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IPexpert Quiz for the CCIE Wireless Written Exam Quizzer Questions

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IPexpert’s Test Prep Quizzer Questions for the Cisco® CCIE

TM Wireless Written Exam

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A message from the Author(s):

The scenarios covered in this workbook were developed by CCIEs to help you prepare for the

Cisco CCIE Written Exam. It is strongly recommended that you use other reading materials in

addition to this workbook.

Training is not the CCIE Written Exam Quizzer objective. The intent of these questions is to test

your knowledge and ability of implementing Cisco Enterprise Solutions.

Time management is very important, if you get stuck on a quiz question be sure to write it down.

Formulate a Checklist for skipped sections and then return to those sections once you have gone

through the entire quiz. Be sure to revisit the questions that you do not understand.

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IPexpert’s Test Prep Quizzer Questions for the

Cisco® CCIETM

Wireless Written Exam

NOTE

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CCIE Wireless Written Quiz

Questions and Answers

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1. You have configured a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller to utilize the platinum QoS queue on the controller. What is the command required on a Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series Switch to provide the necessary QoS for voice clients on a wireless network?

A. Enable 802dot1p B. Config wlan qos wlan-id platinum C. Swithchport priority extend cos 5 D. Mls qos trust dscp

Answer: D 2. Which properties are of an AP in H-REAP mode?

A. Allows some SSID/VLAN traffic to be switched locally while other SSID/VLAN traffic has full LWAPP functionality

B. Support Cisco Centralized Key Management fast roaming C. Can switch client data traffic locally D. Perform client authentication locally when its connection to the controller is lost

Answer: All of the above 3. What are the LWAPP data and control port numbers?

A. UDP 12222 and 12223 B. UDP 16666 and 16667 C. TCP 12124 and 12134 D. TCP 16666 and 16667

Answer: A 4. Which is the most secure encryption solution in IEEE 802.11 standards?

A. WEP B. AES-CCMP C. IPSEC D. TKIP

Answer: B 5. In the AP Layer 3 controller discovery process, after the LWAPP Discovery Request is broadcast

on a local subnet, which action will AP take next?

A. Send an LWAPP discovery request to controllers learned via OTAP if operational B. Wait 10 seconds and resend a Discovery Request to the local subnet C. Send an LWAPP response to the master controller if known D. Determine whether the controller response are the primary controller

Answer: A

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6. A client is attached to the Cisco Unified Wireless network. When the client is using WPA2 and EAP authentication, where are the wireless encryption keys located during an active user session? (Choose two.)

A. On the Cisco WCS B. On the RADIUS Server C. On the Access Point D. On the Client

Answer: C, D 7. Harry is a network engineer and is upgrading a large autonomous WLAN deployment to LWAPP

operation. He has successfully imported a X.509 self-signed certificate into the WLC. But, when he tries to add additional self-signed certificates, the WLC GUI reports a "Failed to Add entry" error. Which command can diagnose the root cause of this problem?

A. Show exlusionlist B. Show database summary C. Show sysinfo D. Show wps summary

Answer: B 8. Can you tell me when a client will provide an AP with its version of Cisco Compatible Extensions

for WLAN devices?

A. In an 802.11 association or reassociation request frame B. When the AP sends an update embedded in a beacon packet C. Upon successful dot1x authentication to the AP D. In a Broadcast probe request packet

Answer: A 9. A wireless client goes through a given process before sending a frame over a medium and

verifying that the medium is free, which process is it?

A. Send an RTS frame, receive a CTS frame, then transmit the frame B. Verify that NAV = 0, then transmit the frame C. Send a CTS frame, receive an RTS frame, then transmit the frame D. Check that NAV = 0, generate a random backoff, verify that the channel is free, verify that slot times = 0, then transmit the frame

Answer: D 10. The 2.4-GHz wavelength is about 4.92 inches (12.5 cm), what distance is it recommended you

put two separate antennas on a 2.4GHz access point?

A. 12.2 inches (30.99) B. 7.6 inches (19.30 cm) C. 24.6 inches (62.5 cm) D. 4.92 inches (12.5 cm)

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Answer: D 11. Which feature is recommended in order to decrease roaming times with Cisco 7921G wireless IP

phones implemented in a large enterprise network?

A. WPA-PSK B. EAP-TLS+ TKIP C. 802.11h Roaming Assistance D. Cisco CKM

Answer: D 12. A client tries to connect to an access point and reports that the access point could only be

connected at 54 Mb/s . The Cisco Unified Wireless Network was deployed to support 802.11n with encryption. Which is the reason for this problem? A. The client has DTPC enabled B. The client does not have WPA2 AES enabled C. The client is set for open authentication D. The client adapter is not capable of 40 MHz

Answer: B 13. Which statement best describes the function of a rogue detector access point?

A. It searches the switchs‟ CAM tables in order to determine which wired port the rogue AP is connected to and then shuts that port down

B. It associates to the rogue AP as a client in order to disrupt service C. It can detect rogue APs and clients, while at the same time associating normal clients to the

WLAN D. Its radios are shut off and its listens only to the wired-side ARP packets on a VLAN trunk, in

order to find rogue clients and APs

Answer: D 14. In the AP Layer 3 controller discovery process, after the LWAPP Discovery Request is broadcast

on a local subnet, which action will AP take next?

A. Wait 10 seconds and resend a Discovery Request to the local subnet B. Send an LWAPP response to the master controller if known C. Send an LWAPP discovery request to controllers learned via OTAP if operational D. Determine whether the controller response are the primary controller

Answer: C

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15. What process does a client go through to reserve the RF medium after going through the DCF process?

A. Send an RTS and SIFS, receive a CTS and SIFS, then send frames B. Send a CTS and SIFS, receive an RTS and SIFS, then send frames C. No process, it can begin transmitting immediately D. Send a REQ, receive an ACK, send frames

Answer: A 16. What are two objectives of the Wi-Fi Alliance certification tests for 802.11a, 802.11b and

802.11g? (Choose two.)

A. Performance above a low throughput threshold to demonstrate interoperability B. Interoperability with other products certified by Wi-Fi Alliance C. Performance above a high throughput threshold to demonstrate compliance D. Compliance with the IEEE 802.11 standard

Answer: A, B 17. The WLAN controller in the Split-MAC architecture can handle which four functions?

A. 802.1X B. KDM C. Association and disassociation messages D. 802.11e resource reservation E. Key Management

Answer: A, C, D, E 18. An indoor 1240 AP is booting and has obtained an IP address by use of DHCP. The AP has

confirmed prior controller IP addresses from a previously joined mobility group stored in NVRAM. Which action will AP take next?

A. Layer 2 LWAPP discovery broadcast B. Layer 3 LWAPP discovery broadcast C. DNS resolution of CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.localdomain D. DHCP option 43

Answer: D 19. Which two guidelines can support the proper design of a VoWLAN network? (Choose two.)

A. A VoWLAN network using 802.11a radio need an access point approximately every 4 meters

(13 feet.). A VoWLAN network using 802.11b/g radio needs an access point approximately every 8 meters (26 feet.)

B. For an ideal voice-ready wireless cell size, the radius or size of each cell should be approximately -67 dBm

C. If there are numerous clients in an area or the supported data applications require significant bandwidth, capacity can be added to the network by using more access points on spectrally exclusive (in other words, non-overlapping) channels

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D. In order to prevent multipathing, the distance between access points should not exceed the heights of the rooms in which they are installed

Answer: B, C 20. Which device controls Radio Resource Management in a centralized WLAN environment with

multiple WLCs configured for mobility?

A. The controller to which APs are currently registered B. The AP that wins the RF election C. The RF group leader D. All the controllers in the same mobility group

Answer: C 21. Which two statements correctly describe the RTS/CTS process? (Choose two.)

A. When the transmitted packet is equal to or longer than the RTS threshold, an RTS packet is sent. The destination node must respond with a CTS packet before the originator can send the real data packet

B. 802.11d replaced the RTS/CTS sequence with CTS to self C. Since the introduction of EDCA (WMM and 802.11e), the RTS/CTS sequence has been

rendered unnecessary D. The RTS and CTS are small and if lost in a collision, they can retried more quickly and with

less overhead than if the whole packet must be retried

Answer: A, D 22. The transmit power level on an 802.11a radio is configured for 30 mW. What is the corresponding

value in decibels?

A. 17 dBm B. 15 dBm C. 25 dBm D. 50 dBm

Answer: B 23. A university will soon complete a second building on its main campus. It wants to use Gigabit

Ethernet fiber to connect two buildings. In order to satisfy the university's requirements of a new WLAN network for its buildings. Which three questions will you ask to arrive at an appropriate design? (Choose three.)

A. How many end users are there and what is the throughput per use needed? B. How many access points do you expect to need in your new building that is under

construction? C. What is the security policy of your organization for wireless networks? D. Which mobility services do you need to run over your WLAN network?

Answer: A, C, D

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24. Which of the following limitations apply to the use of the Cisco WLAN Solution Management over Wireless feature?

A. Read-Write access is not available; only read-only access is supported B. Wireless clients can manage other controllers however not the same controller and AP to

which the client is associated C. Controllers must be managed using only secure protocols (that is, SSH and HTTPS) not

nonsecure protocols (that is, HTTP and Telnet) D. Uploads and downloads from the controller are not allowed

Answer: D 25. Which three parameters can be used in calculating the range of an outdoor link between two

bridges? (Choose three.) A. Cable Length Between access point/bridge and antenna B. Fresel Zone distance C. Antenna gain D. Bridge transmission Power

Answer: A, C, D 26. Which actions will happen when a wireless client implements a Layer 3 roam between two WLCs

configured in Layer 3 LWAPP mode and with management interfaces on the same IP subnet? (Choose three.)

A. The client database entry is removed from the original WLC once it has been entered into the

new WLC B. The client database entry is maintained on both the original and new WLCs C. The database entry is copied to the new controller client database and marked with a

"Foreign" entry in the new WLC D. The original WLC marks the client with an "Anchor" entry in its own client database

Answer: B, C, D 27. In a calibrated system, how statistically accurate is the Cisco Location Appliance at tracking the

location of a client?

A. Within 10m, 95% of the time B. Within 10m, 90% of the time C. Within 1m, 90% of the time D. Within 50cm, 90% of the time

Answer: B 28. Which two guidelines support the proper design of a VoWLAN network? (Choose two.)

