kapil took an insurance policy of rs200,000 to protect his goods from the perils of sea.On the

way the goods were spoiled by rats.Hesuffered a loss of Rs 125000.He filed a claim for the loss

against the insurance company.

(i)Can Kapil recover rs125000 from the insurance company?

(ii)Which principle of insurance is highlighted in the given case.

10.Anubhav took fire insurance policy for his property worth Rs.5 lakh with two insurance

companies ICICI Lombard General Insurance company Ltd. for 4,00,000rs and Bajaj Allianz

General Insurance Co. Ltd. for Rs.2 lakh. An electronic short circuit caused fire and it resulted in

a loss of rs1,50,000.He claimed for 1,50,000 against each of the insurance companies.

(i)Can Anubhav recover rs1,50,000 from each of the insurers?

(ii) Which principle of insurance has been highlighted in the given case?

(iii) Determine the liability of each of the two insurers.

11.Mr. Kamal Gupta has recently shifted to Delhi with his family.He and his family is planning to

open bank accounts in HDFC Bank,which offers many types of bank accounts.

*Kamal, who is a businessman, wants an account in which an amount can be deposited and

withdrawn at any time for smooth functions.

*Supriya, Kamal’s wife wants to open an account in which she can keep her surplus money safe

and withdrawal from the account can be made through cheque facility.

(iii) Shivam, Kamal’s son wants to open an account in which he can deposit rs2000 every month

for the next three years and the total amount is repaid to him with interest at the end of three

years.

12.Differentiate Fire, Life and Marine on the basis of-Subject matter,Elements,insurable

interest,duration,Indemnity,policy amount.

13.Write elements of fire, life and marine insurance.

NOTE--Complete your minimum40%of the project for 1st term.(As per guidelines and allotted

topics everyone will prepare Project neatly as per instructions given to you.)

Assignment (October 2021)

Economics: Class XI

1. Complete the Term 1 Practical File portion and submit on ERP.

Term I : 4, 5, 6 Term II : 1,2,3,7,8,9

Project File Sequence:

1. Cover Page 1 page

2. Acknowledgement 1 page

3. Certificate 1 Page

4. Topic/Aim of the project 1 page

5. Introduction 1 to 2 page

6. Matter 20 to 25 page

(Collection, Organisation and Presentation of Data)

7. Case Study based on the topic 2 to 5 page

8. Conclusion 1 to 2 page

9. Project Evaluation Proforma. 1 page

2. Revise and learn the topics done during online classes. 3. Practice all the MCQ and 1 mark questions of your text book.

In case of any query contact on my mail ID: poonamsharma1008@rediffmail.com Or WhatsApp group created for Economics.

OCOTOBER ASSINGMENT

WORK, ENERGY AND POWER

CLASS: XI

SUBJECT: PHYSICS

Do the given questions in your assignment notebook.

Question 1 Which of the following is equal with Newton-meter? (a) Joule (b) Horse Power (c) Watt (d) Pascal Question 2 A particle is thrown upward with some kinetic energy. What happened to its kinetic energy at the highest point or height it reaches. (a) Its kinetic energy is lost

(b) Its all kinetic energy is absorbed by the air (c) Its kinetic energy is converted to potential energy (d) Its kinetic energy is remain same Question 3 A body is falling freely under the action of gravity alone in vacuum. Which of the following quantities remain constant during the fall? (a) Kinetic energy. (b) Potential energy. (c) Total mechanical energy. (d) Total linear momentum. Question 4 During inelastic collision between two bodies, which of the following quantities always remain conserved? (a) Total kinetic energy. (b) Total mechanical energy. (c) Total linear momentum.

(d) Speed of each body Question 5 What is the smallest unit of power? (a) Watt (b) Kilowatt (c) Horse power (d) Mill watt

Question 6 A mass of 2 kg is moving along a circular path of radius 1 m. If the mass moves with 300 revolutions per minute. What is its kinetic energy?

