chapter-1: organizational philosophy and personnel...

Chapter-1: Organizational Philosophy and Personnel Management

Self Assessment Questions

1. The difference between human resource management and personnel management is

a. Insignificant

b. Marginal

c. Narrow

d. Wide

2. Human Resource Management function does not involve

a. Recruitment

b. Selection

c. Cost control

d. Training

3. Which one is not the specific goal of human resource management?

a. Attracting applicants

b. Separating employees

c. Retaining employees

d. Motivating employees

4. Identify which one is an added specific goal of human resource managementa)

a. Retraining

b. Learning

c. Unlearning

d. Separating

5. Identify the top most goal of human resource management

a. Legal compliance

b. Competitive edge

c. Work force adaptability

d. Productivity

6. To achieve goals organizations require employees

a. Control

b. Direction

c. Commitment

d. Cooperation

7. Human resource management helps improve

a. Production

b. Productivity

c. Profits

d. Power

8. The amount of quality output for amount of input means

a. Productivity

b. Production

c. Sales increase

d. Increase in profits

9. Responding to employees and involving them in decision making is referred to as

a. Quality of work life

b. Autonomy

c. Empowerment

d. Preactio

10. Identify which one is an added specific goal of human resource management

a. Retraining

b. Learning

c. Unlearning

d. Separating

11. Identify the top most goal of human resource management

a. Legal compliance

b. Competitive edge

c. Work force adaptability

d. Productivity

12. To achieve goals organizations require employees

a. Control

b. Direction

c. Commitment

d. Cooperation

13. Human resource management helps improve

a. Production

b. Productivity

c. Profits

d. Power

14. The amount of quality output for amount of input means

a. Productivity

b. Production

c. Sales increase

d. Increase in profits

15. Responding to employees and involving them in decision making is referred to as

a. Quality of work life

b. Autonomy

c. Empowerment

d. Preaction

16. Where ------------or more workers are employed in a factory, then there shall be a Safety Committee in

the factory.

a. 100 or more workers

b. 150 or more workers

c. 200 or more workers

d. 250 or more workers

Answer- d) 250 or more workers.

17. Section 41 G of the Factories Discuss about the Workers Participation in Management .

a. Section 40

b. Section 41 H

c. Section 41 G

d. Section 41 F

Answer- c) Section 41 G

18. Section 19 of Factories Act discusses about the -------------

a. Drinking Water

b. Lighting

c. Latrines and Urinals

d. Artificial Humidification

e) Answer- c) Latrines and Urinals

19. Which of the following jobs are associated with emotional labour? Select all that apply.

a. Flight attendant.

b. Nurse.

c. Data entry worker.

d. Sex worker.

20. Which four mechanisms for the management of emotions are identified by Ashforth and Humphrey?

a. Protecting.

b. Prescribing.

c. Reacting.

d. Normalizing.

Answers for Multiple Choice Questions

1 (d) 2 (c) 3 (b) 4 (a) 5 (d)

6 (c) 7 (b) 8 (ca 9 (a) 10 (b)

11(a) 12(b) 13(d) 14(d) 15(a)

16(d) 17(c) 18(c) 19(d) 20(d)

Chapter-2: Work Motivation


1. The attainment of individual and organizational goals is mutually interdependent and linked by a

common denominator - employee work motivation. Organizational members are motivated to satisfy

their personal goals, and they contribute their efforts to the attainment of organizational objectives as

means of achieving these personal goals.

The passage best supports the statement that motivation -

a. encourages an individual to give priority to personal goals over organizational goals.

b. is crucial for the survival of an individual and organisation.

c. is the product of an individual's physical and mental energy.

d. is the external force which induces an individual to contribute his efforts.

2. Due to enormous profits involved in smuggling, hundreds of persons have been attracted towards this

anti-national activity. Some of them became millionaires overnight. India has a vast coastline both on the

Eastern and Western Coast. It has been a heaven for smugglers who have been carrying on their activities

with great impunity. There is no doubt, that from time to time certain seizures were made by the

enforcement authorities, during raids and ambush but even allowing these losses the smugglers made

huge profits.

The passage best supports the statement that

a. smuggling hampers the economic development of a nation.

b. smuggling ought to be curbed.

c. authorities are taking strict measures to curb smuggling.

d. smuggling is fast increasing in our country owing to the quick profit it entails.

3. Though the waste of time or the expenditure on fashions is very large, yet fashions have come to stay.

They will not go, come what may. However, what is now required is that strong efforts should be made

to displace the excessive craze for fashion from the minds of these youngsters.

The passage best supports the statement that:

a. fashion is the need of the day.

b. the excessive craze for fashion is detrimental to one's personality.

c. the hoard for fashion should be done away with so as not to let down the constructive

development.

d. work and other activities should be valued more than the outward appearance.

4. One of the important humanitarian by-products of technology is the greater dignity and value that it

imparts to human labor. In a highly industrialized society, there is no essential difference between

Brahmin and Dalit, Muslim and Hindu; they are equally useful and hence equally valuable for in the

industrial society individual productivity fixes the size of the pay cheque and this fixes social status.


a. technology decides individual's social status.

b. castes and religions are man-made.

c. human labor has dignity and value.

d. all individuals, irrespective of caste and creed, are born equal.

5. The future of women in India is quite bright and let us hope that they will justify their abilities by

rising to the occasion. Napoleon was right when he declared that by educating the women we can

educate the whole nation. Because a country can never rise without the contribution of 50% of their

population.


a. India is striving hard for the emancipation of women.

b. all women should be well educated.

c. a nation can progress only when women are given equal rights and opportunities as men.

d. women ought to be imparted full freedom to prove their worth and contribute to the progress of

the nation.

6. According to Mitchell, which of the following are characteristics of motivation?

a. Motivation is described, usually, as intentional.

b. Motivation is multifaceted.

c. Motivation is typified as an individual phenomenon.

d. All of these.