A. For an ideal voice-ready wireless cell size, the radius or size of each cell should be -67 dBm B. A VoWLAN network using 802.11a radio need an access point approximately every 4 meters

(13 feet.). A VoWLAN network using 802.11b/g radio needs an access point approximately every 8 meters (26 feet.)

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C. If there are numerous clients in an area or the supported data applications require significant bandwidth, capacity can be added to the network by using more access points on spectrally exclusive (in other words, non-overlapping) channels

D. In order to prevent multipathing, the distance between access points should not exceed the heights of the rooms in which they are installed

Answer: A, C 29. Which feature should be provisioned on all controllers in order for Radio Resource Management

to operate correctly amongst multiple controllers in which APs are able to hear each other?

A. The same ASCII RF group name B. Layer 2 LWAPP only C. The same mobility group D. The same WEP Key

Answer: A 30. While configuring the WLAN controller to utilize 802.11n deployment, the onsite engineer has

disabled WMM. Which problem will occur as the result?

A. Wireless multicast media traffic, such as IPTV, will no longer flow to the wireless devices B. The wireless network will no longer support 802.11n rates C. Cisco 7921 wireless IP Phones will not work D. The 802.11b/g band will work but not the 802.11a band

Answer: B 31. Which statement accurately describes AP power as related to Cisco 7921 wireless AP IP Phone

deployment?

A. AP power should be set to the minimum setting in order to ensure a pico-cell deployment. B. AP Power should be set to a value that ensures 15-20% overlap between cells C. A 7921 wireless IP Phone will roam to the AP with the most powerful signal prior to an

outgoing call only D. A 7921 wireless IP Phone will roam to the AP with the most powerful signal before or during an

outgoing call

Answer: B 32. Choose two capabilities of Cisco Spectrum Expert? (Choose two.)

A. Detection of Wi-Fi APs and clients and when the analysis device has a Wi-Fi network card, classification of those devices

B. Spectrum analysis of only IEEE 802.11a/b/g devices C. Detection and classification of Wi-Fi APs and clients when the analysis device has no Wi-Fi

network card D. Spectrum analysis of IEEE 802.11n Draft 2.0 devices

Answer: A, D

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33. Your company has a main office and many branches. Users at the branches should authenticate via the main office using 802.1X without requiring controllers at the branch locations. This design can be supported by which three states? (Choose three.) A. WLAN in an authentication-central/switch-local state B. WLAN in an authentication-central/switch-central state C. H-REAP in Connected mode D. WLAN in an authentication-local/switch-local state

Answer: A, B, C 34. When configuring a Cisco 792X wireless IP Phone with DHCP, what information will be in the

DHCPOFFER message and why?

A. Option 43, to provide the phone with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager IP address to download its XML configuration file

B. Option 150, to provide the phone with the TFTP-Server IP address to download its XML configuration file

C. Option 60, to provide the phone with the IP address of the RADIUS server, if EAP is in use D. Option 69, to provide the phone with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager IP address

to download its XML configuration file

Answer: B 35. How does the Cisco Location Appliance locate a client or rogue access point?

A. Use Triangulation B. Use RF fingerprinting C. Use strongest RSSI method D. Use Time Difference of Arrival

Answer: B 36. Which antenna type would have the narrowest horizontal beam?

A. Yagi Antenna B. Patch Antenna C. Parabolic Dish D. Omni Antenna

Answer: C 37. Which two are long-term solutions to hidden node problems?

A. Enable CTS to self B. Increase the radio speech to at least 24 Mb/s C. Change the RF situation by increasing the power on client work stations (None-AP-STA) D. Change the RF situation by adding additional access points

Answer: C, D

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38. Which description about Cisco 7920 wireless IP Phones is correct?

A. WPA2 is the recommended security method for deployment, along TKIP for fast and secure roaming

B. These phones have exactly the same characteristics as the newer Cisco 7921 and 7925 wireless IP phones and do not needs special care when you are configuring security and QoS

C. Voice quality is inversely related to channel utilization value sent within QBSS-Load-Element; the lower the value; the higher the voice quality

D. Voice quality is inversely related to RSSI; the lower the RSSI, the higher the voice quality

Answer: C 39. The Cisco Unified Wireless AP Phone 7921G must always have a signal strength of -67 dBm or

better in order to have acceptable voice quality. Which is the minimum recommended signal-to-noise ratio in this scenario?

A. 5 dB B. 25 dB C. 67 dB D. 20 dB

Answer: B 40. A lightweight AP has been deployed in local mode in a network consisting of 10 wireless LAN

controllers in a single mobility group. The AP has been configured to use primary, secondary and tertiary WLCs. Because of a major power failure, the AP's primary, secondary and tertiary Cisco WLCs are all unavailable. Which action will be taken next by the AP?

A. The AP will transition to AP Fallback Mode and continue providing limited WLAN services (that

is, no new client authentications) until a WLC is again available B. The AP will attempt to join the Cisco WLC with the greatest amount of available capacity C. The AP will attempt to join a Cisco WLC configured as a "Master Controller" D. The AP will reboot repeatedly attempt to join the configured primary, secondary and tertiary

Cisco WLCs in that order. The process will continue until one of the configured WLCs is again available

Answer: C 41. Which four components are of CSMA/CA?

A. Carrier sense, collision, jam sequence pattern B. Carrier Sense, DCF, Acknowledgement frames, RTS/CTS medium reservation C. Fragmentation, PCF, Acknowledgement frames, RTS/CTS medium reservation D. Fragmentation, PCF, Collision, backoff

Answer: B 42. How do you apply WMM access categories in an autonomous AP?

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A. Based on the ACLs associated with the policy MAP, policy maps are used on the autonomous AP to apply CoS values to frames coming to the AP. If no policy maps are applied, the AP will use the incoming frame's CoS to map the frame to the appropriate WMM access category

B. AP policy maps allow the DSCP to be set for packets to and from autonomous AP. These DSCP values are translated to CoS values by the upstream switch

C. Autonomous APs do not support WMM access categories D. The Autonomous AP automatically converts the DSCP values of the incoming packets based

on a conversion table in the AP

Answer: A 43. An Access Point is a specially configured node on a wireless local area network. How does an

access point dynamically learn the IP address of an Access Point acting as a WDS?

A. Layer 2 Multicast B. Layer 2 broadcast C. Layer 3 Unicast D. Layer 3 Multicast

Answer: A 44. While designating a known rogue AP, what information is entered into a unified controller?

A. The MAC address of the rogue's radio interface B. The MAC address of the rogue's Ethernet interface C. The Base BSSID of the rogue's AP with the last address digit ending in zero D. The IP address of the autonomous AP in a migration situation

Answer: A 45. A Cisco Unified Wireless Controller is running v5.0 code as well as the Cisco WCS. What default

alarm level is used to display all rogue APs in the Alarm Summary when a controller has been configured with an appropriate rogue rule condition to report discovered APs to the Cisco WCS?

A. Critical B. Minor C. Flash D. Major

Answer: B 46. Which one of the following commands could limit WLC output from subsequent debug commands

to show only information associated with a specific wireless client device that has the MAC address 00:0c:52:67:58:b7?

A. Debug mobility addr 00:0c:52:67:58:b7enable B. Debug mac addr 00:0c:52:67:58:b7 C. Debug mac addr 00:0c:52:67:58:b7 enable D. Debug mobility addr 00:0c:52:67:58:b7

Answer: B

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47. How do you monitor CPU utilization on a wireless LAN Controller?

A. Define the network management system and community in the WLC and a matching v1 or v2 community-string in the network management system to enable the WLC CPU OID to be polled

B. Define the network management system as a trap receiver and enable the default RFC 1213 traps, which include SysCPUUtilization

C. Define the network management system in the WLC with a matching read-write SNMP community to enable the WLC CPU OID to be polled with an SNMP set by the network management system

D. Define an external syslog receiver in the WLC that will receive a syslog message when the percentage of CPU processing ability reaches a preconfigured percentage

Answer: A 48. You work as the wireless network engineer for your company. Study the exhibit carefully.

Intermittent outages are occurring in the WLAN environment which you manage. No rouge APs have been detected and Cisco Spectrum Expert is now being utilized to help discover the source of interface. Judging from this Cisco Spectrum Expert screen, which interference type will you suspect? A. Microwave oven B. DECT Phone C. Bluetooth D. Wireless Video Camera

Answer: C

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49. Which description is true about NIC cards certified by Cisco Compatible Extensions?

A. They support Cisco Standards such as LEAP and EAP-FAST but not PEAP-MSCHAP B. They are compliant with Cisco Compatible Extensions, but not with Wi-Fi C. They support Cisco WLAN technology enhancements (also known as CCX). D. They support 802.11 standards plus power management only

Answer: C 50. In the process of deploying a Cisco 7921G wireless IP Phone within the Cisco Unified Wireless

eature will be implemented between the phone and the access point to mitigate one-way audio?

A. NMSP B. Dynamic transmit power control C. Dynamic channel assignment and Transmit power control D. AKM

Answer: B 51. Which of the following cipher suites were defined in the IEEE 802.11i-2004 standard and then

again in the 802.11-2007 standard? Select all that apply.

A. TKIP B. WEP-40 C. TCP-IP D. WEP-104 E. AES-CCMP

Answer: A, B, D, E 52. What further process does the client go through to reserve a medium after going through the DCF

process?

A. No process, it can begin transmitting immediately B. Send a REQ, receive an ACK, send frames C. Send an RTS and SIFS, receive a CTS and SIFS, and then send frames D. Send a CTS and SIFS, receive an RTS and SIFS, and then send frames

Answer: C 53 While configuring Wireless Domain Services, which port is used for traffic between infrastructure

APs and the WDS AP?

A. Generic Routing Encapsulation GRE which is IP protocol 47 B. UDP destination and source protocol Port 1812 (0x0714) C. UDP destination and source protocol port 2887 (0x0B47) or Ethernet Type 34605 (0x872D) D. UDP destination and Source Protocol Port 1645 (0x066D)

Answer: C

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54. Mark is a network engineer and is upgrading a large autonomous WLAN deployment to LWAPP operation. He has successfully imported a X.509 self-signed certificate into the WLC. When he tries to add additional self-signed certificates, the WLC GUI reports a "Failed to Add entry" error. Which command can diagnose the root cause of this problem? A. Show wps summary B. Show database summary C. Show exlusionlist D. Show sysinfo

Answer: B 55. How does the Cisco Location Appliance (or Mobility Services Engine) locate a client or rogue

access point?

A. Use Triangulation B. Use Time Difference of Arrival C. Use RF fingerprinting D. Use closest access point method

Answer: C 56. Which description is correct with regard to the operation of an access point in Rogue Location

discovery Protocol (RLDP) Mode?