Question 7 If the velocity of the object is increased by 0.1%, then the kinetic energy is increased by (a) 0.1 % (b) 0.2% (c) 0.4% (d) 0.01% Question 8 A loaf of Bread gives a boy of mass 40kg an energy of 21kJ. If the efficiency is 28% then the height can be climbed by him using this energy is (a) 15 m (b) 21 m (c) 19.5m (d) 15.5 m Question 9 A body of mass 1 kg is rotating in a circular path of radius 1 m with constant velocity of 5 rev/sec. Calculate the work done in one complete revolution? Question 10 Prove that the magnitude of the ratio of difference in speed after collision to the difference in the speed before collision for a 1D elastic collision is equal to one.

Question 11 Draw a graph showing the variation of potential energy and kinetic energy with respect to height of a free fall under gravitational force. Question 12 State Work-energy theorem . Prove it for Variable force. Question 13 Match

Question 14 A particle moves along the X-axis from x=0 to x=5 m under the action of the force given by

F=7−2x+3x2

Find the work done in the process Question 15 A car of mass 1000kg accelerates uniformly from rest to the velocity of 15 m/s in 5 sec. Calculate (i) Acceleration of the car (ii) Gain in Kinetic Energy (iii) Average power of the engine during this period Question 16 A ball bounces to 80% of its original height. What fraction of its mechanical energy is lost in each bounce? Where does this energy go? Question 17

Find the value of p so that the vectors A=2i + pj + k and B=4i - 2j -2 k are perpendicular to each other

Question 18

A body constrained to move along z-axis of a coordinate system is subjected to the

constant force F given by

F=−i+2j+3k

Where i,jand k are the unit vectors along x,y and z axis.

Calculate the workdone by the force in displacing the body through a distance of 5 m

along the z-axis

Question 19

Two bodies of same masses have equal kinetic energies. What is the ratio of their linear

momenta?

Question 20

Can a body have momentum without energy? Justify

Class XI

Assignment for October 2021

Chemistry

Solve these questions on A4 size sheets on 30oct. 2021.

Q1.The bond length between hybridised carbon atom and other carbon atom is minimum in

(a) Propane. (b) Butane

(c) Propene. (d) Propyne

Q 2.The hybrid state of sulphur in SO2 molecule is :

(a) sp²

(b) sp³

(c) sp

(d) sp³d

Q. 3Which one of the following does not have sp² hybridised carbon?

(a) Acetone

(b) Acetic acid

(c) Acetonitrile

(d) Acetamide

Q4. Which of the following types of hybridisation leads to three dimensional geometry of bonds

around the carbon atom?

(a) sp

(b) sp²

(c) sp³

(d) None of these

Q5. The maximum number of hydrogen bonds that a molecule of water can have is

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

Q6. The species having pyramidal shape is

(a) SO3

(b) BrF3

(c) SiO32-

(d) OSF2

Q7. The structure of IF7 is

(a) Pentagonal bipyramid

(b) Square pyramid

(c) Trigonal bipyramid

(d) Octahedral

Q8. The outer orbitals of C in ethene molecule can be considered to be hybridized to give three

equivalent sp² orbitals. The total number of sigma (s) and pi (p) bonds in ethene molecule is

(a) 1 sigma (s) and 2 pi (p) bonds

(b) 3 sigma (s) and 2 pi (p) bonds

(c) 4 sigma (s) and 1 pi (p) bonds

(d) 5 sigma (s) and 1 pi (p) bonds

Q9. Which of the following is a linear molecule?

(a) ClO2

(b) CO2

(c) NO2

(d) SO2

Q10. _________ Is The Species with a Bond Angle of 120°.

