ccna dsmbisp

Chapter 1

1. Which two things can be determined by using the ping command? (Choose two.)

the number of routers between the source and destination device

the IP address of the router nearest the destination device

the average time it takes a packet to reach the destination and for the response to return to the

source

whether or not the destination device is reachable through the network

the average time it takes each router in the path between source and destination to respond

2. What are three main types of high-bandwidth connection options used by medium- to

large-sized businesses? (Choose three.) DSL

cable modem

Ethernet

metro Ethernet

T1

T3

3. What is the maximum T1 transmission speed? 56 kbps

128 kbps

1.544 Mbps

2.4 Mbps

4. Which of the following start the test of destination reachability?

Echo request issued by source

echo reply issued by source

echo request issued by destination

echo reply issued by destination

5. Which statement describes a function of a Tier 1 ISP? peers with other similarly sized ISPs to form the global Internet backbone

uses the services of Tier 3 ISPs to connect to the global Internet backbone

pays Tier 2 ISPs for transit services to connect across continents

limits the offered services to small geographic areas

6. At which point do individuals and small businesses connect directly to the ISP network

to obtain Internet access? at a POP

at an IXP

at a Metro Ethernet link

on the ISP extranet

7.What information is contained in the numbered RFCs maintained by the IETF? the rules for acceptable use of websites and e-mail

the descriptions of various hardware components that connect to the Internet

the specifications and rules for how devices communicate over an IP network

the standards for cabling and wiring for local Ethernet networks

8. Which network support services team is responsible for testing a new customer

connection and for monitoring the ongoing operation of the link? customer service

help desk

network operations

on-site installation

9. Which network support services team identifies whether the client site has existing

network hardware and circuits installed? customer service

help desk

network operations

planning and provisioning

10. Which ISP network support systems team will typically contact the customer once a

new circuit is ready and guide the customer in setting up passwords and other account

information? help desk

customer service

network operations center

on-site installation team


11. What feature allows network devices to be scalable? a fixed number of interfaces

ease of repair

modularity

low maintenance requirements

low cost

12. Which command generated this output? 1 12.0.0.2 4 msec 4 msec 4 msec

2 23.0.0.3 20 msec 16 msec 16 msec

3 34.0.0.4 16 msec 18 msec 16 msec

Router# traceroute 34.0.0.4

Router# nslookup 34.0.0.4

Router# ping 34.0.0.4

Router# telnet 34.0.0.4

13. Which network utility helps determine the location of network problems and identifies

routers that packets travel across?

ping

ipconfig

traceroute

ixp

14. What interconnects the Internet backbone? gateway routers

IXPs

POPs

satellite dishes

15. What units are used to measure Internet bandwidth?

bits per second

bytes per second

hertz

megabytes per second

packets per second

16. The IT manager of a medium-sized business wishes to house the company-owned web

servers in a facility that offers round-the-clock controlled access, redundant power, and

high-bandwidth Internet access. Which ISP service will fulfill this need? web hosting


application hosting

equipment colocation

Tier 1 ISP services

17. What is the purpose of an RFC? to provide the connection point for multiple ISPs to the Internet

to document the development and approval of an Internet standard

to connect a business to an ISP

to provide data communication services to ISP customers

to monitor network performance and connection status of ISP clients

18. When did the Internet become available for use by businesses and consumers? 1979

1984

1991

1999

2000

19. What was the original purpose of the Internet? voice communication

marketing

research

commerce

20. What three support service teams are commonly found within an ISP? (Choose three.) help desk

computer support

application readiness

network operations center


implementation and documentation

Chapter 2

1. Which two functions are provided by the upper layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.) placing electrical signals on the medium for transmission

initiating the network communication process

encrypting and compressing data for transmission

segmenting and identifying data for reassembly at the destination

choosing the appropriate path for the data to take through the network

2. Which is a function of the transport layer of the OSI model? routes data between networks

converts data to bits for transmission

delivers data reliably across the network using TCP

formats and encodes data for transmission

transmits data to the next directly connected device

3. Which common Layer 1 problem can cause a user to lose connectivity?

incorrect subnet mask

incorrect default gateway

loose network cable

NIC improperly installed

4. Which three command line utilities are most commonly used to troubleshoot issues at

Layer 3? (Choose three.)

ping

a packet sniffer

Telnet

ipconfig

Traceroute

5. Which address is used by the router to direct a packet between networks? source MAC address

destination MAC address

source IP address

destination IP address

6. What is the correct encapsulation order when data is passed from Layer 1 up to Layer 4

of the OSI model? bits, frames, packets, segments

frames, bits, packets, segments

packets, frames, segments, bits

segments, packets, frames, bits

7. What are two goals of the ISP help desk? (Choose two.)

conserving support resources

network optimization

competitive scalability

customer retention

sales of network services

8. In what two ways do Level 1 and Level 2 help desk technicians attempt to solve a

customer‟s problems? (Choose three.) talking to the customer on the telephone

upgrading hardware and software

using various web tools

making an onsite visit

installing new equipment

with remote desktop sharing applications

9. A customer calls the help desk about setting up a new PC and cable modem and being

unable to access the Internet. What three questions would the technician ask if the bottom-

up troubleshooting approach is used? (Choose three.)

Is the NIC link light blinking?

What is the IP address and subnet mask?

Can the default gateway be successfully pinged?

Is the network cable properly attached to the modem?

Is the Category 5 cable properly connected to the network slot on the PC?

Can you access your e-mail account?

10. A customer calls to report a problem accessing an e-commerce web site. The help desk

technician begins troubleshooting using a top-down approach. Which question would the

technician ask the customer first?

Can you access other web sites?

Is there a firewall installed on your computer?

What is your IP address?

Is the link light lit on your NIC card?

11. Which statement describes the process of escalating a help desk trouble ticket? The help desk technican resolves the customer problem over the phone and closes the trouble

ticket.

Remote desktop utilities enable the help desk technician to fix a configuration error and close the

trouble ticket.

After trying unsuccessfully to fix a problem, the help desk technician sends the trouble ticket to

the onsite support staff.

When the problem is solved, all information is recorded on the trouble ticket for future reference.

12. What are two functions of the physical layer of the OSI model? (Choose two.) adding the hardware address

converting data to bits

encapsulating data into frames

signal generation

routing packets

13. A customer calls the ISP help desk after setting up a new PC with a cable modem but

being unable to access the Internet. After the help desk technician has verified Layer 1 and

Layer 2, what are three questions the help desk technician should ask the customer?