A. The AP detects a rogue client and then the network administrator is able to contain both the rogue AP and the rogue clients. This can be achieved because 802.11 deauthentication packets are sent to clients that are associated to rogue APs so threats such as holes are mitigated

B. The AP moves to the rogue channel and attempts to connect to the rogue as a client. The AP then tries to obtain an IP address and forwards a UDP packet to the controller through the rogue. If the controller receives this packet, the network administrator is notified that a rogue AP has been discovered on the wired network

C. The AP uses the existing wireless infrastructure in order to scan for rogue AP's. Once discovered, these rogues are added to a local list that includes the rogue's BSSIDs, MAC addresses and any discovered security provisions (WPA, WEP etc)

D. The AP determines whether or not a rogue access point is on a trusted network. It does not provide RF service of any kind but rather receives periodic rogue access point reports from the controller and sniffs all ARP packets. If it finds a match between an ARP request and a MAC address it receives from the controller. It generates a rogue access point alert to the controller

Answer: B 57. In order to provide end-to-end QoS, how do you send traffic classification information between

the LWAPP AP and the WLAN Controller?

A. LWAPP APs map the WMM CoS values of the client traffic to the Ethernet frames and theCoS value of the Ethernet frames sent to the AP to the WMM access category. The switch upstream from the AP is responsible for converting between 802.1D classification and DSCP

B. LWAPP packets from the controller and the AP are marked by DSCP based on the DSCP of the tunneled traffic. This DSCP is converted to aCoS by a table in the AP. The access category used for each frame depends on the table CoS and QoS profile of the WLAN

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C. The WMM CoS values are carried within the LWAPP tunnels and translated fromCoS to DSCP to ensure that the correct priority is given to different LWAPP packets

D. There is no end-to-end QoS, only WMM on the WLAN. This is all that is required, because campus networks typically have greater than 1 Gb/s backbones and WLANs operate at only 11 or 54 Mb/s

Answer: B 58. Which three devices historical locations can be tracked by the Cisco Location Appliance?

(Choose three.)

A. Trusted and Rogue clients B. Rogue access points C. 802.11-based RFID Asset tags D. Remote sources of ISM interference

Answer: A, B, C 59. Assuming that the antenna system characteristics (for example, gain VSWR, polarization and

beam width) are similar for a 5-GHz and 2.4-GHz radio. While conducting a dual band site survey, how do you configure the 5-GHz radio, relative to the 2.4-GHz radio, in order to achieve similar cell size?

A. The 5-GHz radio power output level should be higher than the 2.4-GHz radio B. The 5-GHz radio should use BPSK modulation and the 2.4 GHz radio should use CCK

modulation C. The 5-GHz radio power output level should be lower than the 2.4-GHz radio D. The 5-GHz radio should use CCK modulation and the 2.4-GHz radio should use BPSK

modulation

Answer: A 60. Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers are responsible for system wide wireless LAN functions, such as

security policies, intrusion prevention, RF management, quality of service and mobility. When receiving a shun command from a Cisco IPS, how does the WLAN controller block a client?

A. By using the MAC address B. By using the client RF fingerprint C. By using the client name D. By setting up an ACL in the WLAN controller to block client IP connectivity

Answer: A 61. Which description about Cisco 7920 wireless IP Phones is correct?

A. WPA2 is the recommended security method for deployment, along with Cisco Centralized Key Management for fast and secure roaming

B. Voice quality is inversely related to channel utilization value sent within QBSS-Load-Element; the lower the value; the higher the voice quality

C. Voice quality is inversely related to RSSI; the lower the RSSI, the higher the voice quality D. These phones have exactly the same characteristics as the newer Cisco 7921 and 7925

wireless IP phones and do not needs special care when you are configuring security and QoS

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Answer: B 62. Which 802.11i key can provide data origin authenticity during the four-way handshake and for the

group key handshake message?

A. Key Encryption Key B. Key Caching Key C. Key Confirmation Key D. Groupwise Master Key

Answer: C 63. How do you use a supported packet analyzer from an AP to collect and view a remote WLAN

packet capture?

A. Change the AP mode to sniffer, configure the server IP address on the AP radio and create a remote adapter with the Cisco WLC Management IP on a packet analyzer

B. Change the AP to sniffer mode, download a capture from the Cisco WLC and open the capture with a packet analyzer

C. Change the AP mode to sniffer, create a remote adapter with the Cisco WLC management IP on a packet analyzer

D. Change the AP to Sniffer mode, specify a time interval and read packet captures from Cisco WLC Management

Answer: A 64. What does the current European Telecommunications Standards Institute (ETSI) rule state is the

2.4-GHz maximum transmitter output power for point-to-point installations?


Answer: C 65. On or after 20, 2007, all WLAN products shipped in Canada and the US need to meet the FCC

rule 15.407(h)(2). What exactly does this rule indicate?

A. Products operating in the "UNII-1" band must not enable TPC because the additional TX gain may disturb radar systems

B. This rule mandates that products operating in the "UNII-2" and "UNII-2 extended" bands must support Dynamic Frequency selection to detect and automatically adjusts channels to protect WLAN communications from interfering with radar systems

C. The rule finally releases "UNII-2" and "UNII-2 Extended" (5.25-5.35 GHz and 5.47-5.725 GHz, respectively) for industrial wireless fidelity usage

D. Products operating in the "UNII-2" and "UNII-2 extended" bands must not enable TPC, because the additional TX gain of TPC may disturbs radar systems

Answer: B

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66. A retail store is planning to create a wireless network to support checkout registers. Which three actions must be taken to make sure that the wireless network is PCI-complaint? (Choose three.)

A. Disable broadcasting of the SSID B. Enable WPA C. Install PKI certificates on client devices D. Change default passwords and community strings

Answer: A, B, D 67. In order to track mobile devices properly by the location-based services, which of the following is

a requirement?

A. A minimum of three access points, each with a signal strength of -63 dBm or better B. A minimum of two access points, each with a signal strength of -80 dBm or better C. A minimum of four access points, each with a signal strength of -50 dBm or better D. A minimum of three access points, each with a signal strength of -75 dBm or better

Answer: D 68. If you have the Cisco ADU installed but want to use the Windows Zero configuration utility to c onfigure wireless network profile, which action should you take first?

A. In the WZC utility, make sure that the box labeled "Use Windows to configure my Wireless Network Settings" is checked

B. Define a common profile in both the Cisco ADU and WZC C. Define the wireless profile in the wireless Networks tab in WZC D. Uninstall the Cisco ADU

Answer: A 69. Which three Cisco Unified Wireless Network capabilities use information that Radio Resource

Management (RRM) neighbor messages provide? (Choose three.)

A. Hybrid Remote Edge Access Point B. Inter-Controller Mobility (that is Mobility Group) C. Aggressive Load Balancing D. Rogue AP Classification E. Dynamic Channel Assignment F. Over-The-Air Provisioning

Answer: D, E, F 70. How do you describe the radiation pattern of patch and Yagi antennas when viewed from the side

(H-Plane)? A. The patch patterns are conical, the Yagi patterns are doughnut-shaped B. The patch patterns are duoughnut-shaped, the Yagi patterns are conical C. The patch patterns are egg-shaped, the Yagi patterns conical D. The patch patterns are conical, the Yagi patterns are egg-shaped

Answer: C

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71. The following message can be seen on a wireless LAN Controller: Reached MAX EAP identify Request Retries (5) for STA 00:22:33:66:77:00. What does this message indicate?

A. The RADIUS server was unresponsive to five WLC access requests to authenticate the user

with MAC address 00:22:33:66:77:00 B. The authentication sequence completed with an access-reject from the RADIUS server five

times; after which NIC card was excluded by the WLC C. The initial access request from the WLC to the RADIUS server was successful, but the NIC at

did not respond to five subsequent access-challenges D. The WLC has requested initial EAP authentication information from the NIC, but has not

received a response after five tries

Answer: D 72. Two statements accurately describe an 802.11i wireless client with PKC enabled within a WLC-

based network. Which are they?(Choose two.)

A. The client will send a message to an AP to which it is roaming, and the message contains a PMKD indicating that the client prefers to use the same PMK it has been using to generate a new PTK

B. PKC is able to achieve enhanced roam times by cutting out the four-way handshake for roaming clients. This eliminates the time needed to produce a new PTK and GTK

C. Both the client and WLC maintain a copy of the PMK during the roaming process D. While the client is in the roaming process, the AP being roamed to and the AP being roamed

from will encrypt the client data using the GTK instead of the PTK, so that the client can continue to receive packets while performing the 4 way handshake

Answer: A, C 73. After the LWAPP Discovery Request is broadcast on a local subnet, which action will AP take

next in the AP Layer 3 controller discovery process?

A. Send an LWAPP response to the master controller if known B. Determine whether the controller response are the primary controller C. Wait 5 seconds and resend a Discovery Request to the local subnet D. Send an LWAPP discovery request to controllers learned via OTAP if operational

Answer: D 74. Which statement best describes the short preamble?

A. It allows for more efficient data transfers, resulting in better overall throughput B. It is only used for 802.11b signaling; 802.11g uses long frames for increased performance C. It is typically used at the lower data rates of 1 Mb/s or 2Mb/s and may be found when using

equipment from other vendors D. It indicates the start of a frame delimiter and is used to support the increased size of the

802.1p and 802.1p frames

Answer: A

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75. Cisco Client Management Frame Protection (MFP) is running on a mobility group with two controllers in the mobility group. For the following options, which two MFP requirements protect the network? (Choose two.) A. Forces clients to authentication, using a secure EAP method only B. Implements the validation of wireless management frames C. Requires CCXv5 D. Requires the use of a nonbroadcast SSID

Answer: B, C 76. Which parameter indicates and which radio characteristics is most directly related to a device's ability to mitigate the impacts of multipath interference if multipath interference is occurring,?

A. The "Delay spread" parameter indicates that multipath interference is occurring and "diversity" provides relief to a wireless network in a multipath scenario

B. The "Receiver Sensitivity" parameter indicates that multipath interference is occurring and "FCC Bulleting OET -65C Compliance" provides relief to a wireless network in a multipath scenario

C. The "Delay Spread" parameter indicates that multipath interference is occurring and "Data Rates Supported" provides relief to a wireless network in a multipath scenario

D. The "Available Transmit Power" parameter indicates that multipath interference is occurring and "diversity" provides relief to a wireless to a wireless network in a multipath scenario

Answer: A 77. Cisco recommends using Tftpd32 version 3.0 or later when upgrading wireless LAN Controller

software to release 4.1 or later. Why?

