bio sci reviewer

CHAPTER 1

The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .

1 CORRECT_____________ investigates the body's structure, whereas __________ investigates the processes or functions of living things.

A)Physiology, cytology

B)Physiology, anatomy

C)Anatomy, histology

D)Histology, cytology

E)Anatomy, physiology

Feedback: Correct Answer

2 CORRECT The study of tissues is called

A)cytology.

B)anatomy.

C)histology.

D)anatomic imaging.

E)physiology.


3 INCORRECT Ultrasound, X-rays, CT, and MRI are all examples of

A)anatomic imaging.

B)surface anatomy.

C)regional anatomy.

D)gross anatomy.

E)cytology.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Ultrasound, X-rays, CT, and MRI are examples of anatomic imaging.

4 INCORRECTA group of cells with similar structure and function, together with the extracellular substances located between them, form a(n)

A)organism.

B)organelle.

C)tissue.

D)organ.

E)organ system.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: A tissue is a group of cells with similar structure and function along with the extracellular substances between them.

5 INCORRECT The basic living unit of all plants and animals is the

A)cell.

B)chemical.

C)organ.

D)organelle.

E)tissue.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The cell is the basic unit of all living things.

6 INCORRECTWhich organ system removes substances from the blood, combats disease, maintains tissue fluid balance, and absorbs fat from the digestive tract?

A)endocrine

B) integumentary

C)lymphatic

D)respiratory

E)urinary

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The Lymphatic system functions in removing foreign substances from the blood and lymph, combating disease, helping to maintain tissue fluid balance and absorbing fats from the digestive tract.

7 CORRECT Which organ system consists of skin, hair, nails, and sweat glands?

A)endocrine

B) integumentary

C)lymphatic

D)respiratory

E)urinary


8 INCORRECTWhich organ system consists of hormone-secreting glands, such as the pituitary and thyroid glands?

A)endocrine

B) integumentary

C)lymphatic

D)respiratory

E)urinary

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The Endocrine system consists of hormone-secreting glands.

9 INCORRECTWhich of these characteristics of life helps maintain homeostasis when environmental conditions change?

A)growth and development

B)metabolism

C)organization

D)reproduction

E)responsiveness

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Responsiveness is the ability of an organism to maintain homeostasis by sensing changes in its internal or external environment and respond to them by making adjustments.

10 INCORRECT Development is a process that begins with fertilization and ends with

A)birth.

B)adolescence.

C)adulthood.

D)old age.

E)death.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Development begins with fertilization and ends with death.

11 INCORRECTGiven these terms related to negative-feedback: 1. control center 2. effector 3. receptor 4. response 5. stimulus Arrange them in the correct order as they operate to maintain homeostasis.

A)1,2,3,4,5

B)2,3,5,1,4

C)3,2,1,5,4

D)4,5,3,2,1

E)5,3,1,2,4

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The correct sequence in maintaining homeostasis is stimulus, receptor, control center, effector, and response.

12 INCORRECTA body temperature of 98.6 degrees F (37 degrees C) is the __________ for body temperature.

A)constant

B) lower limit

C)normal range

D)set point

E)upper limit

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: 98.6 degrees F is the set point (ideal normal value) for body temperature.

13 INCORRECT Which of these processes illustrates positive-feedback?

A) increase in respiratory rate during exercise

B)increase in heart rate when blood pressure decreases

C)shivering when body temperature decreases

D) increase in uterine contractions when uterine stretching increases during childbirth

E)all of these

Feedback: Incorrect answer: Shivering, resulting from a decrease in body temperature, is an example of a negative-feedback mechanism not a positive-feedback mechanism.

14 INCORRECT Failure of negative-feedback mechanisms to maintain homeostasis

A)may produce disease.

B)occurs when blood pressure increases during exercise.

C)can be corrected by stimulating positive-feedback mechanisms.

D)cannot be corrected by medical therapy.

E)all of these

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Negative-feedback mechanism failures may produce disease and cannot be corrected by stimulating positive-feedback mechanisms.

15 CORRECTAccording to the concept of negative feedback, a slight increase in blood pressure causes

A)an increase in heart rate.

B)a decrease in heart rate.

C)no change in heart rate.


16 INCORRECT To maintain homeostasis, the normal range of values for a variable

A) is always below the set point.

B)may change in different situations.

C)may not deviate from the set point.

D)occurs because of positive-feedback.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Occur because homeostatic mechanisms are unable to keep variables precisely at a set point, but by maintaining a variable range around the set point, homeostasis is maintained.

17 CORRECT A term that means "away from the midline" is:

A)distal

B) lateral

C)medial

D)proximal

E)superior


18 INCORRECTWhich of these descriptions does NOT apply correctly to a person in the anatomic position?

A)standing erect

B)head facing forward

C)feet facing forward

D)arms hanging to the side

E)palms facing toward the thighs

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: In the anatomic position, a person is standing erect, facing forward, arms hanging to the side with the palms of the hands facing forward.

19 INCORRECT The scapula (shoulder blade) is __________ to the lung.

A)dorsal

B)posterior

C)superficial

D)all of these

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The scapula is dorsal (synonymous with posterior) and superficial to the lung.

20 INCORRECT The elbow is __________ to the wrist.

A)distal

B) inferior

C)lateral

D)medial

E)proximal

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The elbow is proximal to the wrist as it is closer to the attachment point of the limb to the trunk.

21 INCORRECT The nose is __________ and __________ to the ears.

A)anterior, proximal

B)superior, lateral

C)inferior, posterior

D)anterior, medial

E)superficial, medial

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The nose is anterior and medial to the ears.

22 INCORRECT Which of the paired terms below are opposites?

A)anterior and cephalic

B)posterior and cephalic

C)posterior and caudal

D)superior and cephalic

E)anterior and dorsal

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Anterior and dorsal (synonymous with

posterior) are directional terms which are opposites.

23 INCORRECT Pancreatitis describes

A) inflammation of the pancreas.

B)removal of the pancreas.

C)cancer of the pancreas.

D)secretions from the pancreas.

E)death of the pancreas.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Inflammation of the pancreas is called pancreatitis.

24 INCORRECT A person lying flat on his back is said to be in the __________ position.

A)anatomic

B)prone

C)supine

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: A person is in the supine position when lying flat on his back.

25 INCORRECTGiven these directional terms: 1. caudal 2. cephalic 3. distal 4. inferior 5. proximal Which of these directional terms correctly describes the relationship of the ankle to the knee?

A)1,3

B)1,3,4

C)2,3,4

D)3,4

E)4,5

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The ankle is distal and inferior to the knee.

26 INCORRECT Which of these anatomical terms refers to the ankle?

A)crural

B)femoral

C)carpal

D)pedal

E)tarsal

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Tarsal refers to the ankle, femoral refers to the thigh.

27 INCORRECT Which of these anatomical terms refers to the shoulder?

A)acromial

B)brachial

C)cervical

D)clavicular

E)digital

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Acromial refers to the shoulder, brachial refers to the arm.

28 INCORRECT The only plane that can divide the body into equal halves is the

A)frontal (coronal) plane.

B)oblique plane.

C)midsagittal plane.

D)transverse plane.

E)Serengeti plane.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: A midsagittal plane runs vertically through the body and divides it equally into right and left portions.

29 INCORRECT A(n) __________ plane divides the body into superior and inferior portions.

A)frontal (coronal)

B)oblique

C)sagittal

D)transverse

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: A transverse (also called a horizontal) plane divides the body into superior and inferior portions.

30 INCORRECTA cut across the long axis of an organ made at other than a right angle is called a(n)

A)cross section.

B)transverse section.

C)oblique section.

D) longitudinal section.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: An oblique section is a cut made across the long axis of an organ not at a right angle.

31 INCORRECT In which quadrant of the abdomen would stomach pain most likely be felt?

A) lower left

B) lower right

C)upper left

D)upper right

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Because of the stomach's general position in the abdominal cavity, stomach pain is most likely to be felt at the left upper quadrant.

32 INCORRECT Which of these structures is NOT found in the mediastinum?

A)diaphragm

B)esophagus

C)heart

D)thymus gland

E)trachea

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The esophagus, heart, thymus gland, and trachea are all found in the mediastinum.

33 CORRECT Which of these statements concerning body regions is correct?

A)The pelvis is located between the thorax and abdomen.

B)The leg extends from the knee to the ankle.

C)The arm extends from the shoulder to the wrist.

D)The trunk can be divided into the thorax and pelvis.

E)The thorax is often subdivided superficially into four quadrants.


34 INCORRECTThe cavity surrounded by the rib cage and bounded inferiorly by the diaphragm is the

A)mediastinum.

B)pericardial cavity.

C)thorax.

D)abdomen.

E)pelvic cavity.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The thoracic cavity is surrounded by the rib cage and bound inferiorly by the diaphragm.

35 INCORRECT The lungs are separated by the

A)mediastinum.

B)mesenteries.

C)diaphragm.

D)peritoneal membranes.

E)pelvic cavity.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The mediastinum separates the lungs.

36 CORRECT Serous membranes

A) line body cavities that open to the outside.

B)produce a lubricating film of fluid.