(a)PH3

(b) NCl3

(c) BCl3

(d) ClF3

Q11. _______ Holds The Molecules In a Crystal.

a. Electrostatic attraction

b. Dipole-dipole attraction

c. Hydrogen bond

d. Van der Waal’s attraction

Q12. Which of These Pairs of Species Have The Same Order of Bond?

a. O2-, CN-

b. N+, CN+

c. CO, NO

d. CN-, NO+

Q13. _________ Do Not Have A Permanent Dipole.

a. CS2

b. SO3

c. H2S

d. SO2

Q14. Which of These is Pyramidal in Shape?

a. NO3-

b. SO3

c. CO32-

d. PCl3

Q15. Which is The Correct Geometry and Hybridisation of XeF4?

a. Octahedral, sp3d2

b. Square planar, sp3d2

c. Trigonal bipyramidal, sp3d2 d. None if these

16.Carbon monoxide has ten bonding electrons and four antibonding electrons. Therefore it has

a bond order of

(a) 3

(b) 7

(c) 1

(d) 5/2

Q17. Which of the following is the correct electron configuration for C2?

(a) 1s2 2s

2 2py2 *1s

2 *2s2 *2py

2

(b) 1s2 *1s

2 2s2 *2s

2 2py2 *2pz

1 2p1

(c) 1s2 *1s

2 2s2 *2s

2 2py2 2pz

2

(d) 1s2 *1s

2 2s2 *2s

2 2py1 2pz

1

(e) 1s2 *1s

2 2s2 *2s

2 2py1 *2py

1 2pz1 *2pz

1

Q18. What is the correct electron configuration for the molecular ion, B2+?

(a) 1s2 *1s

2 2s2 *2s

2 2p2

(b) 1s2 *1s

2 2s2 *2s

2 2py2

(c) 1s2 *1s

2 2s2 *2s

2 2py2 2pz

1

(d) 1s2 *1s

2 2s2 *2s

2 2p1 2py

1

(e) none of the above.

Q19. Draw the molecular orbital diagram for the molecular ion, N2+. The number of electrons in

the 2p molecular orbital is:

(a) 0

(b) 1

(c) 2

(d) 3

(e) 4

Q20. What is the bond order in O2+?

(a) 3.5

(b) 2.0

(c) 1.5

(d) 2.5

Q21. Draw the molecular orbital diagram for B2. The number of unpaired electrons in the

B2 molecule is

(a) zero

(b) 1

(c) 2

(d) 3

(e) 4

Q22. Which one of the following statements is false?

(a) Valence bond theory and molecular orbital theory can be described as two different views of

the same thing.

(b) When one considers the molecular orbitals resulting from the overlap of any two specific

atomic orbitals, the bonding orbitals are always lower in energy than the antibonding orbitals.

(c) Molecular orbitals are generally described as being more delocalized than hybridized atomic

orbitals.

(d) One of the shortcomings of molecular orbital theory is its inability to account for a triple

bond in the nitrogen molecule, N2.

(e) One of the shortcomings of valence bond theory is its inability to account for the

paramagnetism of the oxygen molecule, O2.

Q23. Antibonding molecular orbitals are produced by

(a) constructive interaction of atomic orbitals.

(b) destructive interaction of atomic orbitals.

(c) the overlap of the atomic orbitals of two negative ions

(d) all of these

(e) none of these

Q24. Which statement regarding stable heteronuclear diatomic molecules is false?

(a) All have bond orders greater than zero.

(b) The antibonding molecular orbitals have more of the character of the more

electropositive element than of the more electronegative element.

(c) Their molecular orbital diagrams are more symmetrical than those of homonuclear

diatomic molecules.

(d) The bonding molecular orbitals have more of the character of the more

electronegative element than of the less electronegative element.

(e) The greater is the difference in energy between two overlapping atomic orbitals, the

more polar the resulting bond is, due to electrons occupying the resulting bonding

molecular orbital.

Q25. The oxidation number of Cl in Cl2O7 is

(a) + 7

(b) + 5

(c) + 3

(d) – 7

Q26. Which of the following processes does not involve either oxidation or reduction?

