cis 210 week 11 final exam – strayer new

CIS 210 Week 11 Final Exam – Strayer NEW

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Chapters 7 Through 12

Chapter 7 – Development Strategies

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Although the traditional model of software acquisition still accounts for more software acquisition, a new model, called ____, is changing the picture dramatically.

a. Hardware as a Help c. Processing as a Product

b. Software as a Service d. Storage as a Solution

2. ____ is a model of software deployment where an application is hosted as a service provided to customers over the Internet.



3. ____ reduces the customer's need for software maintenance, operation, and support.



4. ____ promotes a broader vision of Software + Services, which refers to the company's strategy for cloud computing -- integrating software applications, platforms, and infrastructure.

a. Oracle c. IBM

b. Hewlett-Packard d. Microsoft

5. Gartner, Inc. predicts that by 2015 SaaS revenue will grow to ____.

a. $7.1 billion c. $14.5 billion

b. $8.6 billion d. $22.1 billion



6. Microsoft’s ____ is one of the major Web-based development environments.

a. WebSphere c. NetSphere

b. .NET d. .WEB

7. Building an application in a ____ environment can offer greater benefits, and sometimes greater risks, compared to a traditional environment.

a. GUI c. cloud

b. Web-based d. multinational

8. Web-based software usually requires additional layers, called ____, to communicate with existing software and legacy systems.

a. freeware c. middleware

b. shareware d. public domain software

9. When companies acquire Web-based software as a(n) ____, they can limit in-house involvement to a minimum.

a. product c. service

b. value-add d. outsource

10. Some industry leaders predict that ____ computing will offer an overall online software and data environment supported by supercomputer technology.

a. interpolated c. outsourced

b. mainframe d. cloud

11. ____ is the transfer of information systems development, operation, or maintenance to an outside firm that provides these services, for a fee, on a temporary or long-term basis.

a. Outsourcing c. Subscription

b. Commission d. External provision

12. A firm that offers outsourcing solutions is called a ____ provider.

a. subscription c. service

b. software d. resource

13. Oracle Corporation offers a service called ____, which provides e-business applications on a fixed fee basis.

a. WebSphere c. Business Process Outsourcing

b. .NET d. Oracle On Demand

14. Outsourcing a basic business process is often called ____.

a. RFO c. BPO

b. TFO d. TCO

15. The ____ environment enhances interactive experiences, including wikis and blogs, and social networking applications.

a. outsourcing c. Web 2.0

b. SaaS d. Web 3.0

16. Some ____ providers concentrate on specific software applications; others offer resources like order processing and customer billing.

a. subscription c. service

b. software d. resource

17. A(n) ____ is a firm that delivers a software application, or access to an application, by charging a usage or subscription fee.

a. ASP c. ISP

b. OSP d. USP

18. Some firms offer ____, which provide powerful Web-based support for transactions such as order processing, billing, and customer relationship management.

a. ASP c. fixed usage

b. IBS d. fixed-fee transfer

19. When determining outsourcing fees, a ____ uses a set fee based on a specified level of service and user support.

a. fixed fee model c. subscription model

b. usage model d. transaction model

20. When determining outsourcing fees, a ____ has a variable fee based on the number of users or workstations that have access to the application.

a. fixed fee model c. subscription model

b. usage model d. transaction model

21. A(n) ____ model is an outsourcing fee model that charges a variable fee based on the volume of transactions or operations performed by the application.

a. method c. transaction

b. administrative d. interpolated

22. The choice between developing versus purchasing software often is called a ____ decision.

a. build or make c. transactional

b. subscription d. build or buy

23. The software that a company’s IT department makes, builds, and develops is called ____ software.

a. in-house c. external

b. internal d. indexed

24. A software ____ is software that is obtained from a vendor or application service provider.

a. package c. subscription

b. cluster d. aggregate

25. Companies that develop software for sale are called software ____.

a. VARs c. vendors

b. resellers d. packages

26. A firm that enhances a commercial package by adding custom features and configuring it for a particular industry is called a(n) ____.

a. BRE c. OSP

b. IRH d. VAR

27. Typically, companies choose in-house software development for all of the following reasons EXCEPT to ____.

a. minimize changes in business procedures and policies

b. meet constraints of existing systems and existing technology

c. develop internal resources and capabilities

d. obtain input from other companies who already have implemented the software

28. Advantages of purchasing a software package over developing software in-house include all of the following EXCEPT ____.

a. satisfaction of unique business requirements

b. lower costs and less time to implement

c. proven reliability and performance benchmarks

d. less technical development staff

29. Buyers can customize a software package by ____.

a. negotiating directly with the software vendor to make enhancements to meet the buyer’s needs by paying for the changes

b. purchasing a basic package that vendors will customize to suit the buyer’s needs

c. purchasing the software and making their own modifications, if this is permissible under the terms of the software license

d. all of the above

30. A user ____ utilizes standard business software, such as Microsoft Word or Microsoft Excel, which has been configured in a specific manner to enhance user productivity.

a. application c. interface

b. configuration d. interpolation

31. In addition to configuring software, the IT staff can create a user ____, which includes screens, commands, controls, and features that enable users to interact more effectively with the application.

a. montage c. interface

b. index d. package

32. Some data files should be hidden totally from view, while others should have ____ so users can view, but not change, the data.

a. no-access properties c. full-access properties

b. read-only properties d. write-only properties

33. The ____ team must include users, who will participate in the selection process and feel a sense of ownership in the new system.

a. prototyping c. JAD

b. evaluation and selection d. assessment

34. Nearly ____ percent of total costs occur after the purchase of hardware and software.

a. 15 c. 80

b. 45 d. 95

35. A ____ is a document that describes a company, lists the IT services or products needed, and specifies the features required.

a. request for quotation (RFQ) c. request for proposal (RFP)

b. net present value (NPV) d. return on investment (ROI)

36. When companies use a ____, they already know the specific products or service they want and need to obtain price quotations or bids from vendors.

a. request for quotation (RFQ) c. request for proposal (RFP)

b. net present value (NPV) d. return on investment (ROI)

37. Many IT ____ offer specialized services that help companies select software packages.

a. proxies c. consultants

b. forums d. managers

38. ____ is an example of a nonprofit organization that publishes standards and reports for its members and the general public.

a. IEEE c. The TPC

b. RFP d. Oracle

39. A ____ measures the time a package takes to process a certain number of transactions.

a. newsgroup c. benchmark

b. parameter d. default

40. When planning a slide presentation to management at the end of the systems analysis phase, systems analysts should keep all of the following suggestions in mind EXCEPT ____.

a. summarize the primary viable alternatives

b. ignore time for discussion and questions and answers

c. explain why the evaluation and selection team chose the recommended alternative

d. obtain a final decision or agree on a timetable for the next step in the process

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

Modified Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following is true of a traditional systems development environment?

a. systems design is influenced by compatibility issues

b. systems are designed to run on local and wide-area company networks

c. systems often utilize Internet links and resources

d. scalability is not affected by network limitations and constraints

2. Which of the following is a path that development can follow?

a. in-house development

b. construct a legacy system

c. purchase of a software package with possible modification

d. use of outside consultants

3. Which of the following is true of Web-based development?

a. Web-based systems are easily scalable.

b. Large firms tend to deploy Web-based systems as enterprise-wide software solutions for applications such as customer relationship management and order processing.

c. Internet-based development treats the Web as a communication channel, rather than as the platform.

d. Systems are developed and delivered in an Internet-based framework.

4. Which of the following is true of Web-based development?

a. Web-based software treats the software as a service that is more dependent on desktop computing powers and resources.

b. Web-based software usually requires middleware to communicate with existing software and legacy systems.

c. Web-based systems can run on multiple hardware environments.

d. When companies acquire Web-based software as a service rather than a product they purchase, they can limit in-house involvement to a minimum.

5. Outsourcing can refer to ____.

a. relatively minor programming tasks

b. the rental of software from a service provider

c. the handling of a company’s entire IT function

d. BPO

MODIFIED TRUE/FALSE

1. An ASP provides more than a license to use the software; it rents an operational package to the customer. _________________________

2. A software package that can be used by many different types of organizations is called a vertical application. _________________________

3. A software package developed to handle information requirements for a specific type of business is called a horizontal application. _________________________

4. Net present value is a percentage rate that compares the total net benefits (the return) received from a project to the total costs (the investment) of the project. _________________________

5. The ROI of a project is the total value of the benefits minus the total value of the costs, with both costs and benefits adjusted to reflect the point at which they occur. _________________________

TRUE/FALSE

1. Typically, customers purchase licenses that give them the right to use the software under the terms of the license agreement.

2. Building an application in a Web-based environment might involve greater risks and benefits, compared to a traditional environment.

3. In a traditional systems development environment, security issues usually are less complex than with Web-based systems, because the system operates on a private company network, rather than the Internet.

4. Mission-critical IT systems should be outsourced only if the result is a cost-attractive, reliable, business solution that fits the company’s long-term business strategy.

5. A subscription model charges a variable fee based on the volume of transactions or operations performed by the application.

6. A company considering outsourcing must realize that the solution can be only as good as the outsourcing firm that provides the service.

7. Mergers and acquisitions typically have no impact on clients and customers of large, financially healthy firms.

8. The main reason for offshore outsourcing is the same as domestic outsourcing: lower bottom-line costs.

9. By designing a system in-house, companies can develop and train an IT staff that understands the organization’s business functions and information support needs.