A. Tftpd32 is a component of CiscoWorks LMS B. Tftpd32 supports TFTP file transfers larger than 32 MB C. Ttftpd32 is Cisco Compatible Extensions version 4 compliant D. Tftpd32 support EoIP tunneling which is required for remote Cisco WLC upgrades

Answer: B 78. A lightweight AP has been deployed in local mode in a network consisting of 5 wireless LAN

controllers in a single mobility group. The AP has been configured to use primary, secondary and tertiary WLCs. After a major power failure, the AP's primary, secondary and tertiary Cisco WLCs are all unavailable. Which action will be taken next by the AP?

A. The AP will attempt to join the Cisco WLC with the greatest amount of available capacity B. The AP will attempt to join a Cisco WLC configured as a "Master Controller" C. The AP will transition to AP Fallback Mode and continue providing limited WLAN services (that

is, no new client authentications) until a WLC is again available D. The AP will reboot repeatedly attempt to join the configured primary, secondary and tertiary

Cisco WLCs in that order. The process will continue until one of the configured WLCs is again available

Answer: B

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79. You have been asked to configure an EtherChannel for ports 49 and 50 on a Cisco Catalyst 3750 Series Switch after enabling LAG on a Cisco 4404 Wireless LAN Controller. The EtherChannel needs to support VLANs 8,16,24 and 32. In order to finish this task, which configuration is needed?

A. interface GigabitEthernet1/0/49 channel-group 1 mode on interface GigabitEthernet1/0/50 channel-group 1 mode on interface Port-channel1 switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport trunk allowed vlan 8,16,24,32 switchport mode trunk B. interface Port-channel1 switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport trunk allowed vlan 8,16,24,32 switchport mode trunk C. interface GigabitEthernet1/0/49 switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport trunk allowed vlan 8-32 switchport mode trunk channel-group 1 mode on D. interface GigabitEthernet1/0/49 switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport trunk allowed vlan 8-32 switchport mode trunk channel-group 1 mode on interface Port-channel1 switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport trunk allowed vlan 8,16,24,32 switchport mode trunk

Answer: A 80. What is peer-to-peer blocking used for?

A. Prevents internal traffic between all devices on different WLANs B. Prevents wireless-to-wired traffic, but permits wireless-to-wireless traffic C. Prevents the use of peer-to-peer applications such as Bitorrent and Limewire D. Prevents traffic from wireless client to wireless client on the same VLAN and forces all traffic to

be transferred to the upstream VLAN

Answer: D 81. Which two services are offered on Cisco Unified Wireless Networks running controller v5.0 but

not offered on Cisco Mobility Express Solution by use of 526 controllers with v4.2 code? (Choose two.)

A. IDS/IPS B. Guest Access C. Location Services D. GUI Management E. Authentication using 802.1X

Answer: B, C

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82. RADIUS authentication requires that a shared secret be configured into the RADIUS server and RADIUS client. In your centralized wireless infrastructure, users are authenticating through RADIUS to a certain WLAN/SSID. After each user connects, the authenticator sends an authentication request to the RADIUS server and then what will happen?

A. If the username and password are correct, it receives an access-accept in response, along

with a list of reply attributes for the user including WLAN/SSID information B. If the username and password are correct, it receives an access-accept in response, along

with a list of check items for the user, including WLAN/SSID information C. If the username and password are correct, it receives an access-accept in response. If the

authentication operation was successful, the authenticator sends an authorization request to the RADIUS server with the WLAN/SSID information

D. If the username and password are correct and the WLAN/SSID information that is sent in the request matches the information in the user profile, the RADIUS server sends back an access-accept in response

Answer: A 83. You have two WLCs correctly configured for redundancy but using the default AP fallback

settings. There is a power problem and the primary controller failed, and the secondary controller has taken over operation of the LWAPP APs. Which action will be taken by the APs after restoring the power to the primary controller? A. The APs will remain joined to the secondary WLC until the network administrator manually

force them back to the primary WLC. During the process of forcing them back, service to the APs will be interrupted

B. The APs will remain joined to the secondary WLC and the configuration will be updated (the secondary WLC will become the primary WLC and the primary the secondary)

C. The APs will automatically rejoin the primary WLC. Because WLC redundancy is stateful, service to the APs will not be interrupted while they are rejoining the primary WLC

D. The APs will automatically rejoin the primary WLC. While the APs are rejoining the primary WLC, service to them will be interrupted

Answer: D 84. Why are wireless analog video signals operating in the 2.4-GHz band are particularly harmful to

Wi-Fi service?

A. Analog Video is a constant signal with 100% duty cycle B. Analog video signals are slow frequency hopping and tend to affect the entire band C. Analog Video modulation is the same as Wi-Fi and causes interference D. Analog video is a strong signal and increases the SNR

Answer: A 85. Which two features of Cisco WCS can assist with predictive design and planning without access

points being fully deployed and installed? (Choose two.) A. Location Accuracy Tool B. Planning Mode C. Inspect VoWLAN Readiness Tool D. Inspect Location Readiness Tool

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Answer: B, D 86. Which description is true concerning Public WLAN or guest network client access, if an

autonomous access point allows associations from clients that do not specify SSIDs in their configurations?

A. You can set up a guest SSID. The access point includes the guest SSID in its beacon B. You can set up a hotspot SSID. The access point includes the hotspot SSID in its probe

response C. You can set up guest SSID. The access point includes the guest SSID in its probe response D. You can set up a broadcast SSID. The access point includes the broadcast SSID in its beacon

Answer: A 87. When peer-to-peer blocking is disabled, what happens to the traffic between two users

associated to the same SSID?

A. Traffic is bridged on the same controller B. Traffic is inspected by the controller for malicious attacks C. Traffic is forwarded to the upstream VLAN; the device above the controller decides what action to take regarding the packets D. Traffic is dropped from wireless user to wireless user

Answer: A 88. How do you connect the new bridge (when replacing another vendor‟s bridge) to the old antenna

while installing an outdoor bridge?

A. The connectors are proprietary to the vendor, so using an adapter available from either vendor would be necessary but no regulatory approval is required

B. The 802.11 standard requires that all connectors be N-byte connectors, so the bridge and antenna will interoperate with no changes

C. FCC and ETSI regulations do not permit the connection of disparate systems without certification

D. The connectors are proprietary to the vendor, so using an adapter that is approved by the vendor would be necessary

Answer: C 89. If you have the Cisco ADU installed but prefer to use the Windows Zero configuration utility to

configure wireless network profile, which action do you need to take first?

A. In the WZC utility, make sure that the box labeled "Use Windows to configure my Wireless Network Settings" is checked

B. Define the wireless profile in the wireless Networks tab in WZC C. Define a common profile in both the Cisco ADU and WZC D. Uninstall the Cisco ADU

Answer: A

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90. The transmit power level on an 802.11a radio is configured for 30 mW. What is the corresponding value in decibels?


Answer: C 91. Which two tasks does RRM routinely perform since RRM plays a critical role in optimizing, fairly

allocating and adaptively reusing the scarce resources in wireless communication? (Choose two.)

A. Antenna Selection B. AP Address Assignment C. Transmit Power Control D. Channel Assignment

Answer: C, D 92. Which two descriptions are correct about Dynamic Frequency Selection? (Choose two.)

A. DFS is fully supported on all Cisco Aironet 1130, 1240 and 1250 Series Access Points B. The Rogue Location Discovery Protocol (RLDP) and rogue containment are not supported for

channels on which DFS is enabled C. The minimum legal transmit power is greater for some 5-GHz channels than for others. When

a DFS event causes the controller to randomly select a 5-GHz channel on which power is restricted, the controller automatically increases transmit power to comply with power limits for that channel

D. After Radar has been detected on a DFS-enabled channel, it cannot be used for 30 minutes

Answer: B, D 93. The onsite engineer has disabled WMM while configuring the WLAN controller to utilize an

802.11n deployment. Which problem will result because of this change?

A. Wireless multicast media traffic, such as IPTV, will no longer flow to the wireless devices B. Cisco 7921 wireless IP Phones will not work C. The 802.11b/g band will work but not the 802.11a band D. The wireless network will no longer support 802.11n rates

Answer: D 94. Which one of the following commands could limit WLC output from subsequent debug commands

to show only information associated with a specific wireless client device that has the MAC address 01:6c:57:43:67:c7?

A. Debug mobility addr 01:6c:57:43:67:c7 enable B. Debug mobility addr 01:6c:57:43:67:c7 C. Debug mac addr 01-6c-57-43-67-c7 enable D. Debug mac addr 01:6c:57:43:67:c7

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Answer: D 95. For the following statements, what are the key deployment guidelines for voice over WLAN

handsets?

A. VoWLAN handsets should use static WEP, since it provides the fastest roam times and the security of VoWLAN calls is not a high priority

B. Follow standard WLAN site survey procedures to minimize cell overlap and interference. In addition, ensure that the cell edge has a minimum power level of -67 dBm and an error rate less than 1%. The power level of the APs and the handset should match and should also provide sufficient call capacity

C. The RF deployment guidelines are the same as those for any other WLAN client: perform a site survey to ensure appropriate coverage for the required bit rate and minimize channel overlap

D. Use Patch antennas to provide higher gain and better coverage and use the highest power on the AP. This will ensure maximum coverage and minimize the number of dropped calls

Answer: B 96. Which two technologies can the IEEE 802.11h amendment introduce? (Choose two.)

A. TPC B. EDCA C. DFS D. HCCA

Answer: A, C 97. On a Cisco Unified Wireless Controller, which three Access Point Modes allow for client

connectivity? (Choose three.)

A. Monitor Mode B. Local Mode C. Bridge Mode D. H-REAP Mode

Answer: B, C, D 98. Which three devices are in charge of generating the 802.11i Pairwise Master Key in a Cisco

Unified Wireless architecture? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco Secure ACS B. WLAN controller in local EAP mode C. Cisco Secure Services Client D. LWAPP access point

Answer: A, B, C

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99. Which statement about the authorization aspect of AAA is true?

A. Authorization takes place after a successful authentication and provides the Cisco WLC the information needed to allow client access to network resources.

B. Authorization is the validation of successful DHCP address delivery to the wireless client. C. Successful authorization will provide encryption keys that will be used to secure the wireless

communications between client and AP. D. Authorization must be successfully completed in order to proceed with the authentication

phase.