C)are found only on the walls of the thoracic cavity.

D)separate the abdominal cavity from the pelvic cavity.

E)completely cover retroperitoneal organs.


37 INCORRECT The serous membrane on the surface of the lungs is called

A)parietal

pericardium.

B)visceral pericardium.

C)parietal pleura.

D)visceral pleura.

E)parietal peritoneum.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The visceral pleura is the serous membrane covering the lungs. The visceral pericardium covers the heart.

38 INCORRECT Which of these organs is NOT retroperitoneal?

A)adrenal glands

B)kidneys

C)urinary bladder

D)spleen

E)pancreas

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The adrenal glands, kidneys, urinary bladder and pancreas are all retroperitoneal organs.

39 INCORRECT

Given these serous membranes: 1. parietal pericardium 2. visceral pericardium 3. parietal peritoneum 4. visceral peritoneum 5. parietal pleura 6. visceral pleura A man had a knife wound that penetrated the abdomen, passed through the stomach, and hit the diaphragm, but did not pass all the way through. Arrange the serous membranes in the correct order as the knife passed through them.

A)1,2,4,3,5

B)2,3,4,4,3,2

C)3,4,4,3

D)4,3,3,4,5

E)5,6,6,4

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The knife passed through the parietal peritoneum into the abdominal cavity, then through the visceral peritoneum of the stomach going in and again coming out, and finally through the parietal peritoneum as it penetrated into the diaphragm.

40 INCORRECT You are doing a handstand. Your head is __________ to your neck.

A)superior

B) inferior

C)superficial

D)medial

E)proximal

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The head is always superior to the neck because relational descriptions are based on the anatomic position.

CHAPTER 2

Your Results:The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .

1 INCORRECT Which of these is a measurement of gravitational force?

A)mass

B)matter

C)weight

D)valance

E)electronegativity

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: weight is the gravitational force acting on an object of a given mass.

2 INCORRECT Neutrons are subatomic particles that

A)are located in the nucleus and have a positive charge.

B)are located in the nucleus and have no charge.

C)are located in the nucleus and have a negative charge.

D)are located around the nucleus and have a positive charge.

E)are located around the nucleus and have a negative charge.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Neutrons are located in the nucleus and have no charge.

3 CORRECT Most of the volume of an atom is occupied by the

A)electrons.

B)neutrons.

C)protons.

D)protons and neutrons.


4 INCORRECT The simplest type of matter with unique chemical properties is

A)an electron.

B)an element.

C)a neutron.

D)a proton.

E)an isotope.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: An element is the simplest type of matter with unique chemical properties.

5 INCORRECT The atomic number of an element is equal to the number of

A)electrons in each atom.

B)neutrons in each atom.

C)protons in each atom.

D)protons plus electrons in each atom.

E)neutrons plus electrons in each atom.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The atomic number of an element is equal to the number of protons in each atom.

6 INCORRECT Which of the pairs below are equal to each other in an atom?

A)neutrons and protons

B)protons and electrons

C)neutrons and electrons

D)atomic number and mass number

E)mass number and electrons

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The number of positively charged protons equals the number of negatively charged electrons in an atom.

7 INCORRECTGiven that manganese (Mn) has an atomic number of 25 and a mass number of 55, an atom of manganese has

A)25 neutrons.

B)25 electrons.

C)30 electrons.

D)55 protons.

E)80 neutrons.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Manganese has 30 neutrons. The mass number minus the atomic number (protons) of an atom equals the number of neutrons in the atom.

8 INCORRECTSelenium (Se) has 34 protons and 46 neutrons in each atom, therefore its atomic number is __________ and its mass number is __________.

A)12, 46

B)34, 46

C)12, 34

D)34, 80

E)46, 80

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The number of protons is equal to the atomic number, and the mass number is equal to the number of protons plus neutrons.

9 INCORRECT 14N and 15N are

A)different elements.

B)atoms with different atomic numbers.

C)isotopes of the same element.

D) identical except for different numbers of electrons.

E) identical except for different numbers of protons.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: 14N and 15N are isotopes, elements with the same number of protons and electrons, but different numbers of neutrons.

10 INCORRECTIn the human body, which element makes up the largest percentage of atoms by number?

A)carbon

B)fluorine

C)hydrogen

D)nitrogen

E)oxygen

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Hydrogen atoms make up the largest percentage of atoms by number in the body.

11 INCORRECTGiven that the atomic mass of magnesium is 24.31, which of these statements is true?

A)24.31g of magnesium contains 1 mol of magnesium atoms.

B)24.31g of magnesium contains Avogadro's number of magnesium atoms.

C)24.31g of magnesium contains 6.022 x 1023 magnesium atoms.

D)24.31g of magnesium has the same number of atoms as 12.01 g of carbon..

E)All of these are true.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: All of the statements concerning magnesium are correct.

12 INCORRECT The chemical behavior of an atom is determined largely by

A) its number of protons.

B) its outermost electrons.

C)the size of the electron cloud.

D) its mass.

E) its weight.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The outermost electrons of an atom determine its chemical behavior since those electrons will be shared with, or transferred to other atoms, resulting in chemical bonding.

13 INCORRECTChemical bonding occurs when the __________ are transferred or shared between atoms.

A)outer protons

B) largest neutrons

C)outermost electrons

D) innermost electrons

E)outermost protons

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The outermost electrons of an atom will be shared with or transferred to other atoms, resulting in chemical bonding.

14 CORRECT Ionic bonding occurs when

A)a cation and an anion are attracted to each other.

B)two cations are attracted to each other.

C)two anions are attracted to each other.

D)two atoms lose protons.

E)two atoms lose neutrons.

Feedback: Correct Answer: The attraction of positively charged cations and negatively charged anions results in ionic bonding.

15 INCORRECT An atom that gains an electron

A)becomes a cation.

B)becomes a different isotope of the same element.

C)has a different atomic number.

D)becomes an anion.

E)explodes.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: An atom that gains an electron becomes an anion.

16 CORRECT A calcium ion (Ca2+)

A)has lost two electrons.

B)has gained two electrons.

C)has gained two protons.

D)has lost two protons.

E)has gained two neutrons.


17 CORRECT When two hydrogen atoms each share an electron with an oxygen atom (H2O),

A)polar covalent bonding occurs.

B)nonpolar covalent bonding occurs.

C)ionic bonding occurs.

D)metallic bonding occurs.

E) it is called a james bond.


18 INCORRECTWhen a positively charged hydrogen atom of one water molecule is attracted to a negatively charged oxygen atom of another water molecule,

A)covalent bonding occurs.

B)hydrogen bonding occurs.

C)ionic bonding occurs.

D)metallic bonding occurs.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: hydrogen bonding results from the attraction of the positive end of a polar molecule to the negative end of another polar molecule.

19 INCORRECTPotassium chloride is formed when a potassium ion (K+) is attracted to a chloride ion (Cl-). Therefore, potassium chloride is

A)an atom.

B)a molecule.

C)a compound.

D)a metal.

E)all of these

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Potassium chloride is a compound since it is composed of two different ions held together by the force of attraction between their opposite charges.

20 INCORRECT If potassium chloride is placed in water, it will

A)form strong covalent bonds with the water molecules.

B)dissociate into separate ions.

C)not mix with the water.

D)become nonpolar.

E)form covalent potassium chloride molecules.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Potassium chloride will dissociate into separate ions in water.

21 CORRECT Which of these substances is nonpolar?

A)canola oil

B)glucose

C)potassium chloride

D)sodium chloride (table salt)

E)sucrose (table sugar)


22 INCORRECT Which of these substances is an electrolyte?

A)canola oil

B)glucose

C)fructose

D)sodium chloride

E)sucrose

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Canola oil is a lipid. Sodium chloride, which can dissociate in water and conduct electrical current, is an electrolyte.

23 CORRECT A synthesis reaction

A)may be a dehydration reaction.

B)results in catabolism.

C)may be a hydrolysis reaction.

D)breaks down a larger reactant into two or more smaller products.

E)all of these


24 INCORRECTAll of the synthesis and decomposition reactions that take place in the body are collectively referred to as

A)anabolism.

B)catabolism.

C)dissociation.

D)electrolytes.

E)metabolism.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Metabolism refers to all the synthesis and decomposition reactions that take place in the body.

25 INCORRECT The gain of an electron by an atom is called

A)anabolism.

B)catabolism.

C)oxidation.

D)reduction.

E)synthesis.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Reduction refers to an atom gaining an electron.

26 INCORRECT In which of these types of reactions does an equilibrium occur?

A)decomposition reaction

B)synthesis reaction

C)exchange reaction

D)reversible reaction

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Equilibrium occurs in a reversible reaction when the rate of product formation is equal to the rate of the reverse reaction.

27 INCORRECTChemical events in cells are regulated primarily by mechanisms that control either the concentration or the activity of

A)acids.

B)bases.

C)enzymes.

D) lipids.

E)sugars.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Because enzyme function is so essential to cell function, mechanisms that control enzyme concentration or activity regulate cellular chemical events.

28 CORRECT__________ energy results from the relative positions and interactions among the charged subatomic particles of a substance.