7. Maslow and Herzberg are two examples of......... theories of motivation.

a. process

b. content

c. expectancy

d. equity

8. Which one is not type of motivation

a. Incentive

b. growth

c. Achievement

d. All of these

9. Positive motivation does not induce people to do work in the best possible manner and to improve

their performance.

a. True

b. False

10. Motivation is a powerful factor in accomplishing goals in all aspects of an individual’s life.

a. True

b. False

11. Motivating employees to perform beyond expectations, question established views, and aspire to

higher level goals is linked to which styl of leadership?

a. transactional

b. charismatic

c. transformational

d. Both a and b

12. Which one is not the component of motivation?

a. activation

b. persistence

c. intensity

d. growth

13. A form of motivation that involves rewards, both monetary and nonmonetary is often called .............

motivation.

a. incentive

b. power

c. fear

d. growth

14. The arousal theory of motivation would be most useful for understanding the aversive effects of:

a. extrinsic motivation

b. sexual disorders

c. hunger

d. boredom

15. Positive and negative environmental stimuli that motivate behaviour are called………

a. Needs

b. incentives

c. goals

d. drives

16. …………three specific theories were formulated and are the best known: hierarch of needs theory,

Theories X and Y, and the two-factor theory

a. 1980

b. 1985

c. 1950

d. 1960

17. What are the implications for managers? This is best explained by using Maslow’s framework:

a. Theory X assumes that lower-order needs dominate individuals.

b. Theory Y assumes that higher-order needs dominate individuals.

c. McGregor himself held to the belief that Theory Y assumptions were more valid than Theory X.

d. All the above

18. Theory Y assumptions are basically positive.

a. Employees can view work as being as natural as rest or play.

b. People will exercise self-direction and self-control if they are committed to the objectives.

c. The average person can learn to accept, even seek, responsibility.

d. All the above

19. A key element of the flow experience is that its motivation is unrelated to end goals

a. True

b. False

20. In contrast to Goal-Setting theory, which is a cognitive approach, Reinforcement theory is behaviorist

approach. It argues that reinforcement conditions behavior

a. True

b. False


1 (a) 2 (d) 3 (c) 4 (c) 5 (d)

6 (a) 7 (b) 8 (d) 9 (b) 10 (a)

11(c) 12(d) 13(a) 14(d) 15(a)

16(c) 17(d) 18(d) 19(a) 20(a)

Chapter-3: Profile of Indian Managers


1. One can become a better listener by controlling distractions, becoming actively involved, identifying

important facts, and

a. Separating facts from opinions

b. Interrupting with quick replies or your own opinions

c. Asking hostile questions

d. Capitalizing on lag time by thinking of tasks that you have to complete

2. Research has shown that groups arrive at decisions in a predictable pattern. In which of the following

stages of group problem-solving, the members of the group reconcile their differences and the outcome of

the group efforts and the group’s social structure become apparent?

a. Orientation

b. Conflict

c. Emergence

d. Reinforcement

3. Changing environments change the ingredients for success. What was once accepted as recipe for

success is no more accepted today. Today’s successful companies

a. Use teams and collaborative work groups to arrive at quick decisions

b. Limit decisions to a few managers at the of a formal hierarchy

c. Realize that the traditional management structure still works best

d. Make all important decisions by going through a painstaking, careful, time consuming process

4. Responding to criticism without resorting to either “fight” or “flight” takes a lot of skill. Following are

the guidelines to responding to criticism positively except

a. Recognize the value of constructive criticism

b. Give the power and decisions making authority to the other person who is criticizing

c. Engage in perspective taking or role reversal

d. Acknowledge criticism that focuses on your behavior

5. The most general statement of the speech is called “core statement” and the least general statements are

called

(a) Main points

(b) Sub points

(c) Trivial points

(d) Extra points

6. Which of the following is not the main goal while responding to a request that involves a potential

sale?

a. Responding to the immediate request

b. Conveying a good impression of yourself

c. Conveying a good impression of the firm

d. Encouraging the sale

e. Composing a “personal” reply.

7. Listening, like much of human behavior, tends to follow consistent patterns. Most of us develop certain

bad listening habits that eventually create a pattern. Which of the following is not a common bad

listening habit?

a. Faking attention

b. Listening only for facts

c. Avoiding distraction

d. Avoiding difficult and uninteresting material

e. Focusing on delivery.

8. Non-verbal communication differs from verbal communication because it

a. Is less reliable

b. Is composed of words and grammar

c. Has few rules and often occurs unconsciously

d. Conveys less meaning than words

e. Contains no emotional gestures.

9. There are many types of communication barriers. For the purpose of analysis, they are placed into

various categories. Which of the following is not a problem caused by the sender?

a. Lack of sufficient information the sender has about the subject

b. Confusion in comprehending a message

c. Confusion about the order of presentation

d. Lack of familiarity with the audience

e. Lack of experience in speaking and writing.

10. Arguments cannot be negotiated, only proposals can. This demands that emotions be kept under

control. Negotiating is a delicate process and a lot of thinking must go into it, both before it actually gets

underway and while it is going on. Which of the following actions do not facilitate a win-win approach?

a. Determining the needs of both parties

b. Developing a list of possible solutions

c. Choosing the most appropriate solution

d. Forcing the other party to accept your views

e. Keeping emotions under control.

11. A skillful manager will attempt to say “no” in such a way that the reader supports the decision and is

willing to maintain and continue a positive relationship with the company. What kind of a closing should

a bad-news message use?

a. A cordial closing

b. An apologetic closing

c. An indifferent closing

d. A negative closing that matches with the bad-news content of the message

e. A critical closing.

12. Groups, follow many methods to take decisions. In which of the following techniques, members are

encouraged to generate as many ideas as they can about a ic and no idea is rejected at the initial stage and

finally, the group returns to all the ideas and adopts those that seem most feasible or most useful?

a. Brainstorming

b. Reflective thinking

c. Consensus

d. Nominal group technique

e. Checklist technique.

13. An effective job search begins with careful career planning, a process that includes self-analysis, career

analysis, and

a. Job analysis

b. Future analysis

c. Profit analysis

d. Remuneration analysis

e. Family analysis.

14. Listening is the most frequent, perhaps the most important type of on-the-job communication. But,

there are many barriers to the effective listening. Which of the following is not an attitudinal barrier to

listening?

a. Prejudices

b. Preoccupation with other matters

c. Unclear, nonspecific message

d. A casual attitude

e. Egocentrism.

15. Unspoken part of the communication closely follows the spoken part of the communication. When we

are speaking, our eyes also communicate a lot. While speaking to somebody, some times we maintain eye

contact; sometimes we won’t be able to maintain eye contact. Maintaining eye contact is generally

perceived as an indication of

a. Honesty

b. Ruthlessness

c. Sadness

d. Happiness

e. Aggression.

16. There are various forms of communication. They are either suggestive and persuasive or directive or

authoritative in nature. Which of the following purposes of communication is not persuasive and

suggestive in nature?

a. Coordination of tasks

b. Sharing of information

c. Problem solving

d. Information about procedures

e. Conflict resolution.

