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Corporate Office CAREER INSTITUTE

“SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005

+91-744-2436001 [email protected]

1. This question booklet contains 180 Objective Type Questions in the subjects of Physics(45), Chemistry (45) and Biology (90).

2. The question paper and OMR (Optical Mark Reader) Answer Sheet is issued separately at the start of the examination.

3. Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the candidate.

4. Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Question Booklet and Answer Sheet and make the correct entries on

the Answer Sheet. As Answer Sheets are designed to suit the OPTICAL MARK READER (OMR) SYSTEM, special care should betaken to mark the entries correctly. Special care should be taken to fill accurately. The correctness of entries has to be

cross-checked by the invigilators. Paper code and Form No.

5. Read each question carefully.

6. Select the correct answer from the four available options given for each question.

7. Mark the appropriate circle completely like this , for answering a particular question. Mark with Black ink ball point pen only.

8. Each question with correct response shall be awarded four (4) marks. There shall be no negative marking.

9. Use of whitener or any other material to erase/hide the circle once filled is not permitted.

10. Avoid overwriting and/or striking of answers once marked.

11. Rough work should be done only on the blank space provided on the Question Booklet. Rough work should not be done on the

Answer Sheet.

12. The required Log-Antilog table will be provided along with the Question Booklet.

13. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Answer sheet is to be returned to the Invigilator.

14. No candidate is allowed to leave the examination hall till the end of examination.

15. No marks will be deducted if a particular question is not attempted.

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Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so.

FORM NUMBER

DISTANCE LEARNING PROGRAMME(ACADEMIC SESSION 2014-2015)

LEADER TEST SERIES COURSE

PAPER CODE 0 1 D M 3 1 4 0 0 2

TARGET : MH-CET 2015

TEST # 02 DATE : 15 - 02 - 2015

Test Type : MAJOR Test Pattern : MH-CET

Path to SuccessCAREER INSTITUTEKOTA (RAJASTHAN)

T M

TEST SYLLABUS : FULL SYLLABUSDuration : 3:00 hours Total Marks : 720INSTRUCTIONS

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Leader Test Series Course/MH-CET/15-02-2015

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

1. ______deals with motion of particles or bodiesconsidering the cause of motion.

(1) Dynamics (2) Kinematics

(3) Mechanics (4) Optics

2. Induced surface charge density on surface ofdielectric is given by [k = dielectric constant]

(1) i11k (2)

112ki

(3) 11ki (4) i

112k

3. The resistances of the four arms P, Q, R, Sin a wheatstone’s bridge are 10 , 30 , 30and 90 . The emf and internal resistance ofcell are 7V and 5 respectively. Ifgalvanometer resistance is 50 the currentdrawn from cell will be ?(1) 0. 1 (2) 0.2(3) 0.3 (4) 0.4

4. __________is a part of transparent mediumbounded on two sides by plane surface inclinedto each other.(1) Light (2) Spectrum(3) Prism (4) Fibre

5. An artificial satellite revolves in a circularorbit of radius ‘r’ and having total energy as

E0. It’s binding energy is ?(1) E0 (2) 2E0

(3) 01 E2 (4) –2E0

6. The escape velocity from a planet’sgravitational field is reduced to half of itsoriginal value, then what its volume is related as ?

(1) V 64 V0 (2) 01V V2

(3) V V0 (4) V 18 V0

7. Match the columns. Column - I Column - II

A. Rate of change p. Impulseof momentum

B. Change of q. Non-inertialmomentum frame

C. Reference frame r. Forcewith constant v

D. Rotating frame s. Inertial frame(1) A - p B - q C - r D - s

(2) A - r B - p C - s D - q

(3) A - r B - s C - p D - q

(4) A - r B - p C - q D - s

8. Hurricane or storm are examples of _____flow.(1) turbulent (2) viscous

(3) laminar (4) maximum

9. If plates of 9F parallel plate capacitor andseperation between them is 10mm. The areaof plates is(1) 1.699 × 109 m2

(2) 4.5 29 × 109 m2

(3) 9.281 × 109 m2

(4) 10.16 × 109 m2

BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKINGHAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS

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Major Test For Target : Pre-Medical 2015/MH-CET/15-02-2015


10. The resistance of an ammeter is 13 and itsscale is graduate for current upto 100A. Afteran additional shunt has been connected to thisammeter it become possible to measure currentupto 750 A by this meter. The value of shuntresistance is

