BIOMOLECULES

1. Which of the following elements is most abundant (percentage dry weight) in both humans and

bacteria?

a) Oxygen

b) Hydrogen

c) Carbon

d) Nitrogen

2. What is the general formula of carbohydrates?

a) Cn H2n On

b) C2n Hn On

c) Cn H2nO2n

d) Cn Hn On

3. The basic units of starch is

a) Glucose and fructose

b) Glucose and galactose

c) Glucose

d) Fructose

4. Cellulose is

a) Disaccharide

b) Pentosan polysaccharide

c) Hexosan polysaccharide

d) Mucopolysaccharide

5. Which of the following is a polysaccharide?

a) Glycogen

b) Maltose

c) Lactose

d) Glucose

6. Lactose is composed of

a) Glucose and galactose

b) Fructose and galactose

c) Glucose and fructose

d) Glucose and glucose

7. Vegetable oils are

a) Sodium salts of higher fatty acids

b) Potassium salts of higher fatty acids

c) Mixture of sodium and potassium salts of higher fatty acids

d) Glycerides of fatty acids

8. Fats are solid at

a) 100C

b) 200C

c) 300C

d) 400C

e)

9. Waxes are long chain compounds belonging to the class of

a) Esters

b) Ethers

c) Alcohol

d) Acids

10. The number of different amino acids quite commonly found in proteins

a) 26

b) 20

c) 170

d) 270

11. Which is the simplest amino acid?

a) Aspartic acid

b) Glycine

c) Phenylalanine

d) Lysine

12. The neutral amino acid is

a) Leucine

b) Lysine

c) Proline

d) Histidine

13. The tertiary structure of a protein is the

a) Bonding together of several polypeptide chains by weak bonds

b) Order in which amino acids are joined in a peptide chain

c) Twisting of a peptide chain into an alpha helix

d) Three-dimensional shape

14. Nucleic acids are composed of following elements

a) C, H, O, N P

b) C, H, N, Ca, P

c) C, H, O, P, Pb

d) C, Fe, O, P, N

15. Which one of the following is not present in nucleic acid?

a) Lipids

b) Ribose

c) Phosphate

d) Purine

16. Guanylic acid is

a) A base

b) A nucleoside

c) A nucleotide

d) A polypeptide

17. The bond present between the two nucleosides of long polynucleotide molecule is

a) Hydrogen bond

b) High energy phosphate bond

c) Phosphodiester bond

d) Covalent bond

18. Enzymes are proteins’ was suggested by

a) Pasteur

b) Leeuwenhoek

c) Miller

d) Summer

19. Enzymes are sensitive to

a) Light

b) Wind velocity

c) Change in pH

d) Rainfall

20. Which part of an active enzyme is denatured by heat?

a) Apoenzyme

b) Holoenzyme

c) Coenzyme

d) Activator

21. Cytochrome oxidase contains

a) Iron

b) Copper

c) Cobalt

d) Mercury

22. The product of an enzyme catalysed reaction can act as inhibitor of the reaction. This mechanism

of control is known as

a) Feedback inhibition

b) Competitive inhibition

c) Metabolic antagonism

d) Repression

23. Enzymes enhance the rate of a reaction by

a) Lowering the activation energy of the reaction

b) Combining with the product as soon as it is formed

c) Forming a reactant-product complex

d) Changing the equilibrium point of the reaction

24. The figure given below shows the conversion of a substrate into product by an enzyme. In which

one of the four options ( 1 – 4) the components of reaction labelled as A, B, C and D are

identified correctly?

A B C D a) Potential

energy

Transitio

n state

Activatio

n energy

with

enzymes

Activation

energy

without

enzymes

b) Transitio

n state

Potential

energy

Activation

energy without

enzymes

Activation

energy with

enzymes

c) Activatio

n

energy

Transitio

n state

Activation

energy

with

enzymes

Activation

energy

without

enzymes

d) Activatio

n energy

with

enzymes

Transitio

n state

Activation

energy

without

enzymes

Potential

energy

25. Which statement is true of all enzymes?

a) They are denatured at temperatures above 600C

b) They catalyse the break down of large molecules into smaller ones.

c) They have active sites which can bind to only one kind of substrate molecule.

d) They reduce the amount of energy required to start a reaction.

