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Chemistry Final Exam Study Guide - 2017

Multiple Choice Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Which is the part of an experiment that serves as the point of comparison for the results?

a. hypothesis c. constant b. independent variable d. control

____ 2. Which precaution should you take when you see this symbol?

a. do not look directly at the experiment b. wear goggles if you are doing the experiment c. wear goggles if you are performing or observing the experiment d. watch the teacher carefully and follow what he or she does

____ 3. Which precaution should you take when you see this symbol?

a. Wear heat-resistant gloves c. Do not touch broken glass b. Wear protective clothing d. Contents are radioactive

____ 4. Which precaution should you take when you see this safety symbol?

a. wear heat- and cold-resistant gloves c. do not touch toxic substances b. do not touch sharp objects d. wash your hands after the lab

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____ 5. Which precaution should you take when you see this safety symbol?

a. wear heat- and cold-resistant gloves c. do not touch toxic substances b. do not touch sharp objects d. wash your hands after the lab

____ 6. Which precaution should you take when you see this safety symbol?

a. Wear heat-protective gloves b. Do not perform experiment in a warm room c. Do not use open flames while working with flammable materials d. When heating a test tube, point it away from yourself and others

____ 7. Which is a qualitative measurement? a. color c. time b. mass d. length

____ 8. Which is a quantitative measurement? a. hardness c. taste b. color d. temperature

____ 9. Which describes what happens when you fly 10 km above the Earth’s surface? a. mass decreases, weight increases b. mass decreases, weight decreases c. mass decreases, weight remains constant d. mass remains constant, weight decreases

____ 10. Which is NOT a harmful result of UVB exposure? a. Ozone is created c. Crop yields are decreased b. Cataracts may form d. Skin cancer can result

____ 11. Which is true of the Earth’s atmosphere? a. Ozone is harmful to it b. Clouds form in the stratosphere c. The troposphere includes the air we breathe d. The mesosphere is the part closest to the Earth’s surface

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A student conducts an experiment to determine the effect of adding salt on the boiling temperature of water. The results are shown below. Sample Amount of Salt Boiling Temperature Sample 1 0 g 100.0° C Sample 2 2 g 102.3° C Sample 3 5 g 104.8° C Sample 4 10 g 107.5° C

____ 12. Which is the independent variable in this experiment?

a. Amount of salt added c. Boiling temperature b. Volume of water d. Time required for water to boil

____ 13. Which is the dependent variable in this experiment? a. Amount of salt added c. Boiling temperature b. Volume of water d. Time required for water to boil

____ 14. Which is a value that should remain constant for all samples in this experiment? a. Amount of salt added c. Boiling temperature b. Volume of water d. Time required for water to boil

____ 15. Which is the control in this experiment? a. Sample 1 c. Sample 3 b. Sample 2 d. Sample 4

____ 16. Which is a reasonable hypothesis for this experiment? a. If salt is added to water, the water will boil at a higher temperature b. Salt makes water boil c. If water is boiling, it must have salt added to it d. If salt is added to water, the water will get cloudy

____ 17. Which is the part of the experiment that is the measurable outcome? a. independent variable c. control b. dependent variable d. conclusion

____ 18. Which is the part of the experiment that the researcher manipulates? a. independent variable c. control b. constants d. dependent variable

____ 19. Which of the following about chlorofluorocarbons is true? a. It is made by humans. c. It is toxic. b. It is naturally occurring. d. It is unstable.

____ 20. Which of the following appliances increase CFCs in the atmosphere? a. Refrigerators c. Washing machines b. Microwave ovens d. Televisions

____ 21. A person is traveling by an airplane 10 km above ground level. What is the impact on the person’s mass and weight compared to that at ground level? a. Mass increases, weight decreases b. Mass decreases, weight decreases c. Mass remains the same, weight decreases d. Mass and weight remains the same

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____ 22. Which of the following properties of matter can be explained on a submicroscopic level? a. Structure c. Behavior b. Composition d. All the above

____ 23. Which of the following is qualitative data? a. Color c. Temperature b. Pressure d. Volume

____ 24. Which of the following is quantitative data? a. Color c. Shape b. Odor d. Volume

____ 25. Earth attracts all objects to its surface. This statement is a(n) ____. a. hypothesis c. scientific law b. theory d. observation

____ 26. Which field of science studies the composition and structure of matter? a. physics c. chemistry b. biology d. geology

____ 27. Which of the following would a chemist be most likely to study? a. a leaf floating on water c. a leaf being blown by the wind b. a leaf changing color in autumn d. a leaf being eaten by insects

____ 28. Which of the following best describes an example of pure chemistry? a. testing the effects of lower concentrations of a drug on humans b. studying chemicals containing carbon c. developing a cure for osteoporosis d. finding an antidote for a new strain of virus

____ 29. Which of the following statements is false? a. Knowledge of chemistry allows the public to make informed decisions. b. Studying chemistry ensures that officials make correct choices in funding technology. c. Knowledge of chemistry helps prepare people for careers in soil science. d. Chemistry explains many aspects of nature.

____ 30. Which of the following is NOT an example of chemistry research in the main area of energy? a. producing hook-and-loop tape b. determining the usefulness of oil from soybean plants c. developing rechargeable batteries d. studying the effects of insulation

____ 31. Which of the following is an example of a current research focus in chemistry? a. development of smoke detectors for common use b. using hook-and-loop tape in the clothing industry c. applying gene therapy to treat certain diseases d. studying coal combustion as an energy source

____ 32. Which of the following can be observed only in a microscopic view? a. foam insulation c. shape of a soybean plant b. X-ray of a knee joint d. structure of a muscle cell

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____ 33. Which of the following was a major contribution to chemistry by Antoine Lavoisier? a. He showed that oxygen is required for material to burn. b. He demonstrated the presence of phlogiston in air. c. He encouraged scientists to form explanations based on philosophical arguments. d. He developed the science of alchemy.