17. Which of the following interviews becomes necessary when there are disruptive problems that need

to be curtailed?

a. Employment interview

b. Counseling interview

c. Performance appraisal interview

d. Disciplinary interview

e. Persuasive interview.

18. As in some persuasive letters, the primary purpose of a collection letter is to get action - in this case,

payment. A secondary goal is to maintain a customer’s goodwill. The following sentence “Keep your part

of the agreement.”

“Send your check today”, is used in which of the following stages of collection series?

a. Reminder

b. Appeal

c. Repeal

d. Inquiry

e. Urgency.

19. Which of the following is not true regarding favorable response to an order letter?

Orders can be acknowledged by shipping the order, no acknowledgement letter is required in such case

a. A letter of acknowledgement is required if the orders cannot be filled quickly

b. When sending individualized letters of acknowledgement is not possible, companies typically

send a copy of the sales order

c. Routine acknowledgements require individualized letters

d. Most companies which develop the habit of saying “yes” to all orders, their letters become too

artificial.

20. The minutes of the previous meeting is sometimes circulated along with the agenda. If the minutes is

not sent along with the agenda, it is read out by which of the following, when the meeting starts?

a. Manager

b. Director

c. Chairperson

d. Secretary

e. Chief executive officer.


1 (a) 2 (c) 3 (a) 4 (b) 5 (d)

6 (c) 7 (b) 8 (a) 9 (b) 10 (d)

11(a) 12(a) 13(a) 14(c) 15(a)

16(d) 17(d) 18(b) 19(d) 20(d)

Chapter-4: The Indian Worker


1. A system by which a society ranks categories of people in a hierarchy is called

a. stereotyping.

b. social mobility.

c. social stratification.

d. social inequality.

2. What system of castes is composed of Brahmin, Kshatriya, Vaishya, and Shudra?

a. the Indian caste system

b. the South African system

c. the British class system

d. the British estate system

3. In 1948 in South Africa, the white minority ensured their political control over the black majority by

relying on a policy of racial separation called

a. ukuhleleleka.

b. apartheid.

c. the estate system.

d. the slavery system.

4. Social stratification based largely on individual achievement is called a

a. caste system.

b. class system.

c. estate system.

d. classless society.

5. What is the key reason why classes are less well defined than castes?

a. There are many pure caste systems, but few pure class systems.

b. There are many pure class systems, but few pure caste systems.

c. low status consistency

d. low social mobility

6. In the United Kingdom, a more rigid stratification exists in the importance attached to

a. accent.

b. family names.

c. clothes.

d. material possessions.

7. Although Soviet officials claimed they had engineered the first classless society following the Russian

Revolution of 1917, analysts outside the Soviet Union pointed out that the jobs people held in the former

Soviet Union formed a four-level ranking. Which category of workers was at the top?

a. manual workers

b. rural peasantry

c. high government officials

d. Soviet intelligentsia

8. What do sociologists call a shift in the social position of large numbers of people due more to changes

in society itself than to individual efforts?

a. perestroika

b. bureaucratization

c. structural social mobility

d. social stratification

9. What is the Davis-Moore thesis?

a. Social stratification does more harm than good.

b. Social stratification has beneficial consequences for the operation of a society.

c. Social stratification no longer exists.

d. The top priority of government should be to reduce social inequality.

10. What was Karl Marx's response to capitalism?

a. He embraced it.

b. He called for the overthrow of capitalist society.

c. He favored working within the system for reforms.

d. He warned that capitalism would become so successful it could never be stopped.

11. Which of the following defines blue-collar occupations?

a. lower-prestige work involving mostly mental activity

b. lower-prestige work involving mostly manual labor

c. higher-prestige work involving mostly mental activity

d. higher-prestige work involving new information technology

12. Max Weber viewed social stratification as a complex interplay of all of the following dimensions,

except

a. status or prestige.

b. class or economic position.

c. cultural values.

d. political power.

13. A composite ranking based on various dimensions of social inequality defines

a. socioeconomic status.

b. status consistency.

c. social stratification.

d. status inconsistency.

14. What does the Kuznets curve reveal?

a. The emergence of an industrial society gradually increases social inequality.

b. There is never a levelling of economic differences.

c. Greater technological sophistication is always accompanied by less social stratification.

d. The emergence of an industrial society gradually reduces social inequality.

15. The most pronounced inequality of income exists in

a. high-income capitalist societies.

b. centralized socialist economies.

c. low-income countries of Africa and Latin America.

d. the former Soviet Union.

16. Several forces are extending older workers' careers. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

a. The improved health of older people, combined with the decreased physical labor required by

many jobs, makes working longer a viable option.

b. The acute shortage of qualified younger workers has resulted in employers offering increased

incentives to older workers to remain on the job.

c. Age discrimination laws and the outlawing of mandatory retirement ages have limited

organizations' ability to induce older workers to retire.

d. Many workers fear Social Security will be cut, and they do not have adequate employer-

sponsored pensions to cover anticipated costs.

17. Job posting is:

a. the process of communicating information about a job vacancy on company bulletin boards and

anywhere else the organization communicates with employees.

b. advertising jobs in print media that are designed to create a generally favorable impression of the

organization.

c. posting paid advertisements at career services to attract people who are searching for jobs.

d. hiring an executive research firm for managerial or top positions.

18. The first step in the human resource planning process is:

a. forecasting.

b. goal setting.

c. program implementation.

d. program evaluation.

19. An advantage of statistical forecasting methods is that:

a. under the right conditions, they provide predictions that are much more precise than judgmental

methods.

b. they are particularly useful in dynamic environments.

c. they are particularly useful if important events that occur in the labor market have no historical

precedent.

d. in the event of a legal dispute, they are easily understood by juries or a judge.

20. The process of determining whether there are any subgroups, whose proportion in a given job

category within a company is substantially different from their proportion in the relevant labor market is

called:

a. adverse treatment analysis.

b. workforce utilization review.

c. subgroup reconciliation.

d. discrimination analyses.


1 (c) 2 (a) 3 (b) 4 (b) 5 ()

6 (a) 7 (c) 8 (c) 9 (b) 10 (b)

11(b) 12(c) 13(a) 14(a) 15(c)

16(d) 17(b) 18(c) 19(c) 20(b)

Chapter-5: Personnel Function Its Scope and Organization


1. Strategic stretch involves:

a. The fit between the organisation and its environment.

b. Creating new opportunities by stretching and exploiting capabilities in new ways.

c. The skills of the senior management.

d. Utilizing all the resources of an organisation to their full capacity.