(1) 20 (2) 0.2 (3) 2 (4) 2 k

11. The radius of circular path of electron whensubjected to a perpendicular magnetic field is

(1) mBe

v(2)

meBe (3)

mEBe (4)

BeMv

12. The decay constant of radioactive element is1.05 × 10–4/year. What is its half life ?(1) 5000 year (2) 6000 year

(3) 6600 year (4) 7200 year

13. For a transistor, 1 1 is equal to ________.

(1) one (2) two(3) three (4) zero

14. Geometrical area of bodies in contact is called_________area.

(1) actual (2) real(3) geographical (4) apparent

15. A plano convex lens has focal length of80 cm. If refractive index of material is 1.5.Find its radius of curvature.

(1) 30 cm (2) 40 cm(3) 120 cm (4) 100 cm

16. ________is most important natural source ofultraviolet light.

(1) Rainbow (2) Spectrum(3) Sun (4) Light

17. A resistance of 9.5 connected across cell ofemf 12v, draws a current of 1.2 A. What is itsinternal resistance ?(1) 0.91 (2) 0.50 (3) 0.82 (4) 0.1

18. A telescope has objective of focal length 100cmand eyepiece of focal length 10cm. Themagnifying power and length of telescope is(1) 10, 1000 (2) –10, 90(3) 10, 110 (4) –10, 110

19. Match the columns.Column - I Column - II

A. Biot Savart law p. 0IB4r

B. Magnetic field at q. F = q (V B)center ofsemicircular loop

C. Force acting on r. 03

Id rdB4 r

l

current carryingconductor placedin magnetic field

D. Force on moving s. F = ( B)lcharge in magneticfield(1) A - r B - p C - s D - q(2) A - p B - q C - r D - s(3) A - s B - r C - q D - p(4) A - q B - s C - p D - r

20. Which of the following statement is CORRECTabout radiowaves ?(1)They are longitudinal electromagneticwaves(2) They are transverse wave(3) They are both transverse & lognitudinal(4) Stationary electromagnetic waves.

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21. Find ODD one out.(1) Relative density(2) Refractive index(3) Dielectric constant(4)Gravitational constant

22. If A B B A then angle between A and B is(1) /4 (2) /2(3) /3 (4)

23. How many times more intense is 60 dB soundthan a 30 dB sound ?(1) 2 (2) 30(3) 200 (4) 1000

24. What should be the workdone in blowingbubble having surface tension of soap solutionas 30 dyne/cm and radius of bubble as 10 cm ?(1) 7.54 × 104 erg (2) 8 × 105 erg(3) 3.142 × 102 erg (4) 1.41 × 105 erg

25. Consider interference between waves from twosources of intensities I and 4I. What is theintensity at point where phase difference is ?(1) I (2) 2I (3) –I (4) –2I

26. A mercury drop of radius 'R' splits upto 1000droplets of equal radii. The change in surface areais _____× R2.(1) 8 (2) 36 (3) 12 (4) 40

27. Displacement of particle in SHM is given byx = 5(cos t + sin t), where x is in meter. Theamplitude of motion of particle is given by(1) 8m (2) 10m

(3) 5 2m (4) 10 2m28. The height of TV tower is 75m. If we want to

double its coverage range, then height of TVtower should be ?(1) 150 m (2) 300m(3) 200m (4) 500 m

29. The magnetic field at center of circular loop ofdiameter ______m and carrying current 1A is1.25 × 10-5 T.(1) 0.1m (2) 10m(3) 0.2m (4) 0.5m

30. The fundamental frequency of transversevibration of stretched string is related as (givenvibrating length and tension in the string areconstant).

(1) 1

f2 m

(2) 1

fm

(3) f m (4) 1

fm

31. The moving coil galvanometer has a resistanceof 50 and gives full scale deflection for acurrent of 10 mA. It’s equivalent resistance is(If galvanometer is converted into ammeterwith a range of 0-50 A).(1) 10-3 (2) 10-2 (3) 10-4 (4) 10-5

32. In any fission process the ratio of

mass of fission productmass of parent nucleus

is __________.

(1) greater than 1(2) less than 1(3) depends on mass of parent nucleus(4) equal to 1

33. If spring has time period T and is cut into nequal parts, then the time period of each partwill be _______.

(1) nT (2) T/ n

(3) T n (4) T

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34. What pressure should be applied in a lead blockto reduce its volume by 10% ?(Bulk modulus of lead = 6 x 109 N/m2)(1) 3 × 108 N/m2 (2) 5 × 107 N/m2

(3) 6 × 108 N/m2 (4) 8 × 108 N/m2

35. The force acting on the electron in the hydrogenatom is related to the principal quantumnumber as(1) F n4 (2) F 1/n4

(3) F n2 (4) f 1/n2

36. When the displacement of linear harmonicoscillator is 1/3 of its amplitude, the ratio of itstotal energy to its potential energy is(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 9 (4) 1/9

37. In the case of forced vibration, the resonancebecomes very sharp when the(1) quality factor is small.(2) damping force is small.(3) restoring force is small.(4) applied periodic force is small.