____ 34. One characteristic of a scientific theory is that ____. a. it can never be proved c. it cannot be modified b. it can be proved d. it summarizes a set of observations

____ 35. Which step in the scientific method requires you to use your senses to obtain information? a. revising a hypothesis c. making an observation b. designing an experiment d. stating a theory

____ 36. Which of these steps should always be followed for effective problem solving? a. buying a larger quantity of material than estimated b. performing metric conversions c. developing a plan and then implementing the plan d. using a trial-and-error approach and then evaluating

____ 37. How do conceptual problems differ from numeric problems? a. Solutions to conceptual problems involve analysis, while numeric solutions do not. b. Logic is not usually involved in solving numeric problems. c. A plan is necessary to solve numeric problems, but is not necessary for conceptual

problems. d. Solutions to conceptual problems normally do not involve calculations.

____ 38. Which is the correct measurement for location marked by the arrow?

a. 50.2 c. 52 b. 51.8 d. 51

____ 39. Which is the correct measurement for location marked by the arrow?

a. 17.076 c. 17.76 b. 17.8 d. 17.7

____ 40. Which is the correct measurement for location marked by the arrow?

a. 30.5 c. 30.45 b. 34.5 d. 30.046

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____ 41. Which is the term used for the measurement of the average kinetic energy of the particles of a substance? a. density c. length b. temperature d. mass

____ 42. Which unit is determined by the frequency of the radiation given off by Cesium-133? a. meter c. hour b. second d. gram

____ 43. Which term is described as the amount of matter in an object? a. density c. mass b. volume d. length

____ 44. Which is NOT an appropriate unit for measuring density? a. g/cm c. kg/L b. g/ml d. g/L

____ 45. Which term describes the amount of mass contained per unit volume? a. mass c. length b. temperature d. density

____ 46. An object has a mass of 26.94 grams and a volume of 2.568 cubic centimeters. What material is it likely to be made of? Substance iron gold silver copper Density (g/cm3) 7.874 19.32 10.49 8.92 a. Iron c. Silver b. Gold d. Copper

____ 47. Which is the correct conversion for a temperature of 67.3°C? a. -205.7 K c. 153.1° F b. 121.1° F d. 19.6° F

____ 48. A bottle contains 3.100 mL of a liquid. The total mass of the bottle and the liquid together is 6.300 g. The mass of the empty bottle is 4.240 g. What is the density of the liquid? a. 0.665 g/mL c. 1.505 g/mL b. 1.368 g/mL d. 2.032 g/mL

____ 49. What is the SI unit of mass? a. liter c. candela b. joule d. kilogram

____ 50. What is the temperature of absolute zero measured in C? a. –373 C c. –173 C b. –273 C d. –73 C

____ 51. Which temperature scale has no negative temperatures? a. Celsius c. Joule b. Fahrenheit d. Kelvin

____ 52. What is the boiling point of water in kelvins? a. 0 K c. 273 K b. 100 K d. 373 K

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____ 53. The weight of an object ____. a. is the same as its mass c. is not affected by gravity b. depends on its location d. is always the same

____ 54. What is the temperature –34 C expressed in kelvins? a. 139 K c. 239 K b. 207 K d. 339 K

____ 55. If the temperature changes by 100 K, by how much does it change in C? a. 0 C c. 100 C b. 37 C d. 273 C

____ 56. Chlorine boils at 239 K. What is the boiling point of chlorine expressed in degrees Celsius? a. 93 C c. –61 C b. 34 C d. –34 C

____ 57. Density is found by dividing ____. a. mass by volume c. mass by area b. volume by mass d. area by mass

____ 58. What is the density of an object having a mass of 8.0 g and a volume of 25 cm ? a. 0.32 g/cm c. 3.1 g/cm b. 2.0 g/cm d. 200 g/cm

____ 59. What is the volume of 80.0 g of ether if the density of ether is 0.70 g/mL? a. 5.6 10 c. 8.8 10 b. 1.1 10 d. 8.0 10

____ 60. What is the volume of 45.6 g of silver if the density of silver is 10.5 g/mL? a. 0.23 mL c. 479 mL b. 4.34 mL d. none of the above

____ 61. The box for an element from the periodic table is shown. Which is the atomic mass?

a. A c. C b. B d. D

____ 62. The box for an element from the periodic table is shown. Which is the atomic number? a. A c. C b. B d. D

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____ 63. Which scientist described a positively charged core (“nucleus”) in the middle of a lot of empty space? a. Chadwick c. Rutherford b. Thomson d. Bohr

____ 64. Which scientist developed the model of the atom shown?

a. Chadwick c. Rutherford b. Thomson d. Bohr

____ 65. Which scientist developed the model of the atom shown?

a. Chadwick c. Rutherford b. Thomson d. Bohr

____ 66. Which scientist described the existence of the neutron? a. Chadwick c. Rutherford b. Thomson d. Bohr

____ 67. Which one is comprised of the other three? a. proton c. electron b. atom d. neutron

____ 68. Which has a charge of +1? a. proton c. electron b. atom d. neutron

____ 69. Which is the smallest part of an element that retains all the properties of the element? a. proton c. electron b. neutron d. Atom

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Atoms Atom Protons Neutrons Electrons Mass Number Sodium 12 23 Chlorine 17 17 35

