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BrainDumps.350-080 . 347QA

Number: 350-080Passing Score: 800Time Limit: 120 minFile Version: 31.22


350-080 CCIE Data Center Written Exam

This is my first share of braindumps questions. Very helpful study center it is. Best Testing VCE it is.These are the most accurate study questions. Just focus on these and sit in your exam.Modified few questions, fixed few spelling mistakes and typos.Many new questions are added , Good for review go ahead and pass the exam now.All the answers are well explained.


Exam A

QUESTION 1When using Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV), how do L2 multicast frames traverse the overlay?

A. The L2 multicast frames are encapsulated in an OTV packet using the configured control- group multicast address for transportB. The L2 multicast frames are dropped because multicast cannot be carried across the overlayC. The L2 multicast frames are encapsulated in an OTV packet using the configured data-group multicast address for transportD. The L2 multicast frames are forwarded natively across the overlay based on their multicast IDs

Correct Answer: CSection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2Which three statements best describe multicast operation on Cisco Nexus switches in a data center? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco NX-OS Software does not support PIM dense mode.B. The command ip multicast-routing must be enabled in Cisco NX-OS Software before any multicast configuration is possible on the switch.C. PIM CLI configuration and verification commands are not available until you enable the PIM feature with the feature pim command.D. Cisco NX-OS Software supports multicast routing per Layer 3 VRF instance.E. The default PIM operational mode on the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch is SSM.

Correct Answer: ACDSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 3On a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, what is the purpose of this command?

switch# config terminalswitch(config)# mac address-table learning-mode conversational vlan 1-10 switch(config)#


A. Enable conversational learning on FabricPath vlans 1-10 for F-Series moduleB. Enable FabricPath protocol on VLANs 110C. No need for this command as conversational learning is enabled by default for all VLANs.D. Enable conversational learning on Classical Ethernet VLAN for F-Series module

Correct Answer: DSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 4Where is a typical request in the Cisco UCS XML API placed in the data management engine, and, after the request is confirmed, what is updated?

A. The request is placed in the transactor queue in FIFO order and the management information tree is updated.B. The request is placed in the replicator and persistifier and the store is updated.C. The request is placed in the data management engine and the application gateway is updated.D. The request is placed in the buffer queue and the commit buffer queue is updated.

Correct Answer: ASection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 5In the Cisco FabricPath domain, one switch becomes the root for the multidestination tree. Cisco FabricPath switches compare which three parameters to select theroot? (Choose three.)



A. Root priorityB. System IDC. Bridge IDD. Switch IDE. Port IDF. Subswitch ID

Correct Answer: ABDSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 6By default, what type of SSH server key is generated by Cisco NX-OS Software?

A. DSA key generated with 512 bitsB. RSA key generated with 768 bitsC. RSA key generated with 1024 bitsD. DSA key generated with 1024 bitsE. RSA key generated with 2048 bits



QUESTION 7Refer to the exhibit.


Which statements are true about the subswitch ID that is filled in the header? (Choose three.)

A. FabricPath switches running vPC use this field to identify the specific virtual switch.B. FabricPath switches running vPC+ use this field to identify the specific vPC+ PortChannel on which traffic is to be forwarded.C. The subswitch ID field is locally significant to each vPC+ switch pair.D. The subswitch ID field must be unique within the FabricPath domain.E. In the absence of vPC+, this field is set to 0.

Correct Answer: BCESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 8In a Cisco Nexus 7000 platform configured with GLBP, which GLBP timer can be tuned to prevent unnecessary GLBP state changes during a switchover or ISSU?

A. GLBP redirect timerB. GLBP forwarder pre-empt delay minimum timerC. GLBP hold timerD. GLBP pre-empt delay minimum timerE. GLBP extended hold timerF. GLBP nonstop forwarding timer

Correct Answer: ESection: (none)Explanation




vPC+ is configured between which switches?

A. Switch-ID 13 and Switch-ID 23B. Switch-ID 11 and Switch-ID 12C. Switch-ID 100 onlyD. Switch-ID 13 and Switch-ID 100




QUESTION 10SNMPv3 authorizes management operations only by configured users and encrypts SNMP messages. Which authentication protocols does Cisco NX-OS Softwareuse for SNMPv3? (Choose two.)

A. NMAC-SHA-96 authentication protocolB. HMAC-MD5-96 authentication protocolC. Community String Match protocolD. NMAC-MD5-96 authentication protocolE. HMAC-SHA-96 authentication protocol

Correct Answer: BESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 11Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) provides an overlay that enables Layer 2 connectivity between separate Layer 2 domains, while keeping these domainsindependent and preserving the fault isolation, resiliency, and load-balancing benefits of an IP-based interconnection. Which statements are true about OTVAdjacency Server? (Choose two.)

A. Adjacency Server is required when OTV is deployed with unicast-only transport.B. Adjacency Server is required when OTV is deployed with multicast-enabled transport.C. Each OTV device wishing to join a specific OTV logical overlay needs to first register with the Adjacency Server.D. Each OTV device trying to join a specific OTV logical overlay needs to be configured as an Adjacency Server.

Correct Answer: ACSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 12Which two statements about VACLs on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches are true? (Choose two.)

A. A single VACL can be shared across two or more VDCs.B. Use of VACLs requires no special license to be installed.


C. VACLs make use of IP or MAC ACLs.D. Only options drop and forward are permitted.

Correct Answer: BCSection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:answer is perfected.

QUESTION 13Which two statements about a "Virtual PortChannel graceful consistent check" are true?

A. Graceful consistency check is enabled by default.B. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the links on the secondary peer device are suspended.C. Graceful consistency check is disabled by default, so to enable this feature, use graceful consistency-check command under VPC domain configuration mode.D. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the inconsistent VLANs on the secondary peer device are suspended.

Correct Answer: ABSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 14Which attribute is used to pass the user role back to the Nexus when remote AAA is enabled?

A. Cisco AV-pairB. TACACS+ or RADIUS ack frame role attributeC. DH-CHAP challenge attributeD. privilege level attribute




QUESTION 15Each port that is configured to use LACP has an LACP port priority. Which statements are true about LACP port priority? (Choose three.)

A. Port priority value can be configured between 1 and 65535.B. A higher port priority value means a higher priority of LACP.C. Port priority can be configured so that specific links can be chosen as active links rather than the hot standby links within the port channel.D. LACP uses the port priority with the port number to form the port identifier.E. LACP Port priority default value should always be changed



QUESTION 16Nexus7000# config tNexus700(config)# interface ethernet 2/11Nexus700(config-if)# switchport mode private-vlan host Nexus700(config-if)# switchport private-vlan host-association 14 50 Nexus700(config-if)# exitNexus700(config)#

What will this command sequence achieve?

A. associate interface E2/11 to community VLANs 14 and 50B. associate interface E2/11 to secondary VLANs 14 and 50C. associate interface E2/11 to primary VLAN 50 and secondary VLAN 14D. associate interface E2/11 to primary VLAN 14 and secondary VLAN 50



QUESTION 17Which command will allow you to display the configured QoS group and the ingress buffer allocated to each QoS group?


A. show interface priority-flow-controlB. show interface queuingC. show queuing interfaceD. show policy-map system type queuingE. show policy-map interface ethernet <x/y> type queuing





During troubleshooting of Virtual PortChannel (vPC), it is observed that Virtual PortChannel 2 is in a down state. What's the cause of this issue?

A. Virtual PortChannel is down because LACP is not enabled on the remote switch.B. Virtual PortChannel is down because of a VLAN mismatch.C. Virtual PortChannel is down because of an MTU mismatch.D. Virtual PortChannel is down because of VLAN and MTU mismatch.



QUESTION 19With Cisco NX-OS on a Cisco Nexus platform, which command shows memory usage, total processes, and CPU state?

A. show memory detailedB. show process cpu sortedC. show system resourcesD. show hardware capacity



QUESTION 20What is the difference between the Ethanalyzer and the SPAN feature in Cisco NX-OS?

A. The Ethanalyzer captures control-plane traffic, while SPAN captures all traffic.B. The Ethanalyzer captures all traffic including control-plane traffic, while SPAN captures only the control-plane traffic.C. The Ethanalyzer captures only data traffic, while SPAN captures all traffic.D. The Ethanalyzer captures only control traffic, while SPAN captures data traffic.

Correct Answer: A


Section: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 21Virtual PortChannels (vPCs) allow links that are physically connected to two different Cisco switches to appear to a third downstream device as coming from asingle device and as part of a single port channel. Which of the following are components of a Virtual PortChannel system? (Choose four)

A. Two peer devices: the vPC peers of which one is primary and one is secondary and are part of a vPC domain.B. A Layer 3 Gigabit Ethernet link called peer-keepalive link to resolve dual-active scenariosC. A redundant 10 Gigabit Ethernet PortChannel called a peer link to carry traffic from one system to the other when neededD. vPC member ports forming the PortChannelE. A dot1q trunk between the vPC peersF. A management port that can be used as peer-keepalive link to resolve dual-active scenarios.

Correct Answer: ABCDSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 22Which two Fibre Channel features are not supported in Cisco Nexus 5500 and Nexus 5000 platforms? (Choose two.)

A. port securityB. fabric bindingC. IVRD. port trackingE. FICON

Correct Answer: CESection: (none)Explanation




Given this FCoE topology, host VFC interface and FC storage are in the same VSAN (VSAN10). The VSAN is in the allow list for both ISLs. Both ISLs are up at 4 GB.

Which command can be issued on the N5K command line to confirm that SCSI traffic from the host to the storage will flow across both links, as opposed to usingonly one link?

A. show fspf traffic vsan 10B. show vsan 10C. show trunk protocolD. show fcroute unicast vsan 10

Correct Answer: BSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 24What is the correct order for FIP virtual establishment?

A. VLAN discovery, FCF discovery, FLOGI and FDISC, FC commandB. FCF discovery, VLAN discovery, FLOGI and FDISC, FC commandC. VLAN discovery, FCF discovery, FLOGI and FDISC


D. FCF discovery, solicitation and advertisement, FLOGI and FDISC, FC command



QUESTION 25Which statement about the Adapter FEX feature on the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches is true?

A. Adapter FEX is a software feature that can be configured on any CNA as long as the Nexus 5000 is running a version of code that supports Adapter FEX.B. Adapter FEX can be thought of as a way to divide a single physical link into multiple virtual links or channels.C. Packets on each channel are tagged with an 801.Q header that has a specific source VIF.D. When using a dual-homed NIC on the server, active/standby is not supported. Only active/active is supported.



QUESTION 26Which statement describes the below output from an MDS switch?

Flow ID. 44Initiator VSAN: 200Initiator WWN: 50:06:04:8a:cc:19:12:dbTarget VSAN: 200Target WWN: 50:06:04:8c:de:ad:be:efTarget LUN: ALL LUNsFlow Verification Status:-------------------------Initiator Verification Status: successTarget Verification Status: WWN was not found in name server Initiator Linecard Status: successTarget Linecard Status: Status not yet checkedFeature Status:---------------Write-Acceleration enabled


Write-Acceleration Buffers: 1024Configuration Status: flow verification failed

A. The zone containing both the initiator and target does not existB. The zone set has not been activatedC. The target is not logged into the fabricD. The pWWN used for the target is invalid



QUESTION 27Which mechanism do the CNA and the Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches use to provide a lossless class of Ethernet traffic?

A. LLDPB. LACPC. PFCD. FIP



QUESTION 28Which statement is correct about the number of available QoS system classes in FCoE?

A. It's hard-set and cannot be disabledB. It's configurable, with an upper limit of 16C. It's hard-set but cannot disable best-effort and Fibre ChannelD. It's hard-set but can disable all but one classE. It's configurable with an upper limit of eight




QUESTION 29When building a NIC team (virtual port channel) between a host and a pair of Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches that will carry FCoE traffic, what is the maximumnumber of physical links that can exist in the team?

A. 1B. 2C. 4D. 5E. 16



QUESTION 30Which statement is true about The QoS Class Fibre Channel?

A. Cannot be disabledB. Cannot have the CoS changedC. Can have "Packet Drop" enabledD. Is multicast optimizedE. Can have the MTU changed




QUESTION 31Lossless Ethernet for FCoE is achieved through the use of which features? (Choose two.)

A. Priority flow controlB. Buffer-to-buffer creditsC. TCP retransmissionD. Ethernet checksumE. QoS policies

Correct Answer: AESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 32Which command is used to determine if a host has logged in to the Fibre Channel fabric?

A. show flogi databaseB. show system fc loginC. show npv flogi-tableD. show npv fcns databaseE. show interface vfc X flogiF. show interface flogi


Explanation/Reference:In a Fibre Channel fabric, each host or disk requires an FCID. Use the show flogi database command to verify if a storage device is displayed in the Fabric login(FLOGI) table as in the examples below. If the required device is displayed in the FLOGI table, the fabric login is successful. Examine the FLOGI database on aswitch that is directly connected to the host HBA and connected ports.ExamplesThe following example displays details on the FLOGI database.switch# show flogi database


--------------------------------------------------------------------------- INTERFACE VSAN FCID PORT NAME NODE NAME--------------------------------------------------------------------------- sup-fc0 2 0xb30100 10:00:00:05:30:00:49:63 20:00:00:05:30:00:49:5e fc9/13 1 0xb200e221:00:00:04:cf:27:25:2c 20:00:00:04:cf:27:25:2c fc9/13 1 0xb200e1 21:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:61 20:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:61 fc9/13 1 0xb200d1 21:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:6420:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:64 fc9/13 1 0xb200ce 21:00:00:04:cf:4c:16:fb 20:00:00:04:cf:4c:16:fb fc9/13 1 0xb200cd 21:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:f7 20:00:00:04:cf:4c:18:f7

Total number of flogi = 6.

ReferencE. http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/storage/san_switches/mds9000/sw/rel_2_x/san- os/command/reference/CR02_sh.html#wp1248139

QUESTION 33Traffic drop for FCoE is experienced across a Nexus 5548 switch. What is a possible cause?

A. Server's CNA does not support DCBX and PFC TLV was not negotiated.B. A "no-drop" class has not been configured for FCoE.C. The system is running with the default QOS policies.D. The link is oversubscribed.



QUESTION 34On a Nexus 5000 Series Switch, when a VFC is not online, what are the causes? (Choose three.)

A. LLDP transmit and receive are disabledB. The initiator server has no connectivity to the target storageC. FIP negotiation timingD. Peer does not support LLDPE. VSAN trunk protocol has been enabled




QUESTION 35When configuring unified ports on a 5548 switch, which port ordering must be respected? (Choose two.)

A. Fibre Channel ports must be configured from the first port in the module.B. Ethernet ports must be configured from the last port in the module.C. Fibre Channel ports must be configured from the last port in the module.D. Ethernet ports must be configured from the first port in the module.

Correct Answer: CDSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 36Which statement describes the FIP function of the FCoE Initiation Protocol?

A. It is required to establish the point-to-point FCoE links with the first switch in the path.B. It is required to establish the point-to-point FCoE links with any switch across multiple Ethernet segments.


C. It is not used to build the FCoE links.D. It is used to ensure lossless transport.




QUESTION 37Which Ethernet field is used to differentiate between the FCoE frame and the FIP frame?

A. Ethernet FCSB. Source addressC. Destination addressD. EtherTypeE. Protocol type



QUESTION 38What are the two parallel SCSI specifications? (Choose two.)

A. Up to 25 m bus lengthB. Only one device per SCSI busC. Up to 16 devices per SCSI busD. Half-duplex operationE. Full-duplex operation



QUESTION 39Which statement describes multihop FCoE function when an FCoE switch receives an FCoE frame from the directly connected FCoE host?

A. The switch receives the FCoE frame and forwards it to another switch over its VE port.B. The switch receives the FCoE frame, deapsulates it, and sends the Fibre Channel frame to the fabric over its Fibre Channel uplink port.C. The switch receives the FCoE frame, deapsulates it, and sends the Fibre Channel frame to the Fibre Channel target over its Fibre Channel port.


D. The switch receives the FCoE frame and forwards it to another FCoE device over its VN port.



QUESTION 40A Host connected to an NPV switch is not able to see the storage connected to the core switch. Given the output of the show command below, what is the reason ofthis issue?

switch# show npv statusnpiv is enabledExternal Interfaces:===============InterfacE. fc1/1, VSAN: 1, FCID. 0x000000, StatE. Other Number of External Interfaces: 4

A. NPV is not enabled on the core switch?B. The interface connected to the Core switch is in admin down stateC. The local host interface belongs to the wrong VSAN?D. The local host interface is not able to login



QUESTION 41Which three are valid methods to monitor and trend SAN port channels with DCNM? (Choose three.)