A)Chemical

B)Electric

C)Electromagnetic

D)Heat

E)Mechanical


29 INCORRECT Ultraviolet light is an example of

A)chemical energy.

B)electric energy.

C)electromagnetic energy.

D)heat energy.

E)mechanical energy.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Ultraviolet light is an example of electromagnetic energy.

30 CORRECT In which of these reactions is energy released?

A)hydrolysis of ATP to ADP

B)production of ATP from ADP

C)photosynthesis

D)production of glucose from CO2 and H2O

E)all of these


31 INCORRECT Osmolality

A)reflects the number of atoms in a solution.

B)of normal body fluid is about 300 osmoles.

C)influences the movement of water into and out of cells.

D) indicates the percent of solute by weight per volume of solution.

E)reflects the percent of solvent in a solution.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Osmolality reflects the number of particles in a solution. One osm contains 6.022 x 1023 particles per Kg of water.

32 CORRECT If the number of hydrogen ions in a solution is increased, the

A)solution becomes more acidic.

B)solution becomes more alkaline (basic).

C)pH of the solution will be increased.

D)solution is a buffer.

E)pH of the solution remains unchanged.


33 INCORRECTPotassium hydroxide (KOH) dissociates in solution to produce K+ and OH-; therefore it is classified as

A)an acid.

B)a base.

C)a buffer.

D)a neutral substance.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Because potassium hydroxide dissociates into K+ and OH- ions, it is a base. The OH- ions can bind with the H+ ion in a solution, increasing the pH.

34 INCORRECT Which of these is a monosaccharide?

A)sucrose

B)starch

C)glycogen

D)glucose

E)cellulose

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Glucose is a monosaccharide. Sucrose is a

disaccharide.

35 INCORRECTWhich of these molecules does NOT consist of glucose molecules joined together?

A)cellulose

B)glycogen

C)maltose

D)sucrose

E)starch

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Cellulose consists of joined glucose molecules.

36 INCORRECT __________ constitute 95% of the fats in the human body.

A)Phospholipids

B)Prostaglandins, thromboxanes, and leukotrienes

C)Steroids

D)Triglycerides

E)Vitamins

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Triglycerides constitute 95% of the fats in the human body.

37 CORRECT __________ are the building blocks for proteins.

A)Amino acids

B)Fatty acids and glycerol

C)Monosaccharide

s

D)Disaccharides

E)Nucleic acids


38 INCORRECTThe __________ structure of a protein results from the folding of the helices or pleated sheets.

A)primary

B)penitentiary

C)quaternary

D)secondary

E)tertiary

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The tertiary structure of a protein results from the folding of the helices or pleated sheets.

39 INCORRECT Enzymes

A)are always composed of monosaccharides.

B)function by raising the activation energy required for a reaction.

C)can control many different reactions.

D)generally decrease the rate of chemical reactions.

E)sometimes require cofactors to be functional.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Sometimes require cofactors in order to be functional.

40 INCORRECT Which of these are NOT a part of nucleotide molecules?

A)ribose or deoxyribose

B)nitrogenous organic bases

C)phosphate groups

D)purines and pyrimidines

E)peptides

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Peptides, which are linked amino acids, are not a part of nucleotide molecules.

CHAPTER 3Your Results:The correct answer for each question is indicated by a .

1 INCORRECT The largest percentage of molecules that make up the cell membrane are

A)carbohydrates, nucleic acids, and proteins.

B)carbohydrates, water, and nucleic acids.

C)phospholipids, cholesterol, and proteins.

D)nucleic acids, amino acids, and fatty acids.

E)water, carbohydrates and cholesterol.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Phospholipids, cholesterol, and proteins make up the largest percentage of molecules in cell membranes.

2 INCORRECTIn the fluid mosaic model, the double layer (bilayer) of molecules found in the cell membrane is made up of

A)cholesterol.

B)phospholipids.

C)carbohydrates.

D)nucleic acids.

E)proteins.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Phospholipids make up the bilayer of cell membranes. Cholesterol is embedded within the bilayer.

3 INCORRECTAlthough the basic structure of the plasma membrane is determined mainly by its __________ , the functions of the plasma membrane are determined mainly by its __________ .

A)carbohydrates, lipids

B)carbohydrates, proteins

C) lipids, proteins

D)nucleic acids, lipids

E)proteins, lipids

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Lipids determine basic structure, and proteins determine many functions of plasma membranes.

4 INCORRECT Which molecules in the cell membrane are mostly glycoproteins?

A)carrier molecules

B)channel proteins

C)marker molecules

D)receptor molecules

E)enzymes

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Marker molecules are mostly glycoproteins.

5 INCORRECT Which of these conditions decreases the rate of diffusion?

A) increased concentration gradient

B) increased viscosity

C)increased temperature

D)decreased size of solute particles

E)all of these

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: An increased concentration gradient would increase, not decrease, the rate of diffusion.

6 INCORRECTWhich of these substances diffuse directly through the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane?

A)glucose and amino acids

B)Na+ and Cl-

C)O2 and CO2

D)whole cells

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Because O2 and CO2 are soluble in lipids, they can diffuse directly through the phospholipid bilayer of the cell membrane. Glucose and amino acids, because of size and polarity cannot diffuse directly through the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane.

7 INCORRECT A 10% salt solution is __________ to distilled water.

A) isosmotic

B)hyperosmotic

C)hyposmotic

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: A 10% salt solution is hyperosmotic to distilled water since it contains a higher concentration of solute particles than the distilled water and therefore it has a greater osmotic pressure.

8 INCORRECTYou place blood cells in an unknown solution and observe them with a microscope; you notice that most of the cells have crenated. Therefore, you conclude that the unknown solution is

A) isosmotic to the cells.

B)hyperosmotic to the cells.

C)isotonic to the cells.

D)hypertonic to the cells.

E)hypotonic to the cells.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The unknown solution has to be hypertonic to the cells since water moved out of the cells via osmosis, causing them to crenate. Water moves from a high concentration to a low concentration, across a semipermeable membrane, towards the hypertonic solution.

9 INCORRECTSolution A has a greater osmotic pressure that solution B. Therefore, solution A contains __________ solutes and __________ water than solution B.

A)fewer, less

B)fewer, more

C)more, less

D)more, more

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Solution A contains more solutes and less water than solution B because the greater the concentration of solutes

in a solution, the greater the osmotic pressure of that solution.

10 INCORRECTIn question 18 above, if the containers for solution A and solution B are connected, with a selectively permeable membrane between them, water moves

A)from solution A to solution B.

B)from solution B to solution A.

C)equally in both directions.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Because water moves from a high concentration to a low concentration through a selectively permeable membrane in osmosis, water will move from solution B to solution A.

11 INCORRECT __________ depends upon a pressure difference on either side of a partition.

A)Active transport

B)Endocytosis

C)Facilitated diffusion

D)Filtration

E)Secondary active transport

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Filtration depends upon a pressure difference on either side of a partition, liquid moves from the side with the greatest pressure to the side with the lower pressure.

12 INCORRECT Which of these transport processes does NOT require ATP?

A)active transport

B)endocytosis

C)exocytosis

D)diffusion

E)secondary active

transport

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Of the choices, diffusion is the only transport process that does not require ATP. Active transport, endocytosis, exocytosis, and secondary active transport are all transport processes requiring ATP.

13 INCORRECT

Given these observations concerning a transport process into a cell: 1. ATP is required 2. does not exhibit saturation 3. solid particles are transported

The transport process involved is

A)active transport.

B)facilitated diffusion.

C)secondary active transport.

D)phagocytosis.

E)pinocytosis.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The transport process involved is phagocytosis, it requires ATP, does not exhibit saturation, and involves the transport of solid particles. Active transport does exhibit saturation.

14 INCORRECT

Given these characteristics of a transport process:

1. moves with the concentration gradient2. does not require energy3. requires carrier molecules

Which of these processes is described?

A)diffusion

B)facilitated diffusion

C)active transport

D)exocytosis

E)phagocytosis

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Facilitated diffusion moves with the concentration gradient, does not require energy, and does require carrier molecules. Diffusion also moves with the concentration gradient and does not require energy, but it does not require carrier molecules.

15 INCORRECTFormation of a secretory vesicle, fusion of the secretory vesicle to the cell membrane, and release of the contents of the secretory vesicles outside the cell describes

A)diffusion.


C)active transport.

D)phagocytosis.

E)exocytosis.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Exocytosis is the membrane transport mechanism involving the formation of a secretory vesicle, fusion of the secretory vesicle to the cell membrane, and release of the contents of the secretory vesicles outside the cell.

16 INCORRECTWhich of these processes involves a sodium-potassium exchange pump and two carrier molecules?

A)active transport

B)cotransport

C)diffusion

D)endocytosis

E)facilitated diffusion

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Cotransport is the process that involves a sodium-potassium exchange pump and two carrier molecules.

17 INCORRECT Microtubules are

A)composed of actin filaments.

B)essential components of cilia, flagella, centrioles, and spindle fibers.

C)responsible for changes in cell shape.

D)smaller in diameter than other cytoskeleton components.