38. A pulse of a wave train travels along a stretchedstring and reaches the fixed end of the string.It will be reflected back with(1) A phase change of 1800 with velocity

reversed(2) the same phase change of 1800 with no

reversal of velocity.(3) A phase change of 1800 with no reversal of

velocity(4) the same phase as a the incident pulse but

with velocity reversed.39. In a simple slit diffraction pattern, intensity and

width of frings are(1) unequal width(2) equal width(3) equal width and equal intensity(4) unequal width and unequal intensity

40. In a Fresenel’s biprism experiment the twoposition of lens gives seperation between theslit as 16 cm and 9 cm respectively. The actualdistance of separation is(1) 14.4 cm (2) 12.5 cm(3) 12 cm (4) 3.5 cm

41. An audio signal given by e1 = 12sin 2 (2000t)amplitude modulates a sinusoidal carrier wavee2 = 50 sin 2 (100,100t).What is the upperside band frequency?(1) 101 kHz (2) 50 kHz(3) 70 kHz (4) 2kHz

42. The equation of a transverse wave travelling

on a rope is given by y = y0

2d xTe where

y0 = 4mm and T = 1.03 and l = 4cm. Find thevelocity of the wave.(1) 5 cm/s (2) 4 cm/s(3) 2 cm/s (4) 1 cm/s

43. How much area of the earth is covered by acommunication satellite ?(1) 100 % (2) 50%(3) 33% (4) 20%

44. A car takes a turn on a slippery road at a safespeed of 9.8 m./s. If the coefficient of frictionis 0.2, the minimum radius of the arc in whichthe car takes a turn is(1) 20 m (2) 49m(3) 24.5 m (4) 80 m

45. A motor cycle is going on an overbridge atradius ‘R’. The driver maintain a constant speedwhen the motor cycle ascends in theoverbridge, the normal force acting on it(1) remains the same(2) fluctuates erractically(3) increases(4) decreases

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46. A carbon atom contains a negative charge in_____

(1) Carbanion

(2) Carbocation

(3) Free radical

(4) Carbene

47. Which of the following groups show negativeinductive effect ?

(1) COO (2) COOH

(3) RS (4) CH3

48. Mixture of NH4OH and NH4Cl is an exampleof _______

(1) Basic buffer (2) acidic buffer

(3) both (4) None of these

49. In which of the following orbital diagrams, bothPauli's exclusion principle & Hund's rule areviolated ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

50. The IUPAC name of C C C C

C C H

3 3

3 2 5

H H

H

C H2 5 CH3

is

(1) 2,3-Diethyl-2,3-dimethylbutane

(2) 2-Ethyl-2,3,3-trimethylpentane

(3) 3,3,4,4-Tetramethylhexane

(4) 2,2,3,3-Tetramethylhexane

51. The geometry of I-3 is

(1) triangular (2) linear

(3) tetrahedral (4) T-shape

52. [Cu(NH3)4]2+ shows the following hybridisation

(1) dsp2 (2) sp3d

(3) dsp3 (4) sp3

53. The hydrogen ion concentration of a solution

is 3.98 × 10-6 mole per litre. The pH value of

this solution will be

(1) 6.0 (2) 5.8

(3) 5.4 (4) 5.9

54. Gypsum is

(1) CaSO4 H2O

(2) CaSO4 2H2O

(3) 2CaSO4 2H2O

(4) CaSO4

55. The prosthetic group of haemoglobin is

(1) porphin

(2) globulin

(3) haem

(4) gelatin

56. Which of the following is strongest base ?

(1) NH2

(2) NH-CH3

(3) NH2

CH3

(4) CH NH2 2

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57. Aldol condensation product of acetone ondehydration gives