2. What are core competences?

a. Resources which critically underpin competitive advantage and that others cannot obtain.

b. Activities and processes needed to meet customers' minimum requirements and therefore to

continue to exist.

c. Key skills required for success in a particular business.

d. Activities that underpin competitive advantage and are difficult for competitors to imitate or

obtain.

3. The value chain attempts to identify those activities which add value to:

a. The organization’s stakeholders.

b. The senior strategic managers in the organisation.

c. The organization’s shareholders.

d. The customer or final user.

4. The value chain is composed of primary & support activities. Which answer below provides the correct

components for primary activities?

a. Service, human resource management, marketing & sales, operations and outbound logistics.

b. Marketing & Sales, Operations, Outbound Logistics and Service.

c. Procurement, Firm Infrastructure, Human Resource Management, Technology Development and

Marketing & Sales.

d. Inbound Logistics, Operations, Outbound Logistics, Marketing & Sales and Service.

5. What is the purpose of an activity map?

a. A system to facilitate better time-planning.

b. It is used in business process reengineering to show how the different activities of an

organisation are linked together.

c. It is used to identify and understand strategic capability by mapping how the different activities

of an organisation are linked together.

d. A list of activities undertaken by an organisation.

6. Competitive advantage through linkages between the organisation and its value network can be

achieved by:

a. Vertical integration.

b. Adopting common quality standards internally and externally (with suppliers).

c. Examining supplier specifications, common merchandising, applying quality management

principles or by collaborating with other organizations in the form of strategic alliances or joint

ventures.

d. Outsourcing customer service to India.

7. Cost efficiency is determined by which of the following drivers?

a. Supply Costs, Experience, Product/Process Design and Economies of Scale.

b. Supply Costs & Economies of Scale.

c. Product/Process Design and Economies of Scale.

d. Experience.

8. Robustness of strategic capabilities is more likely when:

a. Linkages in the value network are exploited.

b. Core competences are complex, ambiguous and dependent on culture/history.

c. Competences lie with specific individuals.

d. Core competences lie in separate parts of the organization’s value chain.

9. Which types of organizational knowledge are a source of competitive advantage?

a. Explicit knowledge which is classified and formalized in a planned and systematic way.

b. Personal knowledge which is hard to communicate and formalize.

c. Customer databases, market research reports, management reports.

d. Collective and shared experience accumulated through systems, routines and activities of sharing

across the organisation.

10. In the resource-based view of strategy, what type of strategic capabilities are the source of sustainable

competitive advantage?

a. Unique resources and core competences.

b. Dynamic capabilities.

c. Operational excellence.

d. Strategic capabilities which are valuable to buyers, rare, robust and non-substitutable.

11. What are the three criteria for the robustness of strategic capability?

a. Core competences, unique resources and dynamic capabilities.

b. Complexity, causal ambiguity and value to customers.

c. Complexity, causal ambiguity and rarity.

d. Complexity, causal ambiguity and culture/history.

12. Industry/sector benchmarking compares:

a. Organizational performance between firms/public sector organizations in different industries or

sectors.

b. Organizational performance between firms/public sector organizations in the same industry or

sector.

c. Organizational performance between firms/public sector organizations in different countries.

d. Organizational performance between different divisions of the firm.

13. Best in Class Benchmarking seeks to assess organizational performance against:

a. The nearest geographical competitor.

b. The competitor who is 'best in class' wherever that may be.

c. The competitor who is the best in the industry.

d. The nearest principal competitor.

14. The purpose of a SWOT analysis is to analyze:

a. The business environment in which an organisation operates.

b. The strategic capability of an organisation.

c. The business environment and the strategic capability of an organisation relative to its

competitors.

d. External and organizational environments.

15. SWOT should be:

a. A general list of issues under each heading.

b. Focused on key issues and as specific as possible.

c. Completed when an analysis of the external environment has been conducted.

d. SWOT analysis is the best strategic management framework for analyzing the competitive

positioning of an organization

16. What is the meaning of 'toxicity'? Is it:

Emotional pain

Physical pain

Psychological pain

A state of well being

17. Post modernist ideas have impacted on our understanding of the role of rationality in workplaces by

recognizing:

a. One type of rationality prevails

b. More than one type of rationality prevails in work organizations

c. That managements type of rationality is the only true one to exist at work

d. Employees must learn to respect managements version of rationality at work

18. According to Cloke and Goldsmith the biggest change to the history of management is:

a. Decline in hierarchy and bureaucracy

b. The continuation of autocratic management

c. Workers directives

d. Team working

19. A philosophy of management…

a. Doesn't exist

b. Is the assumptions managers make about people

c. Is more than a single ingredient

d. Is a style of management

20. Treating employees as people or as an economic resources is:

a. A choice all managers have to make

b. Mutually exclusive

c. A question of balance which will be affected by the context of each organisation

d. A matter of luck


1 (b) 2 (d) 3 (d) 4 (d) 5 (c)

6 (c) 7 (a) 8 (a) 9 (d) 10 (d)

11(d) 12(b) 13(b) 14(c) 15(b)

16(a) 17(b) 18(a) 19(c) 20(c)

Chapter-6: Planning


1. Identify the best definition of planning.

a. The core activity of planners and planning departments.

b. Setting an organization’s objectives and the means of reaching them.

c. An integrated process, in which plans are formulated, carried out and controlled.

d. Devising ways of achieving the objectives of an organization.