____ 70. How many neutrons are in an atom of chlorine?

a. 17 c. 34 b. 18 d. 35

____ 71. How many electrons are in an neutral atom of sodium? a. 22 c. 12 b. 11 d. 23

____ 72. Which element has 14 protons? a. Nitrogen c. Aluminum b. Silicon d. Sulfur

____ 73. According to the modern concept of the atom, which are located in the nucleus of an atom? a. electrons and protons c. neutrons and electrons b. protons only d. protons and neutrons

____ 74. An industrially important element contains 26 electrons and rusts in the presence of air and moisture. Identify the element. a. Aluminum c. Potassium b. Iron d. Sodium

____ 75. Who was the man who lived from 460B.C.–370B.C. and was among the first to suggest the idea of atoms? a. Atomos c. Democritus b. Dalton d. Thomson

____ 76. Dalton's atomic theory included which idea? a. All atoms of all elements are the same size. b. Atoms of different elements always combine in one-to-one ratios. c. Atoms of the same element are always identical. d. Individual atoms can be seen with a microscope.

____ 77. Which of the following is true about subatomic particles? a. Electrons are negatively charged and are the heaviest subatomic particle. b. Protons are positively charged and the lightest subatomic particle. c. Neutrons have no charge and are the lightest subatomic particle. d. The mass of a neutron nearly equals the mass of a proton.

____ 78. All atoms are ____. a. positively charged, with the number of protons exceeding the number of electrons b. negatively charged, with the number of electrons exceeding the number of protons c. neutral, with the number of protons equaling the number of electrons d. neutral, with the number of protons equaling the number of electrons, which is equal to the

number of neutrons

____ 79. The nucleus of an atom is ____. a. the central core and is composed of protons and neutrons b. positively charged and has more protons than neutrons

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c. negatively charged and has a high density d. negatively charged and has a low density

____ 80. What does the number 84 in the name krypton-84 represent? a. the atomic number c. the sum of the protons and electrons b. the mass number d. twice the number of protons

____ 81. Isotopes of the same element have different ____. a. numbers of neutrons c. numbers of electrons b. numbers of protons d. atomic numbers

____ 82. How many protons, electrons, and neutrons does an atom with atomic number 50 and mass number 125 contain? a. 50 protons, 50 electrons, 75 neutrons c. 120 neutrons, 50 protons, 75 electrons b. 75 electrons, 50 protons, 50 neutrons d. 70 neutrons, 75 protons, 50 electrons

____ 83. Which of the following sets of symbols represents isotopes of the same element? a. J J J c. M M M b. L L L d. Q Q Q

____ 84. How is the number of neutrons in the nucleus of an atom calculated? a. Add the number of electrons and protons together. b. Subtract the number of electrons from the number of protons. c. Subtract the number of protons from the mass number. d. Add the mass number to the number of electrons.

____ 85. What unit is used to measure weighted average atomic mass? a. amu c. angstrom b. gram d. nanogram

____ 86. Which scientist first arranged elements by atomic number? a. Mendeleev c. Newlands b. Lavoisier d. Mosely

____ 87. Which scientist characterized the “law of octaves”? a. Mendeleev c. Newlands b. Lavoisier d. Mosely

____ 88. Which category of elements is commonly used to make computer chips and solar cells due to their ability to conduct electricity only under certain conditions? a. metals c. nonmetals b. metalloids d. noble gases

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____ 89. Which region is referred to as the p-block on the diagram? a. A c. C b. B d. D

____ 90. Which region contains the halogen family of elements?

a. A c. C b. B d. D

____ 91. Which region contains the alkaline earth metal family of elements? a. A c. C b. B d. D

____ 92. Which region contains elements with two valence electrons?

a. A c. C b. B d. D

____ 93. Which is defined as the energy required to remove an electron from an atom of an element in the gaseous state? a. ionization energy c. ionic radius b. electronegativity d. law of octets

____ 94. Which correctly describes elements in the same group? a. They have the same number of valence electrons. b. They have electrons in the same outermost energy level. c. They have the same atomic radius. d. They must be in the same state of matter.

____ 95. Which is the halogen that is in Period 5? a. Bromine (Br) c. Iodine (I) b. Strontium (Sr) d. Xenon (Xe)

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____ 96. Which metalloid is in the fourth period and the same group as Carbon? a. Silicon c. Tin b. Germanium d. Boron

____ 97. Which is the most important characteristic in detemining an element’s chemical properties? a. the number of protons and neutrons in its nucleus b. which period it is found in c. the number of valence electrons it contains d. its outermost energy level

____ 98. Which of the following elements is a metal? a. Boron c. Magnesium b. Nitrogen d. Carbon

____ 99. Who arranged the elements according to atomic mass and used the arrangement to predict the properties of missing elements? a. Henry Moseley c. John Dalton b. Antoine Lavoisier d. Dmitri Mendeleev

____ 100. Which of the following categories includes the majority of the elements? a. metalloids c. metals b. liquids d. nonmetals

____ 101. Which subatomic particle plays the greatest part in determining the properties of an element? a. proton c. neutron b. electron d. none of the above

____ 102. Which of the following elements is a transition metal? a. cesium c. tellurium b. copper d. tin

____ 103. Which of the following groupings contains only representative elements? a. Cu, Co, Cd c. Al, Mg, Li b. Ni, Fe, Zn d. Hg, Cr, Ag

____ 104. What are the Group 1A and Group 7A elements examples of? a. representative elements c. noble gases b. transition elements d. nonmetallic elements

____ 105. How does atomic radius change from top to bottom in a group in the periodic table? a. It tends to decrease. c. It first increases, then decreases. b. It tends to increase. d. It first decreases, then increases.