10. Compared to software developed in-house, a software package almost always is more expensive, particularly in terms of initial investment.

11. Many firms feel that in-house IT resources and capabilities provide a competitive advantage because an in-house team can respond quickly when business problems or opportunities arise.

12. Companies that use commercial software packages always must increase the number of programmers and systems analysts on the IT staff.

13. Software vendors regularly upgrade software packages by adding improvements and enhancements to create a new version or release.

14. Empowerment makes an IT department less productive because it must spend more time responding to the daily concerns of users and less time on high-impact systems development projects that support strategic business goals.

15. The decision to develop software in-house will require less participation from the systems analyst than outsourcing or choosing a commercial package.

16. The primary objective of an evaluation and selection team is to eliminate system alternatives that will not work, rank the system alternatives that will work, and present the viable alternatives to management for a final decision.

17. A request for quotation (RFQ) is less specific than an RFP (request for proposal).

18. A standard method exists for assigning the weight factors in the evaluation of responses to an RFP.

19. Some vendors limit their reference lists to satisfied clients, so you can expect mostly positive feedback from those firms.

20. Benchmark tests must precisely match the day-to-day situation at your company.

21. For large-scale systems, license agreement terms can be negotiated.

22. For desktop applications, software license terms and conditions usually can be modified.

23. If a purchased package will be used without modification, you can begin planning the systems implementation phase upon its purchase.

24. Whereas the logical design of an information system is concerned with how the system will meet requirements, physical design is concerned with what the system must accomplish.

25. In general, systems development is faster, more flexible, and more user-oriented than in the past.

COMPLETION

1. An ultimate form of SaaS would be ____________________ computing, which would deliver services and data to users who would need only an Internet connection and a browser.

2. Traditionally, firms ____________________ IT tasks as a way of controlling costs and dealing with rapid technological change.

3. If a company uses a(n) ____________________ to supply a data management package, the company does not have to design, develop, implement, or maintain the package.

4. In ____________________ hosting, system operations are managed by an outside form, or host.

5. When a company considers outsourcing, it should estimate ____________________ characteristics to determine which fee structure would be most desirable, and then attempt

to negotiate a service provider contract based on that model.

6. Offshore outsourcing is also called ____________________ outsourcing.

7. Several years ago, Gartner predicted that ____________________ would evolve from labor-intensive maintenance and support to higher-level systems development and software design.

8. An accounting package is a good example of a(n) ____________________ application because it can be utilized by many different businesses, for example.

9. Both of the businesses shown in the accompanying figure need ____________________ applications to handle their unique business requirements.

10. Some advantages of purchasing a standard software package disappear if the product must be ____________________.

11. In most large and medium-sized companies, a(n) ____________________ within the IT department is responsible for providing user support.

12. Some user applications have powerful ____________________ that allow users to design their own data entry forms and reports.

13. The evaluation and selection of alternatives is not a simple process; the objective is to obtain the product with the lowest ____________________, but actual cost and performance can be difficult to forecast.

14. When selecting hardware and software, systems analysts often work as a(n) ____________________, which ensures that critical factors are not overlooked and that a sound decision is made.

15. ____________________ determines how long it takes an information system to pay for itself through reduced costs and increased benefits.

16. A(n) ____________________ is a technique that uses a common yardstick to measure and compare vendor ratings.

17. Based on a(n) ____________________, vendors can decide if they have a product that will meet your needs.

18. No matter what topics interest you, there are sure to be one or more ____________________, as shown in the accompanying figure, where people gather to meet, offer support, and exchange ideas.

19. When users purchase software, what they are buying is a(n) ____________________ that gives them the right to use the software under certain terms and conditions.

20. The ____________________ contains the requirements for a new system, describes the alternatives that were considered, and makes a specific recommendation to management.

MATCHING

Identify the letter of the choice that best matches the phrase or definition.

a. cloud computing f. physical design

b. IBS g. logical design

c. managed hosting h. Web 2.0

d. WebSphere i. benchmarking

e. BPO j. systems requirement document

1. Predicted by industry leaders to offer an overall online software and data environment supported by supercomputer technology.

2. Describes a second generation of the Web that will enable people to collaborate, interact, and share information much more effectively.

3. An example of a Web-based development environment.

4. Attractive to customers because it offers online data center support, mainframe computing power for mission-critical functions, and universal access via the Internet.

5. Another name for IBS.

6. A good way to measure relative performance of two or more competing products in a standard environment.

7. Like a contract that identifies what the system developers must deliver to users.

8. The outsourcing of a basic business function.

9. With an information system, a plan for the actual implementation of the system.

10. With an information system, design that does not address the actual methods of implementation.

ESSAY

1. Discuss at length the concerns and issues related to outsourcing.

2. What are the advantages of purchasing a software package?

3. Contrast logical and physical design.

CASE

Critical Thinking QuestionsCase 7-1

Now that they have joined the firm, Priscilla is providing the junior analysts on the team with some real-world illustrations to explain some of the recommendations that they must be prepared to make to clients, based on what they have studied in their coursework, in order to solidify their understanding.

1. Which of the following is NOT a reason Priscilla would offer as a reason for in-house software development?

a. The client has unique business requirements that must be satisfied by this software application.

b. The client wants to be able to use fewer technical development staff members.

c. The client has a number of very distinctive security requirements.

d. The client has some existing technology in place whose requirements must be met by the new software.

2. Which of the following is NOT a reason Priscilla will share with the new analysts, with regard to a client that wants to purchase a software package?

a. The client wants to be able to develop internal resources and capabilities among the technical staff.

b. The client is looking for the lowest possible costs.

c. The client is looking to spend the least possible time in implementation.

d. The client wants to be able to rely on a vendor to provide future upgrades.


You have started the process of selecting a new system for the firm and you are weighing all of the various issues that need to be considered and the resources you have at your disposal as you make this important decision.

3. As you prepare to winnow the field in your selection of a new system, you want a quick refresher on the difference between RFPs and RFQs. If you need an RFP, Simone will write it, and if you need an RFQ, Marny is responsible for writing that. Which of the following is true?

a. An RFP that Simone writes is more specific than an RFQ Marny will write.

b. When Simone is tasked with the job, you already know the specific product or service you want and you need to obtain price quotations or bids.

c. When Marny is tasked with the job, her output can involve outright purchase or a variety of leasing options.

d. RFPs and RFQs have very different objectives.

4. You have two candidates for the new system. Which one of the following is NOT a strategy you can pursue for making the final selection from among the two candidates?

a. For vertical applications, use a demo copy to enter a few sample transactions in both.

b. Contact existing users to obtain feedback for both of the contenders.

c. Perform a benchmark test to measure the time each of the two applications needs to perform a number of transactions.

d. Consult Web sites maintained by consultants and software publishers with product references and links to vendors.

Chapter 8 – User Interface Design

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. Centralized IT departments no longer produce reams of printed ____ reports.

a. batch c. audit

b. greenbar d. hash

PTS: 1 REF: 301

2. In older systems, often the user interface mainly consisted of ____-control screens that allowed a user to send commands to the system.

a. physical c. input

b. process d. command

PTS: 1 REF: 302

3. A key physical design element is the ____, which describes how users interact with a computer system.

a. HCI c. UI

b. PCI d. PI

PTS: 1 REF: 302

4. ____ describes the relationship between computers and the people who use them to perform business-related tasks.

a. HCI c. UI

b. PCI d. PI

PTS: 1 REF: 303

5. A(n) ____ is a user interface that allows users to interact with graphical objects and pointing devices.

a. HCI c. UI

b. PCI d. GUI

PTS: 1 REF: 303

6. Many physicians feel that ____ software is difficult to use and does not meet their needs.

a. HCP c. prototypical

b. indexed d. EHR

PTS: 1 REF: 303

7. Initial screen designs can be presented to users in the form of a(n) ____, which is a sketch that shows the general screen layout and design.

a. storyboard c. faxback

b. turnaround document d. output control

PTS: 1 REF: 306

8. Interface designers can obtain data, called ____ metrics, by using software that can record and measure user interaction with a system.

a. aesthetics c. ergonomic

b. relationship d. usability

PTS: 1 REF: 306

9. A ____ language feature allows users to type commands or requests in normal text phrases.

a. normal c. standard

b. natural d. basal

PTS: 1 REF: 308

10. Some forms use a ____ that contains icons or buttons that represent shortcuts for executing common commands.

a. menu bar c. dialog box

b. toolbar d. toggle bar

PTS: 1 REF: 312

11. In a data entry screen, such as that shown in the accompanying figure, a(n) ____ is a control feature used to initiate an action such as printing a form or requesting help.

a. command button c. toggle button

b. option button d. radio button

PTS: 1 REF: 312

12. In a data entry screen, such as that shown in the accompanying figure, a(n) ____ is a control feature that is used to represent on or off status and switches to the other status when clicked.

a. command button c. toggle button

b. option button d. radio button

PTS: 1 REF: 312

13. If variable input data is needed, provide a(n) ____ that explains what is needed.

a. dialog box c. menu bar

b. list box d. toggle button

PTS: 1 REF: 312

14. In a data entry screen, such as that shown in the accompanying figure, a ____ is a control feature that is used to select one or more choices from a group.