(Choose three.)

What is your subnet mask?

What is your IP address?

Is the NIC link light blinking?

Can you ping the default gateway?

Is the network cable properly attached to the cable modem?

Is the network cable correctly connected to the network port on the PC?

14. Which scenario represents a problem at Layer 4 of the OSI model? An incorrect IP address on the default gateway.

A bad subnet mask in the host IP configuration.

A firewall filtering traffic addressed to TCP port 25 on an email server.

An incorrect DNS server address being given out by DHCP.

15. What are two basic procedures of incident management? (Choose two.) opening a trouble ticket

using diagnostic tools to identify the problem

surveying network conditions for further analysis

configuring new equipment and software upgrades

adhering to a problem-solving strategy

e-mailing a problem resolution to the customer

16. Which level of support is supplied by an ISP when providing managed services?

Level 1

Level 2

Level 3

Level 4

17. What is the first step that is used by a help desk technician in a systematic approach to

helping a customer solve a problem?

identify and prioritize alternative solutions

isolate the cause of the problem

define the problem

select an evaluation process

18. A network technician has isolated a problem at the transport layer of the OSI model.

Which question would provide further information about the problem?

Do you have a firewall that is configured on your PC?

Do you have a link light on your network card?

Is your PC configured to obtain addressing information using DHCP?

What default gateway address is configured in your TCP/IP settings?

Can you ping http://www.cisco.com?

19. An ISP help desk technician receives a call from a customer who reports that no one at

their business can reach any websites, or get their e-mail. After testing the communication

line and finding everything fine, the technician instructs the customer to run nslookup

from the command prompt. What does the technician suspect is causing the customer‟s

problem?

improper IP address configuration on the host

hardware failure of the ISR used to connect the customer to the ISP

bad cables or connections at the customer site

failure of DNS to resolve names to IP addresses

20. Which layers of the OSI model are commonly referred to as the upper layers? application, presentation, session

application, session, network

presentation, transport, network

presentation, network, data link

session, transport, network

Chapter 3

1. Which two benefits can be gained by locating network equipment in a

telecommunications closet, rather than in a user area? (Choose two.) faster communication speeds

improved physical security

more resistant to hacker attempts

centralized cable management

less electrical usage

2. Which three issues should be noted on the technician‟s site survey report? (Choose

three.)

unlabeled cables

only two power outlets per wall in each room

poor physical security of network devices

horizontal cabling runs under 100 meters

lack of UPS for critical devices

two users sharing the same computer

3. Which two types of cable are used for initial router configuration? (Choose two.) serial cable

rollover cable

straight-through cable

crossover cable

patch cable

console cable

4. In addition to the inventory sheet, what other information about the hosts and

networking equipment should be documented by the on-site technician while performing

the site survey?

any obsolete office equipment being stored

all product keys for site license software

any planned growth anticipated in the near future

the memory requirements for installed application software

5. Refer to the exhibit. What type of device is used to connect two networks? hub

router

switch

access point

6. It is said that the goal for availability of a communications system is “five-9s”. What is

meant by this? A down time of .00001% is unacceptable.

A network needs to be available 99.999% of the time.

Five percent of all network expense covers 99% of user requirements.

The most critical time for network availability is from 9:00 to 5:00 p.m. five days a week.

The best time to do maintenance on a network is from 5:00 p.m. to 9:00 a.m. five days a week.

7. What three things are included in a logical topology document? (Choose three.) the location of cables, computers, and other peripherals

the path that the data takes through a network

the wireless signal coverage area

the wiring closet and access point locations

the device names and Layer 3 addressing information

the location of routing, network address translation, and firewall filtering

8. Which device has the ability to break up broadcast and collision domains? repeater

hub

router

switch

9. Why is it important to review the results of an on-site survey report with the customer

before beginning the network design? to inform the customer of how much time the upgrade will take

to discuss the implementation schedule for the new equipment

to verify that the report accurately describes the current network and any plans for expansion

to layout the new network design and discuss possible equipment upgrades and replacements

10. A client requires a networking device that is capable of expansion to suit growing

network demands. What type of device will suit this requirement? a networking device with ports that can be activated and deactivated

a networking device with a modular physical configuration

a networking device with the ability to be turned off remotely

a networking device with a cost per port that is as high as possible

11. What does the use of redundant network components supply to a network?

scalability

manageability

compatibility

reliability

12. What is the benefit for a company to use an ISR router? An ISR provides the functionality of a switch, router, and firewall in one device.

ISRs use a PC operating system for routing traffic, thus simplifying configuration and

management.

An ISR is immune to security attacks by hackers and so replaces all other network security

measures.

ISRs make routing decisions at OSI Layer 7, thus providing more intelligence to the network

than do other routers.

13. Which three items are typically found in an MDF? (Choose three.)

user workstations

switches and routers

fax machines

network equipment racks

the point of presence

copier

14. What are two advantages of having ISP-managed services? (Choose two.) does not require leasing costs for service

can guarantee up to 99.999% availability

eliminates the need for data backup

increases availability of help desk services

does not require a Service Level Agreement

15. A manufacturing company is in the process of a network upgrade. Which two

statements are true about the phases of the upgrade process? (Choose two.)

Phase 1 is used to determine network requirements.

Phase 2 includes creating an analysis report.

Phase 3 is based on an implementation schedule that allows extra time for unexpected events.

Phase 4 is where prototypes are created and tested.

Phase 5 includes identifying and addressing any weaknesses in the design.

16. When designing a network upgrade, which two tasks should the onsite technician

perform? (Choose two.)

configure the servers and routers prior to delivery

upgrade the network operating system and all client operating systems

investigate and document the physical layout of the premises

document the final design for approval by the customer

perform a site survey to document the existing network structure

17. What is the term for the location at the customer premise where the customer network

physically connects to the Internet through a telecommunications service provider? backbone area

point of presence

network distribution facility

intermediate distribution frame

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of twisted pair cable is used between each device? A=console, B=straight, C=crossover, D= crossover, E=straight

A=straight, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=console

A=crossover, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover

A=console, B=straight, C=straight, D=crossover, E=crossover

A=console, B=crossover, C=crossover, D=straight, E=straight

19. In what two ways will entering into a managed service agreement with an ISP for a

network upgrade affect the costs that are incurred by the customer? (Choose two.)