Answer: A 100. What is the reason that omnidirectional antennas pick up noise from more sources than

directional antennas?

A. A directional antenna is an active RF element therefore it has less dBm. B. The ratio of the height to width of an omnidirectional antenna makes it more likely to receive

noise than a directional antenna. C. It is incorrect that omnidirectional antennas pick up noise from more sources than directional

antennas. D. An omnidirectional antenna's main lobe is wider, causing it to detect signals from every

direction.

Answer: D 101. Which two are capabilities of the Cisco Spectrum Expert application?

A. spectrum analysis of only IEEE 802.11a/b/g devices B. detection of Wi-Fi APs and clients, and, when the analysis device has a Wi-Fi network card,

classification of those devices when detected C. detection and classification of Wi-Fi APs and clients when the analysis computer has no Wi-Fi

network card D. spectrum analysis of all IEEE 802.11n Draft 2.0 devices

Answer: B, D 102. Lightweight Access Point Protocol or LWAPP (the new standard is CAPWP) is the name of a

protocol that can control multiple Wi-Fi wireless access points at once. How does the Cisco WCS know what has happened in an LWAPP system when an AP's interface goes down and then comes up again?

A. The Cisco WCS polls the APs and when the AP is unreachable, reports "Max retransmissions

reached on AP <name>". B. The AP sends a link down then link up trap to the Cisco WCS; these are two of the six traps

defined in RFC 1215, A Convention for Defining Traps for use with the SNMP. C. The AP cannot send a link down trap, as per RFC 1215, because the link is down; when the

link comes back up, the AP sends a link up trap to the Cisco WLC, which then forwards the trap to the Cisco WCS.

D. The Cisco WLC sends an SNMP trap to the Cisco WCS when it detects that an AP has gone down or disassociated from the controller.

Answer: D

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103. A bidirectional handshake exchange occurs between the client and the authenticator when using the enterprise-based authentication method for WPA2, Which five of the following options will be the results of that exchange by use of controller based network?

A. creation of the Pairwise Transient Key B. binding of a Pairwise Master Key at the client and the controller C. distribution of the Pairwise Master key for caching at the access point D. proof that each side is alive E. a bidirectional exchange of a nonce used for key generation F. distribution of the Group Transient Key

Answer: A, B, D, E, F 104. Radio Resource Management Neighbor messages have which characteristics? Select all that

apply,

A. transmitted every 60 seconds B. transmitted at minimal power levels C. transmitted at the highest supported data rates D. transmitted on a single service channel E. transmitted every 30 seconds F. transmitted on all serviced channels G. transmitted at maximum power H. transmitted at the lowest supported data rate

Answer: A, F, G, H 105 Which primary mechanism will be used when a mesh AP is selecting a potential parent?

A. controller mobility name B. bridge group name C. Adaptive Wireless Path Protocol (AWPP) D. Static configured parent AP MAC address

Answer: C 106. Which two statements correctly describe RTS/CTS sequences? (Choose two.)

A. They are used by STAs as soon as frame length is greater than the configured RTS threshold. B. They are used when 802.11n legacy mode is being used in a mixed environment with

802.11b/g STAs. C. They are used to avoid hidden node scenarios. Sources transmit CTS frames to destinations,

and destinations transmit RTS frames to sources. D. They are used to resolve hidden node problems. Sources transmit RTS frames to destinations,

and destinations transmit CTS frames to sources.

Answer: A, D 107. When reading a wireless sniffer trace from a WLC based wireless solution, how is traffic from

different WLANs in a wireless sniffer trace differentiated?

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A. An AP uses one BSSID per WLAN. A station uses the corresponding BSSID in all its data frames.

B. An AP uses one SSID per WLAN. A station tags its data frames with the corresponding SSID. C. The WLAN is visible in the 802.11 beacon with fixed parameters containing the IDs 64, 65, and

81. D. An AP uses one radio interface per WLAN. A station selects the radio interface as a kind of

WLAN selection.

Answer: A 108. According to the Cisco Spectrum Expert "Real Time FFT" screen capture shown in the exhibit

below, which type of device is most likely generating the signal? Exhibit:

A. a spread-spectrum, narrowband, frequency-hopping device B. a high-power, broad-spectrum, frequency-hopping device C. a broad-spectrum, low-power device D. a high-power, narrow-spectrum, direct-sequence device using OFDM modulation

Answer: A 109. For the Mobility Express Solution, which primary methods are used for configuration

management?

A. CCA and Web GUI B. CLI, Web GUI, and CCA C. CLI and Web GUI D. CCA and CLI

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Answer: D 110. Which statement best describes an infrastructure basic service set (IBSS) according to IEEE

802.11 specifications?

A. This is also called an Ad Hoc Network. B. The BSSID is generated from the first wireless client that starts up in the IBSS. C. No relaying of signals from one client to another client. D. Enables the use of ESS.

Answer: D 111. For the following interfaces, which needs to be identical in all controllers of a mobility group for

proper inter-controller roaming?

A. virtual interface B. management interface C. AP Manager interface D. service-port interface

Answer: A 112. What is the primary use of the Network Allocation Vector in wireless transmissions?

A. The NAV is a value that indicates to a station the present utilization of the access point through the use of information elements.

B. The NAV is a value that indicates to a station the remaining time allocated prior to releasing access control of the wireless medium

C. The NAV is a value that indicates to a station the delivery traffic indication map information that is currently being provided by the MAC layer.

D. The NAV is a value that indicates to a station the amount of time that remains before a medium will become available to other wireless devices.

Answer: D 113. On the basis of a site survey report, 172 APs are required to meet the coverage needs. The IT

Director is requesting an N+1 controller redundancy design for the access points to support failover capacity. In addition, the design should allow for growth of as much as 10% in the number of access points. What is the minimum WLAN controller configuration required to support these requirements?

A. Four 4402 Wireless LAN Controllers B. One 5508 Wireless LAN Controllers C. One Cisco Wireless Service Module D. Three 4404 Wireless LAN Controllers

Answer: D 114. What is the effect of configuring a single SSID to simultaneously support both TKIP and AES

encryption?

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A. This is not a supported configuration and the Cisco Wireless Control System will continuously generate security alarms until the configuration is changed.

B. Some wireless client drivers might not handle complex SSID settings and may be unable to associate to the WLAN.

C. The overhead associated with supporting both encryption methods will significantly degrade client throughput.

D. This is a common configuration for migrating from WPA to WPA2. There is no problem associated with using this configuration.

Answer: B 115. Which statement correctly describes preambles?

A. Support for short preambles is often mandatory. B. For maximum throughput for both types of cards, short preambles should be turned off when

there is a mixture of 802.11b and 802.11g clients. C. It may be necessary to configure an AP for long preambles, because some clients are not

capable of using short preambles. D. It may be necessary to configure an AP for short preambles, because some clients do not

understand the additional information transmitted in long preambles.

Answer: C 116. How to use Cisco WCS as part of the preliminary site survey for an unfinished building?

A. Detect sources of RF interference from the controller(s) B. Create obstacles on floor plans that can be taken into consideration when computing RF

prediction heat maps for APs by using Planning Mode C. Find the exact location of the APs on the floor map with a location appliance/mobility services

engine D. Detect possible security policy violations

Answer: B 117. What information is needed to add a Cisco WLC into the Cisco WCS?

A. IP address of the management interface B. IP address of virtual interface C. IP address of service port D. IP address of the AP manager interface

Answer: A 118. Which three descriptions are correct with regard to traffic classification in Wi-Fi Multimedia?

(Choose three.)

A. Wi-Fi Multimedia defines four access categories: AC_BK, AC_BE, AC_VI and AC_VO. B. Once traffic is classified by Wi-Fi Multimedia, HCCA distributes the TXOPs according to the

traffic priority. C. Each access category corresponds to one of four transmit queues. D. Wi-Fi Multimedia maps the eight 802.1P (now part of 802.1D) classification schemes to four

access categories. In contrast, the 802.1D classification is still sent in the actual 802.11 frame.

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Answer: A, C, D 119. Which four components are of CSMA/CA?

A. fragmentation, PCF, collision,backoff B. fragmentation, PCF, acknowledgment frames, RTS/CTS medium reservation C. carrier sense, collisions, jam sequence,backoff D. carrier sense, DCF, acknowledgment frames, RTS/CTS medium reservation

Answer: D 120. Which communication method can you use between the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Supervisor

Engine 720 and Wireless Services Module?

A. WCP B. WLCCP C. SNMP D. CDP

Answer: A 121. IEEE 802.11g-2003 or 802.11g, is an amendment to the IEEE 802.11 specification that extended

throughput to up to 54 Mbit/s using the same 2.4 GHz band as 802.11b. An 802.11g client "hearing" a beacon with the Use Protection bit set in the ERP information element is required to take which action?

A. Transmit a CTS frame with a receiver address of its own MAC address before transmitting its

data frame B. Set the protection bit in all data frames transmitted C. Transmit a CTS frame with the receiver address of the target receiver MAC address D. Cease further transmissions and wait for receipt of a CTS frame before proceeding to use the

wireless medium

Answer: A 122. Which of the following can you use to secure the LWAPP control channel?

A. 802.11i B. GRE C. AES-CCM D. IPsec

Answer: C 123. Wi-Fi Multimedia is a technology maintaining the priority of audio, video and voice applications in

a Wi-Fi network so that other applications and traffic are less likely to slow them. Which three of the following options describes Wi-Fi Multimedia?

A. There are four access categories: A label for the common set of Enhanced Distributed

Channel Access parameters that are used by a WMM STA to contend for the channel in order to transmit MSDUs with certain priorities.

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B. There is an unscheduled Service Period: The service period that is started when a WMM STA transmits a trigger frame to the WMM AP.

C. Wi-Fi Multimedia makes use of the Enhanced Distributed Coordination Function mechanism D. Wi-Fi Multimedia is the definition of the differentiated services field

Answer: A, B, C 124. You are a network engineer and when you are creating a wireless profile in the Cisco ADU and

you have selected the WPA/WPA2/CCKM radio button option, what other decision will you make and then configure on this same screen?

A. The EAP type to be used for authentication B. The encryption type C. The length and value of the pre-shared key for the phone D. The SSID of the wireless client device

Answer: A 125. Which one of the following characteristics can indicate that an AP supports WMM and the AP and

WLAN clients have been exchanging WMM traffic? A. There is no way to make this determination by examining a WLAN traffic capture; you can only

determine WMM behavior by examining the queues on the APs and WLAN clients B. Each of the RSVP negotiations have stream IDs C. CWmin and CWmax values exchanged during the association process and 802.1D QoS fields

in the 802.11 data frame D. There will be different delays used when sending and receiving traffic between the clients and

the AP

Answer: C 126. Which item is the main difference between an RF planning tool and a site survey tool?