A. use summary view in the device managerB. from the DCNM-SAN client, view ISLs in real time from the Performance drop-down listC. for each port channel, select Monitor ContinuallyD. configure traps for each port channel to utilize RMONE. set up flows with the DCNM-SAN client and use the Performance Manager web client for performance collections


Correct Answer: ABESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 42A VSM is actually a virtual machine that requires how many vNICs for functioning?

A. 0B. 1C. 2D. 3E. 4



QUESTION 43When configuring vPC-HM CDP with multiple links to the same switch, are port-channels required?


A. Each link between the upstream switch and the VEM is an individual subgroup.B. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command channel-group <number> mode active.C. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command channel-group <number> mode passive.D. With vPC-HM CDP, the user can pin traffic from a specific VM to a specific uplink.E. Connections that go to the same upstream switch must be configured with the command channel-group <number> mode on.



QUESTION 44How many VSM modes are there in a Cisco Nexus 1000V environment?

A. 0B. 1C. 2D. 3E. 4F. 5

Correct Answer: D




QUESTION 45Cisco IOS NetFlow gathers data that can be used in which three of these? (Choose three.)

A. accountingB. authenticationC. authorizationD. network monitoringE. network planning

Correct Answer: ADESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 46Which port channel command is recommended for N1KV on Cisco UCS?

A. channel-group auto mode onB. channel-group auto mode activeC. channel-group auto mode on sub-group cdpD. channel-group auto mode on sub-group manualE. channel-group auto mode on mac-pinning



QUESTION 47


vPath is a critical component in the VNS architecture. Which two are functions of vPath? (Choose two.)

A. intelligent traffic steering to the VSGB. offloading the processing from the VSG to the VEMC. intelligent traffic steering to the VNMCD. offloading the processing from the VSG to the flow managerE. deep packet inspection



QUESTION 48n1kv-l3(config)# show lacp offload statusCurrent Status : EnabledRunning Config Status : EnabledSaved Config Status : Disabled

What two facts does the output signify? (Choose two.)

A. LACP is enabled on the Nexus 1000v.B. LACP will be offloaded to the upstream switch.C. LACP will be negotiated to the VM.D. LACP is negotiated by the VSM.E. LACP is negotiated by the VEM in all instances.



QUESTION 49The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are virtual machine access switches that are an intelligent software switch implementation for VMware vSphereenvironments running the Cisco NX-OS Software operating system. Together with the VMware ESX hypervisor, the Nexus 1000V supports Cisco VN-Link server


virtualization technology, which provides mobile virtual machine security and network policy for VMware View components, including the DHCP snooping feature.DHCP snooping is disabled on the Nexus 1000V by default.

When the DHCP snooping feature is enabled on the Nexus 1000V, what are the default trust settings for the vEthernet and uplink ports?

A. All vEthernet ports are trusted, and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are trusted.B. All vEthernet ports are not trusted, and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are not trusted.C. All vEthernet ports are trusted and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are not trusted.D. All vEthernet ports are not trusted and all Ethernet ports such as uplinks and port channels are trusted.



QUESTION 50When using VSD, traffic flow goes from the virtual machine to which of these?

A. Upstream switchB. Virtual Supervisor ModuleC. VMware distributed switchD. VMware vSwitchE. Service virtual machine



QUESTION 51Given the following configuration, what command can be used to determine the physical path that traffic will be sent out upon?

Port-profile type Ethernet name vm-dataSwitchport mode trunkSwitchport trunk allowed vlan 200-210


Channel-group auto mode on mac-pinningState enabledVmware port-groupNo shut

Port-profile type vethernet name vlan-200Switchport mode accessSwitchport vlan 200State enabledVmware port-groupNo shut

A. module vem X execute vemcmd show trunkB. show module 3 internal pinningC. module vem X execute vemcmd show portD. show module vem mappingE. show interface vethX pinning



QUESTION 52What are the four vPath packet flow steps? (Choose four.)

A. perform flow lookupsB. intercept packets on service enabled portsC. run packets through the vPath flow managerD. classify the packetsE. flow manager emits an action for the packetsF. enforce the action determined by the flow manager

Correct Answer: BCEFSection: (none)Explanation



QUESTION 53A Cisco switch has this configuration for a port channel connecting to an ESXi using dual NICs and is intended for use with an N1Kv.

Interface fastethernet 1/10Switchport mode trunkSwitchport trunk allowed vlan allChannel-group 10 mode onNo shut

Interface fastethernet 1/11Switchport mode trunkSwitchport trunk allowed vlan allChannel-group 10 mode onNo shut

Interface port-channel10Switchport mode trunkSwitchport allowed vlan allNo shut

Which Port Channel configuration must be used on the Nexus 1000v port-profile?

A. MAC pinningB. Cisco Discovery Protocol pinningC. Mode OnD. Mode ActiveE. No port channel configuration



QUESTION 54DHCP snooping on Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches acts like a firewall between untrusted hosts and trusted DHCP servers by doing which of these? (Choosethree.)


A. validates DHCP messages received from untrusted sources and filters out invalid response messages from DHCP serversB. intercepts all ARP requests and responses on untrusted portsC. builds and maintains the DHCP snooping binding database, which contains information about untrusted hosts with leased IP addressesD. uses the DHCP snooping binding database to validate subsequent requests from untrusted hostsE. limits IP traffic on an interface to only those sources that have an IP-MAC address binding table entry or static IP source entry



QUESTION 55A customer would like to monitor traffic that is being sent to a specific virtual machine named VM001 using SPAN. The customer has another virtual machineconfigured as a sniffer host called VM002. What configuration is required, and what other changes will need to be made? (Choose two.)

VSM-PRI-188# sh int vethernet 5Vethernet5 is upPort description is VM001, Network Adapter 2HardwarE. Virtual, address: 0050.56b0.001e (bia 0050.56b0.001e) Owner is VM "VM001", adapter is Network Adapter 2Active on module 5VMware DVS port 484Port-Profile is VM-vlan-10Port mode is accessVSM-PRI-188# sh int vethernet 6Vethernet6 is upPort description is VM002, Network Adapter 1HardwarE. Virtual, address: 0050.56b0.0020 (bia 0050.56b0.0020) Owner is VM "VM002", adapter is Network Adapter 1Active on module 5VMware DVS port 485Port-Profile is VM-vlan-10Port mode is access

A. Monitor session 1 type spanSource interface veth5 bothDestination interface veth6No shut

B. monitor session 1


source vlan 10destination interface veth6no shut

C. monitor session 1 type er-spansource interface vlan 10destination ip 10.1.1.10no shut

D. VM002 must be removed from the Nk1VE. Move VM002 to Module 5F. Restart the VEM on module 5



QUESTION 56Given a host with two NICs assigned to a N1k profile, which topologies are suitable for this type of configuration (Choose three.)

port-profile type Ethernet name VM-Datavmware port-groupswitchport mode trunkswitchport allowed vlan 400-410channel-group auto mode activeno shutstate enabled

A. Cisco UCS fabric interconnectsB. Pair of N5K's in VPC.C. Standalone N5KD. Pair of N5K's in non-VPCE. Cisco Catalyst 6000 Switch in VSS




QUESTION 57Which statements are valid for a local SPAN configuration? (Choose two.)

A. Source and destination interface must be on the same hostB. Source and destination interfaces can be on different hostsC. Destination vEthernet interface can be on a different VLAN than the sourceD. Destination interface can be a physical portE. Destination interface cannot be a physical port

Correct Answer: ADSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 58What is the use of ERSPAN on N1kv?

A. Send monitored traffic to a VLANB. Send monitored traffic to a remote VEM over L2C. Receive monitored traffic on a vEthernet interfaceD. Send monitored traffic to an IP destination



QUESTION 59Given the following configuration:port-profile type ethernet DATA-UPLINKvmware port-groupswitchport trunk allowed vlan 1-3967,4048-4093


channel-group auto mode onno shutdownstate enabled

port-profile type ethernet MGMT-UPLINKvmware port-groupswitchport trunk allowed vlan 10-12channel-group auto mode onno shutdownstate enabled

VEMs are seen to be joining and then are lost from the Cisco VSM. How would you resolve this issue?

A. Remove second NIC from each port profileB. Remove VEM from VSM (no vem X), remove NICs, and reinsertC. Ensure that VLANs on uplink profiles are not overlappingD. Reinstall VEME. Issue the command "module vem X execute vemcmd set pinning module vsm 1"



QUESTION 60The network administrator is adding a new N1Kv to the vCenter, however, the administrator does not see the new switch under the networking tab of vCenter. Theadministrator issues the following command on the VSM to troubleshoot:

VSM# show svs connectionsconnection VC:ip address: 10.10.10.30remote port: 80protocol: vmware-vim httpscertificatE. defaultdatacenter namE. DC1DVS uuiD. 67 32 30 50 a6 d2 49 64-9e 1c 5f 49 e3 af 55 99 config status: Disabledoperational status: Disconnectedsync status: -version: -


When attempting to fix the issue, the following error is seen:

VSM-PRI-188# confVSM-PRI-188(config)# svs connection VCVSM-PRI-188(config-svs-conn)# connectERROR: [VMWARE-VIM] Extension key was not registered before its use

What is the cause of the error?

A. Missing control VLAN in VSM configurationB. Missing packet VLAN in VSM configurationC. VSM has no network connection to vCenterD. VSM extension key is not installed on vCenterE. vCenter extension key is not installed on VSM





An ESX host is added to a distributed switch but is never seen as a module in VSM. Given below configuration from VSM, what is the cause of this issue? (Choosetwo.)

VSM# show svs domainSVS domain config:Domain iD. 111Control vlan: 500Packet vlan: 501L2/L3 Control modE. L2L3 control interfacE. NAStatus: Config push to VC successful.

A. Missing VLAN 500 on Switch1 trunk to Switch2B. Missing VLAN 501 on Switch1 trunk to Switch 2C. VLAN 500 is not created on Switch2D. Interface VLAN 500 is missing on Switch1E. Interface VLAN 501 is missing on Switch1F. VLAN 111 is missing on all switches




QUESTION 62Why is a Cisco UCS B250 server unable to support 16-GB DIMMs?

A. Dual-rank DIMMs are not supported.B. 16-GB DIMMs are too slow.C. The largest DIMM an Intel 55xx or 56xx CPU can address is 32 GB.D. The memory bus would be too long.E. The blade would run too hot.



QUESTION 63On a Cisco UCS B250 M2 server that is fully populated with 1333-MHz memory and an E5640 CPU, what is the fastest speed the memory can run at?

A. 800 MHzB. 900 MHzC. 1066 MHzD. 1333 MHzE. 1666 MHz




QUESTION 64Which two servers support memory extension technology and give list? (Choose two.)

A. B200B. C210C. B250D. C260E. C460



QUESTION 65Which two statements about NPIV are true? (Choose two.)

A. After enabling NPIV, switch interfaces can only be placed into NP, F, or SD modes of operation.B. NPV devices log in to NPIV devices.C. NPIV requires the Enterprise License Package.D. NPIV is supported on the Cisco MDS, N7K, and N5K families of switches.E. A director class switch should not be placed into NPIV mode.

Correct Answer: BDSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 66On a Cisco UCS B250 server, how many physical DIMM slots make up one logical DIMM?

A. 2B. 3C. 4


D. 6E. 12



QUESTION 67Which statement about NPIV is true?

A. NPIV provides a means to assign multiple Fibre Channel IDs to a single N-port.B. NPIV can be enabled on a per-VSAN basis.C. NPIV requires a "write erase" and then reload the switch in order to come up into NPIV mode.D. NPIV is a Cisco proprietary feature and as such works only between two Cisco switches.E. NPIV must not be enabled on a switch that is also running N-port virtualization.



QUESTION 68When it comes to creating pooled WWN objects, it is important to understand that a Cisco UCS WWN pool can include only WWNNs or WWPNs from which valueof ranges?

A. from 10:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 10:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FFB. from 20:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 20:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FFC. from 30:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 30:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FFD. from 40:00:00:00:00:00:00:00 to 40:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF




QUESTION 69Cisco UCS Manager provides the ability to manage power utilization to the blades. Which two statements about UCS Manager power policies are true? (Choosetwo.)

A. Power capping helps mainly in reducing data center footprint.B. Power capping helps reduce data center cooling.C. A single power cap group policy allows you to set power limits across multiple UCS domains.D. You can have multiple power cap groups per UCS domain.E. Each blade within a UCS 5108 chassis can belong to a separate power cap group.



QUESTION 70Regarding disk scrub, which two of these occur to the data on any local drives upon disassociation? (Choose two.)

A. If disk scrub is enabled, all BIOS settings for the server are erased.B. If disk scrub is enabled, all the data access on any local drives is destroyed.C. If disk scrub is enabled, the LSI active RAID is destroyed but data is still preserved.D. If disk scrub is disabled, all data on any local drives is preserved, including the local storage configuration.E. If disk scrub is enabled, all data on any local drives is preserved, including the local storage configuration.



QUESTION 71In the event of a catastrophic disaster, after which you need to replace the entire UCS blade system (that is, new fabric interconnects, new IOMs, new chassis, andnew blades), what type of backup would provide the most complete set of information?


A. logical configurationB. all configurationC. full stateD. system configuration



QUESTION 72When creating a QoS policy dialog box in Cisco UCSM, which four fields can be modified? (Choose four.)

A. nameB. best-effortC. burstD. rateE. host control

Correct Answer: ACDESection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 73Which policy determines what happens to local data and to the BIOS settings on a server during the discovery process and when the server is disassociated from aservice profile?

A. boot policy and BIOS policyB. disk scrub and boot policyC. BIOS setting scrub, boot policy, and BIOS policyD. disk scrub and BIOS setting scrub




QUESTION 74Which of these commands will allow you to set end-host mode for SAN connectivity?

A. UCS-A # scope fc-uplinkUCS-A /fc-uplink # set mode end-hostUCS-A /fc-uplink* # commit-buffer

B. UCS-A# scope eth-uplinkUCS-A /eth-uplink # set mode end-hostWarninG. When committed, this change will cause the switch to reboot UCS-A /eth-uplink* # commit-buffer

C. UCS-A# scope fabric-interconnect aUCS-A /fabric-interconnect # set mode end-hostUCS-A /fabric-interconnect* # commit-buffer

D. UCS-A# scope systemUCS-A /system* # set mode end-hostUCS-A /system* # commit-buffer



QUESTION 75Which two statements about QoS options in a Cisco UCS environment are true? (Choose two.)

A. The QoS policy assigns a system class to the outgoing traffic for a vNIC or vHBA.B. Flow-control policies determine whether the uplink Ethernet ports in a Cisco UCS environment send and receive IEEE 802.3x pause frames when the send

buffer for a port fills.C. If no system class is configured as CoS 0, the Fibre Channel system class is used.D. The user can configure QoS for these system classes: platinum, gold, silver, best effort, Fibre Channel.E. When configuring a system class, the type of adapter in a server may limit the maximum MTU supported.




QUESTION 76Where are Cisco UCS vNICs created?

A. In the blade BIOSB. In the operating systemC. In the service profileD. In the card option ROM



QUESTION 77Which two statements about end-host mode in SAN connectivity in a Cisco UCS environment are true? (Choose two.)

A. End-host mode is synonymous with NPV mode.B. In end-host mode, only hard pinning of vHBAs to Fibre Channel uplink ports is allowed.C. Making configuration changes between Fibre Channel switching mode and end-host mode is nondisruptive.D. End-host mode is the default Fibre Channel switching mode.



QUESTION 78


What is the appliance port used to connect to in a Cisco Unified Computing System?

A. Fibre Channel storageB. UCS C-Series serversC. NFS storageD. UCS chassisE. Other fabric interconnect



QUESTION 79Which are valid statements about Cisco Virtual Interface Card (VIC)? (Choose two.)

A. The Cisco VIC can create an unlimited number of Virtual NICs.B. The number of vNICs on the Cisco VIC that can be created is determined by the number of chassis uplinks.C. vNICs are created using software on the host operating system.D. The host operating system sees a vNIC as a physical PCIe device.E. The host operating system sees a vNIC as a sub-interface of a primary NIC.F. The Cisco VIC can create 1024 vNICs.