Customer IT training costs will increase to enable operation of the new equipment.

The cost of hardware repairs and support will become the responsibility of the customer.

Network upgrade and maintenance costs will become predictable.

Staffing costs will increase because the customer will need to hire additional IT staff to complete

the upgrade.

The company will not need to spend a large amount of money to purchase the equipment

upfront.

20. Which type of cable has a solid copper core with several protective layers including

PVC, braided wire shielding, and a plastic covering?

STP

UTP

coaxial

fiber optic

21. What must be added when a network expands beyond the coverage area of the current

telecommunications room?

MDF

POP

IDF

IXP

Chapter 4

1. In an 8 bit binary number, what is the total number of combinations of the eight bits?

128

254

255

256

512

1024

2. Convert the decimal number 231 into its binary equivalent. Select the correct answer

from the list below. 11110010

11011011

11110110

11100111

11100101

11101110

3. How many usable hosts are available given a Class C IP address with the default subnet

mask?

254

255

256

510

511

512

4. Which statement describes NAT overload or PAT? Each internal address is dynamically translated to an individual external IP address.

A single internal address is always translated to the same unique external IP address.

Many internal addresses can be translated to a single IP address using different port assignments.

Many internal addresses are statically assigned a single IP address and port to use for

communications.

5. Which IPv4 class of addresses provides the most networks? Class A

Class B

Class C

Class D

Class E

6. Which statement accurately describes public IP addresses? Public addresses cannot be used within a private network.

Public IP addresses must be unique across the entire Internet.

Public addresses can be duplicated only within a local network.

Public IP addresses are only required to be unique within the local network.

Network administrators are free to select any public addresses to use for network devices that

access the Internet.

7. Which two statements describe classful IP addresses? (Choose two.) It is possible to determine which class an address belongs to by reading the first bit.

The number of bits used to identify the hosts is fixed by the class of the network.

Only Class A addresses can be represented by high-order bits 100.

Up to 24 bits can make up the host portion of a Class C address.

Up to 24 bits can be used to identify unique networks.

Three of the five classes of addresses are reserved for multicasts and experimental use.

8. Company XYZ uses a network address of 192.168.4.0. It uses the mask of

255.255.255.224 to create subnets. What is the maximum number of usable hosts in each

subnet? 6

14

30

62

9. hat is the network broadcast address for a Class C address of 192.168.32.0 with the

default subnet mask? 192.168.0.0

192.168.0.255

192.168.32.0

192.168.32.254

192.168.32.255

10. Refer to the exhibit. Host A is connected to the LAN, but it cannot get access to any

resources on the Internet. The configuration of the host is shown in the exhibit. What could

be the cause of the problem? The host subnet mask is incorrect.

The default gateway is a network address.

The default gateway is a broadcast address.

The default gateway is on a different subnet from the host.

11. IPv6 increases the IP address size from 32 bits to how many bits?

64

96

128

192

256

512

12. What is the range of the first octet in a Class B address?

127 to 191

127 to 192

128 to 191

128 to 192

13. Which IPv4 class provides the highest number of host addresses per network? Class A

Class B

Class C

Class D

Class E

14. refer to the exhibit. Which range of IP addresses would allow hosts that are connected

to the Router1 Fa0/0 interface to access outside networks? 192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.95

192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.94

192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.96

192.168.1.0 through 192.168.1.127

192.168.1.66 through 192.168.1.128

15 Which option shows the proper notation for an IPv6 address? 2001,0db8,3c55,0015,abcd,ff13

2001-0db8-3c55-0015-abcd-ff13

2001.0db8.3c55.0015.abcd.ff13

2001:0db8:3c55:0015::abcd:ff13

16. What are two reasons that NAT was developed? (Choose two.) to preserve registered public IP addresses

to allow users on the public Internet to access local networks

to provide a method for privately addressed LANs to participate in the Internet

to make routing protocols operate more efficiently

to allow private addresses to be routed on the public Internet

to reduce overhead and CPU usage on gateway routers

17. What must happen for a privately addressed host on an inside local network to be able

to communicate with an outside destination host on the Internet? The host IP address must be translated to an outside private address.

The host IP address must be translated to an inside local address.

The host IP address must be translated to an outside local address.

The host IP address must be translated to an inside global address.

18. Which port numbers are used by PAT to create unique global addresses? 255 and below

1024 and below

1025 and above

64,000 and above

19. Static NAT works by mapping a specific inside local IP address to what other specific

address type? inside global

outside local

outside global

private IP address

20. What are three advantages of NAT implementations? (Choose three.)

improved security

improved router performance

decreased processor load

improved scalability

universal application compatibility

sharing few public IP addresses with many hosts

21. Refer to the exhibit. R1 is performing NAT for the 10.1.1.0/24 inside network. HostA

has sent a request to the web server. What is the destination IP address of the return

packet from the web server?

10.1.1.2

172.30.20.1

172.30.20.10

192.168.1.1

Chapter 5

1. In what two ways does SDM differ from the IOS CLI? (Choose two.)

SDM is used for in-band management only. The IOS CLI can be used for in-band and out-of-

band management.

SDM is accessed through a Telnet application. The IOS CLI is accessed through a web browser.

SDM is available for all router platforms. The IOS CLI is available for a limited number of Cisco

devices.

SDM utilizes GUI buttons and text boxes. The IOS CLI requires the use of text-based

commands.

SDM is used for advanced configuration tasks. The IOS CLI is preferred for initial basic device

configuration.

2. Which mode will a configured router display at login?

global configuration mode

setup mode

ROM monitor mode

user EXEC mode

3. Refer to the exhibit. Which password or passwords will be encrypted as a result of the

configuration that is shown?

virtual terminal only

enable mode only

console and virtual terminal only

enable mode and virtual terminal

only the service password

all configured passwords

4. Refer to the exhibit. Which three sets of commands are required to enable

administrators to connect to the Switch1 console over Telnet for configuration and

management? (Choose three.)

Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1

Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.2.64 255.255.255.192

Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1


Switch1(config)# interface vlan 1


Switch1(config-if)# no shutdown

Switch1(config)# line vty 0 4

Switch1(config-line)# enable password cisco

Switch1(config-line)# login

Switch1(config)# line vty 0 15

Switch1(config-line)# password cisco

Switch1(config-line)# login

Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.2.65

5. How does the SYST LED on the catalyst 2960 switch indicate a POST failure? blinks rapidly amber

blinks rapidly green

steady amber

steady green

6. Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork as

the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to

configure switch X with a default gateway. Assuming that the switch IP address is

192.168.5.147/24, what command will the administrator use to assign a default gateway to

the switch? X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.254

X(config)# ip gateway 192.168.5.1

X(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.5.1

X(config)# ip default-route 192.168.5.1

X(config)# ip route 192.168.5.254 255.255.255.0 fastethernet 0/0

7. A technician has made changes to the configuration of a router. What command will

allow the technician to view the current configuration before he saves the changes? router# show running-config

router# show startup-config

router# show flash

router# show version

8. Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes

and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.) VTY interface

console interface

Ethernet interface

secret EXEC mode

privileged EXEC mode

router configuration mode

9. To save time, IOS commands may be partially entered and then completed by typing

which key or key combination?

Tab

Ctrl-P

Ctrl-N

Up Arrow

Right Arrow

Down Arrow

10. What is the correct command sequence to configure a router host name to „LAB_A‟? Router> enable

Router# configure terminal

Router(config)# hostname LAB_A

Router> enable

Router# hostname LAB_A

Router> enable

Router# configure router

Router(config)# hostname LAB_A

Router> enable

Router(config)# host name LAB_A

11. Refer to the exhibit. From the router console, an administrator is unable to ping a

Catalyst switch that is located in another building. What can the administrator do from her

location to check the IP configuration of the attached switch?

Open an SDM session with the switch from her desktop.

Telnet to the switch from the router console.

Use the show cdp neighbors detail command from the router console.

The administrator must go to the switch location and make a console connection to check these

settings.

12. Which two options must be selected in SDM Express to enable a router serial interface

to obtain an IP address automatically? (Choose two.) Easy IP (IP negotiated)

IP unnumbered

No IP address

HDLC encapsulation

Frame Relay encapsulation

PPP encapsulation

13. What three settings can be made in the SDM Express basic configuration screen?

(Choose three.)

host name

DHCP options

domain name

interface IP addresses

enable secret password

DNS server IP addresses

14. Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.) View a list of commands entered in a previous session.

Recall up to 15 command lines by default.

Set the command history buffer size.

Recall previously entered commands.

Save command lines in a log file for future reference.

15. What option within Cisco SDM Express must be configured to allow hosts that receive

IP address settings from the router to resolve names on the network or Internet? host name

domain name

DHCP address pool

DNS server IP address

16. Which three encapsulation types can be set on a serial interface by an administrator

who is using SDM Express? (Choose three.) ATM

CHAP

Frame Relay

HDLC

PAP

PPP

17. Which command will display routing table information about all known networks and

subnetworks? Router# show ip interfaces

Router# show ip connections

Router# show ip route

Router# show ip networks

18. A network administrator needs to configure a router. Which of the following

connection methods requires network functionality to be accessible?

console

AUX

Telnet

modem

19. Which three pieces of information about a neighbor device can be obtained by the show

cdp neighbors command? (Choose three.)

platform

routing protocol

connected interface of neighbor device

device ID

IP addresses of all interfaces

enable mode password

20. Which function is a unique responsibility of the DCE devices shown in the exhibit?

transmission of data

reception of data

clocking for the synchronous link

noise cancellation in transmitted data

21. Which of the following are functions of NVRAM? (Choose two.) stores the routing table

retains contents when power is removed

stores the startup configuration file

contains the running configuration file

stores the ARP table

22. Refer to the exhibit. Which series of commands will enable users who are attached to

Router1 to access the remote server? Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0

Router1(config-if)# ip address 64.100.0.129 255.255.255.252

Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000

Router1(config-if)# no shutdown

Router1(config)# interface S0/0/0





Router1(config-if)# clock rate 64000





23. A network technician is attempting to add an older workstation to a Cisco switched

LAN. The technician has manually configured the workstation to full-duplex mode in order

to enhance the network performance of the workstation. However, when the device is

attached to the network, performance degrades and excess collision are detected. What is

the cause of this problem?

The host is configured in a different subnet from the subnet of the switch.

There is a duplex mismatch between the workstation and switch port.

The switch port is running at a different speed from the speed of the workstation NIC.

The host has been configured with a default gateway that is different from that of the switch.

24. Which of the following statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose

two.) All router commands are available.

Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command.

A password can be entered to allow access to other modes.

Interfaces and routing protocols can be configured.

Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.

25. Which command turns on a router interface? Router(config-if)# enable

Router(config-if)# no down

Router(config-if)# s0 active

Router(config-if)# interface up

Router(config-if)# no shutdown

26. A router has a valid operating system and a configuration stored in NVRAM. When the

router boots up, which mode will display? global configuration mode

setup mode

ROM monitor mode

user EXEC mode

27. Which two statements are true about the NVRAM on a Cisco device?(Choose two.) stores the routing table

retains contents when power is removed

stores the startup configuration file

contains the running configuration file

stores the ARP table

28. An administrator enters the show ip route command into a router. What type of

information will be displayed?

the current configuration stored in RAM

the networks learned from other neighbors

the encapsulation and bandwidth of every interface

the private IP addresses translated to public IP addresses

29. When utilizing SDM Express, which two configuration options allow a router serial

interface to obtain an IP address without manually configuring it? (Choose two.)

Static IP Address

Frame Relay encapsulation

IP Negotiated

HDLC encapsulation

IP Unnumbered

30. Refer to the exhibit. Based on the output of the show port-security interface

fastethernet0/1

command on the switch, which statement about the switch port is true? The port has been shut down.

Only three unique MAC addresses are permitted to use this port.

There are ten devices with different MAC addresses connected to this port.

Port security has been violated seven times on this port.

31. Refer to the exhibit. Users on both SW1 and SW2 report that they are unable to

communicate with each other. A network administrator issues show ip interface brief

commands on both routers to troubleshoot the connectivity between the two networks.

What action will correct the connectivity issue?

Configure a default route on router RA pointing to router RB.

Modify the network address of the serial link from a /30 to a /24.

Issue a clock rate command on the s0/0/0 interface on router RA.

Issue a no shutdown command on the s0/0/0 interface on router RB.

Issue a debug ip rip on both routers to verify that the routing protocol is functioningproperly.