(1) But-2-enal

(2) 2-Methylpent-3-en-4 one

(3) 4-Hydroxy-4-methylpentan-2-one

(4) 4-Methylpent-3-en-2-one

58. The number of electrons that have a total chargeof 965 coulombs is

(1) 6.022 × 1023 (2) 6.022 × 1022

(3) 6.022 × 1021 (4) 3.011 × 1023

59. The value of constant in Nernst Equation

0 constantE E

n in Q at 25ºC is

(1) 0.0592 mV (2) 0.0592 V

(3) 25.7 mV (4) 0.0296 V

60. The central carbon atom of a methyl free radicalcontains

(1) 6 electrons (2) 7 electrons

(3) 8 electrons (4) 10 electrons

61. 2, 2-Dichloropropane Aq.KOH ClemmensenA reduction B

is

(1) Propanol (2) Propene

(3) Propane (4) Ethane

62. Which of the following salts will not undergohydrolysis ?

(1) NH4Cl (2) KCN

(3) KNO3 (4) Na2CO3

63. Dipole induced dipole interactions are presentin which of the following pairs ?

(1) H2O & alcohol (2) Cl2 and CCl4

(3) HCl and He atoms (4) SiF4 and He atoms

64. Identify the correct order of solubility in

aqueous medium

(1) CuS>Zns>Na2S

(2) ZnS>Na2S>CuS

(3) Na2S>CuS>ZnS

(4) Na2S>ZnS>CuS

65. Some meta-directing substances in aromatic

substitution are given which one is most

deactivating ?

(1) C N (2) SO3H

(3) COOH (4) NO2

66. Which one is odd among the following ?

(1) 3CH (2) H3O+

(3) 3CH (4) NH3

67. The major binding force of diamond is

(1) ionic bond

(2) covalent bond

(3) dipole-dipole attraction

(4) induced dipole dipole attraction

68. n type of semiconductor is formed when trace

amount of impurity is added to silicon. The

number of valence electrons in the impurity

atom must be

(1) 3 (2) 5

(3) 1 (4) 2

69. Given the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)

H = -92.6 KJ. The enthalpy of formation of NH3

is

(1) 92.6 kJ (2) 92.6 kJ mol-1

(3) 46.3 kJ mol-1 (4) 185.2 kJ mol-1

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70. The false statement regarding alkane is

(1) It does not perform polymerisation reaction

(2) It doest not give elimination reaction

(3) It does not decolourize dilute KMnO4

solution.

(4) It does not decolourise bromine water.

71. Haber process is used for the production of

which of the following ?

(1) NH3 (2) HNO3

(3) H2SO4 (4) O3

72. The conjugate acid of HS– is

(1) S2– (2) H2S

(3) Both (1) & (2) (4) None

73. Match the column A with column B and select

the correct option.

Column - A Column - B (Ore) (Nature of ore)

(A) Copper glance (i) Sulphate ore

(B) Calamine (ii) Halide ore

(C) Rock salt (iii) Sulphide ore

(D) Epsom salt (iv) Carbonate ore

(1) A (i), B(ii), C(iii), D(iv)

(2) A(iv), B(ii), C(iii), D(i)

(3) A(iii), B(iv), C(ii), D(i)

(4) A(iv), B(i), C(ii), D(iii)

74. If kP for a reaction A(g) + 2B(g) 3C(g)+D(g)

is 0.05 atm at 1000 K. Its Kc in terms of R will be

(1) 20,000 R (2) 0.02 R

(3) 5 × 10–5 R (4) 55 10

R

75. For an ideal gas, Boyle's law is best described

by

(1) P

T

(2) P

V

(3) P

V

(4) P

T

76. Which of the following is optically active ?

(1) 1-Butanol

(2) Isopropyl alcohol

(3) Acetaldehyde

(4) 2-Butanol

77. Which of the following compounds can not be

dried by anhydrous CaCl2 ?

(1) Ethanol (2) Benzene

(3) Chloroform (4) Ethyl acetate

78. Which of the following is a chelate complex ?

(1) Potassium ferrocyanide

(2) Potassium tetracyanonickelate (II)

(3) [Co(en)3] Cl3

(4) [Co(NH3)4Cl2] Cl

79. Which of the following compounds is non

aromatic ?

(1) 1,3-Cyclobutadiene

(2) Pyridine

(3) Furan

(4) Thiophene

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80. The tetraethyl lead mixed in petrol works as

(1) Cooling agent

(2) Anti-knocking agent

(3) Bleaching agent

(4) None

81. Reaction for the formation of NaCl is

(1) Na(g) + Cl2 (g) NaCl(s)

(2) Na(s) + 12 Cl2(g) NaCl(s)

(3) Na(g) + 12 Cl2 (g) NaCl(s)

(4) Na(g) + Cl2(g) NaCl(g)

82. Organic compounds are non-conductors ofelectricity because they

(1) Are insoluble in water

(2) Do not form ions

(3) Have low melting point

(4) Form free radicals.