QUESTION 80In a Cisco Unified Computing System, What is the "designated receiver" port in end-host mode used for?

A. Sending all broadcastsB. Receiving all traffic from upstream switchesC. Receiving broadcast traffic


D. Negotiating spanning tree with upstream switchesE. Learning MAC addres?ses from upstream switch?es



QUESTION 81Given a Cisco Unified Computing System, which is a valid port type in end-host mode?

A. Server


B. End deviceC. NodeD. HostE. Virtual



QUESTION 82Given the following output:

san-port-channel 12 is upHardware is Fibre Channel


Port WWN is 24:0c:00:0d:ec:d3:5c:00Admin port mode is NP, trunk mode is onPort mode is NPPort vsan is 1Speed is 8 GbpsMember[1] : fc2/3Member[2] : fc2/4

What does "Speed is 8 Gbps" indicate?

A. The speed of the slowest interface in the port channelB. The combined speed of all interfaces configured in the port channelC. The combined speed of all interfaces in the port channel that are upD. The speed that can be achieved if all buffers are used



QUESTION 83Given a Cisco Unified Computing System, which is a valid port type in end-host mode?

A. TrunkB. PhysicalC. UplinkD. SwitchE. End host



QUESTION 84


Where are SAN Port Channel is created in UCS Manager?

A. Under the Admin tab on the FIB. Under the Server tab in the service profileC. Under the SAN tab on each VSAND. Under the Admin tab on the chassisE. Under the SAN tab on the Fabric Interconnect



QUESTION 85In a Cisco Unified Computing System, where are SAN port channels connected to?

A. Only to Cisco Fibre Channel switchesB. Only to Cisco Fibre Channel switches in NPIV modeC. To any Fibre Channel switchD. Directly to storage arraysE. Only to Nexus Switches



QUESTION 86When will an "all configuration" backup be imported into the Cisco UCS Manager?

A. During the initial configuration from the consoleB. Once the basic configuration has been appliedC. To restore the configuration on a secondary fabric interconnectD. To upgrade the firmware on a replacement fabric interconnect



Explanation/Reference:answer is modified.

QUESTION 87Which statement is true regarding Backup tasks in Cisco UCS?

A. They are created automatically and stored on the FIB. They are created manually and exported to a remote serverC. They are automatically scheduled to run every 24 hoursD. They are manually scheduled and stored on the FI



QUESTION 88What is the use of an "all configuration" backup in Cisco UCS?

A. Can be used to migrate from a 6120 to a 6140 and retain the same service profilesB. Can only be used on the fabric interconnect on which it was createdC. Can be used to migrate from a 6120 to 6140 and retain system IP addresses and cluster informationD. Can be used to match firmware versions between 6120 and 6140 during a migration



QUESTION 89


Which statement is true about "full state backup" in a Cisco Unified Computing System?

A. An XML file containing all details of the system, including IP address and cluster detailsB. A binary file containing only service profiles, pools, and other items configured after initial configurationC. A binary file containing all details of the system, including IP address and cluster detailsD. An XML file containing only service profiles, pools, and other items configured after initial configurationE. A text file with the NX-OS running configuration



QUESTION 90An administrator creates a vNIC and assigns it to Fabric A with the fabric failover feature enabled. Which statement is true?

A. A unique vEthernet interface will be created on Fabric A and Fabric BB. A vEthernet interface will be created only on Fabric AC. A vEthernet interface will be created on Fabric A, and move across to Fabric B in the event of failureD. Fabric B will learn the vEthernet interface from Fabric A through a GARPE. The same vEthernet interface will be created on Fabric A and Fabric B



QUESTION 91On a Cisco Unified Computing System (UCS), which two statements regarding Ethanalyzer are true? (Choose two.)

A. Interface inbound-low handles Rx and Tx of low-priority control packetB. Interface inbound-lo handles Rx and Tx of high-priority control packetC. Interface inbound-low maps to internal interface eth3D. Interface inbound-low maps to internal interface eth4




QUESTION 92Which statements are true regarding the Cisco UCS fabric failover feature? (Choose three.)

A. FabricSync is used to synchronize MAC addresses to an adjacent fabric interconnect after a server interface failover.B. Gratuitous ARPs are sent on fabric interconnect uplinks after a server interface failover.C. Fabric failover can be used on vNICs and vHBAs.D. Fabric failover is configured as part of the service profile.E. Fabric interconnects in end-host mode use fabric failover instead of spanning tree to provide redundancy on uplink ports.





If uplink 1 fails, to which addresses will Fabric Interconnect B transmit a GARP on Uplink 2?

A. AA and BB onlyB. C1 and C2 onlyC. A1, B1, AA, and BBD. AA, BB, C1, and C2E. No GARPs will be transmitted



QUESTION 94A Cisco UCS fabric interconnect in end-host mode learns MAC addresses on which port types? (Choose four.)

A. Uplink Ethernet ports or border portsB. Appliance portsC. Server portsD. Fabric portsE. Backplane portsF. vEth interfacesG. A Fabric Interconnect doesn't learn MAC addresses in End Host mode. Pinning is used instead.

Correct Answer: BCEFSection: (none)Explanation




All Ethernet ports are trunked with VLANs 2 thru 10. The Cisco UCS domain is in end-host mode. Host A transmits a single broadcast frame on VLAN 4.Which statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. Nexus 5548 A and Nexus 5548 B send a copy of the broadcast frame down all six ports to Fabric Interconnect A and Fabric Interconnect B.B. The deja vu mechanism on the fabric interconnects prevents the fabric interconnects from receiving multiple copies of the broadcast frame.C. All four vNICs receive a single copy of the broadcast frame.D. All four vNICs receive multiple copies of the broadcast frame on VLAN 4 but no broadcasts on any other VLAN.E. The spanning tree process prevents the vNICs from receiving multiple copies of the broadcast frame.F. The Reverse Path Forwarding mechanism prevents the vNICs from receiving multiple copies of the broadcast frame.





Fabric Interconnect A, operating in end-host mode, receives an ingress frame with source MAC address 0025.b500.0035 on uplink Eth1/19.Which statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The frame will be accepted. Fabric Interconnect A will update its MAC address table to show that 0025.b500.0035 is dynamically learned on Eth1/19 and nolonger dynamically learned on Eth5/1/6.

B. Fabric Interconnect A will transmit a Gratuitous ARP for 0025.b500.0035 since it has moved ports, and the upstream network needs to be notified of the newlocation.

C. Fabric Interconnect A will drop the frame.D. The MAC address table will not be updated as a result of receiving this frame on an uplink.E. Reverse Path Forwarding will determine whether or not this frame is dropped by Fabric Interconnect A.F. Deja vu will determine whether or not this frame is dropped by Fabric Interconnect A.



QUESTION 97What is required for Cisco UCS C-Series rack server integration with Cisco UCS Manager? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco UCS Manager 1.3(xx) or later and a pair of Nexus 2248 FEXesB. Cisco UCS Manager 2.0(2xx) or later and a pair of Nexus 2232 FEXesC. Two Cisco UCS 6100 Series or 6200 Series fabric interconnectsD. Two RJ45 Ethernet cablesE. The fabric interconnects must be in end-host mode

Correct Answer: BCDSection: (none)Explanation




Your company requires a Cisco UCS configuration that will, at a minimum, allow the configuration in the provided exhibit.Which Cisco UCS components will meet the requirement? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco UCS 6148, Cisco UCS 6248UP, or the Cisco UCS 6296UP fabric interconnectsB. Cisco UCS 2104XP Fabric ExtenderC. Cisco UCS 2204XP or 2208XP Fabric ExtendersD. Cisco UCS M81KR Virtual Interface CardE. Cisco UCS Virtual Interface Card 1280F. Cisco UCS Virtual Interface Card 1240 with a port expander

Correct Answer: AEFSection: (none)Explanation




According to the equipment tab in Cisco UCS Manager, which is true?

A. A is an uplink port, B is a fabric port, C is a server port, D is a backplane port, E is a DCE interface, and F is a vNICB. A is an uplink port, B is a server port, C is a fabric port, D is a backplane port, E is a DCE interface, and F is a vNICC. A is an uplink port, B is a fabric port, C is a backplane port, D is a server port, E is a DCE interface, and F is a vNICD. A is an uplink port, B is a server port, C is a fabric port, D is a DCE interface, E is a backplane port, and F is a vNICE. A is an fabric port, B is a downlink port, C is an uplink port, D is a server port, E is a VIC interface, and F is a vNIC





The Cisco UCS domain is operating in switching mode. A network administrator notices that no traffic is traversing the uplinks on Fabric Interconnect B (Path C).Which actions might be used to change this behavior?

A. Fix the port channel configuration between Fabric Interconnect B and Nexus 5548 B as the port channel IDs do not match.B. Modify the bridge priority on the fabric interconnects so that one of the Nexus 5548s will always be the root bridge.C. Modify the bridge priority on the Nexus 5548s so that one of them will always be the root bridge.D. Modify the port priorities on the fabric interconnect uplinks (Paths B and C) so that they are a higher priority than ports Eth1/4 and Eth1/9 (Path D).E. This is an invalid configuration as Cisco UCS fabric interconnects cannot be directly connected.





On which of the interfaces can VLANs be configured or modified within this Cisco UCS domain?

A. VLANs can be configured or modified on all ports.B. A, D, E, and F. Ports B and C are automatically configured by the fabric interconnect.C. A, E, and F. Ports B, C, and D are automatically configured by the fabric interconnect.D. A and F only. No other ports may have their VLAN configurations modified manually.E. A only. VLANs are configured on uplinks and are automatically available on any other port with no configuration necessary.F. F only. VLANs are only modified in the service profile.




QUESTION 102Your company wants Server 1/eth0 (vNIC 1) configured so that it always uses Fabric Interconnect A Port Channel 1 (Po1) when it communicates with anythingoutside of the Cisco UCS domain. However, if vNIC 1 fails over to Fabric Interconnect B using fabric failover, then vNIC 1 can use any uplink port on FabricInterconnect B.

Which statements are true? (Choose two.)

A. The fabric interconnects must be in end-host mode.B. A pin group must be configured on the server tab in Cisco UCS Manager.C. In the service profile for Server 1, vNIC 1 must be explicitly assigned to a pin group.D. Server 1 cannot be configured to meet the requirement. A server can only be manually pinned to a single physical interface and not a port channel because of

the LACP load-balancing algorithm.E. Server 1 cannot be configured to meet the requirement. A server is either manually pinned to an uplink on both fabric interconnects or the server is automatically

pinned, but not both.





Your company would like to deploy this topology design. Which statement applies?

A. The configuration cannot be implemented since all fabric interconnects are members of the same VLANs, and communication will not work properly for theBackup and Mgmt networks.

B. The configuration cannot be implemented because only one disjointed layer 2 network is supporteD. either Backup Net or Mgmt Net, but not both.C. The Production Network and Backup Net topologies can be implemented.D. The Production Network and Management Net topologies can be implemented.


E. The topology design can be implemented fully in Cisco UCS version 2.0 or later.



QUESTION 104What interface is created when an FC Port Channel is created on a Cisco Unified Computing System?

A. An interface 'san-port-channel' in NXOSB. An interface 'port-channel' in NXOSC. An interface 'port-channel' with 'mode fc' configuredD. An interface 'fc-port-channel' in NXOS





You create a service profile within ORG C with two vNICs. Each vNIC is assigned to the MAC pool named "vmware". Which two possible MAC addresses could be


assigned to the vNICs? (Choose two.)

A. 00:25:B5:FF:00:01B. 00:25:B5:EE:00:01C. 00:25:B5:DD:00:01D. 00:25:B5:BB:00:01E. 00:25:B5:AA:00:01



QUESTION 106From the Cisco UCS CLI, how do you verify which uplink ports a blade server is using for its network connectivity?

A. UCS-A# show pinning border-interfacesB. UCS-B# show service-profile circuitC. UCS-B(nxos)# show pinning server-interfacesD. You must statically configure which uplink the blades should use, or you will not have connectivity.



QUESTION 107Server load balancing (SLB) is the process of deciding to which server a load-balancing device should send a client request for service.

Which predictors are supported on ACE in order to select the best server to fulfill a client request? (Choose three.)

A. Hash address: Selects the server by using a hash value based on either the source or destination IP address, or bothB. Hash URL: Selects the server by using a hash value based on the requested URLC. Hash MAC. Selects the server by using a hash value based on either the source or destination MAC address, or both


D. Hash header: Selects the server by using a hash value based on the HTTP header nameE. Hash IP: Selects the server using a hash value based on the IP address



QUESTION 108Application Control Engine (ACE) can check the health of servers and server farms by configuring health probes (which are sometimes referred to as keepalives). Aprobe can be one of many types. Which are valid ACE probes? (Choose three.)

A. HTTPB. Java scriptingC. TCL scriptingD. RADIUSE. TACACS



QUESTION 109When testing ICMP access to a functional load-balancing ACE VIP, it fails. What is the reason of this problem? (Choose two.)

A. The interface is shut downB. An access list is denying ICMPC. Routing is not configured properlyD. vip icmp-reply is inactive




QUESTION 110Which GSS "source access list" is used to allow access to GSS by clients when GSS is being used as the DNS?

A. Client IPB. Proxy IPC. Client and proxy IPD. Neither client nor proxy IP



QUESTION 111In the event of a GSS failure in a GSS cluster, which is true?

A. The current connections are rerouted via the backup GSSB. Secondary GSS cannot be used to configure the GSS clusterC. All remaining GSSs in the cluster continue responding to any new queriesD. All records in the GSS database are flushed and reconstructed again using a new master GSS



QUESTION 112A Cisco Application Control Engine Appliance (ACE) non-admin context does not support "sticky" configuration. What is the reason for this issue?

A. ACE sticky license is not installedB. ACE stickiness is not supported in a non-admin contextC. ACE stickiness resources are not defined in an admin context


D. Stickiness is configured properly in the CCIE virtual context



QUESTION 113Which is true when describing a connection replication in Cisco ACE?

A. It is not supported for SSL connections.B. It is not supported for non-SSL connections.C. It can only be configured manually.D. It has a maximum limit of 50,000 replicated connections.



QUESTION 114Which of the following are supported in Cisco Global Site Selector? (Choose three.)

A. Full DNS functionality as a replacement of a DNSB. Responds to a DNS query with A-recordC. Forwards queries to a name serverD. Multiple A-recordsE. DHCP functionality for the local hosts

Correct Answer: BCDSection: (none)Explanation



QUESTION 115KAL-AP on the Cisco ACE allows communication with Cisco ACE Global Site Selector, to report virtual IP and real server availability. Which statement is true aboutKAL-AP?

A. It is a Cisco propriety keepalive.B. It supports a maximum of 256 KAL-AP entries.C. It supports a maximum of 256 KAL-AP keepalives.D. It is used for both Cisco and non-cisco load balancers



QUESTION 116What is the purpose of this command in a Cisco Application Control Engine? switch/Admin# show np 1 me-stats "-F0 v"

A. It displays the status of the internal SSL proxy structure associated with a vserver.B. It displays the crypto-related statistics for a single NP.C. It is the same output of a "show stats crypto" client/server.D. It shows details on HTTP session entries.


Explanation/Reference:answer is valid and updated.

QUESTION 117How many concurrent GUI logins are possible per user account on Cisco UCS Manager?

A. 128B. 96C. 64D. 32




QUESTION 118ACE can check the health of servers and server farms by configuring health probes (sometimes referred to as keepalives). There are several types of probes.Which three options are valid ACE probes? (Choose three.)

A. TCPB. ICMPC. HTTPD. IPsec

Correct Answer: ABCSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 119Which option is a benefit of virtualized Application Networking Manager?

A. Static workload scalingB. Local authorizationC. High availabilityD. Health monitor probeE. Distributed backup





Which command would produce this output?

A. show stats HTTPB. show stats loadbalanceC. show stats probe typeD. show parameter map



QUESTION 121Which option describes how you would guarantee 30 percent of available bandwidth on interface 1/4?

A. Issue the bandwidth percent 30 command after the interface ethernet1/4 command.B. Issue the bandwidth percent 30 command after the class best-effort-drop-class command.C. Issue the bandwidth percentage 30 command after the policy-map policy1-egress command.D. Issue the bandwidth percentage 30 command after the class best-effort-drop-class command.