(a) Formation of slaked lime from quick lime

(b) Heating Mercuric Oxide

(c) Formation of Manganese Chloride from Manganese oxide

(d) Formation of Zinc from Zinc blende

Q27The oxidation state of Cr in Cr (CO)6 is

(a) 0

(b) 2

(c) 2

(d) 6

Q28. Which of the following reactions does not involve either oxidation or reduction?

(a) VO2+

→ V2O3

(b) Na → Na+

(c) CrO2-

4 → Cr2O2-7

(d) Zn2+

→Zn

Q29. The oxidation number of Mn is maximum in

(a) MnO2

(b) K2MnO4

(c) Mn3O4

(d) KMnO4.

Q30. The oxidation process involves

(a) Increase in oxidation number

(b) Decrease in oxidation number

(c) No change in oxidation number

(d) none of the above

CLASS –XI

SUBJECT-MATHEMATICS/APPLIED MATHEMATICS

ASSIGNMENT (MONTH- OCTOBER ,2021)

Class 11

Biology Assignment

Biomolecules

1. A nucleotide is formed of

a. Nitrogen base, sugar and phosphate

b. Pyrimidine, sugar and phosphate

c. Purine, sugar and phosphate

d. Purine, pyrimidine and phosphate

2. Glycogen is a polymer of

a. Glucose

b. Sucrose

c. Galactose

d. Fructose

3. Most abundant organic compound on earth is

a. Cellulose

b. Steroids

c. Protein

d. Lipids

4. Protein synthesis in a cell takes place

a. in cytoplasm as well as in mitochondria

b. in the nucleolus as well as in cytoplasm

c. only on ribosomes attached to the nuclear envelope

d. only in the cytoplasm

5. In RNA, thymine is replaced by

a. Uracil

b. Guanine

c. Both

d. None of these

6. An enzyme brings about

a. reduction in activation energy

b. increase in activation energy

c. increase in reaction time

d. decrease in reaction time

7. The enzymes hexokinase which catalyses glucose to glucose-6-phosphate in

glycolysis is inhibited by glucose- 6-phosphate. This is an example of

a. feedback allosteric inhibition

b. non-competitive inhibition

c. competitive inhibition

d. None of these

8. The enormous diversity of protein molecules is due mainly to the diversity of

a. amino acid sequences within the protein molecule

b. peptide bonds

c. R groups on the amino acids

d. amino groups on the amino acids

9. Length of one turn of the helix in a B-form DNA is approximately

a. 3.4 nm

b. 0.34 nm

c. Both

d. None of these

10. Which of the following sets contains polysaccharides?

a. Starch, glycogen, cellulose

b. Sucrose, maltose, cellulose

c. Galactose, starch, sucrose

d. Glucose, fructose, lactose

11. The most basic amino acid is

a. Arginine

b. Glycine

c. Histidine

d. Glutamine

12. The Km value of the enzyme is the value of the substrate concentration at which the

reaction reaches to

a. ½ Vmax

b. Zero

c. ¼ Vmax

d. 2 Vmax

13. Which group contains biocatalysts?

a. Peptidase, amylase, rennin

b. Glucose, amino acids, fatty acids

c. Rhodopsin, pepsin, steapsin

d. Myosin, oxytocin, adrenalin

14. Enzymes that catalyse removal of groups from substrates by mechanisms other than

hydrolysis, and addition of groups to double bonds, are called

a. Lyases

b. Dehydrogenases

c. Both

d. None of these

15. Oils are rich in

a. Fats that are generally liquid at room temperature

b. Glycerol that possesses three hydroxyl groups

c. Esters of fatty acids

d. Saturated fatty acids

16. Bonds that do not exist in tertiary structure of proteins

a. Phosphodiester bonds

b. Hydrophobic interactions

c. Ionic bonds

d. Covalent bonds

17. Cleavage of specific covalent bonds and removal of groups without hydrolysis is the

property of

a. Lyases

b. Transferases

c. Isomerases

d. Hydrolases

18. Essential amino acids include

a. all of these

b. valine

c. leucine

d. tryptophan

CLASS XI

ASSIGNMENT FOR THE MONTH OF OCTOBER

COMPUTER SCIENCE/INFORMATICS PRACTICES

● TO DESIGN AND COMPLETE THE PRACTICAL FILE FOR TERM 1 (SESSION 2021-22)

MAKE A SET OF FIFTEEN USER INTERFACE PROGRAMS AS FINAL SUBMISSION FOR TERM 1 PRACTICAL

FILE FROM THE UNIT 2 (PROGRAMMING IN PYTHON).