2. Which of these statements best summarizes the meanings of management?

a. Only people in formal organizations act as managers

b. Only a few experienced people in an organization are managers

c. Management is both a general human activity and a specialized occupation

d. Management is a job conducted by those with special training

3. The head of a division in a company who is responsible for the production, marketing and finance of

this division and for generally ensuring its profitability is known as what type of manager?

a. First-line manager

b. Functional manager

c. Supervisor

d. General manager

4. A staff manager is someone who performs which of these functions?

a. Is responsible for recruiting and selecting new staff

b. Manages the staff of the organization

c. Deals with customer complaints

d. Is in charge of support functions such as finance, personnel or legal matters

5. A supervisor in a car production plant is an example of what kind of manager?

a. Support manager

b. Middle manager

c. Top manager

d. First-line manager

6. The function of arranging the work to be done and assigning tasks, authority and resources to people

so that they can work to support the purposes of the organization is known as:

a. Planning

b. Controlling

c. Leading

d. Organizing

7. When a marketing manager tells a subordinate that she did an excellent job when she made a

presentation to senior management, what function is that manager performing?

a. Organizing

b. Leading

c. Controlling

d. Planning

8. Rosemary Stewart studied the pattern of managers' work. Which of these statements best represents

the main conclusion of her research?

a. Most managers spent a lot of time thinking and carefully analyzing problems

b. Most managers spent a lot of time working alone

c. Managers typically work in a fragmented way, with many interruptions

d. There was little variation between managers in their working patterns

9. According to Mintzberg, all of the following are examples of the interpersonal roles of a manager,

except:

a. Leading

b. Acting as a liaison

c. Acting as a symbol

d. Negotiating

10. According to Mintzberg, which of the following is an example of the decisional roles which a manager

plays?

a. Monitoring progress

b. Acting as a spokesperson for the organization

c. Leading

d. Allocating some of the resources of the organization

11. Which of these statements best describes the idea of the context within which managers work?

a. It represents factors both inside and outside the organization which influence the manager, and

which the manager can also try to influence

b. It is outside the organization, and therefore beyond the manager's control

c. Managers can easily act without referring to vague external things like the context

d. The context determines what the manager can do

12. We identify three levels of planning. What are they?

a. Strategic, administrative and functional

b. Top, middle and bottom

c. Operational, intermediate and strategic

d. Headquarters, divisional and local

13. What is the planning horizon?

a. The time period within which uncertainty is very low.

b. The maximum time for which managers can make plans.

c. The time ahead for which there is no information.

d. The time between making a plan and putting it into effect.

14. We identified several internal benefits of objectives, goals and a sense of mission. Which is not

included?

a. Basis of control

b. Motivation

c. Basis of plans and decisions

d. Basis to resolve disputes

15. A good objective should clarify the desired result; i) enable achievement to be measured; and iii) need

not specify a time scale. Which of these statements is true?

a. (ii) only

b. (ii) and (iii)

c. (iii) only

d. and (ii)

16. Power is the ability to influence the behavior of others

a. True

b. False

17. Referent power refers to a person's capacity to influence others owing to specific skills and abilities.

a. True

b. False

18. Expert power refers to a person’s capacity to influence others owing to specific skills and abilities. If

you can influence behavior simply because you are liked or admired, you have referent power.

Knowledge power is a type of situational and structural power.

a. True

b. False

19. When used effectively, empowerment strategies can lead to increased employee motivation and job

satisfaction.

a. True

b. False

20. Interpersonal conflict occurs when a person is confronted with several mutually exclusive options and

has difficulty making a decision.

a. True

b. False

Answers for Self Assessment Questions

1. (b) 2.(c) 3.(d) 4.(d) 5.(d)

6. (d) 7.(b) 8.(c) 9.(d) 10.(d)

11. (a) 12.(c) 13.(d) 14.(d) 15.(d)

16. (a) 17.(b) 18.(a) 19.(a) 20.(b)

Chapter-7: Selection– Process and Methods


1. Selection, either internal or external, is a deliberate effort of organizations to select a …………….

of personnel from a large number of applicants.

a) not fixed number

b) fixed number

c) not variable number

d) variable number

2. In a sense the …………… is a highly structured interview in which the questions are standardized

and determined in advance.

a) initial interview of the candidate

b) application blank

c) employment tests

d) None of these

3. This test is used to find out the candidate’s intelligence.

a) aptitude test

b) interest test

c) intelligence test

d) None of these

4. Induction is not helps to employee to adapt to the organization easily in short period.

a) True

b) False

5. ……………….is used to measure the characteristics that constitute personality.

a) personality test

b) achievement test

c) interest test

d) None of these

6. Preliminary interview becomes a necessity, when a ………… of candidates apply for a job.

a) small number

b) large number

c) Both a and b

d) None of these

7. ………….. are widely used to measure the talent and ability of a candidate to learn a new job or

skill.

a) Aptitude or potential ability tests

b) Interest test

c) Intelligence test

d) None of these

8. Organization tends to hire the best suitable candidate for the job in which they have vacancy or

opening.

a) True

b) False

9. In addition to psychological analysis employers can use ……….. designed to measure our capacity

to perform in a particular way.

a) personality tests

b) aptitude tests

c) Both a and b

d) None of these

10. ……………… is the extent to which an instrument measures what it intends to measure.

a) Validity

b) Reliability

c) Preparation

d) None of these

11. The objective of interview is to get information from interviewee to know about his skills and

capabilities.

a) True

b) False

12. Exit interview is not taken to find out why the employee is leaving the company.

a) True

b) False

13. The candidate has to give detailed information about his background, special interest, etc.

a) Depth Interview

b) Stress Interview

c) Individual Interview

d) None of these

14……………. is an oral interview which can be arranged at any place.

a) Individual Interview

b) Informal interview

c) Formal Interview

d) Panel Interview

15. Employee outsourcing is not a practice that many companies around the world are adopting for

to achieve greater organizational flexibility, improved efficiency, reduced overheads and a hassle

free HR management.

a) True

b) False

16. Employee Outsourcing can be a cost effective alternative to the expense and administrative

burden of a traditional ……………….. relationship.

a) man-man

b) employer-employee

c) customer-costomer

d) None of these

17. New employees are having dreams about some organization and the cultures, but the actual

situation may not be the same as they are thinking.

a) True

b) False

18. Placement is not defined as “the determination of the job to which an accepted candidate is to be

assigned and his assignment to that job.

a) True

b) False

19. Lowering of costs has helped many companies reap immense financial benefits.

a) True

b) False

20. A new employee must be provided operational knowledge that is specific to the position and

location.

a) True

b) False


1. (b) 2.(b) 3.(c) 4.(b) 5.(a) 6. (b) 7.(a)

8. (a) 9.(b) 10.(a) 11.(a) 12.(b) 13.(a) 14.(b)

15. (b) 16.(b) 17.(a) 18.(b) 19.(a) 20. (a)

Chapter-8: Training and Development


1. Organizations develop through training and development which bring benefits to employees as well as

the organizations. Which of the following would not be regarded as a common feature that would result

from training in today's modern workplace?

a. Same job for life

b. Improve chances of promotion

c. Be able to move more easily between jobs and other organizations

d. Develop a range of transferable skills

2. Training needs analysis can take place at organizational, task, and person levels. At the organizational

level, it broadly examines what are the organization’s strategic plans and where is training and

development needed to fit into the planning. Organizational training needs generally occur when:

a. information technology systems need upgrading.

b. there is some kind of barrier hindering the achievement of organizational aims and objectives

which is best removed by training.

c. government provides additional funding.

d. other competing organizations are conducting extensive training programmers.