EVOLUTION 1. Which one of the following gases was not present in free form at the time life originated on the

earth?

a) Methane

b) Hydrogen

c) Ammonia

d) Oxygen

2. Believers of spontaneous generation theory assumed that

a) Organisms arose from other organism

b) Organism arose from air

c) Organism arose abiogenetically

d) Organism arose simultaneously

3. Spark discharge apparatus for resting chemical origin of life was designed by

a) Oparin and Haldane

b) Dixon and Jolly

c) Urey and Miller

d) Jacob and Monod

4. Fossils are now dated by

a) Stratigraphic period

b) Studying their association with other mammals

c) Amount of calcium present as residue

d) Radioactive carbon content

5. Reptilian feature of Archaeopteryx is

a) V – shaped furcula

b) Beak

c) Abdominal ribs

d) Feathers

6. Amphibians first appeared in

a) Permian

b) Carboniferous

c) Devonian

d) Silurian

7. Angiosperms flourished during

a) Mesozoic

b) Paleozoic

c) Precambium

d) Cenozoic

8. What is correct arrangement of periods of palaeozoic era in ascending order in geological time

scale?

a) Cambrian → Devonian → Ordovician → Silurian → Carboniferous → Permian

b) Silurian → Devonian → Cambrian → Ordovician → Permian → Carboniferous

c) Cambrian → Ordovician → Silurian → Devonian → Carboniferous → Permian

d) Cambrian → Ordovician → Devonian → Silurian → Carboniferous → Permian

9. Being all mammals, whale, dolphin, bat, monkey and horse have some important common

characters. But they also show conspicuous difference. This is due to the phenomenon of

a) Normalisation

b) Genetic drift

c) Convergence

d) Divergence

10. Which of the following is a vestigial organ in the human body?

a) Eyelid

b) Eyelash

c) Caecum

d) Appendix

11. Genetic divergence of two populations can be countered by

a) Different selection pressure

b) Genetic drift

c) Gene flow

d) All of the above

12. Presence of gill slits in the embryo of all vertebrates supports the theory of

a) Organic evolution

b) Recapitulation

c) Metamorphosis

d) Biogenesis

13. Germplasm theory was given by

a) Lamarck

b) Weisman

c) Darwin

d) De Vries

14. Weismann cut off tails of mice generation after generation but tails neither disappeared nor

shortened showing that

a) Darwin was correct

b) Tail is essential organ

c) Mutation theory is wrong

d) Lamarck was wrong about inheritance of acquired characters

15. Which one of the following evolutionists proposed the theory of evolution similar to Charles

Darwin’s?

a) Alfred Russell Wallace

b) Erasmus Darwin

c) Thomas Godfrey

d) Thomas Robert Malthus

16. According to the Neo – Darwinian theory which of the following is responsible for the origin of

new species?

a) Mutations

b) Useful variations

c) Mutation together with natural selection

d) Hybridsation

17. The gradual increase in a population of a phenotype due to more successful reproduction is

called

a) Genetic drift

b) Mutation

c) Apomixies

d) Natural selection

18. Example of industrial Melanism

a) Peppered moth

b) Darwin Finches

c) Archaeopteryx

d) Neopilina

19. The chance elimination of a gene from a small populations is an example of

a) Selection pressures

b) Speciation

c) Adaptation

d) Genetic drift

20. Survival due to geographical isolation is best exemplified by mammalian fauna of

a) Oriental region

b) Ethiopian region

c) Palaearctic region

d) Australian region

21. The epoch of human civilisation is

a) Pliocene

b) Holocene

c) Pleistocene

d) Paleocene

22. Cranial capacity of Australopithecus is

a) 390 – 510 cc

b) 675 – 719 cc

c) 1015 – 1075 cc d)882-897cc

23. The recent ancestors of modern man were

a) Java ape Peking man

b) Peking man and Rhodesian man

c) Rhodesian man and Cro –Magnon man

d) Cro – Magnon man and Neanderthal man

24. In the Hardy – Weinberg equation, the term 2pq represents the

a) Overall gene frequency of the population.

b) Frequency of both homozygous genotypes.

c) Frequency of the heterozygous genotype

d) Allele frequencies of this population.