E. Bandwidth guarantees are not permitted on output policies.





While attempting to modify a management firmware package, you receive the error that is shown in the exhibit. Which two statements explain this error? (Choosetwo.)

A. The management firmware package that is referenced by the service profile has been deleted.B. The Cisco UCS Manager version is 2.1 or later.C. Cisco Integrated Management Controller firmware should be managed via the host firmware policy.D. You cannot modify the management firmware directly when a policy has been assigned.


E. The user that is logged into Cisco UCS Manager does not have sufficient privileges.



QUESTION 123Which three concepts influenced the evolution of data centers? (Choose three.)

A. ConsolidationB. ExpansionC. AutomationD. VirtualizationE. CommoditizationF. Economics



QUESTION 124Which three technologies enable lossless Ethernet? (Choose three.)

A. Priority Flow ControlB. Enhanced Transmission SelectionC. Ethernet CreditsD. Congestion NotificationE. VLAN-Aware TransmissionF. IP Type of Server Field

Correct Answer: ABDSection: (none)


Explanation


QUESTION 125What are two benefits of a FabricPath network? (Choose two.)

A. Simplicity of configurationB. Automatic OSPF routingC. ScalabilityD. Dynamic link selectionE. Spanning tree loop prioritization.





Which of these technologies is illustrated by the topology in the exhibit?

A. vPC+B. standard vPCC. enhanced vPCD. express vPCE. fabric vPC





The interface remains in a down state after entering the command that is shown in the exhibit.What is the cause of the problem?

A. The feature interface-vlan command must be configured.B. The VDC contains only F1 interfaces.C. There are IP address conflicts.D. The VDC is "type OTV."E. The command copy run start was not entered.



QUESTION 128NPV and NPIV are features that are used to overcome resource limitations in which Fibre Channel field?

A. FCIDB. Domain IDC. WWPND. LUN ID


E. VSAN



QUESTION 129What are the three prerequisites for enabling FCoE on a Cisco Nexus 7000? (Choose three.)

A. M Series moduleB. F Series moduleC. no-drop QoS policyD. NPIV featureE. FCoE module licenseF. Fabric Extender configured



QUESTION 130How many virtual interfaces do the Cisco UCS 1280, 1240, and 1225 Virtual Interface Cards support?

A. 128B. 64C. 256D. 1024E. 100




QUESTION 131Which statement is true about DHCP snooping on the Cisco Nexus 7000 platform?

A. DHCP snooping cannot be enabled globally and on a per-VLAN basis.B. By default, DHCP snooping is disabled globally and on all VLANs.C. You can enable DHCP snooping on a single VLAN only.D. For DHCP snooping to function properly, all DHCP servers must be connected to the device through untrusted interfaces.



QUESTION 132Which two statements about VDC configuration and limitations are true? (Choose two.)

A. Standard VDCs cannot share interfaces, VLANs, or VRF tables.B. Any user can create VDCs.C. Only the network administrator role can use the switchto vdc command.D. After a network administrator uses the switchto vdc command, the network administrator becomes a VDC administrator for the new VDC.E. There is no CLI command to return to the original VDC.





You configured a port on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch as a trunk port. Which VLANs are allowed on the trunk port based on the port configuration in the exhibit?

A. No VLANs are allowed by default. Use the switchport trunk allowed vlan 1-4094 command to allow all VLANs.B. Only Native VLAN 1 will be allowed.C. VLANs 1 to 3967, and 4048 to 4094 are allowed.D. VLANs 1 to 3900, and 4048 to 4094 are allowed.E. VLANs 1 to 4094 are allowed.



QUESTION 134Which three prerequisites must be met before configuring FabricPath on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch? (Choose three.)

A. Ensure that the Enhanced Layer 2 license is installed on the switch.B. The FabricPath feature set must be installed on the default and non-default VDCs.C. Spanning tree must be disabled on the switch.D. Ensure that you are working on the F Series module.E. Ensure that you are working on the M Series module.F. The FabricPath feature set must be installed only on the default VDC.



QUESTION 135


Which two types of multicast trees are supported by Cisco NX-OS? (Choose two.)

A. private treesB. shared treesC. unicast treesD. anycast treesE. unidirectional treesF. bidirectional trees

Correct Answer: BFSection: (none)Explanation



The engineer needs to check if keepalive messages between two servers in the address range 9.9.9.0/24 arrive from the device that is directly connected via thetrunk interface. Which two configurations should be applied on the switch port to achieve displayed output? (Choose two.)

A. ip access-list LO_FILTERstatistics per-entry10 permit ip 9.9.9.0 0.0.0.255 any20 permit ip any any

B. ip access-list LO_FILTER10 permit ip 9.9.9.0 0.0.0.255 any20 permit ip any any

C. ip access-list LO_FILTER10 permit ip 9.9.9.0 0.0.0.255 any


20 deny ip any anyD. Nexus5K(config)# interface Ethernet1/1

Nexus5K(config-if)# ip access-group LO-FILTER inE. Nexus5K(config)# interface Ethernet1/1

Nexus5K(config-if)# ip port access-list LO-FILTER inF. Nexus5K(config)# interface Ethernet1/1

Nexus5K(config-if)# ip port access-group LO-FILTER out



QUESTION 137Which two statements about Fibre Channel Class 2 are true? (Choose two.)

A. Fibre Channel Class 2 provides a connection-oriented class of service.B. The F_BSY frame is part of Class 2.C. Class 2 acknowledges frame delivery.D. BB_Credits do not exist in Class 2.E. Dedicated bandwidth is allocated when using Class 2.



QUESTION 138Which two options describe the results of a switch sending an RCF SW_ILS frame to neighbor switches? (Choose two.)

A. All traffic in all VSANs is suspended.B. Zone merging is reinitiated.C. The principal switch remains the same.D. New Fibre Channel domains can be allocated.


E. The switch name is changed.



QUESTION 139Which statement about ESS SW_ILS frames is true?

A. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the management server of a requesting switch to the Management Server of a responding switch.B. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the name server of a requesting switch to the Name Server of a responding switch.C. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the domain controller of a requesting switch to the Domain Controller of a responding switch.D. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the alias server of a requesting switch to the Alias Server of a responding switch.E. ESS SW_ILS frames are addressed from the time server of a requesting switch to the Time Server of a responding switch.



QUESTION 140Which three parameters are carried by an iSCSI TCP session? (Choose three.)

A. control messagesB. SCSI commandsC. parameters that specify redundant pathsD. iSCSI PDUsE. primitive signals




QUESTION 141Which two statements about Fibre Channel over IP are true? (Choose two.)

A. FCIP links consist of a maximum of one TCP connection between two FCIP link endpoints.B. Each FCIP link carries encapsulated FCoE frames.C. The FCIP link is established between two peers, and the VE Port initialization behavior is identical to a normal E Port.D. The FCIP profile contains information about the local IP address and TCP parameters.E. The local IP address of the FCIP profile is the IP address of the management interface of the Cisco MDS switch.



QUESTION 142Which two statements about Fibre Channel over TCP/IP are true? (Choose two.)

A. A connection request is made to Port 3225 or configured port.B. A connection request is made to Port 3260 or configured port.C. Fibre Channel over TCP/IP uses the TCP window management and sliding window for flow control.D. A special frame is always used to identify peers.





How is the VLAN configuration accomplished in the Device Manager?

A. This configuration is done under the IP selection.B. This configuration is done under Interface selection.C. This configuration cannot be done in Device Manager.D. This configuration is done by clicking the VSAN drop-down list and choosing VLAN All.



QUESTION 144What is the default FSPF cost of a port channel that consists of four 2-Gb/s links, with one link down because of an error?


A. 500B. 166C. 250D. 125E. 1000




Which two options describe possible causes of the failure shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. Two switches have the same zone set name, but different zone names and different zone members.B. Two switches have the same zone set name and zone name, but different zone members.C. The zoneset export interface command is used for the wrong interface.D. The zoneset merge command can only be executed for VSAN 1.E. The adjacent switch is down at the point of the zone merge.




QUESTION 146Given an E3 WAN link, which mode of compression would be the most appropriate choice?

A. Mode highB. Mode mediumC. Mode lowD. Mode 1E. Mode 2



QUESTION 147Which three options describe information that can be captured with the show iscsi stats iscsi x/y detail command? (Choose three.)

A. PDU or frame drop occurrencesB. speed of the iSCSI interfaceC. data CRC errorD. buffer creditsE. TMF-REQ and TMF-RESPF. duplex of the iSCSI interface

Correct Answer: ACESection: (none)Explanation





When a CNA host connects to the virtual interface of the switch, what will happen?

A. The switch will not initialize because it is in the wrong mode.B. The host will negotiate using DCBX and connect properly.C. The host will negotiate using DCBX and will change parameters as required, but a shut/no shut is needed on the interface.D. The host will not connect. The vFC port number does not match the Ethernet interface.



QUESTION 149Which three options describe the key management control parameters that Cisco Prime DCNM provides? (Choose three.)

A. configuration of change controlB. single shared database for LAN and SAN configuration dataC. single point for integration with third-party test toolsD. ability to manage vPCsE. autodiscovery of storage controllersF. host driver management


G. support for script automation




What action must be taken to make fc1/1 capable of being an ISL port channel member operating at 4 GB?

A. One of the interfaces between fc1/2 and fc1/6 must be placed in out-of-service mode to free up bandwidth in the port group so that fc1/1 can use that bandwidth.B. Interface fc1/1 must be placed into dedicated rate mode.


C. The B2B credit value of interface fc1/1 must be raised to a minimum of 100.D. No action is necessary because shared rate mode ports are fine for ISLs.E. No action is possible because module 1 is oversubscribed and will only support ISLs if the ports operate at 2GBs.



QUESTION 151Which two statements about the FCIP Write Acceleration feature are true? (Choose two.)

A. WAN throughput is maximized by minimizing the impact of WAN latency for write operations.B. The Write Acceleration feature does not have to be enabled on both sides of the FCIP link.C. The FCIP Write Acceleration feature can only be used with multilink port channels if they are constructed with port channel protocol.D. The Write Acceleration feature cannot be used across FSPF equal cost paths in FCIP deployments.E. The Write Acceleration feature works by immediately returning the SCSI status on the initiator side of the FCIP link.



QUESTION 152Which statement best describes the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series?

A. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series provides Layer 2 switching, advanced networking functions, and a common network management model in a virtualized serverenvironment.

B. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series provides Layer 3 switching, advanced networking functions, and a common network management model in a virtualized serverenvironment.

C. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series provides Layer 2 and Layer 3 switching, advanced networking functions, and a common network management model in avirtualized server environment.

D. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series provides Layer 2 and Layer 3 switching but does not provide advanced networking functions or a common network managementmodel in a virtualized server environment.



Explanation/Reference:corrected.

QUESTION 153Which two statements about Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are correct? (Choose two.)

A. When VSM interfaces are created for a virtual machine, the VMware vSwitch port-group configuration is used initially, which requires the creation of a port-groupname for these interfaces and an appropriate VLAN. The simplest configuration is to create a single port group (for example, VSM-Interfaces), that includes allthe interfaces that use this port group and the same VLAN.

B. The mgmt0 interface on the VSM does not necessarily require its own VLAN. In fact, you can use the same VLAN to which the VMware vCenter Server belongs.The VSM management VLAN is really no different from any other virtual machine data VLAN. Alternatively, network administrators can designate a specialVLAN for network device management.

C. Always deploy the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series VSM in pairs, with one VSM that is defined as the primary module and the other that is defined as the secondarymodule on two separate hosts.

D. The service console is a critical interface that resides on every logical server.



QUESTION 154Which two methods can be used to install the Cisco Nexus 1000V VEM on an ESXi host? (Choose two.)

A. Installation using VMware Update ManagerB. Iinstallation via the esxupdate/esxcli command with a tar.gz fileC. Installation via the esxupdate/esxcli command with a .vib fileD. Copying VEM executable files to ESXi host /binE. Installation from the VSM using the vem install host commandF. Installation from the VSM using FTP and the vem auto-install command

Correct Answer: ACSection: (none)


Explanation


QUESTION 155Which two methods can be used in communications between the Cisco Nexus 1000V VEM and the VSM? (Choose two.)

A. routed TCP traffic using HTTPSB. routed UDP traffic using port 4785C. routed UDP traffic using port 7845D. Layer 2 direct traffic using MAC addressesE. Layer 2 broadcast trafficF. routed TCP traffic using port 4785G. routed TCP traffic using port 7845





An administrator is setting up the VSM and VEM in Layer 3 mode. The administrator adds a host to the distributed switch in VMware, but does not see the modulejoin the VSM. Given the configuration in the exhibit, which three configuration items must be included in the configuration? (Choose three.)

A. The vEthernet Port Profile parameter must be set to Capability I3control.B. The vEthernet Port Profile parameter must be set to VSM l3control.C. The Ethernet Port Profile parameter must be set to System VLAN 1400.D. The Ethernet Port Profile parameter must be set to VLAN 1400 in the allowed trunk.E. The Ethernet Port Profile parameter must be set to Capability l3control.F. The vEthernet Port Profile parameter must be set to Mode Trunk.G. The vEthernet Port Profile parameter must be set to VEM l3control.




An administrator is setting up the VSM and VEM in Layer 3 mode. The administrator adds a host to the distributed switch in VMware, but does not see the modulejoin the VSM. Given the configuration in the exhibit, which configuration needs to be included?

A. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.1B. vrf context control

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.1C. vrf context management

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.1


D. ip route vrf management 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.1



QUESTION 158Where can port profiles be created for the Cisco Nexus 1000V?

A. on the VSM onlyB. on vCenter onlyC. on VSM and vCenterD. on VSM and VEME. on VSM, VEM, and vCenter



QUESTION 159Where can port profiles be applied to a virtual machine?

A. on the VSM onlyB. on vCenter onlyC. on VSM and vCenterD. on VSM and VEME. on VSM, VEM, and vCenter




QUESTION 160The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series implementation has two main components. Which two components together make up the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch?(Choose two.)

A. virtual supervisor moduleB. virtual Ethernet moduleC. virtual machine NICsD. virtual machine kernel NICs




A port profile is created in the VSM, but it is not seen in vCenter and cannot be assigned to a virtual machine. Given the configuration in the exhibit, which VSMcommand will resolve this issue?

A. vmware port-groupB. vmware port-activeC. profile-activeD. port-group activeE. shutdown / no shutdown




QUESTION 162Which two statements about dynamic port binding are true? (Choose two.)

A. The port is connected when the VM is powered on and disconnected when the VM is powered off.B. The port is created when the VM is powered on and destroyed when the VM is powered off.C. The max-port limits are enforced.D. The max-port limits are not enforced.E. The port is always connected.





The network administrator is adding a new Cisco Nexus 1000V Switch to vCenter, but does not see the new switch under the vCenter networking tab. Theadministrator issues the command that is shown in the exhibit on VSM to troubleshoot this problem. When the administrator attempts to fix the issue, the error thatis shown in the exhibit is seen. Which option describes the most correct cause of this error?

A. There is a missing control VLAN in the VSM configuration.B. There is a missing packet VLAN in the VSM configuration.C. VSM has no network connection to vCenter.D. The VSM extension key is not installed on vCenter.E. The vCenter extension key is not installed on VSM.





Which option is valid for connecting the fabric interconnect to the I/O module?

A. A, B, C, and D are valid.B. A and B are valid.C. A, B, and D are valid.D. Only A is valid.

Correct Answer: BSection: (none)


Explanation


QUESTION 165Which two server models support single-wire management for Cisco UCS C-Series integration with Cisco UCS Manager? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco UCS C200 M2 serverB. Cisco UCS C250 M2 serverC. Cisco UCS C260 M2 serverD. Cisco UCS C240 M3 serverE. Cisco UCS C240 M2 server




Assume that the Cisco UCS 6200 Series Fabric Interconnects are equipped with 16 port expansion modules. What is the impact of the last command in the exhibit?

A. Fabric interconnect B will reboot.B. The expansion module on fabric interconnect B will reload.C. The command will generate an error.D. Both fabric A and B expansion modules will reload.E. The expansion module on fabric interconnect B will reload according to the maintenance policy that is set by Cisco UCS Manager.

Correct Answer: C




QUESTION 167You have configured a Cisco UCS C460 M2 Rack-Mount Server with two VIC 1225 adapters for single-wire management with Cisco UCS Manager. Whichstatement correctly describes the operation of these adapters?