32. Refer to the exhibit. A company always uses the last valid IP address in a subnetwork

as the IP address of the router LAN interface. A network administrator is using a laptop to

configure switch X with a default gateway via the switch console port. The switch VLAN 1

interface is assigned IP address 192.168.5.68/26. What command will the administrator use

to assign a default gateway to the switch?

X(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.5.1



X(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.5.192

X(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.192 192.168.5.1

33. What step must be completed before port security can be enabled on an interface? The interface must be shut down.

The interface must be in access mode.

The maximum number of MAC addresses must be configured.

The violation mode must be configured.

34. Which of the following identifies the correct items needed to initially configure a

router? 1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC’s serial port

2) a straight through cable

3) the router’s console port

1) PC’s Ethernet port

2) a crossover cable

3) the router’s Ethernet port

1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC’s serial port

2) a rollover cable



2) a rollover cable


1) DB-9-to-RJ-45 on the PC’s serial port

2) a rollover cable



2) a rollover cable


Chapter 6

1. Which command is used to view the RIP routing protocol settings and configuration? show version

show ip route

show interface

show ip protocols

2. Refer to the exhibit. What is the maximum number of RIP routers that could separate

HostA and HostB and still leave the hosts with connectivity to each other?

14

15

16

17

3. In which situation would a company register for its own autonomous system number

(ASN)?

when the company’s ISP adds connection points to the Internet

when additional routers are added to the corporate internetwork

when more than one interior routing protocol is used

when the company uses two or more ISPs

4. Consider this routing table entry

R 172.16.1.0/24 [120/1] via 200.1.1.1 00:00:27 Serial0/1

What type of route is this?

a static route

a default route

a RIP route

an OSPF route

an EIGRP route

a directly-connected route

5. What is the difference between interior and exterior routing protocols? Exterior routing protocols are only used by large ISPs. Interior routing protocols are used by

small ISPs.

Interior routing protocols are used to route on the Internet. Exterior routing protocols are used

inside organizations.

Exterior routing protocols are used to administer a single autonomous system. Interior routing

protocols are used to administer several domains.

Interior routing protocols are used to communicate within a single autonomous system. Exterior

routing protocols are used to communicate between multiple autonomous systems.

6. What information is included in RIPv2 routing updates that is not included in RIPv1

updates? metric

subnet mask

area identification

hop count

autonomous system number

7. Which routing protocol is used to exchange data between two different ISPs? BGP

EIGRP

OSPF

RIP v2

8. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration command or commands contributed to the

output that is shown? routerA(config-router)# no version 2

routerA(config)# interface fa0/0

routerA(config-if)# ip address 172.19.0.0 255.255.0.0

routerA(config-router)# network 192.168.3.0

routerA(config)# no ip default-gateway

9. Refer to the exhibit. If all routers are running RIP and network 10.0.0.0 goes down,

when will R3 learn that the network is no longer available? in 30 seconds

in 60 seconds

in 90 seconds

Immediately

10. What statement is true regarding an AS number? AS numbers are controlled and registered for Internet use.

Interior routing protocols require registered AS numbers.

ISPs require all customers to have registered AS numbers.

All routers at an ISP must be assigned the same AS number.

11. What is the purpose of the network command used when configuring RIP? to specify whether RIPv1 or RIPv2 will be used as the routing protocol

to allow the router to monitor RIP updates that occur on other routers

to identify which networks on the router will send and receive RIP updates

to configure the IP address on an interface that will use RIP

to identify all of the remote networks that should be reachable from the router

12. Which command would a network administrator use to determine if the routers in an

enterprise have learned about a newly added network?

router# show ip address

router# show ip route

router# show ip networks

router# show ip interface brief

router# debug ip protocol

router# debug rip update

13. What is the purpose of a routing protocol? It is used to build and maintain ARP tables.

It provides a method for segmenting and reassembling data packets.

It allows an administrator to devise an addressing scheme for the network.

It allows a router to share information about known networks with other routers.

It provides a procedure for encoding and decoding data into bits for packet forwarding.

14. What device enables an ISP to connect with other ISPs to transfer data? border gateway router

DSLAM

web server

interior router

15. Which command will display RIP routing updates as they are sent and received?

show ip route

show ip rip

debug ip rip

show ip protocols

show ip rip database

16. Which part of an IP packet does the router use to make routing decisions?

source IP address

source MAC address

destination IP address

destination MAC address

17. What two types of businesses would benefit from registering as their own autonomous

systems? (Choose two.) a home business with one ISP connection

a global business with connections to multiple local ISPs

a medium-sized nationwide business with Internet connectivity through different ISPs

a large enterprise with two connections to the same ISP

a small ISP with a single Internet connection through a larger ISP

18. Which command will display RIP activity as it occurs on a router? debug ip rip

show ip route

show ip interface

show ip protocols

debug ip rip config

show ip rip database

19. Why is fast convergence desirable in networks that use dynamic routing protocols? Routers will not allow packets to be forwarded until the network has converged.

Hosts are unable to access their gateway until the network has converged.

Routers may make incorrect forwarding decisions until the network has converged.

Routers will not allow configuration changes to be made until the network has converged.

20. Which two statements describe static routes? (Choose two.) They are created in interface configuration mode.

They require manual reconfiguration to accommodate network changes.

They automatically become the default gateway of the router.

They are identified in the routing table with the prefix S

They are automatically updated whenever an interface is reconfigured or shutdown.

21. Which two statements or sets of statements describe differences between link-state and

distance vector routing protocols? (Choose two.) Link-state routing protocols routinely use more bandwidth for updates than do distance vector

routing protocols.

Distance vector routing protocols update all routers at one time. Link-state routing protocols

update one router at a time.

Link-state routers only know about directly connected routers. Distance vector routers know

about every router in the network.

Link-state routing protocols update when a change is made. A network using distance vector

routing protocols only updates at a specific interval.

Distance vector routing protocols have limited information about the entire network. Link state

routing protocols know about all routers in the network.

In case of similar topologies, networks using link-state routing protocols typically converge more

rapidly than do networks using distance vector routing protocols.

22. Which protocol is an exterior routing protocol? BGP

EIGRP

OSPF

RIP

23. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator

suspects a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to

help troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.) Ping

show arp

Traceroute

show ip route

show interface

show cdp neighbor detail

24. What term refers to a group of networks that uses the same internal routing policies

and is controlled by a single administrative authority?