a. dialog box c. text box

b. list box d. check box

PTS: 1 REF: 313

15. Input ____ are templates that make it easier for users to enter data.

a. patterns c. legends

b. masks d. keys

PTS: 1 REF: 314

16. An existence check is a data validation check that ____.

a. tests data items to verify that they fall between a specified minimum and maximum value

b. identifies values that are questionable, but not necessarily wrong

c. is performed on two or more fields to ensure that they are consistent or reasonable when considered together

d. is used for mandatory data items

PTS: 1 REF: 318

17. A range check is a data validation check that ____.





PTS: 1 REF: 318

18. A reasonableness check is a data validation check that ____.





PTS: 1 REF: 318

19. A combination check is a data validation check that ____.





PTS: 1 REF: 318

20. The concept that the quality of the output is only as good as the quality of the input, which sometimes is known as ____, is familiar to IT professionals, who recognize that the best time to avoid problems is when data is entered.

a. bad input, bad output (BIBO) c. poor start, poor finish (PSPF)

b. garbage in, garbage out (GIGO) d. weak hand, weak hold (WHWH)

PTS: 1 REF: 319

21. On a source document, the ____ contains codes, identification information, numbers, and dates that are used for storing completed forms.

a. control zone c. totals zone

b. heading zone d. authorization zone

PTS: 1 REF: 320

22. In a source document, if totals are included on a form, they appear in the ____ zone.

a. calculated c. totals

b. control d. heading

PTS: 1 REF: 320

23. On a source document, the main part of the form, called the ____, usually takes up at least half of the space on the form and contains captions and areas for entering variable data.

a. instruction zone c. body zone

b. authorization zone d. heading zone

PTS: 1 REF: 320

24. Printed output is used in ____ documents, which are output documents that are later entered back into the same or another information system.

a. detail c. turnaround

b. output d. report

PTS: 1 REF: 321

25. Although the vast majority of reports are designed graphically, some systems still produce one or more ____ reports that use a character set with fixed spacing.

a. monospaced c. diagrammed

b. character-based d. preset

PTS: 1 REF: 322

26. A(n) ____ produces one or more lines of output for each record processed.

a. detail report c. summary report

b. exception report d. exigency report

PTS: 1 REF: 322

27. A(n) ____ displays only those records that meet a specific condition or conditions.



PTS: 1 REF: 322

28. For upper-level managers who often want to see total figures and do not need supporting details, a(n) ____ is appropriate.



PTS: 1 REF: 322

29. A ____ usually causes specific actions, such as printing subtotals for a group of records in a report.

a. control break c. subgroup

b. stratification d. concatenation character

PTS: 1 REF: 323

30. Some firms use ____ facsimile to allow a customer to request a fax using e-mail, via the company Web site, or by telephone.

a. automated c. turnaround

b. batched d. digital

PTS: 1 REF: 327

31. ____ is often used by large firms to scan and store images of original documents to provide high-quality records management and archiving.

a. POD c. FBC

b. COM d. ASCII

PTS: 1 REF: 327

32. ____ protects privacy rights and shields an organization’s proprietary data from theft or unauthorized access.

a. Aesthetics c. Ergonomics

b. Interface technology d. Output security

PTS: 1 REF: 329

33. Companies use various output ____ methods to maintain output integrity and security.

a. ergonomic c. control

b. aesthetic d. detail

PTS: 1 REF: 329

34. A ____ workstation is a network terminal that supports a full-featured user interface, but

limits the printing or copying of data, except to certain network resources that can be monitored and controlled more easily.

a. command-line c. satellite

b. prescribed d. diskless

PTS: 1 REF: 330

35. In most organizations, the ____ department is responsible for output control and security measures.

a. IT c. finance

b. police d. security

PTS: 1 REF: 330

36. Because every piece of information should be traceable back to the input data that produced it, a(n) ____ trail must be provided that records the source of each data item and when it entered the system.

a. audit c. source

b. index d. control

PTS: 1 REF: 330

37. In a ____ design, you create individual components that connect to a higher-level program or process.

a. distributed c. modular

b. dissociated d. prototypical

PTS: 1 REF: 331

38. In ____ prototyping, systems analysts use a prototype to verify user requirements, after which the prototype is discarded and implementation continues.

a. system c. design

b. command d. layout

PTS: 1 REF: 332

39. Design prototyping is also known as ____ prototyping.

a. throwaway c. system

b. command d. layout

PTS: 1 REF: 332

40. ____ prototyping produces a full-featured, working model of the information system.

a. Design c. Application

b. System d. IS

PTS: 1 REF: 332

MULTIPLE RESPONSE


1. A system is reliable if it handles ____.

a. input errors c. processing errors

b. hardware failures d. human mistakes

2. A system is maintainable if it is ____.

a. flexible c. scalable

b. distributed d. easily modified

3. When designing a report, a sample report, which is a ____, should be prepared for users to review.

a. storyboard c. form layout

b. prototype d. mock-up

4. Which of the following is a specialized form of output?

a. Retail point-of-sale terminals that handle computer-based credit card transactions, print receipts, and update inventory records.

b. Plotters that can produce high-quality images such as blueprints, maps, and electronic circuit diagrams.

c. Special-purpose printers that can produce labels.

d. Portable, Web-connected devices that can run multiple apps.

5. Which of the following is a guideline for the design of data entry screens that are easy to learn and use?

a. restrict user access to screen locations where data is entered

b. provide a descriptive caption for every field

c. require users to type leading zeroes for numeric fields

d. display a default value when a field value will be constant for successive records

MODIFIED TRUE/FALSE

1. A(n) transparent interface does not distract the user and calls no attention to itself. _________________________

2. A data type check is a data validation check that is used when the data must be in predetermined sequence. _________________________

3. Podcasts are especially important for legal reasons, or where it is necessary to display a signature, date stamp, or other visual features of a document. _________________________

4. A sequence check is a data validation check that tests to ensure a data item fits the required data type. _________________________

5. Batch controls are totals used to verify online data entry. _________________________

TRUE/FALSE

1. In 1999, there was widespread concern about what was called the Y2K issue because many older programs used only two characters to store the year, and might not recognize the start of a new century.

PTS: 1 REF: 300

2. In a user-centered system, the distinction is clear between input, output, and the interface itself.

PTS: 1 REF: 303

3. Interface design should call attention to the interface, rather than facilitating design objectives.

PTS: 1 REF: 303

4. An interface designer does not need to understand the underlying business functions or how the system supports individual, departmental, or enterprise goals.

PTS: 1 REF: 305

5. To develop a user-centered interface, a designer must learn to think like a user and see the system through a user’s eyes.

PTS: 1 REF: 306

6. After a system is operational, it is not important to monitor system usage or solicit user suggestions.

PTS: 1 REF: 306

7. When designing an interface, to provide features that promote efficiency use default values if the majority of values in a field are the same.

PTS: 1 REF: 308

8. User-selected help always offers assistance for the task in progress.

PTS: 1 REF: 309

9. Context-sensitive help displays information about any task when the user requests it.

PTS: 1 REF: 309

10. To create an attractive user interface layout and design, when the user enters data that completely fills the field, move automatically to the next field.

PTS: 1 REF: 310

11. When designing an interface, avoid terms that come from everyday business processes and the vocabulary of a typical user; instead, select complex terms and technical jargon.

PTS: 1 REF: 311

12. When designing data entry screens, provide users with an opportunity to confirm the accuracy of input data before entering it.

PTS: 1 REF: 316

13. Generally, reports used by individuals at higher levels in an organization include more detail than reports used by lower-level employees.

PTS: 1 REF: 322

14. Every page in a report should include a page header, which appears at the top of the page and includes the column headings that identify the data.

PTS: 1 REF: 323

15. Either a page header or a page footer is used to display the report title and the page number.

PTS: 1 REF: 324

16. When a system produces multiple reports, each report should have completely different design elements.

PTS: 1 REF: 324

17. An example of Web-based output is a system that provides customized responses to product or technical questions.

PTS: 1 REF: 326

18. Although online data entry is used in specific situations, most business activity requires batch input.

PTS: 1 REF: 328

19. Using batch input, data entry is performed continuously.

PTS: 1 REF: 328

20. Unless source data automation is used, manual data entry is faster and less expensive than batch input because it is performed at specified times and always when computer demand is at its lowest.

PTS: 1 REF: 329

21. Whenever possible, security should be designed into the system by using passwords, shielding sensitive data, and controlling user access.

PTS: 1 REF: 330

22. The use of a network-based application, often called a port protector, controls access to and from workstation interfaces.

PTS: 1 REF: 330

23. Sensitive data can be decrypted, or coded, so only users with decoding software can read it.

PTS: 1 REF: 331

24. With prototyping, users can "test-drive" the model in a risk-free environment and either approve it or request changes.

PTS: 1 REF: 331

25. Perhaps the most intense form of prototyping occurs when agile methods are used.

PTS: 1 REF: 332

COMPLETION

1. When designing an opening screen, the starting point can be a(n) ____________________ with well-placed command buttons that allow users to navigate the system.

2. A list box displays a list of choices that a user can select and, if the list does not fit in the box, a(n) ____________________ allows the user to move through the available choices.

3. A(n) ____________________ control allows a user to select a date that the system will use as a field value.

4. Whenever possible, use a data entry method called ____________________, where a blank form that duplicates or resembles the source document is completed on the screen.