____ 106. Atomic size generally ____. a. increases as you move from left to right across a period b. decreases as you move from top to bottom within a group c. remains constant within a period d. decreases as you move from left to right across a period

____ 107. Which of the following elements has the smallest atomic radius? a. sulfur c. selenium b. chlorine d. Bromine

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____ 108. What is the charge of a cation? a. a positive charge b. no charge c. a negative charge d. The charge depends on the size of the nucleus.

____ 109. What is the element with the lowest electronegativity value? a. cesium c. calcium b. helium d. fluorine

____ 110. Which of the following statements correctly compares the relative size of an ion to its neutral atom? a. The radius of an anion is greater than the radius of its neutral atom. b. The radius of an anion is identical to the radius of its neutral atom. c. The radius of a cation is greater than the radius of its neutral atom. d. The radius of a cation is identical to the radius of its neutral atom.

____ 111. Which label identifies the amplitude of the wave shown?

a. A c. C b. B d. D

____ 112. Which label identifies the wavelength of the wave shown? a. A c. C b. B d. D

____ 113. Which label identifies the trough of the wave shown? a. A c. C b. B d. D

____ 114. Which diagram shows a wave with the highest frequency?

a. A c. C b. B d. D

____ 115. Which diagram shows a wave with the highest wavelength? a. A c. C b. B d. D

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____ 116. Which diagram shows a wave with the highest amplitude? a. A c. C b. B d. D

____ 117. Which type of orbital is shown?

a. s c. d b. p d. f

____ 118. Which type of orbital is shown?

a. s c. d b. p d. f

____ 119. Which is the correct number of valence electrons in the element Gallium (Ga)? a. 13 c. 1 b. 31 d. 3

____ 120. Which is the correct number of valence electrons in the element Sulfur (S)? a. 16 c. 2 b. 6 d. 4

____ 121. Which element has the electron configuration 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d4? a. Titanium (Ti) c. Sulfur (S) b. Chromium (Cr) d. Selenium (Se)

____ 122. Which is the correct electron configuration for the element Molybdenum (Mo)? a. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d4 c. 1s22s22p63s23p64s24d104p65s25d4 b. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p65s6 d. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d104p65s24d4

____ 123. Which of these elements has 5 valence electrons? a. Boron (B) c. Vanadium (V) b. Rubidium (Rb) d. Arsenic (As)

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____ 124. Which is the correct electron dot diagram for the element Silicon (Si)?

a. c. b. d.

____ 125. Which is the correct electron dot structure for the element Fluorine (F)?

a. c. b. d.

____ 126. In Bohr's model of the atom, where are the electrons and protons located? a. The electrons move around the protons, which are at the center of the atom. b. The electrons and protons move throughout the atom. c. The electrons occupy fixed positions around the protons, which are at the center of the

atom. d. The electrons and protons are located throughout the atom, but they are not free to move.

____ 127. How does the energy of an electron change when the electron moves closer to the nucleus? a. It decreases. c. It stays the same. b. It increases. d. It doubles.

____ 128. The principal quantum number indicates what property of an electron? a. position c. energy level b. speed d. electron cloud shape

____ 129. How many energy sublevels are in the second principal energy level? a. 1 c. 3 b. 2 d. 4

____ 130. What is the maximum number of f orbitals in any single energy level in an atom? a. 1 c. 5 b. 3 d. 7

____ 131. What is the maximum number of d orbitals in a principal energy level? a. 1 c. 3 b. 2 d. 5

____ 132. What is the maximum number of orbitals in the p sublevel? a. 2 c. 4 b. 3 d. 5

____ 133. When an electron moves from a lower to a higher energy level, the electron ____. a. always doubles its energy b. absorbs a continuously variable amount of energy c. absorbs a quantum of energy d. moves closer to the nucleus

____ 134. If the spin of one electron in an orbital is clockwise, what is the spin of the other electron in that orbital? a. zero c. counterclockwise b. clockwise d. both clockwise and counterclockwise

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____ 135. What is the next atomic orbital in the series 1s, 2s, 2p, 3s, 3p? a. 2d c. 3f b. 3d d. 4s

____ 136. According to the aufbau principle, ____. a. an orbital may be occupied by only two electrons b. electrons in the same orbital must have opposite spins c. electrons enter orbitals of highest energy first d. electrons enter orbitals of lowest energy first

____ 137. What is the number of electrons in the outermost energy level of an oxygen atom? a. 2 c. 6 b. 4 d. 8

____ 138. What is the electron configuration of potassium? a. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s c. 1s 2s 3s 3p 3d b. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p d. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s

____ 139. If three electrons are available to fill three empty 2p atomic orbitals, how will the electrons be distributed in the three orbitals? a. one electron in each orbital b. two electrons in one orbital, one in another, none in the third c. three in one orbital, none in the other two d. Three electrons cannot fill three empty 2p atomic orbitals.

____ 140. Stable electron configurations are likely to contain ____. a. filled energy sublevels b. fewer electrons than unstable configurations c. unfilled s orbitals d. electrons with a clockwise spin

____ 141. What are quanta of light called? a. charms c. muons b. excitons d. photons

____ 142. According to the Heisenberg uncertainty principle, if the position of a moving particle is known, what other quantity CANNOT be known? a. mass c. spin b. charge d. velocity

____ 143. What element has the electron configuration 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p ? a. nitrogen c. silicon b. selenium d. silver

____ 144. Which of the following is true about the electron configurations of the noble gases? a. The highest occupied s and p sublevels are completely filled. b. The highest occupied s and p sublevels are partially filled. c. The electrons with the highest energy are in a d sublevel. d. The electrons with the highest energy are in an f sublevel.