83. Which of the following represents a set ofnucleophiles ?

(1) BF3, H2O, NH-2

(2) AlCl3, BF3 , NH3

(3) CN-, RCH2- , ROH

(4) H+, RNH3+ , :CCl2

84. Which of the following conversions is anexample of substitution reaction ?

(1) Acetylene Ethane

(2) Sodium acetate Methane

(3) Propylene Propane

(4) Ethane Chloroethane

85. Dumas method is used for the estimation of

(1) Carbon (2) Nitrogen

(3) Oxygen (4) Sulphur

86. Boron halides behave as Lewis acids because

they

(1) Are ionic compounds

(2) Are covalent compound

(3) Have only 6 e- in valence shell

(4) Have a lone pair of electrons on boron atom.

87. CH3COOH when reacts with C2H5OH gives a

product. The same product is obtained by

which reaction ?

(1) Acetic acid + methanol

(2) Acetic anhydride + water

(3) Acetic anhydride + ethanol

(4) Acetamide + methanol

88. Methylketones are usually characterised

through

(1) Schiff's reagent

(2) Iodoform test

(3) Benedict's reagent

(4) Tollen's reagent

89. The correct order of dehydration of alcohols is

(1) 1º > 2º > 3º

(2) 3º > 2º > 1º

(3) 2º > 1º > 3º

(4) 1º > 3º > 2º

90. 2.5 cm3 of 0.2 M H2SO4 solution is diluted to

0.5 dm3. Find normality of diluted solution.

(1) 0.2 N (2) 0.02 N

(3) 0.002 N (4) 0.04 N

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91. In respiratory disease, the lichen species usedis _________

(1) Citraria (2) Peltigera

(3) Parmelia (4) Usnea

92. Which of these are called club fungi ?

(1) Phycomycetes

(2) Basidiomycetes

(3) Ascomycetes

(4) Deuteromycetes

93. Which one of the following is the first groupof vascular plants ?

(1) Thallophyta (2) Bryophyta

(3) Pteridophyta (4) Spermatophyta

94. Which of these has no true roots and novascular tissues ?

(1) Pteridophyta (2) Bryophytes

(3) Gymnosperms (4) Angiosperms

95. Select the INCORRECT statement.

(1) Enzymes accelerate the reaction but do notinitiate it

(2) Enzymes do not participate in the reactionand remain unchanged

(3) The molecule of enzyme is smaller thanthat of substrate molecule

(4) Chemically most of the enzymes are proteinsand show amphoteric nature

96. What acts as an insulator for heat insubcutaneous tissue ?

(1) Living cells (2) Fats

(3) Sugar (4) Carotenoids

97. Which of these is known as reduction division ?

(1) Metaphase-II (2) Mitosis

(3) Cytokinesis II (4) Meiosis - I

98. What is the CORRECT sequence of thesubstages of prophase ?

(1) Leptotene Zygotene Diplotene Diakinesis Pachytene

(2) Diakinesis Pachytene DiploteneZygotene Leptotene

(3) Leptotene Zygotene Pachytene Diplotene Diakinesis

(4) Pachytene Zygotene Leptotene Diplotene Diakinesis

99. One of the following is the characteristic ofcymose inflorescence.

(1) Centripetal opening of flowers

(2) Basipetal succession of flowers

(3) Acropetal succession of flowers

(4) Simultaneous opening of flowers

100. Cross pollination does not occurs in ______

(1) geitonogamous flowers

(2) allogamous flowers

(3) cleistogamous flowers

(4) chasmogamous flowers

101. Which one of these is the modified form ofroot?

(1) Pneumatophores (2) Pericarp

(3) Phylloclade (4) Bulbils

102. Select the INCORRECT match

(1) Palisade parenchyma present below theupper epidermis

(2) Mesophyll Between upper andlower epidermis

(3) Spongy parenchyma present belowpalisade tissue

(4) Pericycle innermost layer of vascular system

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103. The characteristic feature of basal placentationis ___________