5. A(n) ____________________ improves input quality by testing the data and rejecting any entry that fails to meet specified conditions.

6. When a validation check involves a minimum or a maximum value, but not both, it is called a(n) ____________________.

7. A(n) ____________________, which also is called referential integrity, is a data validation check used for items that must have certain values.

8. Batch control totals often are called ____________________, because they are not meaningful numbers themselves, but are useful for comparison purposes.

9. A(n) ____________________, such as that shown in the accompanying figure, is a form used to request and collect input data, trigger or authorize an input action, and provide a record of the original transaction.

10. On a form, such as that shown in the accompanying figure, insufficient space, confusing instructions, or poor organization, all would be symptoms of incorrect ____________________.

11. On a form, such as that shown in the accompanying figure, the ____________________ is the zone that usually contains the company name or logo and the title and number of the form.

12. On a form, such as that shown in the accompanying figure, the ____________________ is the zone that usually contains instructions for completing the form.

13. On a form, such as that shown in the accompanying figure, the ____________________ is the zone that contains any required signatures.

14. A(n) ____________________ is a specially formatted digital audio file that can be downloaded by Internet users from a variety of content providers.

15. A popular online input method is ____________________, which combines online data entry and automated data capture using input devices such as magnetic data strips or RFID tags.

16. ____________________ includes the necessary measures to ensure that input data is correct, complete, and secure.

17. ____________________ policies and procedures protect data from loss or damage, which is a vital goal in every organization.

18. Because source documents should be stored in a safe location for some specified period of time, a company should have a(n) ____________________ that meets all legal requirements and business needs.

19. The individual components in modular design are called ____________________.

20. Sensitive data can be encrypted, or coded, in a process called ____________________, so only users with decoding software can read it.

MATCHING


a. report header f. source document

b. input volume g. dialog box

c. modular design h. interface

d. prototype i. exception

e. report footer j. existence

1. When you reduce this, you avoid unnecessary labor costs, get data into the system more quickly, and decrease the number of errors.

2. Generally paper-based but can be provided online.

3. Explains what is required on a form if variable input data is needed.

4. When designing this, to provide feedback to users, display messages at a logical place on the screen, and be consistent.

5. Especially important in designing large-scale systems because separate teams of analysts and programmers can work on different areas and then integrate the results.

6. Can include grand totals for numeric fields and other end-of-report information.

7. Identifies the report, and contains the report title, date, and other necessary information.

8. An early, rapidly constructed working version of a proposed information system.

9. Type of report that is useful when the user wants information only on records that might require action.

10. Type of check that is used for mandatory data items.

ESSAY

1. List at least six guidelines for creating an interface that is easy to learn and use.

2. Briefly describe (including examples in your answer) at least six of the types of data validation checks in the input process.

3. List four examples of source data automation.

CASE


Andrea has a number of report templates at her disposal to respond to her boss's requests but they have all been carefully filed in a number of folders. In order to know where to find a report likely to meet the needs of her manager, she first needs to know what category of report will satisfy the request.

1. Andrea's manager needs to get a report of all of the purchases made by employees, using their employee discount, in a given week. In which of the following folders is she likely to find this category of report?

a. exception reports

b. summary reports

c. detail reports

d. control reports

2. Andrea's manager has looked over the individual employee purchases and now wants a report that will identify only those employees who have spent more than $1,000 with their discount in the past two months. In which of the following folders is she likely to find this category of report?

a. exception reports

b. summary reports

c. detail reports

d. control reports


Siobhan is going to create a dialog box for a new application and while she has been a user of dialog boxes for a long time, she has never before taken the time to learn the names of the actual dialog box features aligned with their functions.

3. If Siobhan has a dialog box option that is either on or off, which of the following features is she most likely to use?

a. text box

b. list box

c. drop-down list box

d. toggle button

4. Siobhan has a feature in the dialog box that must allow her users to select one or more choices from a group. Which of the following dialog box components is she most likely to use?

a. check box

b. text box

c. list box

d. toggle button

Chapter 9 – Data Design

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A data ____, which is a framework for organizing and storing data, consists of one or more files or tables.

a. structure c. index

b. roster d. integral

PTS: 1 REF: 348

2. A(n) ____ is a collection of tools, features, and interfaces that enable users to add, update, manage, access, and analyze the contents of data.

a. RMS c. scale set

b. DBMS d. HCI

PTS: 1 REF: 350

3. ____ means that a system can be expanded, modified, or downsized easily to meet the rapidly changing needs of a business enterprise.

a. Scalability c. Cardinality

b. Compatibility d. Functionality

PTS: 1 REF: 350

4. A(n) ____, which is used to access stored data, allows a user to specify a task without specifying how the task will be accomplished.

a. machine language c. query language

b. assembly language d. markup language

PTS: 1 REF: 352

5. With a(n) ____ language, the user provides an example of the data requested.

a. SQL c. QBE

b. IDE d. interpolated

PTS: 1 REF: 352

6. Many database programs generate ____, which is a language that allows client workstations to communicate with servers and mainframe computers.

a. DDE c. DML

b. DBL d. SQL

PTS: 1 REF: 352

7. A data ____ language controls database operations, including storing, retrieving, updating, and deleting data.

a. manipulation c. schema

b. manufacturing d. dynamic

PTS: 1 REF: 353

8. The complete definition of a database, including descriptions of all fields, tables, and relationships, is called a(n) ____.

a. connective c. exchange

b. schema d. collective

PTS: 1 REF: 353

9. ____ is an industry-standard protocol that makes it possible for software from different vendors to interact and exchange data.

a. JDBC c. ODBC

b. JVC d. OEC

PTS: 1 REF: 353

10. JDBC enables ____ applications to exchange data with any database that uses SQL

statements and is compliant with the standard.

a. HTML c. Perl

b. Web d. Java

PTS: 1 REF: 353

11. To bridge the gap between a database and the Web and enable data to be viewed and updated, it is necessary to use ____, which is software that integrates different applications and allows them to exchange data.

a. middleware c. shareware

b. hardware d. freeware

PTS: 1 REF: 355

12. During the systems design phase, ____ fields are used to organize, access, and maintain data structures.

a. glossary c. content

b. tabular d. key

PTS: 1 REF: 356

13. In the accompanying figure, a ____ is a field or combination of fields that uniquely and minimally identifies a particular member of an entity.

a. primary key c. secondary key

b. common key d. combination key

PTS: 1 REF: 356

14. In the accompanying figure, any field that could serve as a primary key is called a ____.

a. secondary key c. combination key

b. candidate key d. foreign key

PTS: 1 REF: 357

15. In the accompanying figure, a ____ is a field in one table that must match a primary key value in another table in order to establish the relationship between the two tables.

a. secondary key c. combination key

b. candidate key d. foreign key

PTS: 1 REF: 357

16. When a primary key combines two or more fields, it is called a ____ key.

a. constructed c. collective

b. composite d. parallel

PTS: 1 REF: 357

17. Any field that is not a primary key or a candidate key is called a ____ key.

a. combination c. secondary

b. nonkey d. foreign

PTS: 1 REF: 357

18. One type of validity check, called ____ integrity, is a set of rules that avoids data inconsistency and quality problems.

a. candidate c. referential

b. combinatorial d. foreign

PTS: 1 REF: 359

19. A(n) ____ is a graphical model of an information system that depicts the logical relationships and interaction among system entities.

a. SQL c. ODBC

b. OCE d. ERD

PTS: 1 REF: 360

20. In an entity-relationship diagram, entities are represented as ____.

a. triangles c. rectangles

b. circles d. hexagons

PTS: 1 REF: 360

21. ____ describes how instances of one entity relate to instances of another entity.

a. Scalability c. Cardinality

b. Compatibility d. Functionality

PTS: 1 REF: 362

22. One common method of indicating ____ is called crow's foot notation because of the shapes, which include circles, bars, and symbols that indicate various possibilities.

a. scalability c. cardinality

b. compatibility d. functionality

PTS: 1 REF: 362

23. ____ is the process of creating table designs by assigning specific fields or attributes to each table in a database.

a. Encapsulation c. Standardization

b. Normalization d. Encryption

PTS: 1 REF: 365

24. A ____ is a set of letters or numbers that represents a data item.

a. syntax c. mnemonic

b. data dictionary d. code

PTS: 1 REF: 381

25. ____ codes are numbers or letters assigned in a specific order.

a. Sequence c. Significant digit

b. Category d. Derivation

PTS: 1 REF: 381

26. Some abbreviation codes are called ____ codes because they use a specific combination of letters that are easy to remember.

a. harmonic c. mnemonic

b. sequence d. rhapsodic

PTS: 1 REF: 382

27. ____ codes combine data from different item attributes, or characteristics, to build the code.

a. Sequence c. Significant digit

b. Category d. Derivation

PTS: 1 REF: 383

28. ____ codes use a keyword to encode a number.

a. Cipher c. Encryption

b. Identifier d. Associative

PTS: 1 REF: 383

29. A long integer format uses ____ bits to represent the number 1,234,567,890 in binary form.

a. 12 c. 30

b. 24 d. 32

PTS: 1 REF: 388

30. Binary digits have only ____ possible value(s).

a. one c. three

b. two d. five

PTS: 1 REF: 388

31. ____ is a coding method used on mainframe computers and high-capacity servers.