____ 145. What is the charge of a cation? a. a positive charge b. no charge c. a negative charge d. The charge depends on the size of the nucleus.

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____ 146. Which of the following statements is true about ions? a. Cations form when an atom gains electrons. b. Cations form when an atom loses electrons. c. Anions form when an atom gains protons. d. Anions form when an atom loses protons.

____ 147. In which of the following sets are the charges given correctly for all the ions? a. Na , Mg , Al c. Rb , Ba , P b. K , Sr , O d. N , O , F

____ 148. How many valence electrons are in an atom of phosphorus? a. 2 c. 4 b. 3 d. 5

____ 149. How many valence electrons are in an atom of magnesium? a. 2 c. 4 b. 3 d. 5

____ 150. How many valence electrons does a helium atom have? a. 2 c. 4 b. 3 d. 5

____ 151. How many valence electrons are in a silicon atom? a. 2 c. 6 b. 4 d. 8

____ 152. What is the name given to the electrons in the highest occupied energy level of an atom? a. orbital electrons c. anions b. valence electrons d. cations

____ 153. What is the electron configuration of the calcium ion? a. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p c. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s b. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s d. 1s 2s 2p 3s

____ 154. What is the electron configuration of the gallium ion? a. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p c. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s 4p b. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 4s d. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d

____ 155. What is the charge on the strontium ion? a. 2– c. 1 b. 1– d. 2

____ 156. How does oxygen obey the octet rule when reacting to form compounds? a. It gains electrons. b. It gives up electrons. c. It does not change its number of electrons. d. Oxygen does not obey the octet rule.

____ 157. What is the electron configuration of the iodide ion? a. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s 4p 4d 5s 5p b. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s 4p 4d c. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s 4p 4d 5s d. 1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s 4p

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____ 158. Which is the correct formula for the ionic compound that results from these two atoms?

a. X2Y5 c. X2Y3 b. X5Y2 d. X3Y2

____ 159. Which is described as the force holding two atoms together? a. cation c. formula unit b. chemical bond d. lattice

____ 160. Which is the charge that results when oxygen becomes an ion? a. +2 c. +3 b. -3 d. -2

____ 161. Group 13 elements tend to acquire which charge when they form ions? a. +3 c. +5 b. -5 d. -3

____ 162. Which is a physical property of ionic compounds in their solid state? a. good conductor of electricity b. weak attractive forces between ions c. low boiling point d. high melting point

____ 163. Which is the correct formula for the compound formed between beryllium and nitrogen? a. BeN c. Be3N2 b. Be3N d. Be2N3

____ 164. What is the correct formula for the compound formed between magnesium and the phosphate ion? a. MgPO4 c. Mg3(PO4)2 b. Mg3PO2 d. MgP2O8

____ 165. Which is the correct formula for the compound Chromium (II) Nitrate? a. (Cr)2NO3 c. CrNO2 b. Cr2NO3 d. Cr(NO3)2

____ 166. Which is the correct name for the compound FeS? a. Iron Sulfide c. Iron (II) Sulfide b. Iron (I) Sulfide d. Iron (II) Sulfide (II)

____ 167. Which is the correct name for the compound Na3P? a. Sodium Phosphide c. Sodium Phosphate b. Sodium Phosphite d. Sodium (III) Phosphide

____ 168. Which is the correct name for the compound NH4SO4? a. Nitrogen Hydrogen Sulfate c. Ammonium (II) Sulfate b. Nitrogen Hydrosulfate d. Ammonium Sulfate

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____ 169. How many valence electrons are in an atom of phosphorus? a. 2 c. 4 b. 3 d. 5

____ 170. How many valence electrons does a helium atom have? a. 2 c. 4 b. 3 d. 5

____ 171. What is the name given to the electrons in the highest occupied energy level of an atom? a. orbital electrons c. anions b. valence electrons d. cations

____ 172. What is the charge on the strontium ion? a. 2– c. 1 b. 1– d. 2

____ 173. Which of the following occurs in an ionic bond? a. Oppositely charged ions attract. b. Two atoms share two electrons. c. Two atoms share more than two electrons. d. Like-charged ions attract.

____ 174. What is the name of the ionic compound formed from lithium and bromine? a. lithium bromine c. lithium bromium b. lithium bromide d. lithium bromate

____ 175. What is the formula for sodium sulfate? a. NaSO c. Na(SO ) b. Na SO d. Na (SO )

____ 176. What is the formula for potassium sulfide? a. KS c. KS b. K S d. K S

____ 177. Which of the following compounds has the formula KNO ? a. potassium nitrate c. potassium nitrite b. potassium nitride d. potassium nitrogen oxide

____ 178. Which of the following pairs of elements is most likely to form an ionic compound? a. magnesium and fluorine c. oxygen and chlorine b. nitrogen and sulfur d. sodium and aluminum

____ 179. In the compound PCl3, how many total valence electrons are present? a. 4 c. 24 b. 8 d. 26

____ 180. Which is the correct name for the compound N2O3? a. dinitro trioxide c. trinitrogen dioxide b. nitrogen (II) oxide (III) d. dinitrogen trioxide

____ 181. Which is the correct name for the compound PCl5? a. monophosphorus tetrachloride c. phosphorus pentachloride b. phosphorus chloride d. pentaphosphorus chloride