3. The first phase of training programmers is a training needs analysis. What does this aim to do?

a. Produce selection criteria

b. Establish the training resources required

c. Identify the training objectives

d. All of these

4. In his contribution to understanding learning and learning outcomes, Gagne produced six types of

learning related to human performance which he called capabilities, but which of the following is correct?

a. Cognitive strategies

b. Motor Skills

c. Basic learning

d. All of these

5. Training and development is the framework for helping employees to develop their personal and

organizational skills, knowledge, and abilities.

a. True

b. False

6. Anderson's theory of skill development distinguishes between declarative and procedural knowledge.

Procedural knowledge refers to knowing how to do something, but what is declarative knowledge?

a. Automatic task processing

b. Muscle memory

c. Factual knowledge about a task

d. Associative knowledge of the task

7. When evaluating interventions, organizations often resort to the lowest level of Kirkpatrick’s model

and only gather reaction level data. However, reaction level data can be improved by asking trainees:

a. how difficult they found the training.

b. how much they enjoyed the training.

c. how difficult and useful they found the training.

d. how useful and enjoyable they found the training.

8. Transfer of learning to the workplace needs to be made for the training programme to have been

successful. Which of the following can hinder this process?

a. Low self-efficacy

b. Ridicule from colleagues

c. Lack of managerial support

d. All of these

9. Job descriptions should be clear and concise and may serve as a major training tool for the

identification of guidelines.

a. True

b. False

10. The concept of communities of practice (CoP) has grown in the past decade and can evolve formally

or informally using communication and information technology. What is an appropriate description of a

CoP?

a. A gathering of experts in a particular field who allow their work to be disseminated over the

internet

b. Groups of people who interact regularly on issues important to them and share best practice for

their mutual benefit

c. An individual who is willing to disseminate relevant information to interested parties

d. A workplace based group willing to communicate with others using the internet and intranet

11. Methods for evaluation are pre-and post- surveys of customer comments cards, the establishment of a

cost/benefit analysis outlining our expenses and returns, and an increase in customer satisfaction and

profits.

a. True

b. False

12. A planned program designed to …………the knowledge, proficiency, ability and skills of district

personnel is vital to the overall administration of district programs.

a. decrease

b. increase

c. Both a and b

d. None of these

13. The training of district employees should be approached systematically to avoid duplication of effort

and to get the most out of district training dollars.

a. True

b. False

14. Training should be accomplished whenever possible through self development or ……………

training.

a. off-the-job

b. on-the-job

c. the-job

d. none of these

15. Under this method, skilled co-workers or supervisors instruct employees and they learn the job by

personal observation and practice.

a. Job Instructing Training (JIT)

b. On-The –Job Training

c. Off the job training

d. None of these

16. During the training period the trainee can earn pay and learners pay usually increase automatically as

their skills improve.

a. True

b. False

17. This method involves teaching by a superior about the knowledge and skills of a job to the junior or

subordinate.

a. True

b. False

18. The coach is usually either a ………….. executive or a behavioral scientist with extensive experience as

a management consultant.

a. successful informer

b. unsuccessful former

c. successful former

d. None of these

19. Resistance to change arises due to deferring perception, personalities and needs. If the employee

perceives the change is unfavorable to them, they resist to the change.

a. True

b. False

20. OD is also portrayed as an approach to change that deals with both the ‘hard elements’

a. strategy

b. structure,

c. processes

d. All of these


1. (a) 2.(b) 3.(c) 4.(d) 5.(a) 6. (b) 7.(c)

8. (d) 9.(a) 10.(b) 11.(a) 12.(b) 13.(a) 14.(b)

15. (b) 16.(b) 17.(a) 18.(c) 19.(a) 20. (d)

Chapter-9: Performance Appraisal


1. All of the following are phases of career development except

a. Performance Phase

b. Direction Phase

c. Assessment Phase

d. Development Phase

2. Performance Appraisal is a primary HRM process that links employees and organizations and

provides input for other processes through these means

a. Identification, Measurement, Management

b. Assessment, Direction, Development

c. Recruitment, Selection, Onboarding

d. Skill, Effort, Responsibility

3. Which of the following is not a type of performance appraisal?

a. Customer appraisals.

b. Appraisal of managers.

c. Team based appraisal.

d. 45 degree appraisal.

4. Why might an organization use multiple systems of appraisal? Select all that apply.

a. Different systems for different part of the organization.

b. To separate reward and non-reward aspects of appraisal.

c. Different systems for different organizational groups.

d. To provide employees with a choice of methods.

5. Which of the following is not a reason why performance appraisal is used by organizations?

a. To determine promotion.

b. To motivate employees.

c. Because it is a legal requirement.

d. To clarify and define performance expectations.

6. A good potential appraisal system provides opportunities continuously for the employee to know his

strengths and weaknesses.

a. True

b. False

7. Which of the following statements about performance management systems is not true?

a. They cause stress for employees.

b. Performance management systems are ineffective.

c. Commitment from line managers is questionable.

d. They improve organizational performance in the long-term.

8. Performance management in government is the managerial activity necessary to promote well-

performing policy management and service delivery.

a. True

b. False

9. Which of the following statements about performance appraisal is not true?

a. Companies use appraisal to encourage employee loyalty and commitment.

b. Performance appraisal has become a tool to motivate and control workers.

c. Performance appraisal reduces managerial control.

d. Employees may be appraised on both objective and subjective measures.

10. What is the meaning of upward appraisal?

a. Line managers rate the performance of employees.

b. Employees rate the performance of their peers.

c. Senior managers rate the performance of line managers.

d. Employees rate the performance of their manager.

11. What is meant by 360 degree appraisal?

a. A system where every employee rates another employee chosen at random.

b. A system where the line manager rates subordinates simultaneously.

c. A system where feedback is obtained from peers subordinates and supervisors.

d. A system where a senior manager rates all line managers simultaneously.