a. ASCII c. Unicode

b. EBCDIC d. ISO

PTS: 1 REF: 388

32. ____ is a coding method used on most personal computers.

a. ASCII c. Unicode

b. EBCDIC d. ISO

PTS: 1 REF: 388

33. EBCDIC and ASCII both require ____ bits.

a. six c. ten

b. eight d. twelve

PTS: 1 REF: 388

34. In ASCII, the number 1,234,567,890 requires ____ bytes of storage.

a. eight c. ten

b. nine d. twelve

PTS: 1 REF: 388

35. Compared with character-based formats, a ____ storage format offers a more efficient storage method.

a. decimal c. tertiary

b. unary d. binary

PTS: 1 REF: 388

36. Unicode represents more than ____ unique, multilingual characters.

a. 32,000 c. 320,000

b. 65,000 d. 650,000

PTS: 1 REF: 388

37. An integer format uses ____ bits to represent the number 12,345 in binary form.

a. 8 c. 16

b. 12 d. 20

PTS: 1 REF: 388

38. Most date formats now are based on the model established by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO), which requires a format of ____.

a. two digits for the year, two for the month, and two for the day (YYMMDD)

b. two digits for the year, four for the month, and two for the day (YYMMMMDD)

c. four digits for the year, two for the month, and two for the day (YYYYMMDD)

d. four digits for the year, two for the month, and four for the day (YYYYMMDDDD)

PTS: 1 REF: 389

39. ____ is the process of converting readable data into unreadable characters to prevent unauthorized access to the data.

a. Encapsulation c. Standardization

b. Normalization d. Encryption

PTS: 1 REF: 390

40. In the event of a file catastrophe, ____ can be used to restore the file or database to its current state at the time of the last backup.

a. recovery procedures c. audit log files

b. crow’s foot notation d. standard notation format

PTS: 1 REF: 390

MULTIPLE RESPONSE


1. A ____ contains data about people, places, things, or events.

a. record c. table

b. column d. file

2. Which of the following is the advantage of a DBMS (database management system)?

a. economy of scale c. scalability

b. stronger standards d. data dependence

3. In a Web-based database design, the Internet serves as the ____ for the database management system.

a. front end c. middleware

b. back end d. interface

4. Which of the following is a problem found with 1NF (first normal form) design that does not exist in 2NF (second normal form)?

a. adding a new record creates difficulties

b. 2NF tables always contain consistent data compared to 1NF tables

c. deleting a record creates difficulties

d. changing a particular entity’s description is cumbersome and expensive

5. Which of the following is a data coding and storage scheme?

a. EBCDIC c. ASCII

b. binary d. primary

MODIFIED TRUE/FALSE

1. To resolve potential database connectivity and access problems, companies use ODBC-compliant software that enables communication among various systems and DBMSs. _________________________

2. JDBC is the language of the Web. _________________________

3. Middleware can interpret client requests in HTML form and translate the requests into commands that the database can execute. _________________________

4. The three normal forms constitute a progression in which the first normal form represents the best design. _________________________

5. A table design that does not contain repeating groups is called unnormalized. _________________________

TRUE/FALSE

1. In a client/server system, processing is isolated in a single computer.

PTS: 1 REF: 351

2. Web-based design is dependent on a specific combination of hardware and software.

PTS: 1 REF: 354

3. Web-based data design requires users to have powerful workstations.

PTS: 1 REF: 354

4. Migrating a traditional database design to the Web rarely requires design modification or additional software.

PTS: 1 REF: 354

5. Web-based systems are popular because they offer ease of access, cost-effectiveness, and worldwide connectivity.

PTS: 1 REF: 354

6. Security concerns about Web-based data design can be addressed with software that can protect the system and detect intrusion, for example.

PTS: 1 REF: 354

7. Web-based data must be secure but in order to be so, it cannot be easily accessible to authorized users.

PTS: 1 REF: 356

8. In a table or file, each column represents a record, which is an individual instance, or occurrence of an entity, and each row represents a field, or characteristic of the entity.

PTS: 1 REF: 356

9. A common field is an attribute that appears in only one entity.

PTS: 1 REF: 356

10. Like a primary key, a foreign key must be unique.

PTS: 1 REF: 357

11. A primary key cannot be composed of more than one field.

PTS: 1 REF: 357

12. Three main types of relationships that can exist between entities are a one-to-one relationship, abbreviated 1:1; a one-to-many relationship, abbreviated 1:M; and a many-to-many relationship, abbreviated M:N.

PTS: 1 REF: 361

13. In an M:N relationship, the two entities are linked by an event or transaction called an associative entity, which has its own set of attributes and characteristics.

PTS: 1 REF: 361

14. A table design specifies the fields and identifies the primary key in a particular table or file.

PTS: 1 REF: 365

15. A repeating group is a set of one or more fields that can occur only once in a single record, with each occurrence having the same value.

PTS: 1 REF: 365

16. A table is in first normal form (1NF) if it contains a repeating group.

PTS: 1 REF: 366

17. Field X is functionally dependent on field Y if the value of field X depends on the value of field Y.

PTS: 1 REF: 368

18. A table design is in second normal form (2NF) if it is in 1NF and if all fields that are not part of the primary key are functionally independent on part of the primary key.

PTS: 1 REF: 368

19. A popular rule of thumb is that a design is in 3NF if every nonkey field depends on the key, the whole key, and nothing but the key.

PTS: 1 REF: 370

20. A table design is in third normal form (3NF) if it is in 2NF and if all nonkey fields are dependent on other nonkey fields.

PTS: 1 REF: 371

21. Normal forms beyond 3NF exist, but they rarely are used in business-oriented systems.

PTS: 1 REF: 375

22. Many three-character airport codes are cipher codes.

PTS: 1 REF: 382

23. A data warehouse allows users to specify certain dimensions, or characteristics.

PTS: 1 REF: 385

24. The basic elements of logical storage are alphabetic or numeric characters, such as the letter A or the number 9.

PTS: 1 REF: 387

25. To protect stored data, users can be asked to furnish a proper user ID and password to access a file or database.

PTS: 1 REF: 390

COMPLETION

1. The ____________________ for DBMS design, which was introduced in the 1970s and continues to be the dominant approach for organizing, storing, and managing business data.

2. The inherent efficiency of high-volume processing on larger computers is called ____________________.

3. Typically, a DBMS is managed by a person called a(n) ____________________, who assesses overall requirements and maintains the database for the benefit of an entire organization rather than a single department or user.

4. A(n) ____________________, such as that shown in the accompanying figure, contains a set of related records that store data about a specific entity.

5. In the table or file shown in the accompanying figure, a(n) ____________________ is a single characteristic or fact about an entity.

6. In the table or file shown in the accompanying figure, a(n) ____________________ is a set of related fields that describes one instance, or occurrence of an entity.

7. ____________________ codes distinguish items by using a series of subgroups of digits.

8. ____________________ codes combine data from different item attributes, or characteristics, to build the code.

9. A(n) ____________________ code indicates what action is to be taken with an associated item.

10. While a data warehouse typically spans the entire enterprise, many firms prefer to use a(n) ____________________, which is designed to serve the needs of a specific department, such as sales, marketing, or finance.

11. ____________________ software looks for meaningful patterns and relationships among data.

12. A set of related characters forms a field, which also is called a(n) ____________________.

13. Computers represent data as ____________________ that have only two possible values: zero (0) or one (1).

14. Each group of eight bits is called a(n) ____________________.

15. Because it supports virtually all languages, ____________________ has become a global standard.

16. A(n) ____________________ date is the total number of days from some specific base date.

17. At the beginning of the 21st century, many firms that used only two digits to represent the year were faced with a major problem called the ____________________.

18. Microsoft Excel uses ____________________ dates in calculations.

19. All system files and databases must be backed up regularly and a series of ____________________ copies must be retained for a specific period of time.

20. ____________________ log files, which record details of all accesses and changes to a file or database, can be used to recover changes made since the last backup.

MATCHING


a. UML f. subschema

b. cardinality g. EBCDIC

c. secondary key h. entity

d. data mining i. physical

e. orphan j. logical

1. A view of a database used by one or more systems or users.

2. A coding method used on mainframe computers and high-capacity servers.

3. A person, place, thing, or event for which data is collected and maintained.

4. A field or combination of fields that can be used to access or retrieve records.

5. A foreign key value that does not match an existing key in another table.

6. As an analyst, you must understand this in order to create a data design that accurately reflects all relationships among system entities.

7. A widely used method of visualizing and documenting software systems design.

8. In e-commerce, this works best when a goal is to reduce clicks to close, which means average page views to accomplish a purchase or obtain desired information.

9. Kind of storage that is strictly hardware-related, because it involves the process of reading and writing binary data to physical media.

10. Kind of storage that refers to information as seen through a user’s eyes, regardless of how or where the information actually is organized or stored.

ESSAY

1. Four kinds of problems are found with 1NF designs that do not exist in 2NF. What are they?

2. Briefly describe (including examples in your answer) at least six of the common coding methods.

3. List at least 6 guidelines for designing a code.

CASE


Eamon is trying to choose an approach to storing and managing the data for his company: a file processing system or a database management system. He asks Perry to discuss the pros and cons of the two approaches.