(1) presence of central axis

(2) single ovule

(3) multilocular condition

(4) bilocular condition

104. Which one of the following does not help inmolecular transport ?

(1) Diffusion (2) Osmosis

(3) Surface tension (4) Active transport

105. When water enters the root hair cell by osmosis,it becomes fully turgid and its OPD becomes_______.

(1) zero (2) more

(3) less (4) one

106. Which of the following is used for theproduction of long seedless grapes ?

(1) Auxin (2) Cytokinin

(3) Ethylene (4) Gibberellin

107. What causes the loss of chlorophyll andpromotes senescence in leaves ?

(1) Cytokinins (2) Gibberellin

(3) ABA (4) Phytochrome

108. The genes for normal clotting and haemophiliaare located on ______region of chromosomes.

(1) homologous chromosome

(2) corresponding

(3) non-homologous

(4) same chromosome

109. Law of independent assortment of charactersis based on one of the following crosses.

(1) Back cross (2) Reciprocal cross

(3) Monohybrid cross (4) Dihybrid cross

110. An inheri ted character and a detectablevariant is ________.

(1) Factor (2) Trait

(3) Gene (4) Characters

111. In Pisum sativum, which of the following traitis dominant ?

(1) White flowers (2) Green seeds

(3) Yellow pods (4) Inflated pods

112. In the F2 generation, genotypic and phenotypicratios are identical in case of

(1) Complementary genes

(2) Mendelian dihybrids

(3) Mendelian monohybrids

(4) Incomplete dominance

113. Choose the INCORRECT pair _______

(1) Nucleus - RNA

(2) Lysosome - protein synthesis

(3) Mitochondria - respiration

(4) Cytosekeleton - microtubules

114. Which of the following is a stop Codon ?

(1) AUG (2) GUG

(3) UAA (4) GGU

115. Which of the following is showingcomplementary base pairing ?

(1) 5'AATTGC3' (2) 5'CTACAA3'

3'TTAACG5' 5'GATCUU3'

(3) 5'TTCGAA3' (4) 5'GCAATG3'

3'AACGTT5' 5'CGAATC3'

116. In eukaryotes, which structural gene istranscribed ?

(1) Polycistronic (2) Monocistronic

(3) Operons (4) Codogen

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117. Which of these is considered astranscriptionally active chromatin ?(1) Heterochromatin

(2) Cistron

(3) Recon

(4) Euchromatin

118. Francois Jacob and J. Monod proposed_______.

(1) Wobble hypothesis

(2) One-gene-one polypeptide hypothesis

(3) Lac operon model

(4) Central dogma

119. Which of the following is the smallest RNA ?

(1) t-RNA (2) m-RNA

(3) r-RNA (4) ds-RNA

120. The recombinant DNA technique was firstproposed by _________

(1) Mc Clintock (2) Stanley Cohen

(3) Peter Lobban (4) Mullis

121. Which variety of wheat is used as a donor forimproving cultivated wheat ?

(1) Sonolika (2) Atlas - 66

(3) Kalyansona (4) Jaya

122. Name the method of breeding crops, toincrease their nutritional value

(1) Out crossing (2) Line Breeding

(3) Inbreeding (4) Biofortification

123. Which of the following is the most suitablefertilizer for paddy fields?

(1) Rhizobium

(2) Mycorrhizae

(3) Azotobacter and Clostridium

(4) Symbiotic or non-symbiotic Cyanobacteria

124. Which of these microbes grow in between andwithin the cortical cells of roots?

(1) Ectomycorrhizae

(2) Clostridium

(3) Endomycorrhizae

(4) Cyanobacteria

125. In photolysis of water, which ions play animportant role?

(1) Manganese (2) Sulphate

(3) Nitric oxide (4) Oxygen

126. P h o t o p h o s p h o r y l at i o n d i f f e rs f r o moxidative phosphorylation in requiring _____

(1) input of energy in the form of light

(2) input of energy in the form of heat

(3) input of energy in the form of AMP

(4) input of energy in the form of NAD

127. The correct sequence of electron carriers duringETS is _________.

(1) Co.Q cyto.b.c1 cyto.c cyto. a.a3

(2) Co.Q cyto.a. a3 cyto.b.c. cyto. c1

(3) Co.Q cyto.b.c cyto.a. a3 cyto. c

(4) Co.Q cyto.c cyto.b.c cyto.a. a3

128. Total ATP production during EMP pathway is

(1) 24 (2) 8 (3) 38 (4) 6

129. In a recently fertilized ovule, the haploid,diploid and triploid conditions are respectivelyseen in ______.

(1) endosperm, nucellus, egg

(2) egg, nucellus, endosperm

(3) antipodals, oospore, primary endospermnucleus

(4)polar nuclei, secondary nucleus, endosperm

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130. When pollen tube enters into the ovule throughintegument, it is called __________.