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____ 182. Which is the correct name for the compound N2O4? a. tetranitrogen dioxide c. dinitrogen quadoxide b. dinitrogen tetroxide d. nitrogen oxide

____ 183. Which is the correct formula for the compound dinitrogen monoxide? a. NO2 c. N2O1 b. (NO)2 d. N2O

____ 184. Which is the formula for the compound sulfur hexachloride? a. S6Cl c. SCl5 b. SCl6 d. S2Cl3

____ 185. When Group 2A elements form ions, they ____. a. lose two protons c. lose two electrons b. gain two protons d. gain two electrons

____ 186. When naming a transition metal ion that can have more than one common ionic charge, the numerical value of the charge is indicated by a ____. a. prefix c. Roman numeral following the name b. suffix d. superscript after the name

____ 187. Aluminum is a group 3A metal. Which ion does A1 typically form? a. Al c. Al b. Al d. Al

____ 188. Which of the following compounds contains the Mn ion? a. MnS c. Mn O b. MnBr d. MnO

____ 189. Which of the following formulas represents an ionic compound? a. CS c. N O b. BaI d. PCl

____ 190. Which of the following correctly shows a prefix used in naming binary molecular compounds with its corresponding number? a. deca-, 7 c. hexa-, 8 b. nona-, 9 d. octa-, 4

____ 191. In this equation, which are the reactant(s)?

A B C a. A only c. A + B b. C only d. B only

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____ 192. Which is the name of the kind of solid substance formed in this figure?

a. aqueous c. coordinate complex b. precipitate d. synthesis

____ 193. Which type of chemical reaction is shown?

a. double replacement c. synthesis b. combustion d. decomposition

____ 194. What is the correct ratio of coefficients to balance this chemical equation?

a. 1:2:3 c. 2:4:3 b. 1:2:1.5 d. 1:1:2

____ 195. In a chemical equation, (aq) after one of the substances means that it is which of these? a. a solid formed from two ionic substances b. released as gas c. dissolved in water d. produced from nothing

____ 196. How many total atoms are in 3Na2SO4? a. 21 c. 24 b. 10 d. 18

____ 197. How many total atoms are in 4Ca3(PO4)2? a. 20 c. 36 b. 52 d. 40

____ 198. Which type of reaction can be recognized by the general pattern ? a. combustion c. single replacement b. synthesis d. decomposition

____ 199. Which type of reaction involves one element and one compound reacting? a. decomposition c. single replacement b. double replacement d. synthesis

____ 200. Which type of reaction takes place in the presence of oxygen and produces carbon dioxide and water? a. decomposition c. synthesis b. double replacement d. combustion

____ 201. Which type of reaction is Al + O2 → Al2O3? a. synthesis c. single replacement b. decomposition d. Combustion

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____ 202. Which type of reaction is SiO2 + HF → SiF4 + H2O? a. synthesis c. single replacement b. double replacement d. combustion

____ 203. Which types of reactions are essentially opposites of one another? a. combustion and synthesis b. single replacement and double replacement c. synthesis and single replacement d. synthesis and decomposition

____ 204. What are the correct coefficients when this equation is balanced? Sb + O2 → Sb4O6 a. 1, 2, 10 c. 4, 3, 1 b. 4, 6, 1 d. 10, 5, 1

____ 205. Which are the product(s) of this reaction? Mg + N2 → a. NMg c. Mg2N3 b. MgN d. Mg3N2

____ 206. Which are the product(s) of this chemical reaction? FeCl3 + NH4OH → a. Fe(OH)3 + NH4Cl c. NCl3 + FeOH5 b. NH4Fe + Cl3OH d. FeCl3NOH4

____ 207. What are the correct coefficients when this equation is balanced? K + Br2 → KBr a. 1, 1, 1 c. 2, 1, 2 b. 1, 2, 1 d. 2, 1, 1

____ 208. What are the correct coefficients when this chemical equation is balanced? P4 + O2 → P2O5 a. 4, 2, 7 c. 2, 5, 4 b. 1, 1, 1 d. 1, 5, 2

____ 209. Which type of chemical reaction would this be classified as: C3H8 + O2 → CO2 + H2O a. synthesis c. combustion b. double replacement d. decomposition

____ 210. Identify the type of reaction shown by this chemical equation: Al + HCl → AlCl3 + H2

a. single replacement c. double replacement b. synthesis d. decomposition

____ 211. Which type of chemical reaction is this an example of? Fe2(SO4)3 + KOH → K2SO4 + Fe(OH)3

a. synthesis c. single replacement b. double replacement d. combustion

____ 212. Identify the type of chemical reaction demonstrated by this equation: KClO3 → KCl + O2

a. decomposition c. combustion b. synthesis d. single replacement

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____ 213. Chemical reactions ____. a. occur only in living organisms c. only occur outside living organisms b. create and destroy atoms d. produce new substances

____ 214. What does the symbol in a chemical equation mean? a. Heat is supplied to the reaction. c. yields b. A catalyst is needed. d. precipitate

____ 215. Chemical equations ____. a. describe chemical reactions b. show how to write chemical formulas c. give directions for naming chemical compounds d. describe only biological changes

____ 216. A skeleton equation does NOT show which of the following? a. the correct formulas of the reactants and products b. the reactants on the left, the products on the right c. an arrow connecting the reactants to the products d. the relative amounts of reactants and products

____ 217. Symbols used in equations, together with the explanations of the symbols, are shown below. Which set is correct? a. (g), grams c. (aq), dissolved in water b. (l), liters d. (s), solid product

____ 218. A catalyst is ____. a. the product of a combustion reaction b. not used up in a reaction c. one of the reactants in single-replacement reactions d. a solid product of a reaction