OCTOBER ASSIGNMENT

SUBJECT-PSYCHOLOGY

CLASS -XI

PRACTICE PAPER

General instructions

Time – 90 Minutes Max Marks – 35

General instructions:

1. The Question Paper contains three sections.

2. Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.

3. Section B has 24 questions. Attempt any 20 questions.

4. Section C has 12 questions (Case and Picture based). Attempt any 5 questions per case and

picture based question.

5. All questions carry equal marks.

6. There is no negative marking.

Part- A

Q1.What is the full form of RAS?

i)Reticular Association System ii)Reticular Activating System

iii)Real Activating System iv) Retinal Active System

Q2. --------------- is a tentative solution to a problem.

i) Answer key ii) Analysis

iii)Hypothesis iii)Conclusion.

Q3. If you are driving a car, you see the road ahead & other vehicles by the function of your

__________.

i)OccipitalLobe ii)Temporal Lobe

iii)Frontal Lobe iv)Parietal Lobe.

Q4. Reliability means non- consistency of a test results.

[ true/ false ].

Q5. __________ are the branch-like specialised structure emanating from the soma.

i)Nucleus ii)Neuron

ii)Soma iv)Dendrites.

Q6.‘Positive correlation tells us that the value of one variable increases, the other variable also

_____________.

[a] Increases [b] Analyses

[c] Decreases [d] Remain constant.

Q7.Nearly _________ billion neurons are found in the Human Nervous System.

i)13 ii)12

iii)15 iv)11

Q8. ------------- is that which is manipulated, altered by the researcher in an experiment.

[a] Dependent variable [b] Constant variable

[c] Independent variable [d] Control variable.

Q9.The weight of the brain is about __________ percent of the total body weight.

i)1.35 ii)2.35

iii)3.35 iv)4.35

Q10. A wife has lost her husband, we cannot measure her suffering. Which method will be used by

psychologists to analyse such data.?

i)Qualitative ii)Quantitative

iii)Observational iv)Survey

Q11.Sensory nerves are also known as ___________.

i)Afferent nerve ii)Efferent nerve

iii)Motor nerve iv)Axons

Q12.___________is a type of Survey

i)Telephonic and Questionnaire ii)Telephonic and Road

iii)Questionnaire and house iv)Planning and Organisation

Q13. The Cerebrum is also known as _____________.

i)Cerebellum ii)Cerebral cortex

iii)Thalamus iv)Hypothalamus.

Q14. ------------ is an in-depth study of a child.

i)Observation ii)Survey

iii)Experiment iv)Case study.

Q15.The study of the inheritance of physical and psychological characteristics from ancestors is

referred to as __________.

i)Genetics ii)Phenotype

iii)Genotype iv)Chromosomes.

Q16.. ------------- studies opinions , social facts and attitudes

i)Telephoniccommunication ii)Questionnaire

iii)Survey iv)Quasi Experimentation

Q17.__________ is an agent of Socialisation

i)Enculturation ii)School

ii) Psychologists iv)Aculturation.

Q18. What is negative correlation?

i) Increase of the value of both X & Y variable.

ii) Decrease of the value of both X & Y variable.

iii) Increase of the value of X variable & decrease of Y

variable.

iv)No value increases or decreases

Q19.What is introspection?

i)To look out ii)To look within

iii)To see through iv) To see off

Q20. A psychologist sits in a corner and observes a class without interfering is called------------------.

i)Case history ii)Interview

ii)non-Participant observation iv)Survey

Q21.____________ refers to all learning that takes place without direct, deliberately teaching.

i)Acculturation ii)Enculturation

ii)Socialisation iv)Culture.