1. Perry mentions that some data in a file processing system may be repeated in several different files. What is the name of this type of problem?

a. a data redundancy problem

b. a data relation problem

c. a data modeling problem

d. a data rigidity problem

2. Perry tells Eamon that systems that interact with a database management system do not need to know about the underlying data structures used to store the physical data. As a result, a database administrator has the flexibility to change these underlying data structures without modifying the systems that use the data. What is the name of this feature of database management systems?

a. data scalability

b. data authorization

c. data flexibility

d. data independence


Michelle is working with her client Malia on the design of a database. She explains to Malia that key fields are used to organize, access, and maintain the data records.

3. Michelle tells Malia that a primary key is a field or combination of fields that uniquely and minimally identifies a particular entity. She explains that there may be a choice of fields or field combinations to use as the primary key. What is the term used for a possible primary key?

a. candidate key

b. concatenated key

c. foreign key

d. secondary key

4. Malia asks if it is possible to retrieve records using a field or combination of fields that is not unique. Michelle informs her that it is. What is the name for this type of key?

a. candidate key

b. concatenated key

c. foreign key

d. secondary key

Chapter 10 – System Architecture

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ____ is the measure of a system’s ability to expand, change, or downsize easily to meet the changing needs of a business enterprise.

a. Transparency c. Redundancy

b. Scalability d. Interoperability

PTS: 1 REF: 409

2. Which of the following is not one of the main functions that every business information system must carry out?

a. Managing applications that perform the processing logic

b. Handling data storage and access

c. Providing an interface that allows users to interact with the system

d. Using a mainframe to deliver a multiuser environment

PTS: 1 REF: 411

3. A system design where the server performs all the processing is described as ____.

a. mainframe architecture c. workstation architecture

b. thin architecture d. thick architecture

PTS: 1 REF: 411

4. In a(n) ____ design, the remote user’s keystrokes are transmitted to the mainframe, which responds by sending screen output back to the user’s screen.

a. closed c. open

b. distributed d. centralized

PTS: 1 REF: 411

5. A corporate ____ can provide access for customers, employees, suppliers, and the public.

a. portal c. gateway

b. router d. hub

PTS: 1 REF: 411

6. A ____ is an entrance to a multifunction Web site.

a. DDBMS c. portal

b. batch link d. topology

PTS: 1 REF: 411

7. A ____ client locates all or most of the processing logic on the server.

a. thin c. topological

b. batch d. portal

PTS: 1 REF: 414

8. In a multi-tier system, special utility software called ____ enables the tiers to communicate and pass data back and forth.

a. shareware c. groupware

b. middleware d. centralware

PTS: 1 REF: 416

9. In a client/server architecture, just as processing can be done at various places, data can be stored in more than one location using a(n) ____.

a. SQL c. DDBMS

b. RDBMS d. ECS

PTS: 1 REF: 417

10. Cloud computing provides ____ on demand, which matches resources to needs at any given time.

a. bandwidth c. topology

b. scaling d. resource management

PTS: 1 REF: 418

11. A(n) ____ is a Web-based repository of information that anyone can access, contribute to, or modify.

a. blog c. wiki

b. iOS d. portal

PTS: 1 REF: 419

12. ____ is the amount of data that can be transferred in a fixed time period.

a. Resolution c. Topology

b. Dimensionality d. Bandwidth

PTS: 1 REF: 419

13. When developing e-business systems, an in-house solution usually requires a ____ for a company that must adapt quickly in a dynamic e-commerce environment.

a. smaller initial investment and provides more flexibility

b. smaller initial investment but provides less flexibility

c. greater initial investment but provides more flexibility

d. greater initial investment and provides less flexibility

PTS: 1 REF: 420

14. During business hours, a salesperson can enter a sale on a ____ terminal, which is part of an information system that handles daily sales transactions and maintains an up-to-date inventory file.

a. POS c. topological

b. batch d. portal

PTS: 1 REF: 423

15. Which of the following is not an advantage of batch methods?

a. Tasks can be planned and run on a predetermined schedule, without user involvement.

b. Users can interact directly with the information system.

c. Batch programs that require major network resources can run at time when costs will be lowest.

d. A batch method runs in a relatively controlled environment.

PTS: 1 REF: 423

16. ____ describes how data actually moves from an application on one computer to an application on another networked computer.

a. OSI c. RSI

b. PSI d. TSI

PTS: 1 REF: 425

17. The way a network is configured is called the network ____.

a. orientation c. topology

b. baseline d. index

PTS: 1 REF: 425

18. In a ____, one or more powerful servers control the network, and departmental servers control lower levels of processing and network devices.

a. hierarchical network c. bus network

b. star network d. ring network

PTS: 1 REF: 425

19. ____ topology describes the actual network cabling and connections.

a. Logical c. Hub

b. Linkage d. Physical

PTS: 1 REF: 425

20. ____ topology describes the way the components in a network interact.

a. Interactive c. Engagement

b. Physical d. Logical

PTS: 1 REF: 425

21. In a ____, a single communication path connects the network server, departmental servers, workstations, and peripheral devices.



PTS: 1 REF: 426

22. A disadvantage of a bus network is that ____.

a. performance can decline as more users and devices are added

b. devices cannot be attached or detached without disturbing the rest of the network

c. failure in one workstation necessarily affects other workstations on the network

d. data flows in only one direction from one computer to the next

PTS: 1 REF: 426

23. A ____ resembles a circle of computers in which data flows in only one direction from one device to the next.



PTS: 1 REF: 427

24. A ____, such as that illustrated in the accompanying figure, has a central networking device that manages the network.



PTS: 1 REF: 427

25. At the center of the network shown in the accompanying figure is the ____, which manages the network and acts as a communications conduit for all network traffic.

a. log c. switch

b. scale d. portal

PTS: 1 REF: 427

26. A(n) ____ is relatively inexpensive to install and is well-suited to workgroups and users who are not anchored to a specific desk or location.

a. LAN c. MLAN

b. WLAN d. XLAN

PTS: 1 REF: 429-430

27. The speed for wireless network standards is measured in ____.

a. Bps c. Gbps

b. Xbps d. Tbps

PTS: 1 REF: 430

28. Several ____ of the 802.11 standard were intended to improve bandwidth, range, and security.

a. amendments c. LANs

b. options d. designs

PTS: 1 REF: 430

29. The ____ standard is widely adopted and works with the 802.11b standard.

a. 802.11a c. 802.11n

b. 802.11g d. 802.11ac

PTS: 1 REF: 430

30. The ____ standard uses MIMO technology to boost performance.

a. 802.11a c. 802.11c

b. 802.11b d. 802.11n

PTS: 1 REF: 430

31. ____ technology relies on multiple data paths, also called multipath design, to increase bandwidth and range.

a. BSS c. ISS

b. ESS d. MIMO

PTS: 1 REF: 430

32. In the ____ configuration, a central wireless device is used to serve all wireless clients.

a. BSS c. ISS

b. ESS d. DSS

PTS: 1 REF: 430-431

33. In its wireless configuration, the ____ point is similar to a hub in the LAN star topology, except it provides network services to wireless clients instead of wired clients.

a. linkage c. network

b. access d. hub

PTS: 1 REF: 431

34. The ____ topology allows the expansion of wireless access over a wide area.

a. BSS c. ISS

b. ESS d. DSS

PTS: 1 REF: 431

35. The ____ was formed in 1999 to certify interoperability of wireless network products based on IEEE 802.11 specifications.

a. Wi-Fi Alliance c. W3C

b. NSF d. Wireless Network

PTS: 1 REF: 431

36. A form of wireless transmission called ____ is very popular for short-distance wireless communication that does not require high power.

a. Bluetooth c. RFID

b. USB d. Mbps

PTS: 1 REF: 432

37. The system design specification is a document that presents the complete design for a new information system, along with ____ for the next SDLC phase — systems implementation.

a. staffing c. detailed costs

b. scheduling d. all of the above

PTS: 1 REF: 432

38. The ____ section in a typical system design specification contains the complete design for a new system, including the user interface, outputs, inputs, files, databases, and network specifications.

a. System Components c. Implementation Requirements

b. Executive Summary d. Time and Cost Estimates

PTS: 1 REF: 433

39. The ____ section in a typical system design specification describes the constraints, or conditions, affecting a system, including any requirements that involve operations, hardware, systems software, or security.

a. Time and Cost Estimates c. Executive Summary

b. System Environment d. System Components

PTS: 1 REF: 433

40. In the ____ section in a typical system design specification, startup processing, initial data entry or acquisition, user training requirements, and software test plans are specified.

a. System Environment c. System Components

b. Executive Summary d. Implementation Requirements

PTS: 1 REF: 433

MULTIPLE RESPONSE


1. A fat client design is ____ to develop than a thin client design, because the architecture resembles traditional file-server designs where all processing is performed at the client.

a. more expensive c. simpler

b. more complex d. less expensive

2. Using a DDBMS (distributed database management system) offers as an advantage that ____.

a. the system is scalable, so new data sites can be added without reworking the system design

b. data stored closer to users can reduce network traffic

c. with data stored in various locations, the system is less likely to experience a catastrophic failure

d. the architecture of the system is simple and easy to manage

3. Online processing systems have this characteristic: ____.

a. users interact directly with the information system

b. the system requires significantly fewer network resources than batch systems

c. users can access data randomly

d. the system processes transactions completely when and where they occur

4. The ____ standard makes use of multi-user MIMO.

a. 802.11g c. 802.11ad

b. 802.11ac d. 802.11b

5. A typical system design specification typically includes a ____ section.

a. Management Summary c. System Components

b. Time and Cost Estimates d. System Environment

MODIFIED TRUE/FALSE

1. A client is a computer that supplies data, processing services, or other support to one or more computers. _________________________

2. A fat client, also called a thick client, design locates all or most of the processing logic at the server. _________________________

3. The middle layer provides the business logic required by the client-server system. _________________________

4. In online processing systems, data is collected and processed in groups. _________________________

5. Examples of WiMAX devices include wireless keyboards, mice, printers, cell phone headsets, and digital cameras, among others. _________________________

TRUE/FALSE

1. ERP (enterprise resource planning) defines a general architecture, omitting standards for data, processing, network, and user interface design.