12. Performance planning is not the first crucial component of any performance management process

which forms the basis of performance appraisals.

a. True

b. False

13. The process of evaluating an employee’s current and/or past performance relative to his or her

performance standards is called _____.

a. recruitment

b. employee selection

c. performance appraisal

d. organizational development

14. When goal setting, performance appraisal, and development are consolidated into a single, common

system designed to ensure that employee

Performance supports a company’s strategy, it is called _____.

a. strategic organizational development

b. performance management

c. performance appraisal

d. human resource management

15. Performance management combines performance appraisal with _____ to ensure that employee

performance is supportive of corporate goals.

a. goal setting

b. training

c. incentive systems

d. all of the above

16. Managers following a performance management approach to appraisals will usually meet with

employees on a _____ basis.

a. weekly

b. monthly

c. bi-annual

d. yearly

17. Managers following a traditional performance appraisal system will typically

meet with employees on a _____ basis.

a. daily

b. weekly

c. monthly

d. yearly

18. The component of an effective performance management process that communicates the

organization’s higher level goals throughout the organization and then translates these goals into

departmental goals is called _____.

a. role clarification

b. goal alignment

c. developmental goal setting

d. direction sharing

19. Performance Appraisal helps in chalking out compensation packages for employees.

a. True

b. False

20. A good potential appraisal system provides opportunities continuously for the employee to know his

strengths and weaknesses.

a. True

b. False


1. (a) 2.(a) 3.(d) 4.(c) 5.(c) 6. (a) 7.(d)

8. (a) 9.(c) 10.(d) 11.(c) 12.(b) 13.(c) 14.(b)

15. (d) 16.(a) 17.(d) 18.(d) 19.(a) 20. (a)

Chapter-10: Internal Mobility


What is a major issue pertaining to the nature-nurture controversy?

a. All children are believed to acquire skills in the same sequence, although rates of progress differ

from child to child.

b. Development occurs in a smooth progression as skills develop and parents and the environment

provide experiences.

c. Young children demonstrate patterns of behavior or thinking, called schemes, which older

children and adults also use in dealing with objects in the world.

d. Is development predetermined at birth, by hereditary factors, or does experience and other

environmental factors affect it?

2. According to Piaget, adaptation is the process of adjusting schemes in response to the environment by

means of assimilation and_____________.

a. Accommodation

b. Schemes

c. Disequilibrium

d. Constructivism

3. According to Piaget, planned problem solving moves from trial and error to a planned approach at the

end of what stage of development?

a. Formal operations

b. sensorimotor

c. Concrete operational

d. preoperational

4. How did Vygotsky view cognitive development?

a. He saw development as genetically predetermined.

b. He saw development as subject to mutations during its course.

c. He proposed that intellectual development can be understood only in terms of the historical and

cultural contexts children experience.

d. He saw development as a sequence of learning stimulus-response associations.

5. Vygotsky differed from Piaget in that:

a. Vygotsky’s theory suggests that learning precedes development.

b. Piaget spent his career in the Stalinist Soviet Union.

c. Piaget believed that learning precedes development.

d. Piaget believed that environmental stimuli contributed to development.

6. According to Vygotsky, young children use what mechanism to turn shared knowledge into their

personal knowledge?

a. Autonomous morality

b. Private speech

c. Conservation of energy

d. Sensorimotor behavior

7. Piaget found that children did not conscientiously use and follow rules until

a. age 15

b. they were in the zone of proximal development.

c. age 10 - 12

d. the age of concrete operations.

8. Research on elements of Piaget’s theories generally supports his ideas, with one key exception. What is

this exception?

a. development precedes learning

b. different children pass through stages at different rates

c. Young children demonstrate patterns of thinking that older children and adults also use.

d. conventional morality precedes postconventional morality.

9. When it came to asking children questions pertaining to moral development, Kohlberg, like Piaget,

___________.

a. was concerned not so much with the direction of the child’s answer as with the reasoning behind

it.

b. was mainly concerned with the direction of the child's answer.

c. believed that cognitive structures were largely inherited.

d. disagreed with Erikson on the stage theory of development.

10. Erikson hypothesized that people pass through eight psychosocial stages in their lifetimes. What

happens at each stage?

a. The person's family will have a formal "rite of passage" ritual at each of the eight stages.

b. At each stage, development does not stagnate.

c. At each stage, there are crises or critical issues to be resolved.

d. The id transposes with the ego.

11. Vygotskian theory most directly supports cooperative learning strategies that are evidenced by

a. One student helping all others to learn

b. Students helping one another to learn

c. Students are role models for other students

d. Students in competition

12. According to Piagetian theory, the most essential component of constructivism is when students

a. Are given assistance to create physical constructs through experiences and interactions

b. Actively experience emotional uplifts through learning

c. Are given guidance to build positive social interactions through learning

d. Actively build meaningful understandings through experiences and interactions

13. The Zone of proximal development is the level of development

a. Just below where the student is presently functioning

b. Just exactly where the student is presently functioning

c. Out of the zone of where the student is presently functioning.

d. Just above where a student is presently functioning

14. In Erikson's Stage III (initiative vs guilt) ,the behavior typical of children would be

a. Building of a self image

b. Depending on others to lead the way

c. Exploring of mental and social behavior

d. Exploring physical and social behavior

15. Kohlberg 's contribution to moral reasoning as advanced from Piaget's theory was that his work with

children involved

a. Posing Moral dilemmas

b. Asking parents

c. Observing children in action

d. Creating game-like situations

16. This kind of employee movement within an organization is known as internal mobility.

a. external mobility

b. internal mobility

c. organizational mobility

d. both (a) and (b).

17. Internal mobility does not includes:

a. Promotion

b. Transfer

c. Demotion

d. Motivation

18. Promotion is the upward reassignment of an individual in an organization’s hierarchy, accompanied

by increased responsibilities, enhanced status, and usually with increased income, though not always so.

a. Promotion

b. Separation

c. Transfer

d. Demotion

19. Organizations have not adopted a variety of criteria for promoting employees, depending to a large

extent on the company culture.

a. True

b. False

20. A ticklish policy formulation area that has often resulted in conflict is that of determination of an

employee’s seniority.

a. True

b. False


1. (b) 2.(d) 3.(d) 4.(d) 5.(c) 6. (c) 7.(a)

8. (a) 9.(d) 10.(d) 11.(d) 12.(b) 13.(b) 14.(c)

15. (b) 16.(b) 17.(d) 18.(a) 19.(b) 20. (a)

Chapter-11: Wages and Salary Administration


1. Compensation system should reduce ________.

a. Compensation structure

b. Employee turnover

c. Motivation

d. None of these

2. The wage and salary administration is concerned with the financial aspect of need, reward and….


b. Employee turnover

c. Motivation

d. None of these

3. Documents used for wage analysis are………….


b. internal equity

c. neutrality

d. Job cards , Wage sheets

4. Basic purpose of Wage and Salary administration is to establish and maintain an equitable :-

a. Wage and Salary structure

b. Compensation structure

c. Indirect compensation

d. Non-monetary compensation

5. Providing equal pay for jobs of equal nature based on job evaluation ensures _______ in compensation

administration.

a. external equity

b. internal equity

c. neutrality

d. None of the above

6. Wages of security men in a production unit comes under :-

a. Indirect labour

b. labour

c. direct labour

d. None of these

7. In Payroll process, Cost of Living Index provides the basis for calculating………

a. A.P.

b. D.A.

c. P.A.

d. A.D.