Q22. Test which assess the underlying ability of the

Individuals by allowing them sufficient time is------.

[a] Power [b] Speed

[C] Performance [d] Group

Q23. ___________ write the script of cultural transmission.

i)Genes ii)Chromosomes

iii)Memes iv)Heredity.

Q24. -------------- indicates that no relationship exists between two variables.

[a] Positive [b] Negative

[c] Zero [d] Neutral.

SECTION B

Q25. . In ________ methodological approach for the analysis of data, the researcher converts the

psychological attributes into usually numbers.

i)Quality ii)Quantity

ii)Co-relation iv)Survey.

Q26. One of the 23 chromosomes which is of a special significance is known as ____________.

i) sex chromosome ii)Genes

iii)neutral iv)Sperm cell.

Q27. Dr.Mukherji questioned a group of 9th graders about their career aspirations. This is an example

of :

i)Quantitative Method ii)Survey Method

iii)Case study iv)Quantitative Method

Q28. When any object suddenly comes near our eyes, our eyelids blink. What is this action refereed

to?

i) Cortex ii) Reflex action

iii)Senses iv) Motor action

Q29. Psychologists are primarily interested in knowing the factors that cause our behaviour to occur,

which is referred to as :

i) Prediction ii) Control

iii)Application iv)Explanation.

Q30. Nervous system consists of CNS and __________.

i)SNS ii)PNS

iii)ANS iv)FNS.

Q31. ___________is not an ethical issue of research pattern.

i)Informed Consent ii)Voluntary participation

iii)Confidentiality of the Data Source iv) Teaching and learning

Q32. There are _______ sets of cranial nerve which either emanate from or reach different locations

of the brain.

i)11 ii)12

iii)13 iv)14

Q33.Psychological measurements do not have a true zero point.

i) True ii)False iii)Sometimes can have iv) Always have

Q34.What is the full form of DNA?

i)Deoxyribonucleic Acid ii)Denonuclei Acid

iii)Deuronucleus Acid iv)Doxynucleus Acid

Q35.The word QUASI in latin means ___________

i) as if ii)why if iii)when if iv)then if

Q36.The person who has power to socialise us are referred to as ______________.

i)Cultural agents ii) Socialisation agents

iii)Media agents iv)Peer agents.

Q37.______________information generally includes name, gender, age ,birth order, education,

occupation etc.

i)Psychological ii)Physiological

iii)Physical iii)Demographic.

Q38. Pancreas secretes a hormone known as __________.

i)Insulin ii)Glucose

iii)Growth iv)Sex.

Q39.The Autonomic nervous system has two divisions ____________ & parasympathetic divisions.

i)Somatic ii)Sympathetic

iii)Spinal cord iv)Endocrine.

Q40. Behaviourism was propounded by ____________.

i) John Watson ii) John Dewey

iii) John Keatsiv) John Williams

Q41. In Cerebral cortex ____________ is concerned with cognitive functions.

i) Occipital lobe, ii)Frontal lobe

iii)Parietal lobe iv) Temporal lobe.

Q42. The __________ is in many ways, the best method for gathering scientific information.

i)Interview ii) Observation

iii)Experiment iv) Survey.

Q43. ___________ refers to an attitude in which there is an interest in both, maintaining one’s culture

as well as adopting other’s culture.

i)Marginalisation ii)Integration

iii)Assimilation iv)Separation.

Q44.___________ are useful in investigating unusual assumptions or unusual individuals.

i)Experiments ii)Observation

iii)Individual tests iv)Case-study.

Q45.______Psychology is a branch of Psychology which studies mental disorders and treatment.

i)Social ii) Developmental iii) Cultural iv) Clinical

Q46. __________is the theme of Psychology .

i)Human behaviour is caused

ii)Human behaviour is helping

iii)Human behaviour is working

iv)Human behaviour is based on law.