PTS: 1 REF: 406

2. A Web-based application encounters all of the connectivity and compatibility problems that typically arise when different hardware environments are involved.

PTS: 1 REF: 410

3. A high-capacity transaction processing system, such as an order entry system, requires less network, processing, and data storage resources than a monthly billing system that handles data in batches.

PTS: 1 REF: 410

4. In a client/server design, the data file is transferred from the server to the client — only the request and the result are not transmitted across the network.

PTS: 1 REF: 413

5. Implementation of early client/server systems was expensive because clients needed more powerful hardware and software to handle shared processing tasks.

PTS: 1 REF: 413

6. Today, client/server architecture is the dominant form of systems design, using Internet protocols and network models.

PTS: 1 REF: 414

7. The advantage of the application logic layer is that a three-tier design enhances overall performance by reducing the data server's workload.

PTS: 1 REF: 415

8. A three-tier design includes a middle layer between the client and server that processes the client requests and translates them into data access commands that can be understood and carried out by the server.

PTS: 1 REF: 414-415

9. The disadvantage of an application logic layer is that a three-tier design reduces overall performance by increasing the data server’s workload.

PTS: 1 REF: 415

10. As the size of a business changes, it is easier to alter the capability of a large-scale central server than it is to adjust the number of clients and the processing functions they perform.

PTS: 1 REF: 416

11. In contrast to a centralized system, a client/server design separates applications and data.

PTS: 1 REF: 417

12. Although the cloud requires no updates or maintenance, it does introduce significant compatibility issues.

PTS: 1 REF: 418

13. A user’s computer does not perform processing or computing tasks with cloud computing — the cloud does.

PTS: 1 REF: 418

14. Even if a user's Internet connection becomes unavailable, he or she will still be able to access certain cloud-based services.

PTS: 1 REF: 419

15. Web 2.0 is a reference to a more technically advanced version of the current Web.

PTS: 1 REF: 419

16. An ASP provides applications, or access to applications, by charging a usage or subscription fee.

PTS: 1 REF: 421

17. A specific physical topology can support at most one logical topology.

PTS: 1 REF: 425

18. One disadvantage of a hierarchical network is that if a business adds additional processing levels, the network becomes more complex and expensive to operate and maintain.

PTS: 1 REF: 426

19. A gateway is a device that connects network segments, determines the most efficient data path, and guides the flow of data.

PTS: 1 REF: 428

20. Any network topology can connect to a larger, dissimilar network, such as the Internet; this connection is called a router.

PTS: 1 REF: 428

21. Visio is an example of a tool that can help users represent the physical structure and network components.

PTS: 1 REF: 429

22. 802.16 standards are broadband wireless communications protocols for local area networks.

PTS: 1 REF: 432

23. Securing approvals from users throughout the design phase ensures that a systems analyst does not have the major task of obtaining approvals at the end, keeps users involved with the system’s development, and gives feedback about whether or not the analyst is on target.

PTS: 1 REF: 433

24. At the end of the systems design phase, the first presentation given by the systems analyst is to department managers and users from departments affected by the system and, because of its audience, the presentation is technically oriented.

PTS: 1 REF: 434

25. In a typical client/server system, the client stores the data and provides data access and database management functions.

PTS: 1 REF: 435

COMPLETION

1. ____________________ translates the logical design of an information system into a physical structure that includes hardware, software, network support, and processing methods.

2. Many companies engage in a process called ____________________, the objective of which is to establish a company-wide strategy for using IT resources.

3. A main advantage of ERP is that it describes a specific hardware and software ____________________ that ensures connectivity and easy integration of future systems, including in-house software and commercial packages.

4. Many companies are extending ERP systems to suppliers and customers in a process called ____________________, in which a customer order can cause a production planning system to schedule a work order, which in turn triggers a call for certain parts from suppliers.

5. An information system includes ____________________, which are programs that handle the input, manage the processing logic, and provide the required output.

6. A(n) ____________________ architecture follows Internet design protocols and enables a company to integrate new applications into its e-commerce strategy.

7. A new system might have to interface with one or more ____________________, which are older systems that use outdated technology.

8. If a system must operate online, 24 hours a day and seven days a week (typically known as ____________________), provision must be made for backup and speedy recovery in the event of system failure.

9. In addition to centralized data processing, the earliest systems performed all data input and output at a central location, often called a(n) ____________________.

10. When an individual user works in ____________________ mode, the workstation performs all the functions of a server by storing, accessing, and processing data as well as providing a user interface.

11. Most companies resolved the problems of stand-alone computing by joining clients into a(n) ____________________ that allows sharing of data and hardware resources.

12. A(n) ____________________ spans long distances and can connect LANs that are continents apart.

13. When a user accesses data on a LAN or WAN, the network is ____________________ because the user sees the data as if it were stored on his or her own workstation.

14. Company-wide systems that connect one or more LANs or WANs are called ____________________.

15. Although no standard definition exists, the term ____________________ generally refers to systems that divide processing between one or more networked clients and a central server.

16. In the past, many companies had an installed base of data, called ____________________, which was difficult to access and transport to a client/server environment.

17. In a(n) ____________________ client/server design, as illustrated in the accompanying figure, the user interface resides on the client, all data resides on the server, and the application logic can run either on the server, on the client, or be divided between the client and server.

18. In a(n) ____________________ client/server design, as illustrated in the accompanying figure, the user interface runs on the client and the data is stored on the server, just as with a two-tier design.

19. In a three-tier design, as illustrated in the accompanying figure, the middle layer can be

thought of as a(n) ____________________, because it provides the application logic, or business logic, required by the system.

20. As users collaborate in Web 2.0 communities, new layers of information are added in an overall environment known as the ____________________ operating system.

MATCHING


a. WiMAX f. infrastructure mode

b. distributed systems g. roaming

c. amendment h. gateway

d. 802.11n i. legacy systems

e. router j. scalability

1. Another name for the wireless configuration in which a central wireless device is used to serve all wireless clients.

2. Process that automatically allows a wireless client to associate with a stronger access point.

3. The connection between a network topology and a larger, dissimilar network.

4. Another term for a version of a wireless standard intended to improve bandwidth, range, and security.

5. A device that connects network segments, determines the most efficient data path, and guides the flow of data.

6. Compared to mainframe architecture, these increase concerns about data security and integrity because many individual clients require access to perform processing.

7. Broadband wireless communications protocols for metropolitan area networks.

8. Standard that uses MIMO technology to boost performance.

9. When considering physical design, a systems analyst must determine how a new application will communicate with these.

10. Especially important in implementing systems that are volume-related, such as transaction processing systems.

ESSAY

1. During the final design stage, you make decisions that will have a major impact on the initial costs and TCO for the new system. At this point, you should review all previous cost estimates and ask a series of questions. List at least six of the questions you should ask at this point.

2. Discuss cloud computing at length, including its advantages and disadvantages. Be sure to include a definition of all relevant terms in your explanation.

3. List at least five guidelines for developing an e-commerce site in-house.

CASE


Grant has been asked to classify a number of different processing systems that his consultancy's client uses.

1. Grant is analyzing a processing system and he has determined that it is an online processing system and not a batch processing system. Which of the following, then, is not one of the system's characteristics?

a. The users at the client site interact directly with the information system.

b. The system's tasks can be planned and run on a predetermined schedule, without user involvement.

c. The users at the client site can access data in the information system randomly.

d. The system processes transactions completely when and where they occur.

2. Grant is looking at a second system. This system, he determines, is a batch processing system. How does he know?

a. Users can access data randomly.

b. The information system at the client site is available whenever necessary to support business functions.

c. The system at the client site processes transactions completely when and where they occur.

d. The IT operations group at the client site runs programs at a predetermined schedule, without user involvement, during regular business hours, at night, or on weekends.


Sasha is making recommendations to clients about the kinds of network topologies they should consider, given their particular circumstances.