A. One VIC is designated to carry management, and the other VIC is designated to carry data traffic.B. Both VICs will be used for management and data traffic.C. One VIC will carry management, and both VICs will carry data traffic.D. The Cisco UCS C460 M2 does not support two VIC 1225 adapters simultaneously.





Which option describes the output that is shown in bold in the exhibit?

A. This output represents a standby VIF.B. This output indicates that fabric failover has been enabled on vNIC 3.C. This output represents a reserved system VIF.D. This output represents an unpinned interface.



QUESTION 169Which two FEX connection modes are correct? (Choose two.)

A. hard-pinning modeB. soft-pinning modeC. port channel modeD. physical-pinning modeE. vlan pinning mode



QUESTION 170Which four port types are included in the VLAN port count? (Choose four.)

A. border uplink Ethernet portsB. border uplink EtherChannel member portsC. FCoE ports in a SAN cloudD. static and dynamic vNICs created through service profilesE. VLANs


F. VSANsG. Private VSANs

H: Private VLANs



QUESTION 171What is the default MTU for Fibre Channel on Cisco UCS Manager?

A. 2112B. 2240C. 2000D. 9216





How many additional chassis equipped with Cisco UCS 2204XP I/O Modules could be connected at maximum bandwidth without exceeding the existing portlicenses?

A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 4E. 5



QUESTION 173Which two items have an impact on the maximum number of virtual interfaces that can be created on a virtual interface card? (Choose two.)

A. number of blades in the chassisB. number of acknowledged links between the Fabric Interconnect and the I/O moduleC. number of connected uplinksD. number of Fabric Interconnect port ASICs used by uplinks


E. number of Fabric InterconnectsF. number of VIC



QUESTION 174Which feature must be enabled on the upstream Fibre Channel switch if the fabric interconnect is configured in end-host mode?

A. NPVB. NPIVC. ZoningD. Smart Zoning





Which two statements about the output and diagram are true? (Choose two.)

A. FI-A is configured in FC switch mode.B. VSAN trunking is enabled on FI-A.C. The native VSAN should be VSAN 1.D. Cisco UCS will allow all VSANs by default when FC trunking is enabled.E. FI-A requires VSAN pruning.F. Interface fc1/8 on MDS-A should be configured as a TE Port.




QUESTION 176You are about to assign a static UUID to a service profile. This particular UUID is also defined within the range of a UUID pool. The duplicate UUID in the pool hasnot yet been allocated. What will be the result of applying the static UUID?

A. Applying the static UUID will fail with an error stating that the UUID exists within a defined resource pool.B. Applying the static UUID will succeed with no warnings.C. Applying the static UUID will succeed and a minor fault will be raised.D. Applying the static UUID will succeed and an information fault will be raised.E. Applying the static UUID will fail with an error stating that the UUID is a duplicate UUID.



QUESTION 177What is the purpose of the management interface monitoring policy?

A. to monitor the management interface counters for errors and dropsB. to prevent VM traffic from being black-holed during a cluster switchoverC. to sync MAC address tables between peer fabric interconnectsD. to ensure that the management interface of the managing fabric interconnect can reach the gateway



QUESTION 178In the basic DNS resolution process, which component receives the query and sends it to the location that knows the IP address for the destination?

A. DNS resolverB. D-proxy


C. root serverD. intermediate serverE. authoritative server



QUESTION 179OTV is a MAC-in-IP method that extends Layer 2 connectivity across a transport network infrastructure. Which three options are high-availability features? (Choosethree.)

A. OTV fast convergenceB. fast failure detectionC. added the track-adjacency-nexthop command to enable overlay route trackingD. added support for unicast cores using an adjacency serverE. added support for IPv6 unicast forwarding and multicast flooding across the OTV overlay



QUESTION 180Which three statements about FabricPath are true? (Choose three.)

A. Only FabricPath VLANs can cross a FabricPath domain.B. A vPC+ peer link can be formed out of F1 or F2 ports only.C. With FabricPath, vPC must be changed to vPC+.D. F1 ports must be placed into a separate VDCs.E. A vPC+ peer link can be formed out of F2 ports only.

Correct Answer: ABC





What is the purpose of this command on the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?

A. The command enables conversational learning on FabricPath VLANs 1 through 10 for the F Series module.B. The command enables the FabricPath protocol on VLANs 1 through 10.C. There is no need for this command because conversational learning is enabled by default for all VLANs.D. The command enables conversational learning on a classic Ethernet VLAN for the F Series module.





Which three statements describe the use of the vPC peer link in this topology? (Choose three.)

A. The peer link is used for synchronizing MAC addresses between SW1 and SW2.B. The peer link is used for control plane traffic only.C. The peer link provides necessary transport for multicast traffic.D. The peer link is used for the communication of orphaned ports.E. The peer link does not prevents the loops in the topology.F. The peer link always consists of two 10GB ports in a port-channel.




QUESTION 183What is the default vPC peer-keepalive timeout on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch?

A. 5 secondsB. 256 millisecondsC. 500 millisecondsD. 1 second



QUESTION 184On the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch, ACL capture sessions are supported on which two modules? (Choose two.)

A. M1 modulesB. M2 modulesC. F1 modulesD. F2 modulesE. M3 modules




QUESTION 185Which three configurations for ACL capture are valid? (Choose three.)

A. on a VLAN interfaceB. in the ingress direction on all interfacesC. in the ingress direction only on the M2 moduleD. in the egress direction on all interfacesE. in the egress direction on all Layer 3 interfacesF. in the ingress direction only on M1 module





A new Nexus device, Router-B, was recently added to the network. The engineer wants to make Router-B the designated IGMP querier for this network. Which twoconfigurations should be applied to the devices on the network to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)

A. Router-B(config)# interface Ethernet1/1Router-B(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.251 255.255.255.0

B. Router-B(config)# interface Ethernet1/1Router-B(config-if)# ip address 10.1.1.249 255.255.255.0 Router-B(config)# feature igmp

C. Router-B(config)# interface Ethernet1/1Router-B(config-if)# ip igmp version 2Router-B(config)# feature igmp

D. Router-B(config)# interface Ethernet1/1Router-B(config-if)# ip igmp querierRouter-B(config)# feature pim

E. Router-B(config)# interface Ethernet1/1Router-B(config-if)# ip pim sparse-mode


The customer is trying to configure a rendezvous point, but for some reason it is failing. Which configuration should be applied on both Nexus devices to configurethe rendezvous point?

A. RT-2(config)#ip pim send-rp-discovery loopback10


RT-2(config)#interface lo0B. RT-2(config-if)#ip pim-sparse

RT-2(config)#ip pim send-rp-announce lo10 group-list 239.0.0.0/24 RT-2(config)#interface lo0RT-2(config-if)#ip pim-sparse

C. RT-2(config)#ip pim send-rp-discovery loopback10RT-2(config)#interface lo0RT-2(config-if)#ip pim-sparse

D. RT-1(config)#interface Vlan106E. RT-1(config-if)#no ip pim border

RT-2(config)# ip pim send-rp-announce lo10 group-list 239.0.0.0/24 RT-2(config)#interface lo0RT-2(config-if)#ip pim-sparse

F. RT-1(config)#interface Vlan106G. RT-1(config-if)#no ip pim border

RT-2(config)# ip pim send-rp-discovery loopback10H. RT-1(config)#interface Vlan106

RT-1(config-if)#no ip pim border



QUESTION 188Which of the following is a feature of Fabric Extender?

A. The Fabric Extender provides two user queues for its QoS support, one for all no-drop classes and one for all drop classes.B. The class-all-flood and class-ip-multicast class maps are used on the Fabric Extender.C. The Fabric Extender inherits the CoS configured on the upstream switch.D. For a Cisco Nexus 2248PQ 10GE Fabric Extender, all fabric interfaces can be bundled into a single fabric port channel.




QUESTION 189You have a customer with an MDS fabric that is experiencing a performance problem. You suspect that the problem is due to a BB credit starvation issue with ahost HBA. The customer has both a DS-PAA-2 and a Fibre Channel Analyzer on location. You want to collect a trace and look at the R_RDY flows between theMDS and the host. Which of the following actions is the best way to start troubleshooting this problem?

A. Collect a Fibre Channel Analyzer local brief trace on the MDS and look for missing R_RDYs.B. Collect a Fibre Channel Analyzer local trace with full detail on the MDS, because the detail is needed to examine the R_RDY flow.C. Use the DS-PAA-2 and the MDS span feature to capture a trace and examine the R_RDY flow between the host and MDS.D. Use the Finisar and the MDS span feature to capture a trace because the DS-PAA-2 cannot decode R_RDYs.E. Break the physical connection between the host and MDS and insert the Fibre Channel Analyzer inline.



QUESTION 190Basic zoning changes are accomplished through the use of four SW_ILS frames. Which option identifies these frames in the correct order?

A. RCA, UFC, SFC, ACAB. ACA, RCA, SFC, UFCC. SFC, UFC, ACA, RCAD. ACA, SFC, UFC, RCAE. UFC, SFC, RCA, ACA



QUESTION 191Which SCSI action returns a list of logical unit numbers to which additional commands may be issued?

A. Read CapacityB. Test Unit Read


C. Report LUNsD. ReadE. Inquiry



QUESTION 192Which statement about the FCIP Tape Acceleration feature is true?

A. Cisco MDS SAN-OS provides only tape write acceleration.B. After receiving all the data, the host-side MDS FCIP Tape Acceleration-enabled switch proxies the successful completion of the SCSI WRITE operation.C. Cisco SAN-OS provides increased performance of data delivery to the remote FCIP connected tape drives by using UDP over the WAN.D. The FCIP Tape Acceleration feature can be used with multilink port channels if the port channels are constructed with a port channel protocol.E. WRITE FILEMARKS operations are proxied by the host-side MDS FCIP Tape Acceleration- enabled switch.



QUESTION 193Which statement about the SAN Extension Tuner is true?

A. The SET configuration is persistent across reboots.B. The virtual N Ports that are created will register the FC4 features that are supported with the name server.C. Only SCSI read and write commands are implemented.D. SET cannot be used if iSCSI is enabled.E. The data pattern that is used for the data that is generated between the virtual N Ports can be an all-zero pattern or an all-ones pattern. No other data patterns

can be used.

Correct Answer: C




QUESTION 194Which two statements about FCIP Tape Acceleration are true? (Choose two.)

A. FCIP Tape Acceleration enables time stamp control on an FCIP interface.B. The Cisco MDS switch proxies a transfer ready to signal the host to start receiving data.C. FCIP Tape Acceleration uses TCP window management and a sliding window for flow control.D. FCIP Tape Acceleration reduces each I/O processing time by two RTT.E. FCIP Tape Acceleration only supports the read acceleration.


Explanation/Reference:http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/mds9000/sw/5_0/configuration/guides /ipsvc/nxos/ipsvc/cfcip.html#pgfId-2465141



Given the displays from MDS-1 and MDS-2, which two options describe what will happen when they attempt a zone merge for VSAN 120? (Choose two.)

A. The zone merge will complete with no warnings and each switch will contain three zones.B. The zone merge will fail because the zone set members are not identical.C. The zone merge will prompt the administrator to add zones ucs-1 and ucs-2 to the switches where they are missing.D. Zone merges are not permitted when running enhanced mode zoning.E. The zone merge will fail because the active zone set names are not identical.F. The zone merge will complete, but the administrator will be prompted to choose which zone set to make active.



QUESTION 196Which of the following is an advanced networking function performed by VEM?

A. QOS.B. Snooping.C. VSAN creation.D. VLAN pruning.





Which three statements about the exhibit are true? (Choose three.)

A. The differentiating characteristic of the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series is that it does not run Spanning Tree Protocol. This characteristic may seem to be asignificant departure from other Ethernet switches, which might potentially cause catastrophic network loops. However, in reality, the Cisco Nexus 1000V Seriesimplements a simple and effective loop-prevention strategy that does not require Spanning Tree Protocol.

B. Because the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series does not participate in Spanning Tree Protocol, it does not respond to BPDU packets, nor does it generate them. BPDUpackets that are received by Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are dropped.

C. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series uses a simple technique to prevent loops. Like a physical Ethernet switch, the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch performssource and destination MAC address lookups to make forwarding decisions. The VEM applies loop-prevention logic to every incoming packet on Ethernetinterfaces.

D. The Cisco Nexus 1000V Series uses a simple technique to prevent loops. Like any logical Ethernet switch, the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch performssource and destination MAC address lookups to make forwarding decisions. The VEM applies loop-prevention logic to every incoming packet on Ethernetinterfaces.

E. Because the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series participates in Spanning Tree Protocol, it responds to BPDU packets, and it generate them. BPDU packets that arereceived by Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are dropped.




QUESTION 198Which two options correctly display IOM-to-Fabric Interconnect connectivity? (Choose two.)

A.

B.


C.

D.

A. Option AB. Option BC. Option CD. Option D

Correct Answer: AB




QUESTION 199What are the two FEX connection modes? (Choose two.)

A. hard-pinning modeB. soft-pinning modeC. port channel modeD. physical-pinning modeE. vlan pinning mode



QUESTION 200What is the default burst in a LAN QoS policy?

A. 10240B. 9216C. 20480D. 1548



QUESTION 201Which two statements about disjoint Layer 2 networks are true? (Choose two.)


A. Ethernet Switching mode must be end-host mode.B. Overlapping vlans are supported.C. Each vNIC can communicate with all the disjoint Layer 2 networks.D. Symmetrical configuration is recommended for high availability.E. Default VLAN 1 can be configured explicitly on an Uplink Ethernet Port or Port ChannelF. Appliance port cannot be configured with the same VLAN as Uplink Ethernet Port or Port Channel.



QUESTION 202Which switch is not a valid Cisco Nexus 7000 Series model?

A. Cisco Nexus 7000 4-slot switchB. Cisco Nexus 7000 8-slot switchC. Cisco Nexus 7000 9-slot switchD. Cisco Nexus 7000 10-slot switchE. Cisco Nexus 7000 18-slot switch



QUESTION 203What is the benefit of the Priority-Based Flow control feature in Data Center Bridging?

A. provides the capability to manage a bursty, single traffic source on a multiprotocol linkB. enables bandwidth management between traffic types for multiprotocol linksC. addresses the problem of sustained congestion by moving corrective action to the network edgeD. allows autoexchange of Ethernet parameters between switches and endpoints




QUESTION 204Your organization is purchasing Cisco devices as well as non-Cisco devices for switching.

Which three statements are correct about connecting Cisco devices to a non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud? (Choose three.)

A. Because Cisco devices transmit BPDUs to the SSTP multicast MAC address on VLANs other than the native VLAN of the trunk, non-Cisco devices do notrecognize these frames as BPDUs and flood them on all ports in the corresponding VLAN.

B. Cisco devices connected to the non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud receive these flooded BPDUs. This BPDU reception allows Cisco switches to maintain a per-VLANspanning tree topology across a cloud of non-Cisco 802.1Q devices.

C. The non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud that separates the Cisco devices is treated as a single broadcast segment between all devices connected to the non-Cisco 802.1Qcloud through 802.1Q trunks.

D. Because Cisco devices transmit BPDUs using the industry standard IEEE 802.1D spanning tree multicast MAC address (01-80-C2-00-00-00), the non-Cisco802.1Q cloud will seamlessly participate in spanning tree protocol.

E. Only layer 3 connections will work between Cisco devices and non-Cisco 802.1 cloud.F. Additional equipment will be needed to transmit traffic between Cisco devices and non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud direct connectivity is not possible



QUESTION 205Which two options describe devices as they operate in FabricPath topologies? (Choose two.)

A. Edge (or leaf) devices: These devices have ports that are connected to classic Ethernet devices (servers, firewalls, router ports, and so on) and ports that areconnected to the FabricPath cloud (or FabricPath ports). Edge devices are able to map a MAC address to the destination switch ID.

B. Spine devices: These devices exclusively interconnect edge devices. Spine devices switch exclusively based on the destination switch ID.C. Edge (or leaf) devices: These devices have ports that are connected to classic Ethernet devices (servers, firewalls, router ports, and so on) and ports that are

connected to the FabricPath cloud (or FabricPath ports). Edge devices are able to map a source address to the destination switch ID.


D. Spine devices: These devices exclusively interconnect edge devices. Spine devices switch exclusively based on the source switch ID.