A. An RF planning tool is a predictive tool, where a site survey tool measures the actual RF environment of the building/area

B. An RF planning tool will measure the RF coverage by AP locations, simulating antennas and output power

C. An RF planning tool does a better job of displaying actual -65dBm edges D. An RF planning tool is generally much more expensive

Answer: A 127. Which statement accurately describes communication between the WDS and other APs in a

WLAN setup using Wireless Domain Services?

A. Communication is protected using X.509 certificates, which can be either self-signed by the access point or possibly manufacturer-installed.

B. Communication is protected using a Context Transfer Key, which is negotiated during WDS authentication.

C. Communication is protected using multicast traffic, which is restricted to the local Layer 2 network.

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D. Communication is protected using a Context Transfer Key, which is manually configured on the AP.

Answer: B 128. As defined by IEEE 802.11e, which functionality does WWM certify as part of the tests for QoS

done by the WiFi Alliance?

A. 1Mb/s and 2Mb/s data rates are required for the phones, but not for the wireless data traffic. 1Mb/s and 2Mb/s data rates are required for the phones, but not for the wireless data traffic.

B. HCCA C. Direct Link Setup D. 5.5Mb/s and 11Mb/s data rates are required for the wireless data traffic. 1Mb/s and 2Mb/s data

rates are required for the phones. E. EDCA

Answer: A 129. Which of the following items increases bandwidth and resists multipath problems by carrying data

in subcarriers?

A. Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiplexing B. Narrow Band Frequency C. Direct Sequence Spread Spectrum D. Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum

Answer: A 130. You are a network engineer, and you have just been tasked with recommending an AP for use in

the outdoor courtyard of a hospital. The hospital is using a controller based wireless infrastructure. The courtyard is 50 feet wide by 50 feet long, and is surrounded by brick walls. An outdoor network connection and AC power receptacle will be available near the only door to the courtyard. Which should be included in your recommendation?

A. Cisco Aironet 1522 Access Point with an omnidirectional antenna B. Cisco Aironet 1242 Access Point with no external antenna C. Cisco 3200 Series MARC with no external antenna D. Cisco Aironet 1310 Access Point with no external antenna

Answer: D 131. How does Extended Distributed Channel Access (EDCA) prioritize WLAN traffic?

A. Client and AP traffic use different delay timers and random back off characteristics for different traffic priorities.

B. The AP polls WLAN clients based on the client traffic priority negotiated when the client associates with the AP.

C. The AP polls WLAN clients based on the client traffic priority negotiated when the client needs to prioritize WLAN traffic.

D. EDCA does not prioritize WLAN traffic. EDCA is an extension of the WLAN MAC that allows more clients per AP.

Answer: A

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132. The office is now using one 2106 WLAN controller with six 1131 APs and one 526 WLAN controller with three 521 APs. When the 526 controller loses power, the 521 APs do not build up a connection with the 2106 WLAN controller. What will most likely cause this problem?

A. The 2106 controller does not support the 521 model APs. B. The 2106 controller and 526controller do not share the same mobility group name. C. The 2106 controller and 526controller were not configured correctly using the sysname and

MAC address for a mobility group. D. The 521 APs were not configured with the 2106 controller as the secondary controller.

Answer: A 133. Which two features need to be configured on the controller while configuring a WLAN controller to

support guest access, when taking guest network best practices into consideration? (Choose two.)

A. peer-to-peer blocking B. ARPunicast C. DHCP Optional D. DHCP Required

Answer: A, D 134. You work as a network engineer and while solving a VoWLAN problem at a customer's site, you

discover many reflective surfaces within the environment. The WLAN controller has all of the default settings configured, Cisco Aironet 1240 Series Access Points have been deployed with a single antenna physically attached to each AP. VoWLAN handsets are operating in the 2.4-GHz band only. Which is the best solution to overcome the reflective surfaces problem?

A. Disable low data rates (such as 1 Mb/s and 2 Mb/s) on the AP radios. B. Add a second antenna to each access point to achieve antenna diversity. C. Enable diversity on the WLAN controller. D. Increase the AP radio transmit power to 100mW.

Answer: B 135. Which three amendments to the IEEE 802.11 WLAN standard define the physical layer? (Choose

three.)

A. IEEE 802.11g B. IEEE 802.11a C. IEEE 802.11w D. IEEE 802.11b

Answer: A, B, D 136. You work as a network designer and you are tasked with designing a wireless network for a high-

rise residence in Boston. Each floor is about 20,000 square feet with identical apartment layouts. You use the Cisco WCS planning tool to run the floor plan, and it is recommending five APs per floor. Which step is the next? A. decide which authentication method will be appropriate B. review physical locations for mountingAPs

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C. perform a physical site survey D. prepare a Bill of Materials

Answer: C 137. Which is a requirement for the delivery of unicast frames that are buffered at the AP in power-

save mode to sleeping stations?

A. The AP must forward the buffered frames at the DTIM interval. B. The AP must send probe responses to the latest SSID each sleeping station has been using. C. The AP must send beacons, including a "buffered unicast frame" message, to notify each

sleeping station that it needs to send a poll message. D. The AP must send a CTS to wake up each sleeping station.

Answer: C 138. Of the following listed commands, which one can help determine the health of a RADIUS server

on an autonomous AP?

A. show radius statistics B. debug radius-server C. show radius table [server_ip] D. show radius-server [server_ip]

Answer: A 139. Your employer is opening a small remote branch office where the employees will require WLAN

access. As part of the company's privacy policy, all WLAN traffic is required to utilize Identity-Based Network Services. A site survey has been performed and it has been determined that three APs are required to provide WLAN access. The branch office will use a high-speed WAN link to connect to the home office, where several Cisco Wireless Services Modules are located. The IT director thinks that the branch office is too small to justify a dedicated Cisco WLC. Which item is correct about supporting LWAPP tunnels over a WAN link?

A. The round-trip latency between the AP and Cisco WLC should not exceed 100ms. B. The minimum bandwidth required to support LWAPP is 1.5 Mb/s. C. APs should never be placed across WAN links. A Cisco WLCM or WLC 2106 should be

installed at the remote office. D. Only autonomous APs can be used in this scenario due to the use of a WAN link.

Answer: A 140. Which statements describe noise (or sources of noise) in an 802.11b/g environment (2.4-GHz)?

Select all that apply.

A. Microwave Oven, Cordless Phones, Jammers B. Any signal detected by the access point that it cannot decode is considered noise. C. Noise is defined as a 2.4-GHz signal that is not in an 802.11 DSSS format but is in the

frequency range of the access point's configured channel. D. An 802.11 2.4-GHz frequency-hopping device

Answer: A, B, C, D

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141. What will happen if you increase the beacon interval?

A. There will be no effect to the wireless network. B. The network will be more secure due to the reduced number of beacons transmitted. C. Stations in power-save mode will use more power, because they will have to awaken more

often; however, this will positively impact stations looking for APs with which to associate. D. Stations in power-save mode will conserve more power, because they will have to awaken

less often; however, this may delay packet delivery or cause the buffer to overflow.

Answer: D 142. When does a client provide an AP with information about its version of Cisco Compatible

Extensions for WLAN devices?

A. in a broadcast probe request packet B. when the AP sends an unsolicited update embedded in a beacon packet C. in an 802.11 association or re-association request frame D. upon successful EAP or dot1X authentication to the AP

Answer: C 143. In wireless networks, what is the QoS challenge caused by the hidden node problem?

A. Frames are lost due to collisions of traffic between clients that cannot detect each other's channel usage, and therefore cannot defer the sending of traffic until the channel is free. These collisions only impact lower priority frames, as they are sent later than high priority frames.

B. When an AP is attempting to make an assessment of its capacity to advertise and use in TSPEC admission control, it needs to assess the number of clients it has associated. This calculation is incorrect if the AP does not see the hidden nodes and can result in capacity management issues.

C. A hidden node is not a QoS issue, but a security issue in which a rogue client impersonates an access point to a client and the client to the access point.

D. Frames are lost due to collisions of traffic between clients that cannot detect each others' channel usage, and therefore cannot defer the sending of traffic until the channel is free. Higher priority frames cannot avoid these collisions.

Answer: D 144. Which one of the following commands will you use to load Cisco IOS on an autonomous AP?

A. archive download-sw /overwrite tftp://server_ip/image_name B. config net and respond to the interactive prompts C. copy flash:image_name tftp://server_ip/image_name D. copy flash tftp and respond to the interactive prompts

Answer: A 145. You work as a network administrator, and you are asked to configure three WLANs on the

Wireless LAN Controller (WLC). A wireless client should be connected to the WLAN with the SSID "internet". Using the "view available wireless networks" command only allows connecting to the WLAN with the SSID "Guest-net". What most likely causes this problem?

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A. The traffic indication map (TIM) is empty; therefore, the client is cannot detect the WLAN advertisements.

B. The needed WLANs are not enabled on the WLC. C. This wireless client only doing passive scanning. Therefore it only lists SSIDs which are

broadcasted within beacons. D. The beacon interval is set too high (more than 10 seconds); therefore, the client is missing

certain beacon information.

Answer: C 146. Which data can be passed down to an LWAPP/CAPWAP AP by configuring the DHCP server

with option 43?

A. The AP's ARP timeout value. B. The IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway assigned to the AP. C. The IP address of the Cisco Call Manager Express server. D. The Cisco WLC management interface IP address.

Answer: D 147. A controller is connected to a Cisco IOS Catalyst switch with the following switch port

configuration: interfaceGigabitEthernet 1/0/10 switchport switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q switchport trunk allowed vlan 1,45,37,39 switchport trunk native vlan 15 switchport mode trunk Which one of the controller CLI commands assigns its management interface to the Cisco IOS Catalyst switch native vlan interface? A. config interface vlan management 1 B. config interface vlan management 30 C. config interface vlan management 0 D. config interface vlan management 15

Answer: C 148. When detecting rogue access points, which method can be used by the Cisco Wireless LAN

Controller?

A. detection of an organizationally unique identifier not assigned to Cisco devices B. rejection of a SNMP poll by the rogue AP C. detection of an AP MAC address not registered as an access point on the controller D. observation of unencrypted traffic that should be encrypted for an SSID that it owns

Answer: C

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149. At what distance does the curvature of the earth factor into the Fresnel zone/antenna elevation calculation?