E)all of these

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Microtubules are composed of protein tubulin and are essential components of cilia, flagella, centrioles and spindle fibers.

18 CORRECTWhich of these organelles function as intracellular digestive systems and contain enzymes?

A) lysosomes

B)rough endoplasmic reticulum

C)Golgi apparatus

D)nucleus

E)secretory vesicles


19 INCORRECTThe production and export of milk from mammary gland cells involves which of these cell organelles?

A)Golgi apparatus


C)smooth endoplasmic reticulum

D)vesicles

E)all of these

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The production and export of milk from the mammary glands would involve the Golgi apparatus, the rough and smooth endoplasmic reticulum, and vesicles.

20 INCORRECTDuring embryonic development, some structures are formed and then degenerate; the cell organelles responsible for the breakdown of these structures are the

A)Golgi apparatuses.

B) lysosomes.

C)mitochondria.

D)rough endoplasmic reticulum.

E)smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The lysosomes, organelles containing hydrolytic enzymes, function as intracellular digestive systems able to break down cellular structures.

21 INCORRECTAs a result of exercise, there is an increase in the number of __________ in muscle cells.

A)nuclei

B)mitochondria

C)lysosomes

D)Golgi apparatus

E)smooth endoplasmic reticulum

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: There is an increase in the number of mitochondria with exercise due to increased ATP demand.

22 CORRECTWhich of these organelles is surrounded by a double membrane layer that contains many pores?

A)nucleus


C)Golgi apparatus

D) lysosomes

E)both a and d


23 INCORRECT In which of these organelles is chromatin found?

A) lysosomes


C)Golgi apparatus

D)secretory vesicles

E)nucleus

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Chromatin, which consists of dispersed thin strands of DNA, histones and other proteins, is found in the nucleus of cells.

24 INCORRECT Subunits of ribosomes are manufactured in the

A)cytoskeleton.

B)endoplasmic reticulum.

C)Golgi apparatus.

D) lysosomes.

E)nucleolus.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The nucleolus is the structure in the

nucleus of cells where subunits of ribosomes are produced.

25 INCORRECT Which of these organelles contains DNA?

A)Golgi apparatus

B) lysosomes

C)mitochondria

D)rough endoplasmic reticulum


Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Besides in the nucleus of a cell, DNA can be found in mitochondria.

26 INCORRECTAerobic respiration produces __________ ATP molecules, __________ require oxygen to be available, and produces __________ as end product(s).

A)2, does not, CO2 and water

B)2, does, lactic acid

C)36-38, does not, lactic acid

D)36-38, does, CO2 and water

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Aerobic respiration produces 36-38 ATP molecules, requires oxygen, and produces CO2 and water as end products.

27 INCORRECT Chemical reactions that convert glucose to pyruvic acid in the cell are called

A)aerobic respiration.

B)anaerobic respiration.

C)the citric acid cycle.

D)the electron transport system.

E)glycolysis.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Glycolysis is the set of chemical reactions that convert glucose to pyruvic acid. Aerobic respiration is the breakdown of organic molecules to form ATP in the presence of oxygen.

28 INCORRECTA sequence of nucleotides in DNA that provides a chemical set of instructions for making a functional protein is called a

A)codon.

B)anticodon.

C)peptide bond.

D)mRNA.

E)gene.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: A gene is the sequence of nucleotides in DNA that code for a functional protein. A codon is the triplet nucleotide sequence on mRNA that codes for a particular amino acid.

29 INCORRECT Transcription takes place in the __________ of the cell.

A)cytosol

B)Golgi apparatus

C)mitochondria

D)nucleus

E)ribosomes

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Transcription takes place in the nucleus of the cell in eukaryotes.

30 CORRECT mRNA is copied from

A)DNA.

B)tRNA.

C)ribosomes.

D)polypeptide chains.

E)rRNA.

Feedback: Correct Answer: mRNA is the complementary copy of DNA formed during transcription.

31 INCORRECT In the DNA molecule, adenine always pairs with

A)cytosine.

B)guanine.

C)uracil.

D)thymine.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Adenine always pairs with thymine, and cytosine always pairs with guanine in the DNA molecule.

32 CORRECTThe __________ on a tRNA molecule pairs with three nucleotides on a mRNA molecule.

A)anticodon

B)codon

C)exon

D) intron

E)gene

Feedback: Correct Answer: The anticodon is the triplet nucleotide sequence on tRNA that is complementary to a codon sequence on mRNA.

33 INCORRECT Regions of DNA that do not code for portions of a protein are called

A)anticodons.

B)codons.

C)exons.

D) introns.

E)genes.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Introns are the sequences of DNA that do not code for portions of a protein. An anticodon is the triplet nucleotide sequence on tRNA that is complementary to a codon sequence on mRNA.

34 INCORRECTDuring the process of translation, __________ tRNA molecule(s) occupies the tRNA binding site(s) on a ribosome.

A)one

B)two

C)three

D)six

E)hundreds of

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Two tRNA molecules occupy the tRNA binding sites on a ribosome.

35 INCORRECT Part of a proprotein is cleaved off to make a functional protein. This describes

A)posttranscriptional processing.

B)posttranslational processing.

C)transcription.

D)translation.

E)mitosis.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The cleavage of a proprotein, forming a functional protein, is an example of posttranslational processing.

36 INCORRECT Replication of DNA takes place during the

A)G0 phase.

B)G1 phase.

C)G2 phase.

D)S phase.

E)M phase (mitosis).

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: DNA replication takes place during the S phase of interphase. The G0 phase is the phase that cells enter when they exit the cell cycle.

37 INCORRECT During the process of DNA replication,

A)one new DNA strand is formed.

B)the production of new nucleotide strands is catalyzed by DNA ligase.

C)short segments are spliced together by DNA polymerase.

D)each new DNA molecule has one strand of nucleotides from the original DNA and one newly synthesized strand.

E)all of these

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: During the process of DNA replication, two new strands are produced. Each new DNA molecule has one strand of nucleotides from the original DNA and one newly synthesized strand.

38 CORRECTBy the process of mitosis in a human cell, __________ daughter cells are produced, each of which has __________ chromosomes.

A)2, 46

B)2, 23

C)4, 46

D)4, 23

E)8, 23

Feedback: Correct Answer: In human cells, mitosis produces 2 daughter cells each with 46 chromosomes.

39 INCORRECT Which of these processes is associated with meiosis, but not mitosis?

A)DNA replication prior to division

B)cytokinesis

C)crossing over

D)prophase-metaphase-anaphase-telophase sequence

E)all of these

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: DNA replication prior to division occurs in both mitosis and meiosis. Crossing over occurs only in meiosis, not mitosis.

40 INCORRECT The process of meiosis

A) includes meiosis I, II, and III.

B)results in the production of sperm cells or oocytes.

C)produces 4 diploid cells.

D)produces gametes that are identical to the parent cell.

E)produces new cells for growth or tissue repair.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The process of meiosis results in the production of sperm cells or oocytes and includes meiosis I and II, there is no meiosis III.

CHAPTER 4


1 INCORRECT The largest percentage of molecules that make up the cell membrane are

A)carbohydrates, nucleic acids, and proteins.

B)carbohydrates, water, and nucleic acids.

C)phospholipids, cholesterol, and proteins.

D)nucleic acids, amino acids, and fatty acids.

E)water, carbohydrates and cholesterol.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Phospholipids, cholesterol, and proteins

make up the largest percentage of molecules in cell membranes.

2 INCORRECTIn the fluid mosaic model, the double layer (bilayer) of molecules found in the cell membrane is made up of

A)cholesterol.

B)phospholipids.

C)carbohydrates.

D)nucleic acids.

E)proteins.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Phospholipids make up the bilayer of cell membranes. Cholesterol is embedded within the bilayer.

3 INCORRECTAlthough the basic structure of the plasma membrane is determined mainly by its __________ , the functions of the plasma membrane are determined mainly by its __________ .

A)carbohydrates, lipids

B)carbohydrates, proteins

C) lipids, proteins

D)nucleic acids, lipids

E)proteins, lipids

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Lipids determine basic structure, and proteins determine many functions of plasma membranes.

4 INCORRECT Which molecules in the cell membrane are mostly glycoproteins?

A)carrier molecules

B)channel proteins

C)marker molecules

D)receptor molecules

E)enzymes

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Marker molecules are mostly glycoproteins.

5 INCORRECT Which of these conditions decreases the rate of diffusion?

A) increased concentration gradient

B) increased viscosity

C)increased temperature

D)decreased size of solute particles

E)all of these

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: An increased concentration gradient would increase, not decrease, the rate of diffusion.

6 INCORRECTWhich of these substances diffuse directly through the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane?

A)glucose and amino acids

B)Na+ and Cl-

C)O2 and CO2

D)whole cells

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Because O2 and CO2 are soluble in lipids, they can diffuse directly through the phospholipid bilayer of the cell membrane. Glucose and amino acids, because of size and polarity cannot diffuse directly through the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane.

7 INCORRECT A 10% salt solution is __________ to distilled water.

A) isosmotic

B)hyperosmotic

C)hyposmotic

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: A 10% salt solution is hyperosmotic to distilled water since it contains a higher concentration of solute particles than the distilled water and therefore it has a greater osmotic pressure.