Q47. ____________psychology applies psychological principles to improve sports performance.

i)Sports ii)Cognitive iii)Cultural iv)Industrial

Q48.___________is the first step of research.

i) Collecting Data

ii) Conceptualizing a problem .

iii) Drawing Conclusions

iv) Revising Research Conclusions

SECTION C (Q49 to Q54- Attempt any 5 out of 6)

Observe the Diagram and answer the questions

Q49. NO 1 ____________

i) Axion ii) Soma iii) Nucleus iv) Myelin Sheath

Q50. NO 2 ______________________

i) Axion ii) Soma iii) Nucleus iv) Myelin Sheath

Q51. NO 3 ______________________

i) Axion ii) Soma iii) Nucleus iv) Myelin Sheath

Q52.NO 4 ________________________

i) Axion ii) Soma iii) Nucleus iv) Myelin Sheath

Q53 .NO 5_________________________

i) Axion ii) Soma iii) Terminal Buttons iv) Myelin Sheath

Q54._____________________is the fluid of the neuron .

i) Cytoplasm ii) Soma iii) Nucleus iv) Myelin Sheath

(Q55 to Q60- Attempt any 5 out of 6)

Radha went for a face to face interaction .She had to pick up a job in an MNC .So She was called

and asked a few questions which were random in nature related to identification data .Further she

was asked questions related to the post and were professional in nature .These professional

questions were already sorted on the leaflet. On televisions we usually see these type of

conversations between people and groups.

Q55.Name the method of research described above.

I) Participant Observation ii) Non-participant observation

iii)Interview iv)Naturalisticmethod

Q56.This method has two types

i) Participant /Non-participant

ii)Controlled/Naturalistic

iii)Structured/Non Structured

iv)Questionnaire/Telephonic

Q57.This method can be conducted as (choose the option which does not match the sentence)

i)Individual to Individual

ii)Group to Group

iii)Individual to Group

iv)Individual to teachers

Q58.Choose the option which does not match to the method described above.

i)It is not a money consuming method

ii)This method requires training and skill to ask the questions

iii)It is a flexible method adaptable to individual situations .

iv)This method can not be performed in the offices.

Q59.This method of research is used by the following

i)a doctor to obtain information by the patient

ii)an employer when selecting his employee

iii)a sales person while asking questions to a housewife about his brand of soaps.

iv)All the above

Q60.The respondent who answers the questions is called ___________

i)interviewee ii)person iii)interviewer iv)female /male

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

The Bases of Human Behaviour

Chapter-3

MCQ

1. The uniqueness of individuals results from the interaction of their

…………………….and …………………………demands.

2. Biologists believe that these species were not always like this; they have

……………….to their present form from their pre-existing forms.

3. It is estimated that the ……………………………………………..developed

some 2,00,000 years ago as a result of their continuous interaction with the

environment.

4. …………………..refers to gradual and orderly biological changes that result

in a species from their pre-existing forms in response to the changing

adaptational demands of their environment.

5. Physiological as well as behavioural changes that occur due to the evolution

process are so …………….that they become visible after hundreds of

generations.

6. Evolution occurs through the process of …..……………..

7. …………………is the ability of an organism to survive and contribute its

genes to the next generation.

8. The human ……………..is more evolved than other parts of the brain.

9. We have around ………………neurons in our brain.

10. Evolution refers to gradual and orderly ………………… changes that result

in a species from their pre-existing forms in response to the changing

adaptational demands of their environment.

11. Physiological as well as behavioural changes that occur due to the

…………………… process are so slow that they become visible after hundreds

of generations.

12. The human ……………….is more evolved than other parts of the brain.

13. ……………………..is the ability of an organism to survive and contribute

its genes to the next generation.

14. ………… share three fundamental components, i.e. soma, dendrites, and

axon.

15. The ……………….or cell body is the main body of the nerve cell.

16. Soma contains the …………..of the cell as well as other structures common

to living cells of all types.