A. 60% of the Fresnel zone must remain uncluttered B. greater than 6 miles (~10 km) C. the width of the Fresnel zone, which varies depending on the distance by which the bridges

are separated D. greater than 10 miles (~42 km)

Answer: B 150. Which two statements correctly describe RTS/CTS? (Choose two.)

A. The RTS and CTS are small and, if lost in a collision, they can be retried more quickly and with less overhead than if the whole packet must be retried.

B. 802.11t replaced the RTS/CTS sequence with CTS to Self. C. Since the introduction of EDCA (WMM and 802.11e), the RTS/CTS sequence has been

rendered unnecessary. D. When the transmitted packet is equal to or larger than the RTS threshold, an RTS packet is

sent. The destination node must respond with a CTS packet before the originator can send the real data packet.

Answer: A, D 151. Which is the purpose of a radome?

A. to indicate which way the antenna is pointing B. to increase the gain of an antenna C. to mitigate interference to the antenna signal D. to reduce the mechanical load from wind for an antenna element

Answer: D 152. You work as a network engineer where a WLAN deployment will use a combination of Cisco

Aironet AP 1240s and multiple Cisco 4404 Wireless LAN Controllers to provide wireless LAN access to end-users. When configuring the DHCP scope on the switch to send Option 43 information, which format should be used for the Cisco WLC addresses?

A. a comma-separated ASCII string of Cisco WLC management addresses B. a hexadecimal string of Cisco WLC management addresses C. a comma-separated ASCII string of Cisco WLC AP-manager addresses D. a comma-separated ASCII string of Cisco WLC virtual IP addresses

Answer: B 153. Which rule of thumb should be met in order to ensure clients of an H-REAP access point can

maintain connectivity to the VLAN at a controller?

A. The round-trip WAN delay between the H-REAP AP and the WLC should not exceed 100 milliseconds.

B. WAN jitter should not exceed 10 milliseconds.

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C. The one-way-trip WAN delay between the H-REAP AP and the WLC should not exceed 100 milliseconds.

D. WAN jitter should not exceed 10 microseconds.

Answer: A 154. Which statements correctly describe configuring the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series WiSM module?

A. When LAG is enabled, the management interface is auto configured on port 29. B. Each WLC on the Cisco WiSM supports up to 150 access points. C. LAG is enabled automatically and bundles all of the distribution ports of a controller into a

single EtherChannel. D. The AP Manager interface may be on the same VLAN or IP subnet as the management

interface.

Answer: A, B, C, D 155. How does EAP-TLS differ from Microsoft PEAP?

A. EAP-TLS does not require a certificate. B. Both EAP-TLS and Microsoft PEAP require client certificates but Microsoft PEAP is described

in RFC 2716. C. Microsoft PEAP requires a client certificate and is more secure than EAP-TLS. D. EAP-TLS requires a client certificate.

Answer: D 156. You are running the initial configuration of an AP in a Cisco WLC via the menu Wireless > Access

Points > 802.11B/G Radio. The Cisco WLC has three SSIDs: A, B, and C. Which of the following statements is true for WLAN override?

A. If WLAN override is selected for SSID A, SSID A will be operational on that AP but the other

SSIDs will not be. B. If WLAN override is selected for SSID A, only SSID A will send beacons. The other SSIDs, B

and C, will respond to probes and allow associations, but there will be no beacons. C. If all three SSIDs are configured but disabled globally, by choosing 'WLAN override' for SSID

A, you can make SSID A operational on this AP, as well as any other AP where WLAN override for SSID A has been chosen.

D. If the AP is part of a group of APs, WLAN override will allow you to configure a particular interface associated with the SSID.

Answer: A 157. One of your Cisco WLCs is on a segment separated by a firewall from all other devices. When

the AP is trying to join you see the following message in the controller logs: Thu Mar 8 02:27:50 2030: 00:0C:72:73:A8:C3 is trying to join: LWAPP Join-Request does not include valid certificate in CERTIFICATE_PAYLOAD from AP 00:0C:72:73:A8:C3. Thu Mar 8 02:27:59 2030: Unable to free public key for AP 00:0C:72:73:A8:C3. What causes this error?

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A. The DHCP server on the AP segment is including the Cisco WLC's AP Manager interface in DHCP option. Therefore, the IP address from the certificate does not match.

B. Most likely, the firewall is allowing the discovery on UDP port 12222, but is blocking UDP port 12223. Therefore, the second fragment from the certificate is not arriving on the controller.

C. The DHCP server has the incorrect value for option 43. Therefore, the AP is not finding the management IP address from the Cisco WLC.

D. Most likely, the firewall is blocking udp/123 traffic between the AP and the WLC or the clock setting on the Cisco WLC is incorrect and is set within the valid date of the APs certificate.

Answer: D 158. The Key Encryption Key is used for the group key handshake in order to send the Group

Transient Key, so it can be delivered securely to the client.

A. False B. True

Answer: B 159. Which command will be used to check the status of infrastructure APs from the CLI of an AP

configured as the WDS master?

A. show wlccp wds ap B. show lwapp ap status C. show wlccp ap wds D. show wlccp wds

Answer: A 160. It is not necessary to implement which item as part of your authentication infrastructure when

implementing EAP-FAST?

A. a RADIUS server B. a client that supports EAP-FAST C. a Certificate Authority infrastructure D. a remote dial up server

Answer: C 161. When you are deploying H-REAP over a WAN connection, which three guidelines must be followed? (Choose three.)

A. round trip delay must not exceed 100 ms B. at a minimum, a 500-byte MTU is required between the AP and the controller C. round trip delay must not exceed 200 ms D. the minimum WAN connection is 128 kb/s

Answer: A, B, D

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162. Which item is correct about the definition of co-channel interference?

A. interference from the same channel as the receiver channel in use by the access point B. interference from any non 802.11 source C. interference from a channel adjacent to the channel in use by the access point D. interference from any channel except the same channel as the receiver

Answer: A 163. FCC Rule # 15.407(h)(2) states that it requires products operating in certain bands to support

(DFS) Dynamic Frequency Selection to detect and automatically adjust channels to protect WLAN communications from interfering with military or weather radar systems. Which two 5-GHz bands must support Dynamic Frequency Selection? (Choose two.)

A. UNII-2 B. UNII-1 C. UNII-0 D. UNII-2 Extended

Answer: A, D 164. An 802.11g client's response to receiving a beacon with the Barker Preamble Mode bit set to zero

must be which of the following options? (Choose one)

A. It must change its preambles on all data frames to short. B. It can change its preambles based on network conditions. C. It can set its preambles to long. D. It must send an RTS frame out with the Pit Bull bit set to Zero.

Answer: A 165. In order to seamlessly roam between two wireless cells in a Cisco Unified Wireless Network using

controllers, which condition must be met?

A. The wireless client must use an EAP authentication method with an infrastructure authenticator.

B. The next cell should be on a different channel as the client's current cell. C. The next cell should provide the same SSID as the client's current cell. D. The client's password must be the same on both APs.

Answer: C 167. Which three features/functions are supported by AP-based Wireless Domain Services? (Choose

three.)

A. Layer 2 fast secure roaming B. Layer 3 fast secure roaming when using AES C. integration with the CiscoWorks Wireless LAN Solution Engine D. radio management

Answer: A, C, D

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168. Two of the following options are purposes of a pre-site survey walkthrough. Which are they? (Choose two.)

A. determine the final location of APs and antennas in the building B. identify sources of RF signal attenuation and RF interference C. identify potential problem areas D. define intended coverage areas

Answer: C, D 169. During the Layer 3 LWAPP Join process, which DHCP option may be a list the IP addresses of

wireless LAN controllers be offered to the AP?

A. 43 B. 44 C. 6 D. 60

Answer: A 170. What is the reason that using a tool like Cisco Spectrum Expert is important?

A. It allows you to see the RF environment at the physical layer. B. It allows you to detect multipath interference. C. It maps the RF area to a floor plan. D. It decodes WLAN IPS attacks as the happen

Answer: A 171. It is not necessary to conduct a new site survey if there is an existing 802.11g WLAN at a site for

which of the following? (choose one)

A. increase the wireless security at Layer 2 or Layer 3 for the WLAN B. add a new 802.11a WLAN C. add new services (such as voice) over the WLAN D. increase the throughput for the wireless clients

Answer: A 172. Knowing the distance between the access points is very important while designing a WLAN

network. Which three tools could be used to measure the distances on floor plans? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco WCS Map Editor B. Adobe Acrobat Pro C. AutoCAD D. Cisco WCS Planning Mode

Answer: A, B, C

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173. If a Cisco CKM client roams to a new access point, what is included in the re-association request message?

A. The element in the re-association request includes a timestamp, the rekey request number,

and an authenticated element. B. The re-association request contains a network session key which will be used for TTLS and a

sequentially incrementing key number. C. The re-association request contains the PMKID list from the station, in order to allow the new

AP to contact the old AP to inherit the key material. D. The re-association request contains the EAP identity. This shortens the full EAP re-

authentication by 10 seconds.

Answer: A 174. In an 802.11b network, which one of the following issues is the RTS/CTS mechanism used

against?

A. bandwidth overload from multiple users B. hidden node problems C. Network Allocation Vector synchronization values D. 802.11a backwards compatibility

Answer: B 175. How many WMM access categories are there, and how do they relate to the IEEE 802.1D priority

classifications?

A. There are eight WMM access categories that directly correlate to the IEEE802.1D priority classification. The access category used determines which EDCA timing parameters are used for transmitting the frame.

B. There are two access categories: Best Effort and Voice. The access category used determines which EDCA timing parameters are used for transmitting the frame.

C. There are four WMM access categories: Voice, Video, Background and Best Effort. A fixed mapping of priority information carried in the 802.1D Priority field to those four queues is defined by the Wi-Fi Alliance.

D. WMM access categories are part of the 802.11i AAA security standards, and define the different levels of client access in WPA, and WPA2.

Answer: C 176. An access point in a Split-MAC architecture handles which three functions? (Choose three.)

A. 802.11e queuing B. 802.11i encryption C. beacon generation D. 802.11i key management

Answer: A, B, C

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177. While using an enterprise DHCP server to facilitate WLAN controller discovery by both Cisco Aironet 1000 Series and 1250 Series Lightweight Access Points, which is the DHCP option to facilitate WLAN controller discovery? (Choose two.)