8 INCORRECTYou place blood cells in an unknown solution and observe them with a microscope; you notice that most of the cells have crenated. Therefore, you conclude that the unknown solution is

A) isosmotic to the cells.

B)hyperosmotic to the cells.

C)isotonic to the cells.

D)hypertonic to the cells.

E)hypotonic to the cells.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The unknown solution has to be hypertonic to the cells since water moved out of the cells via osmosis, causing them to crenate. Water moves from a high concentration to a low concentration, across a semipermeable membrane, towards the hypertonic solution.

9 INCORRECTSolution A has a greater osmotic pressure that solution B. Therefore, solution A contains __________ solutes and __________ water than solution B.

A)fewer, less

B)fewer, more

C)more, less

D)more, more

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Solution A contains more solutes and less water than solution B because the greater the concentration of solutes in a solution, the greater the osmotic pressure of that solution.

10 INCORRECTIn question 18 above, if the containers for solution A and solution B are connected, with a selectively permeable membrane between them, water moves

A)from solution A to solution B.

B)from solution B to solution A.

C)equally in both directions.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Because water moves from a high concentration to a low concentration through a selectively permeable membrane in osmosis, water will move from solution B to solution A.

11 INCORRECT __________ depends upon a pressure difference on either side of a partition.

A)Active transport

B)Endocytosis

C)Facilitated diffusion

D)Filtration

E)Secondary active transport

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Filtration depends upon a pressure difference on either side of a partition, liquid moves from the side with the greatest pressure to the side with the lower pressure.

12 INCORRECT Which of these transport processes does NOT require ATP?

A)active transport

B)endocytosis

C)exocytosis

D)diffusion

E)secondary active transport

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Of the choices, diffusion is the only

transport process that does not require ATP. Active transport, endocytosis, exocytosis, and secondary active transport are all transport processes requiring ATP.

13 INCORRECT

Given these observations concerning a transport process into a cell: 1. ATP is required 2. does not exhibit saturation 3. solid particles are transported

The transport process involved is

A)active transport.


C)secondary active transport.

D)phagocytosis.

E)pinocytosis.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The transport process involved is phagocytosis, it requires ATP, does not exhibit saturation, and involves the transport of solid particles. Active transport does exhibit saturation.

14 INCORRECT

Given these characteristics of a transport process:

1. moves with the concentration gradient2. does not require energy3. requires carrier molecules

Which of these processes is described?

A)diffusion

B)facilitated diffusion

C)active transport

D)exocytosis

E)phagocytosis

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Facilitated diffusion moves with the concentration gradient, does not require energy, and does require

carrier molecules. Diffusion also moves with the concentration gradient and does not require energy, but it does not require carrier molecules.

15 INCORRECTFormation of a secretory vesicle, fusion of the secretory vesicle to the cell membrane, and release of the contents of the secretory vesicles outside the cell describes

A)diffusion.


C)active transport.

D)phagocytosis.

E)exocytosis.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Exocytosis is the membrane transport mechanism involving the formation of a secretory vesicle, fusion of the secretory vesicle to the cell membrane, and release of the contents of the secretory vesicles outside the cell.

16 INCORRECTWhich of these processes involves a sodium-potassium exchange pump and two carrier molecules?

A)active transport

B)cotransport

C)diffusion

D)endocytosis

E)facilitated diffusion

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Cotransport is the process that involves a sodium-potassium exchange pump and two carrier molecules.

17 INCORRECT Microtubules are

A)composed of actin filaments.

B)essential components of cilia, flagella, centrioles, and spindle fibers.

C)responsible for changes in cell shape.

D)smaller in diameter than other cytoskeleton components.

E)all of these

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Microtubules are composed of protein tubulin and are essential components of cilia, flagella, centrioles and spindle fibers.

18 CORRECTWhich of these organelles function as intracellular digestive systems and contain enzymes?

A) lysosomes


C)Golgi apparatus

D)nucleus

E)secretory vesicles


19 INCORRECTThe production and export of milk from mammary gland cells involves which of these cell organelles?

A)Golgi apparatus


C)smooth endoplasmic reticulum

D)vesicles

E)all of these

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The production and export of milk from the mammary glands would involve the Golgi apparatus, the rough and

smooth endoplasmic reticulum, and vesicles.

20 INCORRECTDuring embryonic development, some structures are formed and then degenerate; the cell organelles responsible for the breakdown of these structures are the

A)Golgi apparatuses.

B) lysosomes.

C)mitochondria.

D)rough endoplasmic reticulum.

E)smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The lysosomes, organelles containing hydrolytic enzymes, function as intracellular digestive systems able to break down cellular structures.

21 INCORRECTAs a result of exercise, there is an increase in the number of __________ in muscle cells.

A)nuclei

B)mitochondria

C)lysosomes

D)Golgi apparatus


Feedback: Incorrect Answer: There is an increase in the number of mitochondria with exercise due to increased ATP demand.

22 CORRECTWhich of these organelles is surrounded by a double membrane layer that contains many pores?

A)nucleus


C)Golgi apparatus

D) lysosomes

E)both a and d


23 INCORRECT In which of these organelles is chromatin found?

A) lysosomes


C)Golgi apparatus

D)secretory vesicles

E)nucleus

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Chromatin, which consists of dispersed thin strands of DNA, histones and other proteins, is found in the nucleus of cells.

24 INCORRECT Subunits of ribosomes are manufactured in the

A)cytoskeleton.

B)endoplasmic reticulum.

C)Golgi apparatus.

D) lysosomes.

E)nucleolus.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The nucleolus is the structure in the nucleus of cells where subunits of ribosomes are produced.

25 INCORRECT Which of these organelles contains DNA?

A)Golgi apparatus

B) lysosomes

C)mitochondria

D)rough endoplasmic reticulum


Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Besides in the nucleus of a cell, DNA can be found in mitochondria.

26 INCORRECTAerobic respiration produces __________ ATP molecules, __________ require oxygen to be available, and produces __________ as end product(s).

A)2, does not, CO2 and water

B)2, does, lactic acid

C)36-38, does not, lactic acid

D)36-38, does, CO2 and water

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Aerobic respiration produces 36-38 ATP molecules, requires oxygen, and produces CO2 and water as end products.

27 INCORRECT Chemical reactions that convert glucose to pyruvic acid in the cell are called

A)aerobic respiration.

B)anaerobic respiration.

C)the citric acid cycle.

D)the electron transport system.

E)glycolysis.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Glycolysis is the set of chemical reactions that convert glucose to pyruvic acid. Aerobic respiration is the breakdown of organic molecules to form ATP in the presence of oxygen.

28 INCORRECTA sequence of nucleotides in DNA that provides a chemical set of instructions for making a functional protein is called a

A)codon.

B)anticodon.

C)peptide bond.

D)mRNA.

E)gene.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: A gene is the sequence of nucleotides in DNA that code for a functional protein. A codon is the triplet nucleotide sequence on mRNA that codes for a particular amino acid.

29 INCORRECT Transcription takes place in the __________ of the cell.

A)cytosol

B)Golgi apparatus

C)mitochondria

D)nucleus

E)ribosomes

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Transcription takes place in the nucleus of the cell in eukaryotes.

30 CORRECT mRNA is copied from

A)DNA.

B)tRNA.

C)ribosomes.

D)polypeptide chains.

E)rRNA.

Feedback: Correct Answer: mRNA is the complementary copy of DNA formed during transcription.

31 INCORRECT In the DNA molecule, adenine always pairs with

A)cytosine.

B)guanine.

C)uracil.

D)thymine.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Adenine always pairs with thymine, and cytosine always pairs with guanine in the DNA molecule.

32 CORRECTThe __________ on a tRNA molecule pairs with three nucleotides on a mRNA molecule.

A)anticodon

B)codon

C)exon

D) intron

E)gene

Feedback: Correct Answer: The anticodon is the triplet nucleotide sequence on tRNA that is complementary to a codon sequence on mRNA.

33 INCORRECT Regions of DNA that do not code for portions of a protein are called

A)anticodons.

B)codons.

C)exons.

D) introns.

E)genes.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Introns are the sequences of DNA that do not code for portions of a protein. An anticodon is the triplet nucleotide sequence on tRNA that is complementary to a codon sequence on mRNA.

34 INCORRECTDuring the process of translation, __________ tRNA molecule(s) occupies the tRNA binding site(s) on a ribosome.

A)one

B)two

C)three

D)six

E)hundreds of

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Two tRNA molecules occupy the tRNA binding sites on a ribosome.

35 INCORRECT Part of a proprotein is cleaved off to make a functional protein. This describes

A)posttranscriptional processing.

B)posttranslational processing.

C)transcription.

D)translation.

E)mitosis.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The cleavage of a proprotein, forming a functional protein, is an example of posttranslational processing.

36 INCORRECT Replication of DNA takes place during the

A)G0 phase.

B)G1 phase.

C)G2 phase.

D)S phase.

E)M phase (mitosis).

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: DNA replication takes place during the S phase of interphase. The G0 phase is the phase that cells enter when they exit the cell cycle.