QUESTION 206In a FabricPath topology, each device is identified by a switch ID, and all Layer 2 forwarding tables are built based on the reachability of the switch ID. Whichprotocol is used to assign the switch ID?

A. No protocol is used. The switch ID is always assigned manually.B. The Dynamic Resource Allocation Protocol is used to assign the switch ID.C. The Switch ID Assignment Protocol is used to assign the switch ID.D. The switch ID is assigned based on the system ID of the device.





The network topology that is shown in the exhibit has two aggregation switches (SW1 and SW2). The access layer switch connects to both aggregation switches.On SW1 and SW2, ports connecting to the access layer switches are configured as vPC member ports. SW1 and SW2 are also connected using a port channelthat is configured as a vPC peer link. Which statement describes the use of the vPC peer-keepalive link in this topology?

A. The peer-keepalive link is used for synchronizing MAC addresses between Agg1 and Agg2.B. The peer-keepalive link is used for control plane traffic. The peer link is used for the data plane.C. The peer-keepalive link is used to resolve dual-active scenarios, where the peer link connectivity is lost.D. The peer-keepalive link is used for the communication of orphaned ports.




QUESTION 208Which three options describe the interface and direction on which ACL capture can be applied on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch? (Choose three.)

A. on a VLAN interfaceB. in the ingress direction on all interfacesC. in the ingress direction only on the M2 moduleD. in the egress direction on all interfacesE. in the egress direction on all Layer 3 interfacesF. in the ingress direction only on M1 module.





During troubleshooting of vPCs, it is observed that virtual port channel 2 is in the down state. Based on the show command output, what is a possible cause of thisissue?

A. The virtual port channel is down because LACP is not enabled on the remote switch.B. The virtual port channel is down because of a VLAN mismatch.C. The virtual port channel is down because of an MTU mismatch.D. The virtual port channel is down because of a VLAN and MTU mismatch.



QUESTION 210Which three options are valid SPAN sources? (Choose three.)

A. VLANs, because when a VLAN is specified as a SPAN source, all supported interfaces in the VLAN are SPAN sourcesB. fabric port channels connected to the Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric ExtenderC. Layer 2 subinterfacesD. satellite ports and host interface port channels on the Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric ExtenderE. Layer 3 subinterfacesF. Remote Span Ethernet Ports



QUESTION 211Which four statements about SNMP implementation on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switch are true? (Choose four.)

A. Cisco NX-OS supports one instance of the SNMP per virtual device context.B. By default, Cisco NX-OS uses the default VDC for SNMP.


C. SNMP supports multiple MIB module instances and maps them to logical network entities.D. SNMP is VRF aware. You can configure SNMP to use a particular VRF to reach the SNMP notification host receiver.E. Only SNMP version 3 is supported on NX-OS.F. Cisco NX-OS supports one instance of the SNMP per switch.G. Each VDC can have multiple SNMP sessions configured in it.



QUESTION 212Which three statements about the configuration of vPC+ are true? (Choose three.)

A. The FabricPath switch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.B. The virtual switch ID of vPC+ must be configured under the FabricPath domain.C. On the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch, F1 interfaces must be used as the vPC+ peer links.D. The vPC+ peer link must be configured as a Cisco FabricPath core port.E. The FabricPath subswitch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.F. There has to be atleast 4 virtual switches in the FabricPath domain.





Which statement about the interface that is connected to the NPV core switch is true?

A. The switch that connects to the hosts is identified in the design as an NPV edge switch, and the port that connects to the core is an NP port.B. The interface that is connected to the NPV switch will need to be configured as an N-Port.C. The interface that is connected to the NPV core will become an FP port.D. The link between the NPV core switch and edge will come up as an E port.



QUESTION 214When an NP port becomes operational, the NP switch first logs itself into the core switch by sending a FLOGI request (using the port WWN of the NP port). Whatwill occur next?

A. The switch registers with the fabric name server.B. The switch will perform a PLOGI to the port login server.


C. The switch will register parameters using FDISC.D. The NPV switch will perform a PLOGI using FDISC to register with the fabric name server.



QUESTION 215The FCoE VLAN is used to carry FIP and FCoE traffic for the corresponding VSAN. Which two statements about this mapping are true? (Choose two.)

A. The VLAN-VSAN mapping must be configured consistently in the entire fabric.B. This mapping can only carry Fibre Channel control and data traffic.C. There must be same VLANs on the A and B SANs.D. IP traffic is allowed if the interface is set to Shared.E. The VLAN must match the CNA setting.




Which option describes the capability that the FCoE setting allows?

A. configures the FEX to send FCoE traffic only to this switch


B. allows mapped VLAN-VSAN traffic to reach the FEXC. configures FEX for A-B SAN capabilitiesD. allows interface Ethernet 101/1/1 to exchange DCBX information




What is the most likely reason that VSAN 88 is initializing?

A. VSAN 88 is not mapped to a FCoE VLAN.B. No host has logged into the VSAN.C. The VSAN is shut down.


D. VSAN 88 is not part of the trunk yet.



QUESTION 218Which two actions must occur to disable the LAN traffic on an FCoE link to a host? (Choose two.)

A. interface Ethernet 1/1shutdown lan

B. The switch sends a LAN logical link status message to the CNA host.C. interface vfc11

shutdown lanD. The switch send a PFC command to the CNA host.E. interface Ethernet 1/1

vlan 10 disable



QUESTION 219What is the main function of the device-alias distribute command?

A. This command distributes the device alias configuration on the existing switch to all the other switches in the Cisco Fabric Services region.B. This command enables distribution and will send the configuration after a commit is executed.C. This command changes the distribution mode for device aliases.D. There is no such command.




QUESTION 220When a switch that supports enhanced zoning joins a fabric, which SW_ILS command does it use to determine the enhanced zoning capabilities of the otherswitches in the fabric?


A. MRB. ESSC. ELPD. EFPE. none of the above





Which three statements about the exhibit output related to Cisco Fabric Services are true? (Choose three.)

A. The lock can only be released only by the operations manager user on the 10.1.1.11 switch.B. The admin user on the 10.1.1.11 switch must clear the lock.C. The tacacs+ commit command is the only command that can be used to clear the lock.D. Any network-admin user can release the lock with the command clear tacacs+ session.E. The operations manager user has started, but not committed, a configuration change for the feature tacacs+ command.F. If committed, the changes are automatically saved to the startup configuration on all switches.

Correct Answer: DEFSection: (none)Explanation




Given the displays from N5K-1 and N5K-2, what is the expected result if the zone mode enhanced vsan 1 command is issued on N5K-1?

A. The mode change will complete with a warning that the zone database from N5K-1 will be distributed thoughout the fabric.B. The mode change will not complete due to the mismatch in the default zone mode.C. The mode change prompts the administrator to override the default zone mismatch and make them the same.D. The mode change completes, and the default zone setting remains unchanged in N5K-1 and N5K-2.E. The default zone setting is set to deny in both switches because it is more secure.



QUESTION 223In DCBX feature negotiation, the switch and CNA exchange capability information and configuration values. Which three capabilities are supported in Cisco Nexus


5000 Series Switches? (Choose three.)

A. PFCB. support for logical link up or downC. FCoED. multicastE. speedF. duplex



QUESTION 224Which statement about the iSCSI initiator task tag is true?

A. The initiator assigns a task tag to each task it issues.B. The target assigns a task tag on behalf of the initiator.C. During the life of the task, this tag does not have to be unique.D. SCSI may not use this tag as part of the SCSI task identifier.



QUESTION 225Which three management tools are available with DCNM-SAN Manager, Device Manager, and Performance Manager? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco Traffic AnalyzerB. Cisco Protocol AnalyzerC. Cisco Port Analyzer Adapter 2D. Cisco Prime LMS


E. Cisco Prime NCSF. Cisco Prime NMS




Which two options describe information that can be determined from this output? (Choose two.)

A. the uplink interface that is operating as the designated receiver for broadcast trafficB. the uplink interface that is operating as the designated sender for broadcast trafficC. the switching mode for which the Fabric Interconnect is configuredD. the uplink interface from which multicast traffic will be sourcedE. whether the last respond code was accepted or not





You have associated a newly created service profile to a blade. When you examine the configured boot order and actual boot order, they do not match. Which twostatements describe reasons for this mismatch? (Choose two.)

A. Having a single iSCSI boot target would prevent the profile from associating, and would generate a configuration error.B. The server must complete a POST cycle before Cisco UCS Manager will update this information.C. The blade needs to be reacknowledged.


D. The server is in the process of a firmware upgrade.E. There may be a configuration error in the service profile.




You are configuring a UCS C-Series server for SAN boot over FCoE. The server fails to boot after the HBA option ROM loads. Which option describes the mostlikely solution for this problem?

A. Decrease the vNIC MTU.B. Set the vNIC Class of Service to a nonzero value.C. Set the default VLAN to FCOE VLAN.


D. Set the vHBA Class of Service to 2.E. Uncheck the PXE Boot option.F. Disable Persistent LUN Binding.




You are connecting a Cisco Nexus 2000 to an existing Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect domain for C-Series integration. Which option describes the next CiscoNexus 2000 that will be discovered?

A. FEX0101B. FEX0003C. FEX0102D. FEX1000E. FEX1001





What is the most likely reason for the output that is shown in bold in the exhibit?

A. One or more of the VLANs that are assigned to the vNIC have been deleted from Cisco UCS Manager.B. One or more of the VLANs that are assigned to the vNIC are assigned to different disjoint Layer 2 uplinks.C. There are no Ethernet uplinks that are enabled.D. The host to which the vNIC belongs is currently powered off.E. The vNIC is currently active and uses the fabric failover peer vNIC.





What is the most likely reason for the error?

A. There are not enough local hard drives to satisfy the local disk configuration policy.B. One of the resource pools is depleted (WWN, MAC, UUID).C. The destination blade is equipped with an M61KR-B adapter.D. The server is not equipped with adequate memory.E. A User Ack maintenance policy has been applied.




You are setting up a service profile to iSCSI boot using a Cisco UCS VIC 1240. The service profile returns a configuration error when you attempt to associate it.


What is the problem, based on the exhibit?

A. The iSCSI adapter policy is not set.B. iSCSI boot will not work with the default VLAN.C. The default VLAN should not be set as native on the overlay vNIC.D. The MAC address assignment is invalid.



QUESTION 233You plan to add a new VLAN to your updating service profile template. Assuming that the default maintenance policy is configured, which statement about applyingthis change is true?

A. The change will be applied immediately once the blade is rebooted.B. The change will be deferred until the user acknowledges.C. The change will be applied immediately with no disruption to any bound service profiles.D. The change will generate an impact summary message.E. The change will require all bound service profiles to be unbound.



QUESTION 234How are unified port expansion modules for Cisco UCS 6200 Series Fabric Interconnects licensed?

A. All ports are fully licensed by default.B. The first eight ports on the module are licensed by default.C. The expansion modules contribute eight licenses to the global pool by default.D. The expansion modules contribute six licenses to the global pool by default.


E. The first six ports on the module are licensed by default.



QUESTION 235How many licenses are provided with the purchase of the Cisco UCS 6296 fabric interconnect?

A. 18B. 16C. 12D. 8





In the figure, the load balancer acts a transparent TCP proxy, and establishes the connection with the client on behalf of the real server. What is this type ofspoofing called?

A. delayed bindingB. software-based load balancingC. transport proxyD. application binding




QUESTION 237Which four options describe benefits of the global load-balancing solution? (Choose four.)

A. device status within the data centerB. performance granularityC. centralized client accessD. intelligent traffic managementE. reacts quickly for availability onlyF. server monitoring statisticsG. round robin support only for load-balancing

Correct Answer: ABDFSection: (none)Explanation


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QUESTION 259FabricPath brings the benefits of routing protocols to layer 2 network Ethernet environments. What are the advantages of using FabricPath technology? (Choosethree.)

A. FabricPath provides MAC address scalability with conversational learningB. Loop mitigation with TTL in the frame fieldC. STPl independenceD. 10 Gbps bandwidthE. Layer 2 extensions between data centers




QUESTION 260A network administrator has installed an N7K-F248-25XP module into an existing chassis. The module is powered on, but the interfaces are all in VDC0. What isthe reason for this?

A. The chassis needs an EPLD upgrade to support the new module type.B. The default VDC cannot support F2 modules.C. The interfaces must be allocated into a VDC for F2 modules only.D. The module has failed GOLD diagnostics, and the switch has isolated the ports to protect the integrity of the system.



QUESTION 261Which two statements about SAN port channels configured on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series switches are true? (Choose two.)

A. The bring up protocol automatically detects and overrides any misconfiguration.B. You can manually configure channel groups, or they can be automatically created.C. Changes in configuration to the SAN port channel interface must also be made to all members of the channel group.D. The port channel protocol uses the exchange fabric parameters command to communicate across peer ports in an ISL.E. The port channel protocol ensures that a set of ports is eligible to be part of the same SAN port channel.


Explanation/Reference:updated.


QUESTION 262Which three capabilities make the Cisco Nexus 7010 switch an effective solution for the data center core? (Choose three.)

A. virtualizationB. unified I/OC. support for 48-port Gb/s line cardD. support for Data Center Service ModulesE. high performanceF. high availability

Correct Answer: BEFSection: (none)Explanation


QUESTION 263Which statement about Cisco Unified Fabric switches is correct?

A. The Nexus 5000 family of switches does not support vPC when running in either NPV or FCoE NPV mode.B. The MDS 9100 family of switches is an excellent design choice as a Unified Fabric edge switch.C. The Nexus 7000 Series Switches can support the NPIV mode of operation, but cannot function as a complete Fibre Channel Forwarder.D. The Nexus 7000 Series Switches cannot support advanced Cisco Fibre Channel features such as IVR.E. The MDS family of Cisco Unified Fabric switches supports both the Fibre Channel Forwarder and Fibre Channel Bridge functions.



QUESTION 264Which statement about SAN port channels configured on Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches is true?

A. A single SAN port channel can have both Fibre Channel and virtual Fibre Channel interfaces.


B. SAN port channels can include up to 16 interfaces.C. SAN port channels distribute traffic across all links in the port channel when source ID and destination ID load balancing are used.D. The links in SAN port channels can be connected to different sets of switches.E. The On mode of operation means ports only operate as part of a SAN port channel or remain inactive.



QUESTION 265Which capabilities are not supported in DCNM device manager?

A. manage SNMPv3 security access to switchesB. save and copy configuration files and software imagesC. configure VLANs and Ethernet port channelsD. manage 2148T FEX, 2232PP FEX, and 2248TP FEXE. configure FCoE



QUESTION 266What is the use of NPV in Cisco Unified Computing Systems? (Choose two.)

A. Compatibility with third-party Fibre Channel switchesB. Faster throughputC. Reduce domain IDs in a Fibre Channel environmentD. Support for increased number of VSANsE. Support for SAN port channels

Correct Answer: AC




QUESTION 267If the default VDC is configured to limit resources to a specific module type, what happens when a module that does not match the resource type is installed?

A. The module is powered up, and interfaces are in an "admin down" state.B. The module is denied power, and a syslog message is generated.C. The module is powered up, and interfaces are allocated to VDC0.D. The module is powered up, and interfaces are allocated to VDC100.



QUESTION 268What is the mechanism that is used to allocate MAC addresses that are assigned to the VDC for the system MAC address?

A. NX-OS uses a random MAC address from the IEEE OUI block that is assigned to Cisco.B. The VDC system MAC is pulled from the active supervisor and concatenated through a hash to ensure uniqueness.C. NX-OS uses a value that is based on a range that is assigned to the SPROM of the system backplane.D. The VDC system MAC is based on a range that is allocated to the first line card that is installed in the switch.



QUESTION 269Which three flow-control port states lead to enabled link flow control? (Choose three.)


A. Receive port: Enabled, Transmit port: EnabledB. Receive port: Enabled, Transmit port: DesiredC. Receive port: Enabled, Transmit port: DisabledD. Receive port: Disabled, Transmit port: DesiredE. Receive port: Desired, Transmit port: Desired



QUESTION 270In a configuration with redundant supervisors, how many IP addresses are required to configure full remote access via management 0?

A. Two IP addresses, one for each supervisorB. Three IP addresses, one virtual IP and one physical IP for each supervisorC. One IP address that is shared among supervisorsD. None--management 0 will use the IP address from the first SVI that is created



QUESTION 271VLAN configuration using DCNM can be completed by which two supported methods? (Choose two.)