Internet

intranet

virtual private network

autonomous system

25. Refer to the exhibit. All of the routers are running RIP. There are two paths from

router A to the 192.168.3.0 network. Based on the output of the show ip route command on

router A, which route was entered into the routing table and why? A,B,C,D because it has the lowest administrative distance

A,E,F,G,D because it has the lowest administrative distance

A,B,C,D because it has the lowest metric

A,E,F,G,D because it has the lowest metric

26. A network is converged and the routing tables are complete. When a packet needs to be

forwarded, what is the first criterion used to determine the best path in the routing table?

the route with the highest bandwidth

the route with the smallest administrative distance

the route with the longest address and mask match to the destination

the route with the best combination of administrative distance and lowest cost

27. Refer to the exhibit. If connectivity between the two hosts is maintained, what is the

maximum number of RIP routers that can be in the path from HostA to HostB?

14

15

16

17

28. What is the purpose of the network command in configuring RIP? to specify whether RIPv1 or RIPv2 will be used as the routing protocol

to allow the router to monitor RIP updates that occur on other routers

to identify the directly connected networks that will be announced in RIP updates

to configure the IP address on an interface that will use RIP

to identify all of the remote networks that should be reachable from the router

29. Refer to the exhibit. Router B receives a packet with a destination address of 10.16.1.97.

What willrouter B do? drop the packet

use the default route

forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.0

forward the packet via the route to 10.16.1.64

Chapter 7

1. Which two statements are true about the OSI and TCP/IP models? (Choose two.)

The two bottom layers of the TCP/IP model make up the bottom layer of the OSI model.

The TCP/IP model is a theoretical model and the OSI model is based on actual protocols.

The OSI network layer is comparable to the Internet layer of the TCP/IP model.

The TCP/IP model specifies protocols for the physical network interconnection.

The TCP/IP model is based on four layers and the OSI model is based on seven layers.

2. To meet customer expectations, an ISP must guarantee a level of service that is based on

what two factors? (Choose two.)

accessibility

adaptability

availability

reliability

scalability

3. User1 is sending an e-mail to [email protected]. What are two characteristics of the

process of sending this data? (Choose two.) It utilizes TCP port 110.

A TCP connection is established directly between the User1 and User2 client computers in order

to send the e-mail message.

It utilizes a store and forward process.

The same application layer protocol is used to send the e-mail and retrieve it from the destination

server.

SMTP is used to send the e-mail message to the mail servers.

4. Refer to the exhibit. Host1 is in the process of setting up a TCP session with Host2. Host1

has sent a SYN message to begin session establishment. What happens next? Host1 sends an ACK message to Host2.

Host1 sends a SYN message to Host2.

Host1 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host2.

Host2 sends an ACK message to Host1.

Host2 sends a SYN message to Host1.

Host2 sends a SYN-ACK message to Host1.

5. What are three characteristics of network reliability? (Choose three.) Redundant hardware provides enhanced reliability.

Reliability is measured as a percent.

Reliability is the responsibility of the ISP customers.

Fault tolerance is a measure of reliability.

The longer the MTBF, the greater the reliability.

6. Which two statements describe the FTP protocol? (Choose two.) It uses well-known port 23.

The protocol interpreter is responsible for the data transfer function.

In passive data connections, the FTP client initiates the transfer of data.

It requires two connections between client and server.

FTP servers open a well-known port on the client machine.

7. What is the function of the TCP three-way handshake? It enables the synchronization of port numbers between source and destination hosts.

It immediately triggers the retransmission of lost data.

It synchronizes both ends of a connection by allowing both sides to agree upon initial sequence

numbers.

It identifies the destination application on the receiving host.

8. What are three characteristics of HTTPS? (Choose three.) It uses a different client request-server response process than HTTP uses.

It specifies additional rules for passing data between the application and data link layers.

It supports authentication.

It allows more simultaneous connections than HTTP allows.

It encrypts packets with SSL.

It requires additional server processing time.

9. Which DNS zone resolves an IP address to a qualified domain name? dynamic lookup

forward lookup

resolution lookup

reverse lookup

10. What type of update allows client computers to register and update their resource

records with a DNS server whenever changes occur? dynamic

zone transfer

local recursive query

root domain query

top-level domain query

11. Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about this file? (Choose two.) If the gateway address changes, the file will be updated dynamically.

The command ping fileserv will use IP address 172.16.5.10.

If the ping http://www.cisco.com command is issued, the file will be checked for the Cisco web

server IP address before DNS is queried.

The file must be created by the user if it is to be used by a workstation.

Name to IP address mappings are added to the file after they are received from DNS.

12. Which two tasks are the responsibility of the local DNS server? (Choose two.) maintaining a large number of cached DNS entries

maintaining the ISP server

mapping name-to-IP addresses for internal hosts

forwarding name resolution requests to a caching-only server

forwarding all name resolution requests to root servers on the Internet

13. What are three unique characteristics of UDP? (Choose three.) connection oriented

full-duplex operation

low overhead

no flow control

no error-recovery function

reliable transmission

14. A manufacturing company is looking into subscribing to services from a new ISP. The

company requires hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail services. Which three

protocols represent the key application services that are required by the company? (Choose

three.) FTP

HTTP

ICMP

PPP

Telnet

SMTP

15. Which two options correctly match protocol and well-known port number? (Choose

two.) DNS – 25

FTP – 110

HTTP – 80

POP3 – 25

SMTP – 25

16. Within TCP, what combination makes up a socket pair?

source port with destination port

source IP address with destination port

source IP address and destination IP address

source IP address and port with a destination IP address and port

17. Which protocol is used to send e-mail, either from a client to a server or from a server

to another server?

SNMP

FTP

SMTP

HTTPS

18. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is requesting HTTP data from the server. What is a valid

representation of source and destination sockets for this request?

Source – 192.168.1.17:80 ; Destination – 192.168.2.39:80




19. What type of DNS server is typically maintained by an ISP? caching-only

root

second-level

top-level

20. A client is communicating with a server on a different segment of the network. How

does the server determine what service is being requested by the client? The server will apply the default service configured in directory services.

The server will use ARP to discover the appropriate service from the local router.

The server will send a request to the client asking for the appropriate service.

The server will determine the appropriate service from the destination port field.