(1) mesogamy (2) chalazogamy

(3) herkogamy (4) agamy

131. How many nuclei are involved in entire processof double fertilization ?

(1) Two (2) Three

(3) Four (4) Five

132. During sexual reproduction in angiosperm themegaspore is produced by ______.

(1) mitosis

(2) meiosis

(3) mitosis followed by meiosis

(4) meiosis followed by mitosis

133. Which form of asexual reproduction mimicssexual reproduction ?

(1) Geitonogamy (2) Budding

(3) Apomixis (4) Xenogamy

134. The ecological niche of population is a

(1) geographical area that is covered

(2) place where it lives

(3) set of condition and resources, it used

(4) None of the above

135. Both hydrarch and xerarch successions leadto __________conditions.

(1) xerosere

(2) mesic

(3) hydrosere

(4) anhydrous

136. Molluscs are soft bodied animals with opentype circulatory system except

(1) Snail (2) Pila

(3) Chiton (4) Sepia

137. Name the phylum which is the connecting linkbetween non chordates and chordates.

(1) Hemichordata (2) Arthropoda

(3) Mollusca (4) Ctenophora

138. Which of these mammals are oviparous ?

(1) Duck billed platypus (2) Brown Bear

(3) Sloth Bear (4) Walrus

139. The project Tiger, nature camps by IndianGovernment is to promote awareness amongthe people about __________.

(1) wild life (2) tigers

(3) lions (4) striped Hyena

140. Members of this phylum are carnivorous andfeed on plants and animal matter.

(1) Molluscans (2) Ctenophora

(3) Annelida (4) Arthropoda

141. Which out of these is a characteristic featureof mammalian bone and structural unit ofbone?

(1) Volkmann’s canal

(2) Haversian system

(3) Inner circumferential lamella

(4) Auricle

142. Name the tissue which carry out the functionof contraction and relaxation.

(1) Muscular tissue (2) Nervous tissue

(3) Connective tissue (4) Skeletal tissue

143. Heparin and histamine granules are present inthe cytoplasm of which cells ?

(1) Cuboidal epithelial cells

(2) Columnar cells

(3) Nucleus

(4) Mast cells

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144. Which fatty tissue is present in the matrix ofcompact bone?

(1) Yellow marrow

(2) Red marrow

(3) Harversian system

(4) Lamella

145. Name the animal which have jointedappendages, body is chitinous and segmented.

(1) Blatta orientalis (2) Nereis

(3) Aphrodite (4) Pleurobrachia

146. Match the following:

Column - I Column - II

A. Ovate, dorso-ventrally I. Cervix

flattened and

pear shaped

B. Paired, long, slender, II. Alimentary

filamentous canals

C. Labrum, mandibles, III. Head

maxillae, labium

D. Membranous structure IV. Mouth parts

between head & thorax

E. Foregut, midgut and V. Antenna

hind gut.

(1) A - II, B-IV, C-V, D-I, E-III

(2) A -IV, B-V, C-I, D-III, E-II

(3) A-III, B-V, C-IV, D-I, E - II

(4) A-V, B-II, C-III D-IV E-I

147. Which of these appear as white spots andsituated at the base of each antenna incockroach?

(1) Fenestrae (2) Cervicum

(3) Maxilla (4) Coxa

148. It is a membranous structure between head andthorax and it allows the free movement of thehead

(1) Mesothorax

(2) Metathorax

(3) Prothorax

(4) Cervix

149. Select the CORRECT statement

(1) The cartilagenous flap called epiglottiswhich allows entry of food into therespiratory system

(2) Saliva is secreted by the epithelial cells inthe inner lining of oesophagus that helps inthe smooth passage of food

(3) Cardiac stomach is the first part in whichoesophagus opens

(4) Sphincter is present at one end of thestomach

150. The coils of small intestine are held togetherby connective tissue membrane called_______.

(1) mesenteries

(2) caecum

(3) rectum

(4) pyloric sphincter

151. Nasal chamber is divided into two parts by____.

(1) sphenoid (2) palatine

(3) mesethmoid (4) zygomatic

152. Which one of the following is a soundproducing organ which allows only air to passinto the trachea?

(1) Nostrils (2) Pharynx

(3) Trachea (4) Larynx

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153. Which fibrous connective tissue connects thetwo bones tibia and fibula?