25. A geneticist mixed together many different kinds of fruit flies some with long wings, some with

short wings, some with red eyes, some with brown eyes, and so on. He allowed the flies to feed,

mate randomly and reproduce by the millions, after many generations, most of the flies in the

population and medium wings and red eyes, and most extreme types had disappeared. This

experiment appears to demonstrate

a) Stabilizing selection.

b) Geographic variation

c) Diversifying selection

d) Genetic drift

STRUCTURAL ORGANIZATION IN

ANIMALS 1. Endothelium of the inner surface of blood vessels in vertebrates is formed of

a) Simple squamous epithelium

b) Columnar epithelium

c) Cubodial epithelium

d) Ciliated cells

2. Ciliated epithelium is found on

a) Lung and trachea

b) Fallopian tubes and nasal passages

c) Liver and trachea

d) Trachea and uterus

3. The crypts of Lieberkuhn

a) Simple tubular glands

b) Simple coiled tubular gland

c) Tubular alveolar glands

d) Simple alveolar glands

4. Mammary glands are modified

a) Sebaceous gland

b) Sweat gland

c) Oil gland

d) Lymph gland

5. Large, irregular, ovoid, cells present in areolar tissue are

a) Mast cells

b) Fibroblasts

c) Macrophages

d) Plasma cells

6. Fat is abundant in

a) Liver cells

b) Alveolar tissue

c) Lymph glands

d) Adipose tissue

7. Tendon connects

a) Cartilage with muscles

b) Bone with muscles

c) Ligament with muscles

d) Bone with Bone

8. The skeletal tissue present in the pinna of a mammal is in the nature of

a) Elastic cartilage

b) Fibrous cartilage

c) Calcified cartilage

d) Hyaline cartilage

9. Which one of the following is the largest muscle in the human body?

a) Gluteus medius

b) Extensor longus

c) Gluteus maximus

d) Peroneous longus

10. The strongest muscle in the body is present in

a) Arm

b) Jaw

c) Thigh

d) Neck

11. Smooth muscle fibres are

a) Spindle-shaped, unbranched, non striated, multinucleate and involuntary

b) Spindle-shaped, unbranched, unstriated, uninucleated and involuntary

c) Cylindrical, striated, unbranched, multinucleate and voluntary

d) Cylindrical, unbranched, non-straited multinucleate and involuntary

12. Muscles develops from

a) Mesoderm

b) Ectoderm

c) Endoderm

d) All the above

13. Junction of the two neurons is called

a) Synapse

b) Junction

c) Synapsis

d) Synapticula

14. The surface fibres bears narrow area called

a) Schwann cells

b) Schwann nodes

c) Nodes of Ranvier

d) Nissl’s granules

15. Mouthparts of cockroach are

a) Licking type

b) Cutting and chewing type

c) Sucking type

d) Piercing and sucking type

16. Which of the following constitute tongue like structure in cockroach?

a) Maxillae

b) Labium

c) Labrum

d) Hypopharynx

17. Which part of the alimentary canal of cockroach contributes to crushing of food?

a) Crop

b) Typhlosole

c) Caecum

d) Gizzard

18. Hepatic caecae in cockroach are the part of

a) Gizzard

b) Midgut

c) Ileum

d) Crop

19. The heart of cockroach is composed of

a) 7 chambers

b) 11 chambers

c) 13 chambers

d) 3 chambers

20. The main excretory organs of cockroach are

a) Malpighian tubules

b) Uricose glands

c) Fat bodies

d) All of the above

21. Main excretory product in cockroach and other insects are

a) Urea

b) Uric acid

c) NH3

d) Amino acid

22. What is common between cockroach and earthworm?

a) Dorsal nerve cord

b) Ventral nerve cord

c) Ommatidia

d) Cocoon

23. A unit of photoreception in a compound eye of cockroach and other insects is

a) Ctenidium

b) Ospharadium

c) Ommatidium

a) Crystalline cone

Formatted: Indent: Left: 0.79 cm,Hanging: 0.48 cm, Numbered + Level:2 + Numbering Style: a, b, c, … + Startat: 1 + Alignment: Left + Aligned at: 2.86 cm + Indent at: 3.49 cm