____ 219. What are the coefficients that will balance the skeleton equation below? AlCl + NaOH Al(OH) NaCl a. 1, 3, 1, 3 c. 1, 1, 1, 3 b. 3, 1, 3, 1 d. 1, 3, 3, 1

____ 220. What are the coefficients that will balance the skeleton equation below? N + H NH

a. 1, 1, 2 c. 3, 1, 2 b. 1, 3, 3 d. 1, 3, 2

____ 221. When the equation Fe Cl FeCl is balanced, what is the coefficient for Cl ? a. 1 c. 3 b. 2 d. 4

____ 222. When the following equation is balanced, what is the coefficient for HCl? Mg(s) HCl(aq) MgCl (aq) H (g) a. 6 c. 1 b. 3 d. 2

____ 223. Which of the following statements is NOT true about what happens in all chemical reactions? a. The ways in which atoms are joined together are changed. b. New atoms are formed as products. c. The starting substances are called reactants. d. The bonds of the reactants are broken and new bonds of the products are formed.

____ 224. Chemical equations must be balanced to satisfy ____. a. the law of definite proportions c. the law of conservation of mass b. the law of multiple proportions d. Avogadro’s principle

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____ 225. When the equation KClO (s) KCl(s) + O (g) is balanced, the coefficient of KClO3 is ____. a. 1 c. 3 b. 2 d. 4

____ 226. What are the missing coefficients for the skeleton equation below? Cr(s) Fe(NO ) (aq) Fe(s) Cr(NO ) (aq) a. 4, 6, 6, 2 c. 2, 3, 3, 2 b. 2, 3, 2, 3 d. 1, 3, 3, 1

____ 227. What are the missing coefficients for the skeleton equation below? Al (SO ) (aq) KOH(aq) → Al(OH) (aq) K SO (aq) a. 1, 3, 2, 3 c. 4, 6, 2, 3 b. 2, 12, 4, 6 d. 1, 6, 2, 3

____ 228. In a combustion reaction, one of the reactants is ____. a. hydrogen c. oxygen b. nitrogen d. a metal

____ 229. Which of the following statements is true about single-replacement reactions? a. They are restricted to metals. c. Two reactants produce two products. b. They involve a single product. d. Any metal replaces any other metal.

____ 230. The reaction 2Fe 3Cl 2FeCl is an example of which type of reaction? a. combustion reaction c. combination reaction b. single-replacement reaction d. decomposition reaction

____ 231. A nuclear reaction may involve: a. protons. c. electrons. b. neutrons. d. protons, neutrons and electrons.

____ 232. Unstable nuclei can break apart spontaneously, changing the identity of the _____ . a. elements c. compounds b. atoms d. reactions

____ 233. Radioactive decay of 81Rb involves _____ , resulting in the formation of 81Kr and the emission of an X-ray photon. a. beta decay c. gamma emission b. electron capture d. positron emission

____ 234. The product of Β-ray emission from a radioactive isotope of lead is a. bismuth c. mercury b. lead d. thallium

____ 235. _____ is the splitting of nuclei. a. fission c. decay b. fusion d. denaturation

____ 236. Under certain conditions, some nuclei can emit _____ radiation. a. alpha c. gamma b. beta d. alpha, beta and gamma

____ 237. _____ is the combining of nuclei. a. fission c. decay b. fusion d. denaturation

____ 238. What unit(s) are used to measure radiation dose? a. rad c. both rad and rem b. rem d. neither rad nor rem

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____ 239. Why are boron or cadmium rods used in a nuclear fission reactor? a. to absorb the alpha emission c. to protect people from radiation b. to absorb the neutrons produced d. to provide chemical combustion

____ 240. Radiations that produce an electric current can be measured with what type of counter? a. deli c. Geiger b. calorie d. radiation

____ 241. The tremendous amount of energy released by nuclear reactions is required to bond _____ together. a. protons c. neutrons b. electrons d. the nucleus

____ 242. The amount of radiation from natural radioactivity is about _____ times higher than the amount you receive from a dental x-ray. a. 10 c. 1,000 b. 100 d. 10,000

____ 243. PET scans measure blood flow in which part of the body? a. brain c. small intestine b. stomach d. large intestine

____ 244. Which type of radiation is the most penetrating? a. alpha c. gamma b. beta d. all three are essentially equal

____ 245. Alpha particles have a _____ charge. a. -1 c. +1 b. 0 d. +2

____ 246. Beta particles have a _____ charge. a. -1 c. +1 b. 0 d. +2

____ 247. Gamma rays have a _____ charge. a. -1 c. +1 b. 0 d. +2

____ 248. An unstable nucleus ____. a. increases its nuclear mass by fission c. emits energy when it decays b. increases its half-life d. expels all of its protons

____ 249. Which is the most susceptible to damage from ionizing radiation? a. soft tissue c. wood b. paper d. lead

____ 250. What particle is emitted in alpha radiation? a. electron c. helium nucleus b. photon d. hydrogen nucleus

____ 251. A beta particle is a(n) ____. a. photon c. helium nucleus b. electron d. hydrogen nucleus

____ 252. What is the change in atomic mass when an atom emits a beta particle? a. decreases by 2 c. remains the same b. decreases by 1 d. increases by 1

____ 253. What is the change in atomic mass when an atom emits gamma radiation? a. decreases by 2 c. remains the same b. decreases by 1 d. increases by 1

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____ 254. What is the change in the atomic number when an atom emits an alpha particle? a. decreases by 2 c. increases by 1 b. decreases by 1 d. increases by 2