17. The genetic material of the neuron is stored inside the …………and it

becomes actively engaged during cell reproduction and protein synthesis.

18. At the ……………point the axon branches into small structures, called

terminal buttons

19. Information travels within the nervous system in the form of a nerve

………….

20. Nerve potential is a sudden change in the electrical potential of the

………………of a neuron.

21. The nerve fibers work according to the “……………………………”

22. There is a small gap between the two neurons. This gap is known as

……………cleft.

23. The part of the nervous system found inside the hard bony cases (cranium

and backbone) is classified as……………..

24. ………………………nerves collect sensory information from receptors of

the head region (vision, audition, smell, taste, touch, etc.) and carry them to the

brain.

25. Movements of the eyeballs are controlled by …………….cranial nerves.

26. During fight or flight period, the digestion stops, blood flows from internal

organs to the muscles, and breathing rate, oxygen supply, heart rate, and blood

sugar level…………………….

27. An adult brain weighs about …………..kg and contains around 100 billion

neurons.

28. …………………… is known as the vital centre of the brain.

29. ……………..is involved in sleep mechanism, particularly the sleep

characterised by dreaming.

30. An important part of midbrain, known as

……………………………….(RAS), is responsible for our arousal.

31. ……………. is like a relay station.

32. The…………………. is also known as Cerebral Cortex.

33.The ……………... hemisphere is usually specialised to deal with images,

spatial relationships, and pattern recognition.

34. Simple ……………. involve a sensory nerve, a motor nerve, and the

association neurons of the grey matter of the spinal cord.

35. ………………….. secrete specific chemical substances, called hormones.

36. ……………….. glands are called ductless glands because they do not have

any duct (unlike other glands) to send their secretions to specific places.

37. The pituitary gland secretes the ……………..hormone

38. The adrenal cortex secretes a group of hormones, called……………………

39.The secretion of …………………………………..GTH starts at the age of

puberty (10 to 14 years in human beings) and stimulates gonads to secrete

hormones.

40. ……………………. are threadlike-paired structures in the nucleus of each

cell.

41. ………………….permits recombination of new genes with the genes

already present.

42. Human nature has evolved through an interplay of

……………………..forces.

43. …………………. refers to “the man-made part of the environment”.

44.………………………….. means that each organism is supposed to behave in a

manner so as to maximise its reproductive success.

45…………………… has proposed the notion of “genetic preparedness”,

which suggests that acquisition of particular behaviours via learning occurs in

fairly efficient ways to facilitate our adaptations with the environment.

46. Biological inheritance takes place through ……………. while cultural

inheritance takes place through………………….

47. The Biological inheritance takes place in a “……………….” manner (i.e.

from parents to children), while the cultural inheritance may also take place in a

“……………………” manner (i.e. from children to parents).

48. failure of ……………………. in any society may endanger the very

existence of that society.

49. ……………………………….. serve as basic means for achieving the goals

of socialisation.

50. Due to the processes of ……………………………..we find behavioural

similarities within societies and behavioural differences across societies.

10/1/2021 AXP Internal 1

Assignment for class 11th for October 2021

1. Express in your own words:-

a. Should only such person be chosen as ministers who happens to be

prime minister’s loyal friends?

b. Are you in favor of a secular state that doesn’t give you the freedom to

keep the name you like, because the name will identify you with a

particular religion?

c. Suggest some ways in which you think communal harmony could be

promoted?

OCTOBER ASSIGNMENT

GEOGRAPHY

CLASS - 11

TOPIC :

RASHTRIYA POSHAN MAAH [2021]

ACTIVITY – 1

FOOD CHART :

Prepare a food chart in scrap book with your daily meal [breakfast, lunch & dinner ],and list up the

nutrient intake with each meal. Maintain a record of 10 days food intake.

OR

ACTIVITY – 2

POSTER MAKING :

Make a poster on any one topic :

1. Importance of healthy food

2. Major nutrients / Importance of nutrients

3.Fuel up with a healthy diet

4.Roles and function of nutrients