24. Testes in cockroach are present in

a) 3, 4, 5 abdominal segments

b) 4, 5, 6 abdominal segments

c) 5, 6, 7 abdominal segments

d) 6, 7, 8 abdominal segments

25. In female cockroach a pair of ovaries are situated in

a) 4, 5, 6 abdominal segments dorsolaterally

b) 4, 5, 6 abdominal segments ventrolaterally

c) 2, 3, 4 abdominal segments laterally

d) 2, 3, 4 abdominal segments dorsally

LOCOMOTION AND MOVEMENT

1. The word ‘anisotropic band’ of a skeletal muscle fibre refers to its

a) Light band

b) ‘Z’ line

c) Dark band

d) Both (a) and (b)

2. Major protein of thick filaments of skeletal muscle fibres is

a) Myosin

b) Actin

c) Tropomyosine

d) Troponin

3. Triceps and biceps muscles are

a) Involuntary and striated

b) Voluntary and striated

c) Involuntary and unstriated

d) Voluntary and unstriated

4. Bundle of striated muscle fibres called fascicule are surrounded by sheath called

a) Ectoderm

b) Mesoderm

c) Endoderm

d) Endomycium

5. Which of the following is NOT exclusively supplied with involuntary muscles?

a) Muscles of urethra

b) Muscular coats of blood vessel

c) Muscles of iris

d) Muscles of the ducts of gland

6. The neurotransmitter between a motor neuron and a muscle cell is

a) Serotonin

b) Endorphin

c) Dopamine

d) Acetylcholine

7. The all-or-none phenomenon of muscle contraction refers to a maximum contraction or no

contraction of a

a) Muscle

b) Muscle bundle

c) Muscle fibre

d) Muscle fibril

8. Contraction of muscle results from

a) A contraction of myosine molecules

b) The sliding of the actin and myosin filaments into each other

c) The formation of the peptide bonds that link actin and myosin

d) Contraction of actin molecules

9. When muscles get fatigued there is

a) More ATP, no glycogen and no lactic acid

b) Much ATP, more glycogen but much lactic acid

c) Little ATP and glycogen but much lactic acid

d) Little ATP, more glycogen and little lactic acid

10. Sacroplasmic reticulum is

a) The functional unit of contraction of a muscle cell is

b) The contractile protein fibrils that make up a muscle cell.

c) A network of mitochondria that are linked together in muscle cells.

d) A membrane network that regulates Ca++

uptake and release in muscle cells.

11. What is the role of calcium ion (Ca2+

) in muscle contraction?

a) It opens up a binding site for a myosin head on a thin filament

b) It opens up a binding site for an actin molecule on a thick filament.

c) It binds to a myosin head.

d) Its release from a myosin head initiates a power stroke

12. The energy for muscle contraction is most directly obtained from

a) Phosphocreatine

b) Anaerobic respiration

c) Aerobic respiration

d) ATP

13. Axial skeleton in man is made up of

a) 126 bones

b) 100 bones

c) 103 bones

d) 80 bones

14. Longest bone is that of

a) Humerus

b) Stapes

c) Femur

d) Radio-ulna

15. Number of floating ribs in human body is

a) 5 pairs

b) 3 pairs

c) 2 pairs

d) 6 pairs

16. Joint between bones of human skull is

a) Hinge joint

b) Synovial joint

c) Cartilaginous joint

d) Fibrous joint

17. Haversian canals are found in

a) Bone

b) Cartilage

c) Liver

d) Muscle

18. Long bones functions for

a) RBC formation only

b) Support + RBC formation

c) Support only

d) Support + RBC + WBC formation

19. The shoulder blade is made of

a) Clavicle

b) Humerus

c) Ilium

d) Scapula

20. The vertebra which bears the whole weight of the skull is

a) Atlas

b) Axis

c) Cervical

d) Sacral

21. Synovial fluid is found in

a) Cranial cavity

b) Spinal cavity

c) Immovable joints

d) Freely movable joints

22. Glenoid cavity is found in

a) Pelvic girdle

b) Pectoral girdle

c) Humerus

d) Tibio – fibula

23. Spinal cord passes through

a) Foramen of Monro

b) Iter

c) Obturator foramen

d) Foramen magnum

24. Which of the following is a sesamoid bone?

a) Radius

b) Patella

c) Pterygoid

d) Pectoral girdle

25. How many ribs are present in human beings?

a) 6 pairs c)15 pairs

b) 9 pairs d)12 pairs