A. Copy and paste the VLAN, along with its VLAN ID, name, type, admin state, and admin status, from one device to another.B. Create a single VLAN or a range of VLANs.C. A VLAN is created only after choosing File > Deploy to apply changes.D. After a VLAN is created, it requires the state to be enabled.E. Modify the existing VLAN by choosing Interface > VLAN > VLAN Settings.

Correct Answer: AB




QUESTION 272Enabling jumbo frame support on a Cisco Nexus 5500 Switch can be done through which method?

A. Changing the default policy map from a default MTU of 1500 to 9216B. Using the command system jumbomtu 9216C. Using the command interface MTU 9216D. Configuring the default Ethernet system class to an MTU of 9216 with a new network QoS policy map



QUESTION 273Which two statements about authentication settings for DCNM-LAN are true? (Choose two.)

A. If none of the authentication servers that are configured for the current authentication mode responds to an authentication request, the DCNM-LAN server fallsback to local authentication.

B. DCNM-LAN only supports TACACS+.C. Each DCNM-LAN server will have the same device credentials.D. Administering DCNM-LAN authentication settings requires an authentication license.E. DCNM-LAN server users are local to the DCNM-LAN server.





QUESTION 274DCNM is capable of monitoring the network performance of a SAN. What are the three primary areas of this operation?

A. Analyze traffic, device management, and network monitoringB. DCNM-SAN, DCNM-LAN, and device managerC. Definition of flows, information collection, and data presentationD. SNMP poll data, MIB analysis, and report generation



QUESTION 275What is required for proper implementation of jumbo frame support on a Cisco Nexus 2000 Series Fabric Extender?

A. The interface configured as FEX fabric requires the MTU to be set to jumbo.B. The service policy must be applied to the system QoS.C. The device defaults to jumbo frame support; no changes are required.D. The switchport in the FEX interface must be set to MTU 9216.




QUESTION 276DCNM device discovery is done by connecting to Cisco NX-OS devices and doing which three of these? (Choose three.)

A. Collecting the running configurationB. Raising the logging level to meet the minimum requirementC. Discovering all devices by defaultD. Discovering devices using multiple user accounts as long as they are administrator-level accountsE. Using LLDP to discover network adaptors



QUESTION 277You can install Cisco DCNM-LAN on a supported version of which two operating systems? (Choose two.)

A. Microsoft Windows ServerB. Novell SUSE Linux Enterprise ServerC. Oracle Enterprise LinuxD. Red Hat Enterprise LinuxE. VMware ESX



QUESTION 278Cisco DCNM-LAN supports the configuration and monitoring of many Cisco NX-OS features, including which two of these Ethernet protocols? (Choose two.)

A. GLBPB. HSRPC. IRDP


D. VRRP



QUESTION 279The vPC peer-gateway capability allows a vPC switch to act as the active gateway for packets that are addressed to the router MAC address of the vPC peer. Thisfeature enables local forwarding of such packets without the need to cross the vPC peer link. Which statements are true about the vPC peer-gateway? (Choosetwo.)

A. The vPC peer-gateway feature is enabled by default.B. The vPC peer-gateway feature can be configured globally under the vPC domain submode.C. Enabling the peer-gateway feature automatically disables IP redirects on all interface VLANs mapped over a vPC VLAN to avoid generation of IP redirect

messages for packets switched through the peer gateway router.D. The vPC peer-gateway feature only works with HSRP protocol.



QUESTION 280Cisco UCS provides integration interfaces and protocols to support heterogeneous data center environments and supports standard monitoring and eventnotification systems, providing data to standard enterprise-management tools.

Which two of these list the primary Cisco UCS interfaces and industry standard-based read-only interfaces? (Choose two.)

A. UCS Manager XML API and UCS CLIB. SNMP, SMASH CLP, and CIM-XMLC. UCS Manager, DCOS, and Local-mgmtD. SoL and NX-OSE. debug-plugin and UCS Manager GUI




QUESTION 281A virtual port channel (vPC) allows links that are physically connected to two different Cisco Nexus devices to appear as a single port channel to a third device.

Which are the mandatory steps for configuring vPC? (Choose six.)

A. Enable feature vPCB. Define domainsC. Establish peer keepalive connectivityD. Create a peer linkE. Configure the peer link as a trunk portF. Create port channels and vPCsG. Define port channel load-balancing methodH. Make sure configurations are consistent

Correct Answer: ABCDFHSection: (none)Explanation

Explanation/Reference:Answer: A, B, C, D, F, H

QUESTION 282When creating a role in a Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, rules are used to define the type of operations that a role will allow the user to perform. Which two ofthese parameters cannot be applied as a rule? (Choose two.)

A. port-profileB. commandC. access-listD. feature-groupE. OID




QUESTION 283Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) overlay interface is a logical multiaccess and multicast- capable interface that must be explicitly defined by the user andwhere the entire OTV configuration is applied.

Which statements are true about OTV overlay interface? (Choose two.)

A. When an OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame destined for a remote data center site, the frame is logically forwarded to the overlay interface.B. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet and sends it to the join interface toward the routed domain.C. When the OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame destined for a remote data center site, the frame is logically forwarded to the join interface.D. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet and sends it to the overlay interface toward the routed domain.





The network administrator is seeing N7K-1 having issues with VLAN 11, and interface VLAN 11 is resetting, causing frequent HSRP state changes. Which twoactions would reduce HSRP state changes? (Choose two.)

A. On N7K-1, configure the HSRP extended hold timer to 180, extending the HSRP hello message hold time.B. On N7K-2, configure the HSRP extended hold timer to 180, extending the HSRP hello message hold time.C. On N7K-1, configure the pre-empt delay minimum to 180 in order to delay N7K-1 from taking over as the HSRP active router.D. On N7K-2, configure the pre-empt delay minimum to 180 in order to delay N7K-2 from taking over as the HSRP active router.E. On N7K-2, increase the HSRP priority to 150.F. On N7K-2, decrease the HSRP priority to 50.

Correct Answer: CESection: (none)Explanation



QUESTION 285Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) join interface is used to source the OTV encapsulated traffic and send it to the Layer 3 domain of the data center network.Which statements are true about OTV join interface? (Choose three.)

A. Join interface is a Layer 3 entity, and with the Cisco NX-OS release 6.0, it can only be defined as a physical interface, physical subinterface, Layer 3 portchannel, or Layer 3 port channel subinterface.

B. A single join interface can be defined and associated with a given OTV overlay.C. Multiple overlays can also share the same join interface.D. Join interface can be a loopback interface.E. The join interface is a Layer 3 entity that can be defined as a physical interface but not as a logical one.



QUESTION 286Cisco NX-OS Software supports SNMPv1, SNMPv2c, and SNMPv3. Both SNMPv1 and SNMPv2c use a community-based form of security. SNMPv3 providessecure access to devices by a combination of authenticating and encrypting frames over the network. Which security features are provided in Cisco NX-OSSNMPv3? (Choose three.)

A. encryption--scrambles the packet contents to prevent them from being seen by unauthorized sourcesB. password--a password (community string) sent in clear text between a manager and agent for added protectionC. authentication--determines that the message is from a valid sourceD. message integrity--ensures that a packet has not been tampered with while it was in transitE. user--to determine if user authentication is used instead of community strings



QUESTION 287The hardware and software configurations for vPC+ are similar to that of traditional vPC. What are the differences in the configuration of vPC+? (Choose three.)


A. FabricPath switch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.B. Virtual switch ID of vPC+ must be configured under FabricPath domain.C. On Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, F1 interfaces must be used as the vPC+ peer links.D. The vPC+ peer link must be configured as a Cisco FabricPath core port (switchport mode fabricpath).E. FabricPath subswitch ID must be configured under the vPC domain.



QUESTION 288AMIS is used to:

A. Send Email messages B. Send VoiceMail messages C. Send VoiceMail & Email messages D. Send Recorded names



QUESTION 289Two Unity Servers can be placed in the same Dialing Domain if:

A. They are in the same Exchange Site/Routing Group. B. Their subscribers do not have overlapping extensions. C. They do not have to dial trunk access codes to reach each other's subscribers. D. They are both assigned the same Location ID. E. They are attached to the same PBX.

Correct Answer: BC




QUESTION 290From the perspective of the CallManager, the Unity TSP looks and behaves most like a:

A. H.323 Gateway B. CTI Port C. Cisco IP Phone D. TAPI Device E. MGCP Gateway



QUESTION 291The concept of Location is used by CallManager in order to:

A. Define what CODEC to use between devices which may be separated by a WAN link. B. Define the bandwidth that can be used between devices C. Define groups of devices based on physical location, for the purpose of assigning Primary and Backup CallManager servers D. Group devices based upon physical location, in order to delegate Administrative Control



QUESTION 292What MailStore option does Unity version 2.4.6 support?


A. Exchange 5.5 B. Exchange 2000 C. Domino D. MS Mail



QUESTION 293MPLS traffic engineering routing information is carried by:

A. BGP MEDs B. MP-BGP C. OSPF Opaque LSAs or IS-IS TLVs D. RTP or RTCP packets



QUESTION 294MPLS traffic engineering data is carried by:

A. Opaque LSAs or IS-IS TLVs B. BGP MEDs C. RTP or RTCP packets D. MBGP

Correct Answer: ASection: (none)


Explanation


QUESTION 295

In the MPLS network shown, how many routing tables are on Router A?

A. 1B. 2C. 3D. 4E. 5




QUESTION 296Smart Call Home provides an email-based notification for critical system policies. A range of message formats are available for compatibility with pager services,standard email, or XML- based automated parsing applications. Destination profiles are used by Smart Call Home when sending notifications. Which of these arepredefined destination profiles supported by Cisco NX-OS Software? (Choose three.)

A. short-text-destinationB. prerecorded audio alertsC. CiscoTAC-1D. dial911E. full-text-destination



QUESTION 297After configuring FabricPath, the following appears in the syslog:

%STP-2-L2GW_BACKBONE_BLOCK: L2 Gateway Backbone port inconsistency blocking port port-channel100 on VLAN0010.What is the cause of this message?

A. STP must be disabled; message indicates that STP is enabled.B. STP is misconfigured; root guard must be disabled.C. An inferior BPDU is received on a Cisco FabricPath edge port.D. A superior BPDU is received on a Cisco FabricPath edge port.




QUESTION 298Which description is correct for a private VLAN community port with respect to Layer 2 communications?

A. It communicates with all other community ports in the private VLAN domain.B. It communicates with only isolated ports in the private VLAN domain.C. It communicates only with other community ports in the same community and associated promiscuous ports.D. It communicates only with associated promiscuous and isolated ports.



QUESTION 299On Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch Cisco FabricPath domain, one switch becomes the root for the multidestination tree. Cisco FabricPath IS-IS will automaticallyselect root switches for each multidestination tree. One of the parameters used to select the root is system ID. Which statements are true about system ID?(Choose two.)

A. System ID is a unique 12-bit SID.B. System ID is a 48-bit value composed of the VDC MAC address.C. Higher system ID is preferred.D. Lower system ID is preferred.



QUESTION 300Which two are benefits of using remote AAA services for Cisco Nexus products? (Choose two.)

A. They make it easier to manage user logins and passwords across devices.B. They enable automated configuration backup for devices.C. They centrally manage user attributes and permissions.


D. Local console access is never included in AAA and can be used for access when the AAA servers are down.


Explanation/Reference:answer is valid.

QUESTION 301What tasks can only be performed in the default or admin VDC?

A. EPLD upgrade, IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and rolling back a checkpointB. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and ACL capture enablementC. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration and SNMP configurationD. EPLD upgrade, Cisco IOS ISSU, FCoE feature enablement, CoPP configuration, and write erase



QUESTION 302What does the mac packet-classify command do when applied to an interface configuration?

A. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only IP packets that enter the interface.B. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to only non-IP packets that enter the interface.C. It enables MAC ACLs to be applied to all packets that enter the interface.D. It enables MAC ACLs to be used for QoS settings.




QUESTION 303In a virtual port channel (vPC) configuration, VRRP exhibits which characteristic?

A. VRRP does not work with vPC due to industry standard requirementsB. VRRP works with vPC in traditional active/standby modesC. VRRP works with vPC in an active/active modeD. VRRP work with vPC as long as vPC peer-gateway is configured to address non-standard replies to the physical MAC address



QUESTION 304On Cisco Nexus 5000 Series Switches, where are the virtual output queues implemented, and what is the main purpose of virtual output queues?

A. on all ingress interfaces; to ensure maximum throughput on a per-egress, per-CoS basisB. on all ingress interfaces; to provide independent congestion management and 16 queuesC. on all egress interfaces; so that a congested egress port does not affect traffic directed to other egress portsD. on all egress interfaces; to prevent head-of-line blocking by utilizing multiple virtual output queuesE. on all egress interfaces; to be able to use EEE 802.1p CoS



QUESTION 305On the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switch, Control Plane Policing is enforced on which component?

A. The supervisor module enforces CoPP before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPUB. The fabric modules enforce CoPP in the fabric before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPUC. The linecards enforce CoPP locally before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPUD. The egress virtual output queue enforces CoPP locally before out-of-policy traffic reaches the CPU




QUESTION 3062012 Feb 23 23:00:08.676710 pim: [16132] (default-base) Received unauthenticated hello- message from 10.1.1.2 on Ethernet1/18, message discarded 2012 Feb23 23:00:12.528763 pim: [16132] (default-base) Send Hello with AH on Ethernet1/18 from 10.1.1.1, holdtimE. 105 secs, dr-priority: 1

You are troubleshooting a PIM neighbor adjacency that is not coming up. You issued the command show ip pim neighbor e1/18 and confirmed there is no PIMneighbor on the interface.

What is the problem based on the debug output?

A. The peer router 10.1.1.2 has PIM disabled on its interface connecting to Ethernet1/18.B. The peer router 10.1.1.2 has the wrong PIM password configured on its interface connecting to Ethernet1/18.C. The local router 10.1.1.1 has the wrong PIM password configured on Ethernet1/18.D. The peer router 10.1.1.2 does not have PIM hello authentication enabled on its interface connecting to Ethernet1/18.E. The local router 10.1.1.1 does not have PIM hello authentication enabled for Ethernet1/18.



QUESTION 307What is the benefit of using Anycast RP via RFC 4610 for IP multicast RP redundancy?

A. Improves convergence of the multicast network due to enhanced RPF checksB. Simplifies the number of control plane protocols over other RP redundancy methodsC. Eliminates the use of Protocol Independent Multicast (PIM) in the topologyD. Increases the administrative distances in Multicast Source Discovery Protocol (MSDP) configuration

Correct Answer: B




QUESTION 308Which statement best describes ACL configuration using configuration session mode on Cisco Nexus switches?

A. The verify command will validate commands entered for syntax errors.B. The save command will save the commands entered to the startup configuration.C. The network administrator can perform a dry-run ACL configuration by verifying the configuration against the hardware and software resources available before

applying it.D. Configuration sessions can be saved and resumed at any time, even after upgrading NX-OS Software on the switch with ISSU.E. Configuration sessions are global for all VDCs on the Nexus 7000.



QUESTION 309Overlay Transport Virtualization (OTV) uses the Authoritative Edge Device (AED) to perform which tasks?

A. The AED is responsible for sending all unicast traffic in a site, while either node in a site can transmit multicast and broadcast.B. The AED is responsible for load balancing all traffic for all VLANs across the transport network.C. The AED is responsible for handling all unicast, broadcast, and multicast traffic for a given VLAN within a site.D. The AED is responsible for MAC address dispute contention for a given VLAN.



QUESTION 310


Which three statements about the DHCP snooping feature on Cisco Nexus switches are true? (Choose three.)

A. DHCP snooping commands are not available until the feature is enabled with the feature dhcp-snooping command.B. When you enable the DHCP snooping feature, the switch begins building and maintaining the DHCP snooping binding database.C. The switch will not validate DHCP messages received or use the DHCP snooping binding database to validate subsequent requests from untrusted hosts until

DHCP snooping is enabled globally and for each specific VLAN.D. Globally disabling DHCP snooping removes all DHCP snooping configuration on the switch.E. Globally disabling DHCP snooping does not remove any DHCP snooping configuration or the configuration of other features that are dependent upon the DHCP

snooping feature.



QUESTION 311Which three statements describe user authentication in Cisco DCNM-LAN? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco DCNM-LAN server users are local to the Cisco DCNM-LAN server. Creating, changing, and removing Cisco DCNM-LAN server users has no effect onuser accounts on managed devices.