37 INCORRECT During the process of DNA replication,

A)one new DNA strand is formed.

B)the production of new nucleotide strands is catalyzed by DNA ligase.

C)short segments are spliced together by DNA polymerase.

D)each new DNA molecule has one strand of nucleotides from the original DNA and one newly synthesized strand.

E)all of these

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: During the process of DNA replication, two new strands are produced. Each new DNA molecule has one strand of nucleotides from the original DNA and one newly synthesized strand.

38 CORRECTBy the process of mitosis in a human cell, __________ daughter cells are produced, each of which has __________ chromosomes.

A)2, 46

B)2, 23

C)4, 46

D)4, 23

E)8, 23

Feedback: Correct Answer: In human cells, mitosis produces 2 daughter cells each with 46 chromosomes.

39 INCORRECT Which of these processes is associated with meiosis, but not mitosis?

A)DNA replication prior to division

B)cytokinesis

C)crossing over

D)prophase-metaphase-anaphase-telophase sequence

E)all of these

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: DNA replication prior to division occurs in both mitosis and meiosis. Crossing over occurs only in meiosis, not mitosis.

40 INCORRECT The process of meiosis

A) includes meiosis I, II, and III.

B)results in the production of sperm cells or oocytes.

C)produces 4 diploid cells.

D)produces gametes that are identical to the parent cell.

E)produces new cells for growth or tissue repair.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The process of meiosis results in the production of sperm cells or oocytes and includes meiosis I and II, there is no meiosis III.

CHAPTER 5


1 INCORRECT A major function of the skin is protection from

A)abrasion.

B)ultraviolet light.

C)entry of microorganisms.

D)dehydration.

E)all of these

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: In addition to protecting us from

abrasions, the skin provides protection from ultraviolet light, the entry of microorganisms, and dehydration.

2 CORRECTThe layer of skin that is composed of dense connective tissue and has projections called papillae is the

A)dermis.

B)hypodermis.

C)stratum corneum.

D)stratum basale.

E)stratum lucidum.

Feedback: Correct Answer: The dermis is the layer of the skin composed of dense connective tissue with projections called papillae.

3 INCORRECT Striae occur as a result of

A)pimples.

B)overstretching the dermis.

C)losing too much epidermis.

D)too many fibers in the hypodermis.

E) loss of hair follicles.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Striae or stretch marks occur because of overstretching of the dermis.

4 INCORRECTThis layer contains loose connective tissue and has about half of the body's stored fat.

A)dermis

B)hypodermis

C)stratum corneum

D)stratum basale

E)stratum lucidum

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The hypodermis is the layer that contains loose connective tissue and half of the body's stored fat. The dermis is part of the skin that sits on the hypodermis.

5 INCORRECT The specific layer that shapes the ridges for fingerprints and footprints is the

A)hypodermis.

B)papillary layer of the dermis.

C)reticular layer of the dermis.

D)underlying muscle layer.

E)superficial bony layer.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The papillary layer of the dermis shapes the overlying epidermis into fingerprints and footprints at thick skin.

6 INCORRECT The epidermis is nourished by diffusion from capillaries in the

A)epidermis.

B)reticular layer of the dermis.

C)papillary layer of the dermis.

D)hypodermis.

E)subcutaneous tissue.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The epidermis is nourished by diffusion from capillaries residing in the papillary layer of the dermis.

7 CORRECT Cell division occurs in which layer of the epidermis?

A)stratum basale

B)stratum corneum

C)stratum granulosum

D)stratum lucidum

E)stratum reticularis

Feedback: Correct Answer: Cell division occurs in the stratum basale of the epidermis.

8 INCORRECT The stratum germinativum includes both the stratum basale and the

A)stratum corneum.

B)stratum granulosum.

C)stratum lucidum.

D)stratum reticularis.

E)stratum spinosum.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The stratum germinativum includes the stratum basale, where most of the epidermal cells undergoing mitosis reside, and the stratum spinosum, where a limited amount of cell division takes place.

9 INCORRECTIn which layer of epidermis do the nucleus and other organelles disintegrate, and the cells die?

A)stratum basale

B)stratum corneum


D)stratum lucidum

E)stratum spinosum

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The stratum granulosum is the layer of the epidermis where the nuclei and organelles of the epidermal cells begin to disintegrate and the cells are said to die.

10 INCORRECTThe __________ consists of many layers of dead squamous cells surrounded by lipids.

A)dermi

s

B)hypodermis

C)stratum corneum

D)stratum basale

E)stratum spinosum

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The stratum corneum is the layer of the epidermis that consists of multiple layers of dead squamous cells surrounded by lipids.

11 INCORRECT In which of these layers are melanocytes found?

A)dermis

B)hypodermis

C)stratum corneum

D)stratum basale

E)stratum lucidum

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Melanocytes, the cells which produce melanin, are found in the stratum basale intermixed with the keratinocytes.

12 INCORRECT Thick skin

A)usually lacks the stratum lucidum.

B)is typically found on the back.

C)does not produce hair.

D)(unlike thin skin) develops calluses and corns.

E)all of these

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Thick skin does contain the stratum lucidum. It does not produce hair.

13 INCORRECT Most of the cells of the epidermis are

A)fibroblasts.

B)keratinocytes.

C)Langerhans cells.

D)macrophages.

E)melanocytes.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Keratinocytes are the most numerous cells found in the epidermis.

14 INCORRECT Which of these statements is true regarding keratinization?

A)The deepest cells are located in the stratum corneum.

B)Epithelial cells eventually die and produce an outer layer of cells.

C)The stratum corneum has cuboidal or columnar cells that undergo mitotic division.

D)The stratum basale can thicken to produce a callus.

E)The newest cells are found in the outer layer of cells.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The deepest cells are located in the stratum basale.

15 INCORRECT Cyanosis is a condition caused by

A)consuming large amounts of carotene.

B)increased blood flow to the skin.

C)albinism.

D)exposure to ultraviolet light.

E)a decrease in blood oxygen.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Cyanosis, a bluish skin color, is caused by decreased blood oxygen.

16 INCORRECT Concerning skin color, which of these statements is correctly matched?

A)Skin appears yellow = not enough oxygen in blood.

B)Pale skin = shock.

C)Skin tans = increased carotene in stratum corneum.

D)Dark skin = less melanin than light skin.

E)Pregnancy = decrease in the production of melanin.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Cyanosis, a bluish skin color, is caused by decreased blood oxygen. A yellowish skin tone can be associated with carotene accumulation in the stratum corneum and hypodermis.

17 INCORRECT Melanin

A)production occurs in melanocytes and keratinocytes.

B) is packaged into vesicles called melanosomes.

C)is present in large quantities on the soles of the feet.

D) is responsible for skin color, but not hair color.

E)all of these

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Melanin production occurs only in the melanocytes.

18 INCORRECT All of these conditions increase the amount of melanin in the skin EXCEPT:

A)exposure to ultraviolet light.

B)pregnancy.

C)Addison's disease.

D)vitiligo.

E)freckles.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Exposure to ultraviolet light would increase the amount of melanin in the skin.

19 INCORRECTWhich type of burn is described by all of the following characteristics? 1. epidermis and dermis destroyed 2. initially painless 3. much scar tissue formed

A)first-degree burn

B)second-degree burn

C)third-degree burn

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: In first-degree burns only the epidermis is involved. The burns are red and painful with no scarring.

20 INCORRECTAccording to "the rule of nines," a man burned extensively on his head and both upper limbs has burns on __________ percent of his body.

A)9

B)18

C)27

D)36

E)45

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Because each limb accounts for 9% of the body and the head would account for another 9% the total percentage for this man's burns would be 27%.

21 INCORRECTWhich of these is the type of hair found on the fetus, but is not present after birth?

A)terminal hair

B)lanugo

C)vellus hair

D)both a and b

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Lanugo is the type of hair found on the fetus but is not present after birth. Terminal hair replaces lanugo hair at teh eyelids, scalp and eyebrows around the time of birth.

22 INCORRECT "Peach fuzz" found on the face of a 1-year old baby is

A) lanugo.

B)terminal hair.

C)vellus hair.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Lanugo hair is the type of hair found on a fetus, which is not present after birth. Vellus hair, which is short, fine, and usually unpigmented, would be the "peach fuzz" found on the face of a 1-year old.

23 INCORRECT Terminal hair

A) is found in greater quantity in adult females than in adult males.

B)decreases at puberty.

C)is found on eyebrows and eyelids.

D) is fine, unpigmented hair.

E) is found only on the toes.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Terminal hair, which is long, coarse, and pigmented, is found in greater quantity in the adult male not the adult female.

24 INCORRECT The outermost layer of the hair shaft is the

A)cortex.

B)cuticle.

C)medulla.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The cuticle is the outermost layer of the hair shaft. The middle layer is the cortex and the innermost layer is the medulla.

25 INCORRECT The hair follicle

A)has an epithelial root sheath and a dermal root sheath.

B)can provide epithelial cells for skin repair.

C)contains only the stratum germinativum at the hair bulb.

D)has an arrector pili muscle attached.