____ 255. What is the change in atomic number when an atom emits a beta particle? a. decreases by 2 c. increases by 2 b. decreases by 1 d. increases by 1

____ 256. What is the change in atomic number caused by the emission of gamma radiation? a. decreases by 2 c. remains the same b. decreases by 1 d. increases by 1

____ 257. Which symbol is used for an alpha particle? a. He c. He b. He d. He

____ 258. Which of the following materials is necessary to stop an alpha particle? a. three feet of concrete c. single sheet of aluminum foil b. three inches of lead d. single sheet of paper

____ 259. What particle decomposes to produce the electron of beta radiation? a. proton c. electron b. neutron d. positron

____ 260. What symbol is used for beta radiation? a. e c. e b. e d. e

____ 261. Which of the following materials is necessary to stop a beta particle? a. three feet of concrete c. thin pieces of wood b. three inches of lead d. single sheet of paper

____ 262. Which of the following materials is most effective for stopping gamma radiation? a. several cm of lead c. single sheet of aluminum foil b. one cm of water d. single sheet of paper

____ 263. Which type of ionizing radiation can be blocked by clothing? a. beta radiation c. gamma radiation b. X radiation d. alpha radiation

____ 264. What is the change in atomic mass number when an atom emits an alpha particle? a. decreases by 2 c. increases by 2 b. decreases by 4 d. increases by 4

____ 265. What does the band of stability for atomic nuclei refer to? a. the ratio of protons to neutrons b. the ratio of neutrons to protons c. the ratio of beta particles to neutrinos d. the ratio of alpha particles to beta particles

____ 266. If an isotope decays by the process of beta emission, ____. a. the mass number changes b. the atomic number changes c. protons are given off d. the number of neutrons remains the same

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____ 267. What particle is needed to complete this nuclear reaction? Rn Po + _____

a. He c. H b. e d. n

____ 268. How does an atom with too many neutrons relative to protons undergo radioactive decay? a. by emitting an alpha particle c. by emitting gamma radiation b. by emitting a beta particle d. by emitting X radiation

____ 269. What particle does argon-39 (atomic number 18) emit when it decays to potassium-39 (atomic number 19)? a. neutron c. proton b. electron d. alpha particle

____ 270. What particle is needed to complete the following nuclear equation? Mn ____ + e

a. Co c. Fe b. Mn d. Cr

____ 271. What particle is needed to complete the following equation? N + ____ C + H

a. n c. He b. e d. e

____ 272. To what element does polonium-208 (atomic number 84) decay when it emits an alpha particle? a. Pb c. Pb b. Po d. Rn

____ 273. What is the approximate half-life of uranium-238? a. hundreds of years c. millions of years b. thousands of years d. billions of years

____ 274. Which of the following naturally occurring radioisotopes would be most useful in dating objects thought to be millions of years old? a. carbon-14; t = 5.73 10 years b. potassium-40; t = 1.28 10 years c. thorium-234; t = 25 days d. radon-222; t = 3.8 days

____ 275. The production of carbon-14 ____. a. takes place in the upper atmosphere b. is mostly due to fallout from nuclear explosions c. occurs to a large extent in nuclear reactors d. is caused by photosynthesis in plants

____ 276. What happens in a chain reaction? a. Products that start a new reaction are released. b. Reactants that have two parts split. c. Products that are radioactive are lost. d. Radioactive reactants are deposited on control rods.

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____ 277. Controlled nuclear chain reactions ____. a. take place in nuclear reactors b. are always fusion reactions c. never produce radioactive by-products d. are characteristic of atomic bombs

____ 278. Which type of coolant(s) usually is (are) used to remove heat from a nuclear reactor core? a. water only c. liquid sodium or water b. liquid sodium only d. CFCs

____ 279. Nuclear fusion ____. a. takes place in the sun c. can be controlled in the laboratory b. occurs at low temperatures d. is used in medicine

____ 280. What does neutron absorption accomplish in a nuclear reactor? a. It slows down the reaction. b. It speeds up the reaction. c. It increases the rate of heat absorption. d. It recycles the fuel.

____ 281. Control rods made of ____. a. carbon c. plutonium b. liquid sodium d. cadmium

____ 282. What substances are used as moderators in a nuclear reactor? a. carbon and water c. plutonium and neptunium b. liquid sodium and water d. cadmium or other metal

____ 283. Which of the following statements is correct? a. Water is used to moderate (slow down) neutrons in a nuclear reactor. b. Carbon control rods are used to absorb neutrons in a nuclear fission reaction. c. A very high temperature is required to initiate a nuclear fission reaction. d. The energy released from the sun is the result of a nuclear fission reaction.

____ 284. What type of radiation is best detected by a scintillation counter? a. alpha radiation only c. alpha and beta radiation only b. gamma radiation only d. all types of radiation

____ 285. What instrument is used routinely to check a person's exposure to radiation? a. Geiger counter c. film badge b. scintillation counter d. moderating rod

____ 286. What is the main detector of a Geiger counter? a. ionizable gas in a metal tube c. plates of ionizable plastic b. phosphor-covered surface d. potassium metal surface

____ 287. What is the main detector of a scintillation counter? a. ionizable gas in a metal tube c. plates of ionizable plastic b. phosphor-covered surface d. potassium metal surface

____ 288. Radiation therapy is used to ____. a. study reaction mechanisms c. treat cancer b. detect elements d. initiate neutron activation analysis

____ 289. Radioisotopes taken internally for medical reasons ____. a. must be eliminated from the body slowly b. should be fissionable isotopes c. are usually deposited in fat tissue d. should have a short half-life