8. Indirect compensation mainly acts as :-

a. Maintenance factor

b. labor

c. direct labor

d. None of these

9. To maintain best manpower in the organization, Management Incentive Plan based on the individual

performance is necessary.

a. True b. False

10. Payment to out workers is done on ________ basis.

a. Monthly

b. Day

c. Year

d. None of these

11. Wages which are usually positioned above the minimum wages but below the living wages are

described as

a. real wages

b. fair wages

c. minimum wages

d. living wages

12. Wages usually adjusted for the prevailing rate of inflation is called

a. real wages

b. fair wages

c. minimum wages

d. living wages

13. When there are several pay grades in a pay structure, it is called

a. traditional pay structure

b. broad-graded structure

c. job family structure


14. Which of the following factors is not an external influencing factor in wages and salary

administration?

a. Cost of living

b. Labor legislations

c. Labor market conditions

d. Ability to pay

15. Which of the following factors is not an external influencing factor in wages and salary

administration?

a. Capacity of the organization to pay

b. Corporate policies and philosophy

c. Performance evaluation report


16. Payment of cash rewards for the work extracted from the employee is normally called

a. direct compensation

b. indirect compensation

c. non-monetary compensation


17. Stock option and performance shares are examples of

a. base salary

b. short-term incentive plan

c. long-term incentive plan

d. All of the above

18. Performance-based annual bonuses are an example of

a. base salary

b. short-term incentive plan

c. long-term incentive plan

d. All of the above

19. Which of the following is the fixed component in compensation packages?

a. Profit-sharing

b. Base salary

c. Gain-sharing

d. Equity stock options

20. Which of the following theory states that the employees work hard in the job only when they are sure

of positive outcomes from that job?

a. Equity theory

b. Expectancy theory

c. Agency theory

d. Contingency theory


1. (b) 2.(c) 3.(d) 4.(b) 5.(a)

6. (b) 7.(b) 8.(a) 9.(a) 10.(a)

11. (b) 12.(a) 13.(a) 14.(d) 15.(d)

16. (a) 17.(c) 18.(b) 19.(b) 20.(b)

Chapter-12: Welfare and Working Conditions


1. Welfare in ……………………implies the provision of medical and educational services, a congenial

work atmosphere, etc.

a. industry

b. Indian industry

c. foreign industry

d. None of these

2. Welfare is the statutory and the non-statutory kinds.

a. True b. False

3. Comprehensive legislation to regulate working conditions replaced the act in…………….

a. 1947

b. 1948

c. 1950

d. None of these

4. Women workers are to be employed during the night or between 7.00 p.m. and 6.00 a.m.

a. True b. False

5. ……………can be accumulated up to 30 days for adults and 40 days for children

a. Monthly leave

b. Annual leave

c. Seek leave

d. None of these

6. The ESIS was designed for the benefits which were provided under the Workmen Compensation Act

and the Maternity Benefit Act.

a. True b. False

7. ………….is provided for a period of sickness not exceeding 90 days, and in two installments of six

months.

a. Maternity Benefits

b. Disablement Benefits

c. Dependents Benefits

d. Cash benefit

8. The term “factory” in this act refers to a place of work employing 20 or more persons.

a. True b. False

9. …………….programs in the Bhilai Steel Plant (BSP) initially emerged because of its geographic

location.

a. welfare

b. Non-statutory welfare

c. statutory welfare

d. None of these

10. Managers must keep in mind that non-statutory welfare will result in a sense of gratitude and loyalty

among employees and motivate them to work hard.

a. True b. False

11. ……………….is a state of positive feeling towards the company, a feeling expressed in loyalty, faith

and an attitude that the company is concerned with the welfare of its employees.

a. Employee satisfaction

b. Company satisfaction

c. Job satisfaction

d. None of these

12. The presence of grievances among employees may cause

a. indiscipline among them

b. strain on the labor–management relations

c. a decline in the employees’ performance and productivity

d. all of the above

13. Which of the following techniques permits the grievant (complainant) to remain anonymous?

a. The exit interview

b. The gripe-box system

c. The opinion survey


14. The management should redress only those grievances that are

a. real

b. imaginary

c. real or imaginary

d. none of the above

15. In which of the following methods are grievances ascertained at the time of employees quitting the

organization?

a. The exit interview method

b. The gripe-box system

c. The open-door policy

d. Opinion surveys

16. Which of the following acts has a direct relevance for grievance handling practices?

a. The Industrial Employment (Standing Order) Act, 1946

b. The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947

c. The Factories Act, 1948

d. All of above

17. Which of the following is not a grievance concerned with supervision?

a. A misunderstanding between the supervisor and the workers

b. Rigidity in the interpretation of rules and regulations

c. Ambiguous job instructions

d. Violation and/or non-fulfillment of the terms of collective bargaining agreements

18. When workers are encouraged to meet the relevant manager in his office and to share their opinions,

it is called

a. an opinion survey

b. the gripe-box system

c. the open-door policy

d. the exit interview method

19. Find the odd man out among the following fundamental principles governing any grievance

procedure.

a. Settlement at the lowest level

b. Settlement in favor of management

c. Settlement as expeditiously as possible

d. Settlement to the satisfaction of the aggrieved

20. ………………………… is more broad-based and encompasses various conditions and situations and

sometimes productivity is also included in it.

a. Employee satisfaction

b. Company satisfaction

c. Job satisfaction

d. None of these


1. (a) 2.(a) 3.(b) 4.(b) 5.(b)

6. (a) 7.(d) 8.(a) 9.(b) 10.(a)

11. (b) 12.(d) 13.(b) 14.(c) 15.(a)

16. (d) 17.(d) 18.(c) 19.(b) 20.(c)