(1) Syndesmoses

(2) Gomphosis

(3) Fontanelles

(4) Synchondrosis

154. Select the INCORRECT statement_______.

(1) The body movement help to maintainequilibrium against gravity

(2) Contraction and relaxation of the heart iscontrolled by striated muscles

(3) Movements of the diaphragm and rib cagehelp in the breathing process

(4) Rhythmic movement of the heart helps inthe circulation of blood

155. Which of these is present between parietals andoccipital bone?

(1) Lateral suture

(2) Coronal suture

(3) Sagittal suture

(4) Lambdoidal suture

156. The viscosity of synovial fluid is due to ______.

(1) bilirubin (2) hyaluronic acid

(3) hydrochloric acid (4) citric acid

157. Which are the contractile units of muscle?

(1) Sarcolemma (2) Myosine

(3) Actin (4) Sarcomeres

158. Which one of the following is correctlymatched?

(1) Condyloid joint non axial movement

(2) Gliding joints biaxial movement

(3) Shoulder joint circular movements

(4) Synovial joints immovable joints

159. Which of the following theory states that, thelife originated on the earth from non-livingmatter?

(1) Theory of chemical evolution

(2) Physical theory

(3) Mutation theory

(4) Biogenesis

160. Cosmozoic theory is also known as_______.

(1) Theory of origin of species

(2) Modern, synthetic theory

(3) Panspermia theory

(4) Haldane theory of chemical evolution

161. Which of the following is not x-linked disorder?

(1) Haemophilia (2) Acute coryza

(3) Night blindness (4) Myopia

162. Gene for colour blindness is located on______.

(1) homologous part of X-chromosome

(2) non-homologous part of X-chromosome

(3) homologous part of Y-chromosome

(4) non-homologous part of Y-chromosome

163. If the centromere is situated at the tip of thechromosome, it is called ______.

(1) Metacentric (2) Acrocentric

(3) Telocentric (4) Sub-meta centric

164. The Human Genome project was initiated byU.S. department of _________

(1) agriculture (2) energy

(3) science (4) technology

165. What is RFLP ?

(1) Restriction fragment length polymers

(2) Rapid fragment length polymers

(3) Restriction fragment length polymorphism

(4) Restriction frequent length polymers

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166. What is the study of molecular organisation ofgenome called?

(1) Genetics (2) Heredity

(3) Biotechnology (4) Genomics167. Which one of the following pairs is

INCORRECTLY matched?

(1) Wuchereria bancrofti - filariasis

(2) Body louse - Typhoid(3) Anopheles - Malaria

(4) Streptococcus Pneumoniae - Pneumonia

168. Innate immunity is provided by ________.(1) phagocytes (2) antibodies

(3) T-lymphocytes (4) B-lymphocytes169. Which one is the Indian breed of Cow?

(1) Jersy (2) Gir

(3) Holstein (4) Brown swiss170. Study of blood is called ________.

(1) Nematology (2) Cardiology

(3) Haematology (4) Pathology171. Which one of the following produce antibodies ?

(1) Monocytes (2) Erythrocytes(3) Thrombocytes (4) Lymphocytes

172. Pace-maker is __________

(1) sino-atrial node(2) atrio-ventricular node

(3) sino-ventricular node

(4) ventriculo - atrial node173. Maximum pressure of blood is

experienced______.

(1) when blood enters from right ventricle toaorta

(2) when blood enters from right auricle to aorta(3) when blood enters from left ventricle to aorta

(4) when blood enters from left auricle to aorta

174. Which of the following controls involuntaryvital function like heartbeats, respiration etc ?

(1) Medulla oblongata

(2) Spinal cord

(3) Fore brain

(4) Pia mater

175. The wall of urinary bladder in humans showsa thick layer of smooth muscle called ______.

(1) dartos (2) detrusor

(3) deltoid (4) depressor

176. Which of the fo l lowing i s a s t ructureof mesencephalon?

(1) Inferior colliculi

(2) Thalamus

(3) Cerebellum

(4) Pons varolii

177. Centre for thinking and learning is present inwhich part of the brain?

(1) Cerebrum

(2) Cerebellum

(3) Diencephalon

(4) Medulla oblongata

178. The number of spinal nerves in man is ______.

(1) 27 pairs (2) 31 pairs

(3) 37 pairs (4) 47 pairs

179. Menstrual flow occurs due to the lack of_____.

(1) Progesterone (2) FSH

(3) Oxytocin (4) Vasopressin

180. Hot spots are the example of _______.

(1) insitu conservation

(3) ex-situ conservation

(3) wildlife protection

(4) water conservation

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career institute form number kota (rajasthan…dlp.allen.ac.in/mh-cet-papers/pdf/1502_paper.pdf ·...

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