E)all of these

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The hair follicle has an epithelial root sheath and a dermal root sheath, can provide epithelial cells for skin repair, contains only the stratum germinativum at the hair bulb and has arrector pili muscle attached to it.

26 CORRECT Hair is formed from epithelial cells in the

A)matrix.

B)dermal root sheath.

C)hypodermis.

D)cuticle.

E)hair shaft.

Feedback: Correct Answer: Hair is formed from epithelial cells in the matrix.

27 INCORRECT Scalp hairs can grow longer than eyelash hairs because

A)the head has a better blood supply than the eyelid.

B)the hair follicles in the scalp are much deeper than follicles in the eyelid.

C)the scalp hairs are more exposed to the sun, which stimulates growth.

D)the growth stage for scalp hairs is longer than for eyelash hairs.

E)the eyelash hair shaft consists of columns of dead keratinized epithelial cells.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Scalp hairs can grow longer than eyelash hairs because the growth stage for scalp hair is longer than for eyelashes. Scalp hairs grow for a period of three years then rest for 1-2 years, while eyelashes grow for approximately 30 days then rest for 105 days.

28 INCORRECT After the resting stage of hair growth, each hair normally

A)grows more rapidly.

B)falls out.

C)loses its pigmentation.

D)produces more melanocytes.

E) increases the depth of the hair follicle.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Hair normally falls out after the resting stage of hair growth.

29 INCORRECT Arrector pili muscles

A)consist of skeletal muscle fibers.

B)are attached directly to the hair shaft.

C)contract in response to frightening situations.

D)cause sweat glands to contract.

E)assist in the production of sebum.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Arrector pili muscles consist of smooth muscle cells.

30 INCORRECT "Pattern baldness"

A)occurs only in men.

B) is not genetic.

C)occurs when vellus hairs are replaced by terminal hairs.

D) involves the hormone testosterone.

E)all of these

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: "Pattern baldness", seen most often in males, can also occur in females.

31 INCORRECTWhich glands of the skin possess all of the following characteristics? 1. secrete oily, white substance rich in lipids 2. open into a hair follicle 3. during secretion, lysis and death of secretory cells occurs

A)apocrine sweat glands

B)merocrine sweat glands

C)sebaceous glands

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Sebaceous glands secrete an oily, white substance rich in lipids, open into hair follicles, and during secretion have their secretory cells lyse and become part of the secretion.

32 INCORRECT Which of these parts of the body have the most merocrine sweat glands?

A)margins of the lips

B)soles of the feet

C)forearm

D) leg

E)back of neck

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: There are not merocrine glands at the margins of the lips.

33 INCORRECT Apocrine sweat glands

A)are found everywhere in the body except the palms of the hands.

B)produce secretions that are metabolized by bacteria to produce

odor.

C)are functional even in babies.

D)are located in the external auditory meatus.

E)produce cerumen.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Apocrine sweat glands are found at the axillae, the genitalia (scrotum and labia majora), and the anus.

34 CORRECT Nails

A)grow from the nail matrix.

B)have a resting stage, similar to hair.

C)have a visible part, which is the nail bed.

D)have a hyponychium, which is the whitish, crescent-shaped area at the base of the nail.

E)contain proteoglycans and chondrocytes.

Feedback: Correct Answer: Nails grow primarily from the nail matrix, although the nail bed does contribute as well.

35 INCORRECT The nail is __________ that contains hard keratin.

A)stratum basale

B)stratum corneum


D)stratum lucidum

E)stratum spinosum

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The nail is stratum corneum containing hard keratin.

36 INCORRECT Which of these events occur as a result of a decrease in body temperature?

A)blood vessels in the epidermis dilate, at first

B)blood vessels in the dermis constrict if skin temperature falls below 15 degrees C

C)contraction of arrector pili muscles

D)sweat is produced

E)all of these

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: In response to a decrease in body temperature, dermal blood vessels will initially constrict, reducing blood flow to the skin and thereby decrease heat loss.

37 INCORRECT Protective functions of the integumentary system include all of these EXCEPT:

A)callus formation prevents damage by friction.

B)nails protect the ends of digits.

C)hairs in the nose and ears prevent entry of foreign materials.

D)hair protects the head from abrasion and ultraviolet light.

E)skin glands produce alkaline secretions that kill bacteria.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Callus formation prevents damage from friction or pressure.

38 INCORRECT As a result of aging, the skin

A) increases the amount of elastic fibers in the dermis.

B)becomes thicker.

C)has decreased blood flow.

D)has increased activity of the sebaceous and sweat glands.

E)generally increases the amount of melanin produced.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The amount of elastic fibers in skin decreases, not increases, with aging.

39 INCORRECT Which of these is NOT considered to be a cause of acne?

A)hormones, especially testosterone

B)a diet rich in fatty foods and chocolate

C)abnormal keratinization of hair follicles

D)an increase in sebum production

E)the bacterium Propionibacterium acnes

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The hormone testosterone is a known cause of acne. Increased levels of testosterone during puberty make acne common at this age.

40 CORRECTWhich of these qualities must a medication possess if it is absorbed from a skin patch?

A) lipid-soluble

B)water-soluble

C)must contain keratin

D)must be slightly acidic

E)must contain melanin

Feedback: Correct Answer: Lipids released from lamellar bodies into the intercellular space allow medications that are lipid-soluble to be absorbed through the skin.

CHAPTER 6


1 INCORRECT A major function of the skin is protection from

A)abrasion.

B)ultraviolet light.

C)entry of microorganisms.

D)dehydration.

E)all of these

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: In addition to protecting us from abrasions, the skin provides protection from ultraviolet light, the entry of microorganisms, and dehydration.

2 CORRECTThe layer of skin that is composed of dense connective tissue and has projections called papillae is the

A)dermis.

B)hypodermis.

C)stratum corneum.

D)stratum basale.

E)stratum lucidum.

Feedback: Correct Answer: The dermis is the layer of the skin composed of dense connective tissue with projections called papillae.

3 INCORRECT Striae occur as a result of

A)pimples.

B)overstretching the dermis.

C)losing too much epidermis.

D)too many fibers in the hypodermis.

E) loss of hair follicles.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Striae or stretch marks occur because of overstretching of the dermis.

4 INCORRECTThis layer contains loose connective tissue and has about half of the body's stored fat.

A)dermis

B)hypodermis

C)stratum corneum

D)stratum basale

E)stratum lucidum

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The hypodermis is the layer that contains loose connective tissue and half of the body's stored fat. The dermis is part of the skin that sits on the hypodermis.

5 INCORRECT The specific layer that shapes the ridges for fingerprints and footprints is the

A)hypodermis.

B)papillary layer of the dermis.

C)reticular layer of the dermis.

D)underlying muscle layer.

E)superficial bony layer.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The papillary layer of the dermis shapes the overlying epidermis into fingerprints and footprints at thick skin.

6 INCORRECT The epidermis is nourished by diffusion from capillaries in the

A)epidermis.

B)reticular layer of the dermis.

C)papillary layer of the dermis.

D)hypodermis.

E)subcutaneous tissue.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The epidermis is nourished by diffusion

from capillaries residing in the papillary layer of the dermis.

7 CORRECT Cell division occurs in which layer of the epidermis?

A)stratum basale

B)stratum corneum


D)stratum lucidum

E)stratum reticularis

Feedback: Correct Answer: Cell division occurs in the stratum basale of the epidermis.

8 INCORRECT The stratum germinativum includes both the stratum basale and the

A)stratum corneum.

B)stratum granulosum.

C)stratum lucidum.

D)stratum reticularis.

E)stratum spinosum.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The stratum germinativum includes the stratum basale, where most of the epidermal cells undergoing mitosis reside, and the stratum spinosum, where a limited amount of cell division takes place.

9 INCORRECTIn which layer of epidermis do the nucleus and other organelles disintegrate, and the cells die?

A)stratum basale

B)stratum corneum


D)stratum lucidum

E)stratum spinosum

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The stratum granulosum is the layer of the epidermis where the nuclei and organelles of the epidermal cells begin to disintegrate and the cells are said to die.

10 INCORRECTThe __________ consists of many layers of dead squamous cells surrounded by lipids.

A)dermis

B)hypodermis

C)stratum corneum

D)stratum basale

E)stratum spinosum

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The stratum corneum is the layer of the epidermis that consists of multiple layers of dead squamous cells surrounded by lipids.

11 INCORRECT In which of these layers are melanocytes found?

A)dermis

B)hypodermis

C)stratum corneum

D)stratum basale

E)stratum lucidum

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Melanocytes, the cells which produce melanin, are found in the stratum basale intermixed with the keratinocytes.

12 INCORRECT Thick skin

A)usually lacks the stratum lucidum.

B)is typically found on the back.

C)does not produce hair.

D)(unlike thin skin) develops calluses and corns.

E)all of these

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Thick skin does contain the stratum lucidum. It does not produce hair.

13 INCORRECT Most of the cells of the epidermis are

A)fibroblasts.

B)keratinocytes.

C)Langerhans cells.

D)macrophages.

E)melanocytes.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Keratinocytes are the most numerous cells found in the epidermis.