B. A Cisco DCNM-LAN server user that has Administrator privileges can push out changes to managed devices even if the Cisco NX-OS role that is used on thediscovered device has the network operator role.

C. Cisco DCNM-LAN user roles restrict the ability of users to make changes to Cisco DCNM- LAN server settings. Cisco NX-OS user roles enforce read/writeprivileges on the discovered devices.

D. Cisco DCNM-LAN allows you to configure unique credentials for each discovered device or use default credentials when you do not configure unique credentialsfor a device.

E. Cisco DCNM-LAN can use AAA servers to authenticate users. Only TACACS servers are supported.



QUESTION 312Nexus# conf t


Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z.Nexus(config)# interface Loopback10% Permission deniedNexus(config)# ?no Negate a command or set its defaultsusername Configure user information.end Go to exec modeexit Exit from command interpreter

What is the reason why this user is not able to enter configuration commands?

A. The user did not enter enable prior to going into configuration mode.B. The software license installed on Nexus is Layer 2 only, which does not allow the creation of Layer 3 interfaces.C. The user RBAC role is set to network-operator.D. The user failed authentication and user access defaulted to read-only mode.E. The AAA server is currently not responding.



QUESTION 313Which three statements describe the configuration change management feature in DCNM LAN? (Choose three.)

A. Switch profiles allow configurations to be synchronized between switches and are supported with any Cisco NX-OS Software managed device.B. DCNM LAN can archive configurations from devices even if they are not managed by the DCNM server, and the administrator can supply the device

management IP address and credentials.C. You can archive a maximum of 50 configuration versions per managed device.D. Managed devices must be licensed in DCNM LAN before they can be used with configuration change management.E. Device-running configuration will be archived only if it differs from the last archived version.

Correct Answer: CDESection: (none)Explanation



QUESTION 314Which three statements best describe HSRP configuration on Cisco Nexus switches? (Choose three.)

A. In a vPC topology, the primary HSRP router will respond to ARP requests, but both HSRP routers will forward data traffic. No additional configuration is required.B. In a vPC topology, the primary HSRP router will respond to ARP requests, but both HSRP routers will forward data traffic if the peer-gateway feature is enabled.C. You can configure two overlapping HSRP groups to load share traffic from the connected hosts while providing the default router redundancy.D. You can use the show standby command to verify HSRP operation and configuration.E. If you remove the feature hsrp command, all relevant HSRP configuration information is also removed.



QUESTION 315Which statement describes SNMP functionality in Cisco NX-OS Software?

A. NX-OS Software supports one instance of SNMP globally for all VDCs; however, MIB counters are collected and reported individually per VDC.B. SNMP must be enabled with the feature snmp command before any SNMP configuration is possible.C. SNMP is always enabled by default in NX-OS Software and cannot be disabled.D. NX-OS Software supports 3DES and AES for SNMPv3 message encryption.E. SNMP always uses the default VRF on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches.



QUESTION 316When you connect two Cisco devices through 802.1Q trunks, the devices exchange spanning tree BPDUs on each VLAN that is allowed on the trunks. Which twostatements are correct about the BPDUs that are sent on the native VLAN of the trunk? (Choose two.)

A. BPDUs are sent to the reserved IEEE 802.1D spanning tree multicast MAC address (01-80- C2-00-00-00).


B. BPDUs are sent to the reserved IEEE 802.1q spanning tree multicast MAC address (01-80- C2-00-00-00).C. BPDUs are sent to the reserved SSTP multicast MAC address (01-00-0c-cc-cc-cd).D. BPDUs are tagged with the VLAN number when they are sent.E. BPDUs are untagged when they are sent.



QUESTION 317Consistency checks and compatibility checks are performed before a vPC is created. During a compatibility check, one vPC peer conveys configuration informationto the other vPC peer to verify that vPC member ports can actually form a port channel. Which two statements about virtual port channel graceful consistencychecks are true? (Choose two.)

A. Graceful consistency check is enabled by default.B. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the links on the secondary peer device are suspended.C. Graceful consistency check is disabled by default. To enable this feature, use the graceful consistency-check command under the vPC domain configuration

mode.D. When graceful consistency check is enabled, only the inconsistent VLANs on the secondary peer device are suspended.E. Graceful consistency check is disabled by default.



QUESTION 318Consistency checks and compatibility checks are performed before a vPC is created. During a compatibility check, one vPC peer conveys configuration informationto the other vPC peer to verify that vPC member ports can actually form a port channel. Which option is considered as a Type-2 misconfiguration?

A. port MTU mismatchB. native VLAN mismatchC. STP interface settings


D. VLAN mismatch



QUESTION 319Which three statements about Cisco FabricPath are correct? (Choose three.)

A. Only F1 or F2 ports can be used as FabricPath core ports.B. Only F1 or F2 ports can be used as edge ports to connect a legacy spanning tree domain (to switch traffic over the FabricPath domain).C. A FabricPath VLAN can exist on F1 or F2 ports only.D. Only M1 or M2 ports can be used as FabricPath core ports.E. Only F2 ports can be used as edge ports to connect a legacy spanning tree domain (to switch traffic over the FabricPath domain).F. A FabricPath VLAN can exist on F1 ports only.


Explanation/Reference:answer is perfected.

QUESTION 320Which PIM mode is supported in Cisco NX-OS?

A. sparse modeB. dense modeC. sparse-dense modeD. dense-sparse mode




Which configuration command (or commands) will produce the output that is shown in the exhibit?


A. no feature igmpB. no feature igmp snoopingC. vlan 201

no ip igmp snoopingD. vlan configuration 201

no ip igmp snoopingE. interface vlan 201

no ip igmp snooping




The following message output was displayed while configuring PIM on Nexus 7000. Which command should be configured on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series switchto allow the desired configuration?

A. feature multicastB. feature pimC. ip multicast-routingD. ip pim routing



Explanation



When the engineer tried to check CoPP on the switch, the engineer observed the error that is shown in the exhibit. Which option describes the reason for thedisplayed output?

A. The Cisco NX-OS version that is running does not support CoPP.B. The CoPP feature is not enabled on this switch.C. The CoPP CLI is available from the default VDC.D. CoPP is enabled by default but not configured.



QUESTION 324How many ACL capture sessions can be configured on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?

A. ACL capture is not supported on the Cisco Nexus 7000 switch.B. Only one ACL capture session can be active at any given time in the system across virtual device contexts.C. Only one ACL capture session can be active in each virtual device context.D. The number of ACL capture sessions depends on the space that is available within the ACL Ternary Content Addressable Memory.E. Only one ACL capture session is supported per VLAN.



Explanation


QUESTION 325On a Cisco Nexus 7000 device, on which port type can port security be configured?

A. Access portsB. SPAN destination portC. trunk portsD. public VLAN-enabled ports



QUESTION 326How many traffic monitoring sessions can you create on Cisco UCS Manager?

A. 16B. 8C. 24D. 32



QUESTION 327Fault suppression allows you to suppress SNMP trap and Call Home notifications during a planned maintenance period. Which three commands are necessary toactivate these suppression polices in Cisco UCS Manager? (Choose three.)


A. default-chassis-all-maintB. default-chassis-phys-maintC. default-fex-all-maintD. default-FI-phys-maintE. default-blade-phys-maintF. default-vic-phys-maint





Assume that there is no disjoint Layer 2 configuration. Based on the output, what will happen if uplink eth1/7 on FI-A fails?

A. The host will lose Ethernet uplink connectivity on FI-A.B. Fabric failover will force the vNIC that is bound to FI-A to use uplink eth1/7 on FI-B.C. Cisco UCS Manager will disable the host vNIC that is connected to FI-A.D. Traffic from any hosts using this pin group will use e1/8 on FI-A.





Which two statements about the exhibit are true? (Choose two.)

A. The domain ID for SAN A is 0x64.B. fc1/8 and fc1/9 on the MDS-A are configured as E Ports.C. fc1/8 and fc1/9 on the MDS-A are configured as TE Ports.D. fc1/8 and fc1/9 on the MDS-A are configured as F Ports.E. FC trunking is enabled on the Fabric Interconnect.F. The domain ID for SAN A is 0x640.





Based on the output, what is the most likely reason for the failure of the iSCSI boot?

A. There is no gateway configured on the iSCSI vNIC.B. The LUN is not masked correctly on the storage array.C. CHAP authentication is not configured correctly.


D. The latency between the imitator and target is too high.



QUESTION 331A load balancer performs an operation on a predefined parameter, such as the IP address, HTTP cookie, or URL, when a new connection is made so that anotherconnection with the same parameter will always reach the same server. Which load-balancing predictor does this statement describe?

A. round robinB. least-connectionsC. hashingD. least-loaded





Which type of address-port translation is shown?

A. server NATB. dual NATC. port redirectionD. transparent mode



Explanation


QUESTION 333Which option describes the default predictor on ACE to select the best server to fulfill a client request?

A. the hash cookie, which selects the server by using a hash value that is based on a cookie nameB. least bandwidth, which selects the server that processed the least amount of network trafficC. round robin, which selects the next server in the list of real serversD. the hash DNS, which selects the server using a hash value that is based on FQDN



QUESTION 334Which three options are valid ACE probes? (Choose three.)

A. HTTPB. TelnetC. Java scriptingD. TCL scriptingE. XML scriptingF. SSH



QUESTION 335What are the three benefits of SSL offload? (Choose three.)


A. total offload of encryption from the serversB. partial offload of encryption from the serversC. Layer 5 to 7 awareness for Layer 7 switchingD. Layer 5 to 7 awareness for Layer 5 to 7 switchingE. public certificates required on both load balancer and the real serverF. public certificate required only on load balancer

Correct Answer: ACFSection: (none)Explanation




Which type of SSL offload configuration is shown in the output?

A. SSL terminationB. SSL initiationC. end-to-end SSL


D. SSL testing



QUESTION 337Which protocol message does the Cisco ACE module use to insert or withdraw all RHI routes?

A. ICMPB. SCPC. IPv4D. SCTP



QUESTION 338Which statement describes the graceful restart capability in Cisco NX-OS Software?

A. In NX-OS Software, the OSPFv2 graceful restart extension is Cisco proprietary and is only compatible with other Cisco routers.B. A graceful restart allows OSPFv2 to remain in the data forwarding path through a process restart. When OSPFv2 needs to restart, it first sends a type 8 LSA,

which includes a grace period that tells NSF helpers to keep all LSAs that originated from the restarting interface.C. Graceful restart helps keep an NX-OS system forwarding traffic transparently even if it experiences a cold reboot.D. If the restarting OSPFv2 interface does not come back up before the end of the grace period, or if the network experiences a topology change, the OSPFv2

neighbors tear down adjacency with the restarting OSPFv2 interface and treat it as a normal OSPFv2 restart.E. OSPFv3 graceful restart must be disabled before doing an ISSU.




QUESTION 339Which statement describes the XML management interface in Cisco NX-OS Software?

A. The following XML-based NETCONF operations are supported in NX-OS SoftwarE. close- session, copy-config, delete-config, and edit-config.B. The following XML-based NETCONF operations are supported in NX-OS SoftwarE. close- session, copy-config, edit-config, and kill-session.C. NX-OS Software supports up to a maximum of 16 concurrent XML sessions.D. Only show commands are supported via the XML management interface in NX-OS Software.E. The NX-OS implementation of the XML-based NETCONF requires SSH to be used for communication with the device.



QUESTION 340Cisco FabricPath uses what as a common bridge ID to connected Spanning Tree Protocol bridges?

A. C84C.75FA.6000B. 0100.5E11.02FDC. C84C.76FA.6000D. 4000.0000.0001



QUESTION 341Which statement describes OTV configuration on the Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches?

A. The OTV control-plane protocol uses the IS-IS protocol to establish adjacencies and exchange MAC reachability across the overlay network. You must enableIS-IS with the feature isis command before OTV adjacencies can be established.


B. OTV uses an SSM group range for neighbor discovery and to exchange MAC reachability with other OTV edge peers.C. The OTV join interface is a routed uplink interface on the edge device used to physically join the overlay network.D. The OTV internal interface encapsulates the site Layer 2 frames in IP unicast or multicast packets that are then sent to the other sites.



QUESTION 342How are IP multicast IGMP entries synchronized between vPC peers?

A. IGMP is not synchronized between vPC peersB. Cisco Fabric Service carries IGMP entries across the vPC peer linkC. IP ARP synchronization under the vPC domain configuration also synchronizes IGMPD. IGMP is flooded to the L2 domain, and there is no need to synchronize it between vPC peers



QUESTION 343Which option describes the default roles available to RBAC on Cisco Nexus switches?

A. admin, operator, network-admin, and network-operatorB. admin, read-only, network-admin, and network-operatorC. vdc-admin, vdc-operator, network-admin, and network-operatorD. vdc-admin, vdc-operator, network-admin, and network-operator (for Nexus 7000) and network-admin and network-operator (for other Nexus switches)E. admin and read-only




QUESTION 344What does the command "IP ARP synchronize" do in a vPC configuration?

A. Synchronizes ARP entries between vPC peers every five minutesB. Triggers a manual update of ARP entries from the primary peer to the secondaryC. Enables a bulk loading of ARP entries when a vPC peer is restoredD. Uses the peer-keepalive link to maintain ARP table consistency



QUESTION 345Nexus# sh ip igmp snooping vlan 120IGMP Snooping information for vlan 120IGMP snooping disabledOptimised Multicast Flood (OMF) disabledIGMP querier noneSwitch-querier enabled, address 1.1.1.1, currently not running IGMPv3 Explicit tracking enabledIGMPv2 Fast leave disabledIGMPv1/v2 Report suppression enabledIGMPv3 Report suppression disabledLink Local Groups suppression enabledRouter port detection using PIM Hellos, IGMP Queries Number of router-ports: 0Number of groups: 0Active ports:Po100 Po111

Which statement best describes what is depicted in the show command output?

A. IGMP snooping is not active for VLAN 120 because the IGMP feature has not been enabled on the switch with the feature igmp command.B. The IGMP snooping querier for VLAN 120 is not in a running state because the Loopback interface configured with 1.1.1.1/32 is currently in a down state.C. IGMP snooping has been disabled on the VLAN 120 SVI.


D. IGMP snooping has been disabled for VLAN 120 in VLAN configuration mode.E. IGMP snooping is not active for VLAN 120 because VLAN 120 does not exist in the VLAN database.



QUESTION 346What is the default Time to Live (TTL) value in Cisco FabricPath?

A. 128B. 32C. 64D. Dependent on the number of switch IDs in the topology



QUESTION 347Assuming the local peer is 10.0.0.1 and the remote peer (configuration not shown) is 10.0.0.2, which of these is used to configure PIM Anycast-RP on a Nexus7000 switch?

A. feature pim!interface loopback1ip address 10.0.0.1/32ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0ip pim sparse-mode!interface loopback2ip address 2.2.2.2/32ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0ip pim sparse-mode


!ip pim anycast-rp 2.2.2.2 10.0.0.1ip pim anycast-rp 2.2.2.2 10.0.0.2ip pim rp-address 2.2.2.2 group-list 224.0.0.0/4

B. feature pim!interface loopback1ip address 10.0.0.1/32ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0ip pim sparse-mode!interface loopback2ip address 2.2.2.2/32ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0ip pim sparse-mode!ip pim anycast-rp 10.0.0.1 2.2.2.2ip pim anycast-rp 10.0.0.2 2.2.2.2ip pim rp-address 2.2.2.2 group-list 224.0.0.0/4

C. interface loopback1ip address 10.0.0.1/32ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0ip pim sparse-mode!interface loopback2ip address 2.2.2.2/32ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0ip pim sparse-mode!ip pim anycast-rp 2.2.2.2 10.0.0.1ip pim anycast-rp 2.2.2.2 10.0.0.2ip pim rp-address 2.2.2.2 group-list 224.0.0.0/4

D. feature pimfeature msdp!interface loopback1ip address 10.0.0.1/32ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0ip pim sparse-mode!interface loopback2


ip address 2.2.2.2/32ip router ospf 10 area 0.0.0.0ip pim sparse-mode!ip msdp originator-id loopback1ip msdp peer 10.0.0.2 connect-source loopback1ip msdp description 10.0.0.2 To 7010-2ip msdp password 10.0.0.2 mypassword!ip pim rp-address 2.2.2.2 group-list 224.0.0.0/4




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