21. When a host is communicating with multiple applications on the same server at the

same time, which of the following will have the same value for each session? (Choose two.)

21. When a host is communicating with multiple applications on the same server at the

same time, which two values will likely be the same in all packets for each session? (Choose

two.) IP address

MAC address

session number

sequence number

22. Which three fields do a TCP header and UDP header have in common? (Choose three.) checksum

destination port

source port

23. Which three fields do a TCP header and a UDP header have in common? (Choose

three.) source portwindow

checksum

destination port

acknowledgment number

sequence number

24. A manufacturing company subscribes to certain hosted services from their ISP. The

services require include hosted world wide web, file transfer, and e-mail. Which protocols

represent these three key applications? (Choose three.) FTP

HTTP

DNS

SNMP

DHCP

SMTP

Chapter 8

1. Which AAA service reduces IT operating costs by providing detailed reporting and

monitoring of network user behavior, and also by keeping a record of every access

connection and device configuration change across the network?

Which AAA service provides detailed reporting and monitoring of network user behavior,

and also keeps a record of every access connection and device configuration change across

the network? authentication

accreditation

accounting

authorization

2. Which three items are normally included when a log message is generated by a syslog

client and forwarded to a syslog server? (Choose three.) date and time of message

ID of sending device

length of message

message ID

checksum field

community ID

3. What is the advantage of using WPA to secure a wireless network?

It uses a 128-bit pre-shared hexadecimal key to prevent unauthorized wireless access.

It uses an advanced encryption key that is never transmitted between host and access point.

It is supported on older wireless hardware, thus providing maximum compatibility with

enterprise equipment.

It requires the MAC address of a network device that is requesting wireless access to be on a list

of approved MAC addresses.

4. A company wants to configure a firewall to monitor all channels of communication and

allow only traffic that is part of a known connection. Which firewall configuration should

be deployed? packet filtering

proxy

stateful packet inspection

stateless packet inspection

5. A server log includes this entry: User student accessed host server ABC using Telnet

yesterday for 10 minutes. What type of log entry is this? authentication

authorization

accounting

accessing

6. What two measures help to verify that server backups have been reliably completed?

(Choose two.)

reviewing backup logs

performing trial backups

performing full backups only

replacing tape backup with hard disk-based backup

using an autoloader when backups require more than one tape

7. Which means of communication does an SNMP network agent use to provide a network

management station with important but unsolicited information? query

broadcast

ICMP ping

trap

poll

8. Which three protocols are used for in-band management? (Choose three.)

8. Which three applications can be used for in-band management? (Choose three.) FTP

HTTP

SNMP

Telnet

TFTP

DHCP

9. A hacker has gained access to sensitive network files. In analyzing the attack, it is found

that the hacker gained access over a wireless segment of the network. It is further

discovered that the only security measure in place on the wireless network is MAC Address

Filtering. How is it likely that the hacker gained access to the network? The hacker used a software tool to crack the shared hexadecimal wireless key.

The hacker obtained the MAC address of a permitted host, and cloned it on his wireless laptop

NIC.

The attacker mounted a denial of service attack to overwhelm the firewall before penetrating the

wireless LAN.

The hacker gained wireless access to the MAC address database and added his own MAC

address to the list of permitted addresses.

10. A network administrator is assigning network permissions to new groups of users and

employing the principle of least privilege. Which two actions should the administrator

take? (Choose two.)

Provide users with only the access to resources required to do their jobs.

Provide the minimum level of permissions required for users to do their jobs.

Remove all permissions from the users and grant permissions as they are requested.

Allow users to decide how much permission they need to accomplish their job tasks.

Provide full access to the users and gradually remove privileges over time.

11. Which three protocols describe methods that can be used to secure user data for

transmission across the internet? (Choose three.)

SMTP

IPSEC

SSL

HTTPS

FTP

TFTP

12. Which benefit does SSH offer over Telnet when remotely managing a router? encryption

TCP usage

authorization

connection using six VTY lines

13. Which of the following does SNMP use to hold information collected about the

network?

network management station

network management database

management information base

database information agent

14. What are two potential problems with using tape media to back up server data?

(Choose two.)

Tape is not a cost-effective means of backing up data.

Data tapes are difficult to store offsite.

Data tapes are prone to failure and must be replaced often.

Tape drives require regular cleaning to maintain reliability.

Backup logs are not available with tape backup solutions.

15. What is the term for the public network between the boundary router and the firewall?

“clean” LAN

intranet

DMZ

extranet

16. Which two characteristics of network traffic are being monitored if a network

technician configures the company firewall to operate as a packet filter? (Choose two.) applications

physical addresses

packet size

ports

protocols

17. When is the use of out-of-band network management necessary? when a server needs to be monitored across the network

when the management interface of a device is not reachable across the network

when enhanced monitoring features are required to gain an overall view of the entire network

when it is desirable to use the information that is provided by SNMP

18. What network layer security protocol can secure any application layer protocol used

for communication? HTTPS

IMAP

FTPS

IPSEC

TLS

19. Before a technician upgrades a server, it is necessary to back up all data. Which type of

backup is necessary to ensure that all data is backed up? daily

differential

full

incremental

partial

20. What AAA component assigns varying levels of rights to users of network resources? auditing

accounting

authorization

access control

authentication

acknowledgement

21. Refer to the exhibit. While the user on router A is connected to router B through telnet,

the CTRL-SHIFT-6 x keystroke is entered. What effect does this have? It logs the user out of router A.

It suspends the connection to router B.

It closes the connection to router B.

It logs the user out of both router A and router B.

22. While downloading an IOS image from a TFTP server, an administrator sees long

strings of exclamation marks (!) output to the console. What does this mean?

The transfer is working.

The TFTP server is not responding.

The IOS file is corrupt and is failing the checksum verification.

There is not enough space in flash to hold the image.

23. What is the term used to describe the area of a network which stores servers that

areaccessible to any users from the Internet?

“clean” LAN

intranet

DMZ

extranet

24. What does the command copy flash tftp accomplish? It copies the IOS in flash to a TFTP server.

It copies the startup-configuration file in flash to a TFTP server.

It copies the running-configuration file in flash to a TFTP server.

It copies the configuration register settings in flash to a TFTP server.

Chapter 9

1. How many usable host addresses does the 192.168.1.0/25 subnet provide?

254

128

127

126

64

62

2. A network technician has isolated a problem at the transport layer of the OSI model.

Which question would provide further information about the problem?