A. Option 48 B. Option 60 C. Option 43 D. Option 82

Answer: C 178. How do you prevent de-authentication flood attacks on the WLAN?

A. Enable Management Frame Protection on the clients and APs or WLCs. This will create a hash of the 802.11 management frames that an attacker cannot duplicate.

B. Enable shared authentication, which will require the attacker to break the shared key before being able to perform the attack.

C. Enable 802.11i, which will protect the 802.11 management frames using WEP. D. Enable EAP-FAST, which will protect the 802.11 management frames using a certificate, thus

making it impossible for the attacker to spoof them.

Answer: A 179. Application-specific devices differ from laptop computers in the way they support Cisco

Compatible Extensions. Choose two ways in which they differ.

A. Several features that are required for laptops are not required for ASDs. B. ASDs are required to support only CCXv2 and v3 features. Laptops must support all CCX

features. C. There is no differentiation. ASDs and laptops must both support the same CCX features. D. ASDs are required to support only CCXv3 management features, while laptops are required to

support all features.

Answer: A 180. IEEE 802.11h-2003, or just 802.11h, refers to the amendment added to the IEEE 802.11standard

for Spectrum and Transmit Power Management Extensions. Which three uses does IEEE 802.11h support? (Choose three.)

A. Mechanisms to reduce power consumption B. TPC for the protection of satellites from interference C. DFS for the protection of radars from interference D. TPC for the protection of radars from interference

Answer: A, B, C 181. Which two attributes are used to characterize antenna performance? (Choose two.)

A. loss B. gain C. harmonics D. beamwidth

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Answer: B, D 182. When comparing PEAP-MS-CHAPv2 (Microsoft PEAP) to PEAP-GTC (Cisco PEAP), which

option is true?

A. Microsoft PEAP requires the use of IAS/NAP for the RADIUS server, whereas Cisco PEAP can be used universally on all available AAA servers that support PEAP.

B. Cisco PEAP is much faster than Microsoft PEAP during re-authentication. C. PEAP-GTC introduced identity protection, which allows client supplicants to use "faked"

usernames during PEAP Phase 1, in order to prevent intruders from collecting usernames. D. PEAP-GTC allows password changes during authentication, whereas PEAP-MS-CHAPv2

does not support this.

Answer: C 183. Which feature of wireless LAN controller allows traffic from clients communicating with each other

on the same SSID to be bridged, dropped, or forwarded upstream at the wireless LAN controller?

A. multicast optimization B. client bridge mode C. peer-to-peer blocking D. HREAP

Answer: C 184. Which controller CLI debug command could show whether an AP is registering with a WLC or

not?

A. debug lwapp events enable B. debug wlccp dump C. debug wlccp dump enable D. debug lwapp ap {AP-MAC} enable

Answer: A 185. Which two statements accurately describe AP-specified maximum transmit power? (Choose two.)

A. The ability to dynamically set client output power during the association process increases the overall performance of the wireless network and improves the battery life of wireless client devices.

B. The ability to provide AP-assisted power roaming enables a client to roam from one AP to another more quickly by reducing the time that the client spends scanning for available APs.

C. To support AP-specified maximum transmit power, a client station must limit its TX power to the value specified in the Cell Power Limit information element contained in every data frame.

D. With the ability to identify the number of associated clients, cell sizes, and adjacent access point radio signals, the controller can determine the optimum transmit power required for the clients and set the AP power accordingly.

Answer: A, D

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186. If WLAN interfaces configured on different controllers are on different IP subnets (Layer 3 inter-controller roaming), what will happen when a client roams from one controller (controller X) to a new controller (controller Y)?

A. Controller X will mark the client with an anchor entry in its client database, the database, and

the database entry will be copied to controller Y and marked with a „foreign‟ entry. B. Controller Y will update its client database and all client ingress and egress traffic will transition

to the new controller. C. Controller X will mark the client's entry in its client database as foreign, controller Y will update

its client database, all ingress traffic will flow through controller X, and egress traffic will flow through controller Y when symmetric tunneling is disabled.

D. Controller X will mark the client's entry in its client database as an anchor, controller Y will not update its client database because of the anchored entry in controller X, and all ingress and egress traffic will flow through controller Y

Answer: A 187. It is suggested that you prime your lightweight access points in a convenient location before they

have been installed in locations that may be difficult to reach. Which three items can be configured by using the controller CLI, controller GUI, or Cisco WCS while priming a lightweight AP prior to deployment? (Choose three.)

A. to configure the lightweight access point with primary, secondary, and tertiary controller names B. to configure the access-point-specific LED blink sequence C. to configure the Controller Mobility Group name, if the lightweight access point is in a

Controller Mobility Group D. to configure the access-point-specific 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g network settings

Answer: A, C, D 188. Your company has a network with multiple controllers and wants to have the most cost-effective

controller redundancy. In order to accomplish this, which option should you recommend?

A. N+N1 B. 1+1 C. N+1 D. N+N+1

Answer: C 189. The 802.11i Pairwise Master Key used to generate the Pairwise Transient Key is 256 bits long.

A. True B. False

Answer: A 190. The facility IT manager of an industrial parts manufacturing facility would like to implement a

voice over WLAN solution. During the initial walkthrough, you observe numerous highly reflective surfaces on the manufacturing equipment and in the building construction itself. What potential problem exists that should be accounted for during your site survey?

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A. multipath distortion B. RF signal attenuation C. RF signal absorption D. Fresnel zone impedance

Answer: A 191. A local university has 30 buildings and 22,000 students. They want to implement a single

enterprise wide SSID. University policy states that students in the auditorium should not have Internet access since testing will occur there. Which feature will be helpful for deploying the university's campus wide SSID?

A. WLAN override B. AP groups C. MAC filtering D. AAA override

Answer: B 192. The Network Allocation Vector can be derived from a packet as part of the CSMA/CA algorithm

for controlling wireless contention. Which wireless field can be used to make the derivation?

A. SIFS B. EIFS C. DIFS D. duration field

Answer: D 193. What method does a lightweight AP use to successfully establish a connection to a controller?

A. AP sends its certificate to the IAS server. AP then authenticates the IAS certificate as valid. B. AP sends its certificate to the controller. AP then authenticates the received Cisco WLC

certificate as valid. C. AP authenticates the received Cisco WLC certificate as valid. AP then sends its certificate to

the controller. D. AP sends its certificate to the NAP server. The NAP server then authenticates the controller

certificate as valid.

Answer: B 194. After using the show wlccp ap command on your infrastructure AP, you determine that the AP is

registered with the WDS AP. Using show wlccp wds ap command on the WDS you find that the AP is registered. How will authentication request traffic from wireless clients flow after reaching this infrastructure AP?

A. 1.Traffic will be forwarded to the WDS via WLCCP. If the client is already in the WDS neighbor

table, the WDS will notify the infrastructure AP and no further action will be taken. If the WDS does not find the client in its mobility table, the following steps will be taken.

2. The WDS will notify the RADIUS Server. 3. If the infrastructure AP receives an access-accept from the RADIUS server, it will notify the

WDS.

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B. 1.Traffic will either be forwarded to the locally defined RADIUS server, or sent to the WDS via

WLCCP. This can be set up on a per-WLAn basis. C. 1.Traffic will be forwarded to the RADIUS server. 2. If an access-accept is received from the RADIUS server, the infrastructure AP will notify the

WDS AP, so that the WDS AP can track the client for the purposes of inter-AP roaming. D. 1.Traffic will be forwarded to the WDS via WLCCP. 2. The WDS will send the authentication requests to the RADIUS server. 3. The WDS will receive the server response. 4. The WDS will communicate the status back to the infrastructure AP. 5. The infrastructure AP will add the client to the association table if an access-accept has

been received from the RADIUS server. Answer: D 194. What must be configured on the APs while setting up a WLAN for Wireless Domain Services in

order to be able to communicate with the WDS master?

A. pre-shared key which matches that of the master WDS B. a valid username and password on the AAA server C. IP address of the master WDS and any backup master WDS D. multicast group for the WDS

Answer: B 196. The function a rogue detector access point is best described as?

A. Its radios are shut off, and it listens only to the wired-side ARP packets on a VLAN trunk, in order to find rogue clients and APs.

B. It associates to the rogue AP as a client in order to terminate service. C. It searches the switch ARP tables in order to determine which wired port the rogue AP is

connected to, and then shuts that port down. D. It can detect rogue APs and clients, while at the same time associating normal clients to the

WLAN.

Answer: A 197. The communication between the Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Supervisor Engine and the Cisco

WiSM module are best described by which three statements? (Choose three.)

A. WCP runs on UDP/IP port 10000. B. The communication between the Catalyst Supervisor Engine and CiscoWiSM goes to the

service port on the Cisco WiSM. C. WLCCP is used to communicate between the CiscoWiSM and Catalyst Supervisor Engine. D. WCP is used to communicate between the CiscoWiSM and Catalyst Supervisor Engine.

Answer: A, B, D

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198. A corporate laptop has been stolen, and the operating system, username, and password are known, as well the WPA-PSK was stored on the PC. The laptop has been used to try to obtain access to the corporate network. Which method can prevent access from being granted to this laptop?

A. There should be a Layer 3 filter on the AP or WLC. B. Peer-to-peer blocking should be used to prevent the PC from communicating once on the

network. C. The WPA-PSK should be changed in the AP or WLC, and on all corporate devices. D. An extended access list should be used on the default gateway of the WLAN/SSID to which

the stolen PC would be connecting.

Answer: C 199. In a Cisco CKM setup, which statement correctly describes a client STA roam?

A. Due to the design of Cisco CKM, the STA authenticates against every AP "in range" before trying to re-associate. Once roaming occurs, there is no need for authentication.

B. There is no need for a new EAP authentication or re-authentication, because the Authenticator (WDS) maintain a copy of the PMK. Therefore, the AP and STA only need to complete the EAPOL Key handshake.

C. The STA maintains a list of APs it has already authenticated once. Therefore, the STA only needs to authenticate a maximum of one time per AP.

D. All the necessary key information is exchanged within re-association request and response. Therefore, no interaction with the AAA server or EAPOL Key handshake is needed.

Answer: D 200. You have been tasked with designing a wireless mesh network to support physical security at a

construction site in Tokyo. The site has a large excavation with a perimeter fence and several gates. What should be your first request from the customer to ensure a successful deployment?

A. a physical site survey B. fiber installation around the perimeter of the site C. installation poles with AC power and power available 24/7 D. a list of the client devices that will be deployed on the network

Answer: A

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