14 INCORRECT Which of these statements is true regarding keratinization?

A)The deepest cells are located in the stratum corneum.

B)Epithelial cells eventually die and produce an outer layer of cells.

C)The stratum corneum has cuboidal or columnar cells that undergo mitotic division.

D)The stratum basale can thicken to produce a callus.

E)The newest cells are found in the outer layer of cells.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The deepest cells are located in the stratum basale.

15 INCORRECT Cyanosis is a condition caused by

A)consuming large amounts of carotene.

B)increased blood flow to the skin.

C)albinism.

D)exposure to ultraviolet light.

E)a decrease in blood oxygen.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Cyanosis, a bluish skin color, is caused by decreased blood oxygen.

16 INCORRECT Concerning skin color, which of these statements is correctly matched?

A)Skin appears yellow = not enough oxygen in blood.

B)Pale skin = shock.

C)Skin tans = increased carotene in stratum corneum.

D)Dark skin = less melanin than light skin.

E)Pregnancy = decrease in the production of melanin.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Cyanosis, a bluish skin color, is caused by decreased blood oxygen. A yellowish skin tone can be associated with carotene accumulation in the stratum corneum and hypodermis.

17 INCORRECT Melanin

A)production occurs in melanocytes and keratinocytes.

B) is packaged into vesicles called melanosomes.

C)is present in large quantities on the soles of the feet.

D) is responsible for skin color, but not hair color.

E)all of these

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Melanin production occurs only in the melanocytes.

18 INCORRECT All of these conditions increase the amount of melanin in the skin EXCEPT:

A)exposure to ultraviolet light.

B)pregnancy.

C)Addison's disease.

D)vitiligo.

E)freckles.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Exposure to ultraviolet light would increase the amount of melanin in the skin.

19 INCORRECTWhich type of burn is described by all of the following characteristics? 1. epidermis and dermis destroyed 2. initially painless 3. much scar tissue formed

A)first-degree burn

B)second-degree burn

C)third-degree burn

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: In first-degree burns only the epidermis is involved. The burns are red and painful with no scarring.

20 INCORRECTAccording to "the rule of nines," a man burned extensively on his head and both upper limbs has burns on __________ percent of his body.

A)9

B)18

C)27

D)36

E)45

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Because each limb accounts for 9% of the body and the head would account for another 9% the total percentage for this man's burns would be 27%.

21 INCORRECTWhich of these is the type of hair found on the fetus, but is not present after birth?

A)terminal hair

B)lanugo

C)vellus hair

D)both a and b

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Lanugo is the type of hair found on the fetus but is not present after birth. Terminal hair replaces lanugo hair at teh eyelids, scalp and eyebrows around the time of birth.

22 INCORRECT "Peach fuzz" found on the face of a 1-year old baby is

A) lanugo.

B)terminal hair.

C)vellus hair.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Lanugo hair is the type of hair found on a fetus, which is not present after birth. Vellus hair, which is short, fine, and usually unpigmented, would be the "peach fuzz" found on the face of a 1-year old.

23 INCORRECT Terminal hair

A) is found in greater quantity in adult females than in adult males.

B)decreases at puberty.

C)is found on eyebrows and eyelids.

D) is fine, unpigmented hair.

E) is found only on the toes.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Terminal hair, which is long, coarse, and pigmented, is found in greater quantity in the adult male not the adult female.

24 INCORRECT The outermost layer of the hair shaft is the

A)cortex.

B)cuticle.

C)medulla.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The cuticle is the outermost layer of the hair shaft. The middle layer is the cortex and the innermost layer is the medulla.

25 INCORRECT The hair follicle

A)has an epithelial root sheath and a dermal root sheath.

B)can provide epithelial cells for skin repair.

C)contains only the stratum germinativum at the hair bulb.

D)has an arrector pili muscle attached.

E)all of these

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The hair follicle has an epithelial root sheath and a dermal root sheath, can provide epithelial cells for skin repair, contains only the stratum germinativum at the hair bulb and has arrector pili muscle attached to it.

26 CORRECT Hair is formed from epithelial cells in the

A)matrix.

B)dermal root sheath.

C)hypodermis.

D)cuticle.

E)hair shaft.

Feedback: Correct Answer: Hair is formed from epithelial cells in the matrix.

27 INCORRECT Scalp hairs can grow longer than eyelash hairs because

A)the head has a better blood supply than the eyelid.

B)the hair follicles in the scalp are much deeper than follicles in the eyelid.

C)the scalp hairs are more exposed to the sun, which stimulates growth.

D)the growth stage for scalp hairs is longer than for eyelash hairs.

E)the eyelash hair shaft consists of columns of dead keratinized epithelial cells.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Scalp hairs can grow longer than eyelash hairs because the growth stage for scalp hair is longer than for eyelashes. Scalp hairs grow for a period of three years then rest for 1-2 years, while eyelashes grow for approximately 30 days then rest for 105 days.

28 INCORRECT After the resting stage of hair growth, each hair normally

A)grows more rapidly.

B)falls out.

C)loses its pigmentation.

D)produces more melanocytes.

E) increases the depth of the hair follicle.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Hair normally falls out after the resting stage of hair growth.

29 INCORRECT Arrector pili muscles

A)consist of skeletal muscle fibers.

B)are attached directly to the hair shaft.

C)contract in response to frightening situations.

D)cause sweat glands to contract.

E)assist in the production of sebum.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Arrector pili muscles consist of smooth muscle cells.

30 INCORRECT "Pattern baldness"

A)occurs only in men.

B) is not genetic.

C)occurs when vellus hairs are replaced by terminal hairs.

D) involves the hormone testosterone.

E)all of these

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: "Pattern baldness", seen most often in males, can also occur in females.

31 INCORRECTWhich glands of the skin possess all of the following characteristics? 1. secrete oily, white substance rich in lipids 2. open into a hair follicle 3. during secretion, lysis and death of secretory cells occurs

A)apocrine sweat glands

B)merocrine sweat glands

C)sebaceous glands

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Sebaceous glands secrete an oily, white substance rich in lipids, open into hair follicles, and during secretion have their secretory cells lyse and become part of the secretion.

32 INCORRECT Which of these parts of the body have the most merocrine sweat glands?

A)margins of the lips

B)soles of the feet

C)forearm

D) leg

E)back of neck

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: There are not merocrine glands at the margins of the lips.

33 INCORRECT Apocrine sweat glands

A)are found everywhere in the body except the palms of the hands.

B)produce secretions that are metabolized by bacteria to produce odor.

C)are functional even in babies.

D)are located in the external auditory meatus.

E)produce cerumen.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Apocrine sweat glands are found at the axillae, the genitalia (scrotum and labia majora), and the anus.

34 CORRECT Nails

A)grow from the nail matrix.

B)have a resting stage, similar to hair.

C)have a visible part, which is the nail bed.

D)have a hyponychium, which is the whitish, crescent-shaped area at the base of the nail.

E)contain proteoglycans and chondrocytes.

Feedback: Correct Answer: Nails grow primarily from the nail matrix, although the nail bed does contribute as well.

35 INCORRECT The nail is __________ that contains hard keratin.

A)stratum basale

B)stratum corneum


D)stratum lucidum

E)stratum spinosum

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The nail is stratum corneum containing hard keratin.

36 INCORRECT Which of these events occur as a result of a decrease in body temperature?

A)blood vessels in the epidermis dilate, at first

B)blood vessels in the dermis constrict if skin temperature falls below 15 degrees C

C)contraction of arrector pili muscles

D)sweat is produced

E)all of these

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: In response to a decrease in body temperature, dermal blood vessels will initially constrict, reducing blood flow to the skin and thereby decrease heat loss.

37 INCORRECT Protective functions of the integumentary system include all of these EXCEPT:

A)callus formation prevents damage by friction.

B)nails protect the ends of digits.

C)hairs in the nose and ears prevent entry of foreign materials.

D)hair protects the head from abrasion and ultraviolet light.

E)skin glands produce alkaline secretions that kill bacteria.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: Callus formation prevents damage from friction or pressure.

38 INCORRECT As a result of aging, the skin

A) increases the amount of elastic fibers in the dermis.

B)becomes thicker.

C)has decreased blood flow.

D)has increased activity of the sebaceous and sweat glands.

E)generally increases the amount of melanin produced.

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The amount of elastic fibers in skin decreases, not increases, with aging.

39 INCORRECT Which of these is NOT considered to be a cause of acne?

A)hormones, especially testosterone

B)a diet rich in fatty foods and chocolate

C)abnormal keratinization of hair follicles

D)an increase in sebum production

E)the bacterium Propionibacterium acnes

Feedback: Incorrect Answer: The hormone testosterone is a known cause of acne. Increased levels of testosterone during puberty make acne common at this age.

40 CORRECTWhich of these qualities must a medication possess if it is absorbed from a skin patch?

A) lipid-soluble

B)water-soluble

C)must contain keratin

D)must be slightly acidic

E)must contain melanin

Feedback: Correct Answer: Lipids released from lamellar bodies into the

intercellular space allow medications that are lipid-soluble to be absorbed through the skin.

bio sci reviewer

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