Do you have a firewall that is configured on your PC?

Do you have a link light on your network card?

Is your PC configured to obtain addressing information using DHCP?

What default gateway address is configured in your TCP/IP settings?

Can you ping http://www.cisco.com?

3. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is in the process of sending a

preconfigured text file to a router. When the administrator pastes the configuration into

the router, an error message appears. What is the problem with the IP addressing scheme? Serial0/0 is configured with a network address.

The IP address on FastEthernet0/0 overlaps with the IP on FastEthernet0/1.

Serial0/1 is configured with a broadcast address.

The IP address on FastEthernet0/0 overlaps with the IP on Serial0/1.

4. A user can access any web page on the Internet but cannot access e-mail. What

troubleshooting method would be most efficient for troubleshooting this issue? top-down

bottom-up

divide-and-conquer

impossible to determine from this information

5. Refer to the exhibit. What are two possible causes for the interface status? (Choose two.)

The loopback address is not set.

The encapsulation type is mismatched.

A cable is not attached to the interface.

Keepalive messages are not being received.

The interface is administratively shut down.

6. Refer to the exhibit. Host H1 on the LAN is not able to access the FTP server across the

Internet. Which two configuration statements are causing this problem? (Choose two.)

There is no route to the Internet.

The IP address on Fa0/0 is incorrect.

The IP address on S0/0/0 is incorrect.

The NAT command on the Fa0/0 interface is applied in the wrong direction.

The NAT command on the S0/0/0 interface is applied in the wrong direction.

7. Which two conditions identify issues that are confined to Layer 1? (Choose two.)

cables that exceed maximum length

encapsulation errors

viruses and worms that create excessive broadcast traffic

poor termination of cables

receiving “line protocol down” messages on the router console

8. A network administrator is upgrading a Cisco 1841 router by adding a WIC-2T module

card. Which show command can the administrator use to verify that the module is

correctly recognized by the router? show flash:

show version

show ip route

show startup-configuration

9. Hosts on two separate subnets cannot communicate. The network administrator suspects

a missing route in one of the routing tables. Which three commands can be used to help

troubleshoot Layer 3 connectivity issues? (Choose three.) ping

show arp

traceroute

show ip route

show controllers

show cdp neighbor

10. Refer to the exhibit. Which statement is true regarding the IP address configuration? Interfaces Fa0/0 and Fa0/1 can be in the same subnet.

Interface Fa0/0 and NetworkA can be in the same subnet.

Interface Fa0/0 and NetworkB can be in the same subnet.

Interface Fa0/1 and NetworkB can be in the same subnet.

11. A network administrator plugs a new PC into a switch port. The LED for that port

changes to solid green. What statement best describes the current status of the port? There is a duplex mismatch error.

There is a link fault error. This port is unable to forward frames.

The port is operational and ready to transmit packets.

This port has been disabled by management and is unable to forward frames.

The flash memory is busy.

12. Refer to the exhibit. Which three statements are true about the output of the show ip

interface brief command? (Choose three.) FastEthernet0/0 is functioning correctly.

The shutdown command has been applied on Serial0/0.

FastEthernet0/0 was configured by the startup-config at bootup.

Serial0/0 is experiencing a Layer 1 network problem.

FastEthernet0/1 is experiencing a Layer 2 network problem.

Because the port is down, Serial0/1 has an IP address that does not show in

the output.

13. Refer to the exhibit. Users on the 10.12.10.0/24 network are unable to access anyone on

the 10.10.10.0/24 network. What two problems exist in the network? (Choose two.)

R2 is using a different version of RIP.

R2 has a missing network statement.

R1 has an incorrect network statement.

R3 has an incorrect network statement.

A routing loop is occurring between all three routers.

14. Refer to the exhibit. The PC is trying to ping router B at 192.168.2.2, but it fails. What

is the problem? The PC is on the wrong subnet.

The default gateway on the PC should be 192.168.1.1.

The default gateway should be 192.168.2.2.

The DNS server is incorrect.

The IP address for Fa0/0 on router A is incorrect.

15. An administrator is creating a lab to simulate a WAN connection. During the setup,the

administrator notices that there are different encapsulation types on each end of the serial

connection. At what layer of the OSI model is this problem occurring? Layer 2

Layer 4

Layer 5

Layer 6

16. Refer to the exhibit. A router initially boots up to ROMMON mode. The administrator

enters the dir flash: command and sees the output that is shown. What should the

administrator do next?

Load a new IOS onto the router by the use of TFTP.

Load a new IOS onto the router via XMODEM.

Boot the router using the reset command in ROMMON.

Erase the file in flash and reboot the router.

17. A PC is able to reach devices that are located both inside and outside the network.

However, when trying to reach an FTP server that is located on the same subnet, the PC

fails to make a connection. The administrator has several other PCs

that are located in the same subnet try a connection to the FTP server and they are

successful. Which troubleshooting tool can be used to determine the problem between the

PC and the FTP server?

cable tester

digital multimeter

protocol analyzer

network analyzer

18. Refer to the exhibit. Which IP address is misconfigured and is causing connectivity

problems between hosts and servers?

HostA

HostB

Server1

Server2

R1 Fa0/0

R1 Fa0/1

19. Which problem is associated with Layer 4 of the OSI model? A firewall is blocking Telnet packets to a host.

A host has an incorrect IP address.

A router has no route to a host.

A host sent a malformed HTTP request.

20. A user is having trouble accessing the Internet. A network administrator begins by

verifying that the IP address of the PC is correctly configured. Next the administrator

pings the default gateway. Based on this information, what type of troubleshooting method

is the administrator employing? top-down

bottom-up

divide-and-conquer

impossible to determine from this information

21. An ISP help desk technician receives a call from a customer who reports that no one at

their business can reach any websites or get their e-mail. After testing the communication

line and finding everything fine, the technician instructs the customer to run nslookup

from the command prompt. What does the technician suspect is causing the customer‟s

problem? improper IP address configuration on the host

hardware failure of the ISR used to connect the customer to the ISP

bad cables or connections at the customer site

failure of DNS to resolve names to IP addresses

ccna dsmbisp

Documents

single autonomous system

exterior routing protocols

lowest administrative distance

interior routing protocols

single ip address

valid ip address

host hardware failure

public ip addresses