3. Sasha's first client is looking for a network topology that is highly redundant and reliable, and she’s not particularly concerned about the expense required to install and maintain the network. Which of the following is Sasha most likely to recommend?

a. mesh network

b. bus network

c. star network

d. hub network

4. Sasha's client is risk-averse and wants to leverage whatever the most popular LAN topology is — in order to be on the bandwagon with everyone else. In light of this, which of the following will Sasha recommend to this client?

a. bus network

b. ring network

c. hub network

d. star network

Chapter 11 – Managing Systems Implementation

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. To achieve better, faster, and less expensive methods of software development, ____ designed the Capability Maturity Model (CMM), which improves quality, reduces development time, and cuts costs.

a. ISO (International Organization for Standardization)

b. SEI (Software Engineering Institute)

c. ODBC (Open Database Connectivity)

d. CAIT (Center for the Application of Information Technologies)

PTS: 1 REF: 450

2. Software ____ is a software development process that stresses solid design, effective structure, accurate documentation, and careful testing.

a. analysis c. agility

b. engineering d. synthesis

PTS: 1 REF: 450

3. ____ requires that a software supplier document all testing and maintain records of test results.

a. ISO (International Organization for Standardization)

b. SEI (Software Engineering Institute)

c. ODBC (Open Database Connectivity)

d. CAIT (Center for the Application of Information Technologies)

PTS: 1 REF: 452

4. Application ____ is the process of constructing the programs and code modules that serves as the building blocks of an information system.

a. structuring c. development

b. analysis d. connectivity

PTS: 1 REF: 452

5. A ____ consists of related program code organized into small units that are easy to understand and maintain.

a. mode c. decision tree

b. stub d. module

PTS: 1 REF: 453

6. ____ graphically represent the logical rules and interaction between program modules using a series of symbols connected by arrows.

a. Training plans c. Flowcharts

b. Acceptance tests d. Simulations

PTS: 1 REF: 454

7. In a(n) ____ approach, the systems analyst documents the system’s requirements and then breaks them down into subsystems and modules.

a. top-down c. indexed

b. piloted d. integrated

PTS: 1 REF: 456

8. In a structure chart, a control couple shows a message, also called a status ____, which one module sends to another.

a. pilot c. loop

b. flag d. unit

PTS: 1 REF: 457

9. In a structure chart, a curved arrow represents a ____, which indicates that one or more modules are repeated.

a. pilot c. loop

b. flag d. unit

PTS: 1 REF: 457

10. In a structure chart, a(n) ____ line, which has a diamond on one end, indicates that a control module determines which subordinate modules will be invoked.

a. method c. class

b. condition d. attribute

PTS: 1 REF: 457

11. ____ measures a module’s scope and processing characteristics.

a. Coupling c. Cohesion

b. Indexing d. Piloting

PTS: 1 REF: 457

12. A module that performs a single function or task has a high degree of ____, which is desirable.

a. piloting c. cohesion

b. indexing d. resolution

PTS: 1 REF: 457

13. ____ describes the degree of interdependence among modules.

a. Resolution c. Dynamism

b. Modularity d. Coupling

PTS: 1 REF: 458

14. In sequence, the four steps typically followed to create a structure chart are ____.

a. review the DFDs; identify modules and relationships; add couples, loops, and conditions; analyze the structure chart and the data dictionary

b. identify modules and relationships; add couples, loops, and conditions; analyze the structure chart and the data dictionary; review the DFDs

c. add couples, loops, and conditions; analyze the structure chart and the data dictionary; review the DFDs; identify modules and relationships

d. analyze the structure chart and the data dictionary; review the DFDs; identify modules and relationships; add couples, loops, and conditions

PTS: 1 REF: 459-460

15. A class diagram includes the class ____, which represent the program logic.

a. attributes c. methods

b. events d. characters

PTS: 1 REF: 461

16. A class diagram includes the class ____, which describe the characteristics of objects in the class.

a. methods c. events

b. keys d. attributes

PTS: 1 REF: 461

17. In ____ programming, two programmers work on the same task on the same computer.

a. parallel c. double

b. duo d. driver

PTS: 1 REF: 465

18. The objective of ____ testing is to identify and eliminate execution errors that could cause a program to terminate abnormally, and logic errors that could have been missed during desk checking.

a. unit c. user

b. integration d. system

PTS: 1 REF: 466

19. ____ is the process of reviewing the program code to spot logic errors, which produce incorrect results.

a. Desk checking c. Results walkthrough

b. Code review d. Logic review

PTS: 1 REF: 466

20. Many organizations require a more formal type of desk checking called a structured walkthrough, or ____ review.

a. design c. code

b. integrated d. interpolated

PTS: 1 REF: 466

21. In addition to analyzing logic and program code, a project team usually holds a session with users, called a ____ walkthrough, to review the interface with a cross-section of people who will work with the new system and ensure that all the necessary features have been included.

a. unit c. testing

b. design d. user

PTS: 1 REF: 466

22. The testing of an individual module is called ____ testing.

a. modular c. stub

b. index d. unit

PTS: 1 REF: 466

23. In a technique called ____ testing, the programmer simulates each program outcome or result and displays a message to indicate whether or not the program executed successfully.

a. modular c. outcome

b. stub d. unit

PTS: 1 REF: 467

24. Integration testing is sometimes known as ____ testing.

a. unit c. link

b. modular d. outcome

PTS: 1 REF: 467

25. During ____ testing, programmers must test programs that interact with other programs and files individually, before they are integrated into the system.

a. unit c. link

b. integrated d. outcome

PTS: 1 REF: 467

26. Which of the following is not specified by the detailed procedures in a test plan?

a. How and when testing will be performed

b. What test data will be used

c. Who will participate

d. What the rate of the forward engineering will be

PTS: 1 REF: 467

27. Successful completion of system testing is the key to user and management approval, which is why system tests sometimes are called ____.

a. implementation tests c. structure tests

b. modular tests d. acceptance tests

PTS: 1 REF: 468

28. Program documentation ____.

a. describes the inputs, outputs, and processing logic for all program modules

b. describes a system’s functions and how they are implemented

c. contains all the information needed for processing and distributing printed output

d. consists of instructions and information to users who will interact with the system

PTS: 1 REF: 469

29. Operations documentation ____.



c. contains all the information needed for processing and distributing online and printed output


PTS: 1 REF: 471

30. User documentation ____.



c. contains all the information needed for processing and distributing printed output


PTS: 1 REF: 471

31. Unless a problem must be corrected, or modifications or enhancements must be made, access to the operational environment is limited to ____ and must be strictly controlled.

a. systems analysts c. programmers

b. users d. managers

PTS: 1 REF: 475

32. A Web site for the ____ describes a variety of IT education and training resources.

a. International Organization for Standardization (ISO)

b. Software Engineering Institute (SEI)

c. Open Database Connectivity (ODBC)

d. Center for the Application of Information Technologies (CAIT)

PTS: 1 REF: 478

33. Using a ____ strategy, knowledgeable users can be selected who then conduct sessions for others.

a. structured walkthrough c. desk checking

b. train-the-trainer d. top-down design

PTS: 1 REF: 479

34. ____ cutover involves more risk than other changeover methods.

a. Direct c. Parallel

b. Pilot d. Phased

PTS: 1 REF: 485

35. As the accompanying figure illustrates, the ____ approach causes the changeover from the old system to the new system to occur immediately when the new system becomes operational.

a. phased operation c. pilot operation

b. parallel operation d. direct cutover

PTS: 1 REF: 485

36. As the accompanying figure illustrates, the ____ changeover method requires that both the old and the new information systems operate fully for a specific period.



PTS: 1 REF: 485

37. As the accompanying figure illustrates, the ____ changeover method involves implementing the complete new system at a selected location of the company.



PTS: 1 REF: 486

38. As the accompanying figure illustrates, the ____ changeover method allows the new system to be implemented in stages, or modules.



PTS: 1 REF: 486

39. When evaluating a system, which of the following is not necessary for a systems analyst to do?

a. Observe users and computer operations personnel working with the new system

b. Examine all source documents, output reports, and screen displays

c. Use interviews to gather information and opinions from a large number of users

d. Read all documentation and training materials

PTS: 1 REF: 488

40. At the end of the systems implementation phase, the final report to management should include ____.

a. final versions of all system documentation

b. a comparison of actual costs and schedules to the original estimates

c. planned modifications and enhancements to the system that have been identified

d. all of the above

PTS: 1 REF: 489

MULTIPLE RESPONSE


1. In a top-down design, the overall objectives of a system are broken down into ____ in a process called partitioning.

a. subsystems c. modules

b. flags d. pilot sites

2. If a module must perform multiple tasks, ____.

a. the module will be less difficult to create and maintain

b. the module will be more difficult to create and maintain

c. less complex coding is required

d. more complex coding is required

3. User documentation includes ____.

a. security and audit trail information

b. program, systems analyst, programmer, and system identification

c. frequently asked questions (FAQs)

d. description of source document content, preparation, processing, and samples

4. The test environment for an information system contains ____.

a. hardware and software configurations and settings

b. system utilities

c. copies of all programs and procedures

d. copies of test data files

5. When developing a training program, which of the following guidelines should be kept in mind?

a. train people individually, with shared training programs for distinct groups

b. select the most effective place to conduct the training

c. provide for learning by hearing, seeing, and doing

d. rely on previous trainees

MODIFIED TRUE/FALSE

1. Modules that are independent are tightly coupled. _________________________

2. If one module refers to internal logic contained in another module, the modules are loosely coupled. _________________________

3. Errors found during a structured walkthrough are harder to fix. _________________________

4. Podcasts can be prescheduled, made available on demand, or delivered as automatic updates. _________________________

5. Parallel operation is the least costly changeover method. _________________________

TRUE/FALSE

1. Although programmers perform the actual coding, IT managers usually assign systems analysts to work with them as part of a team.

PTS: 1 REF: 453

2. Using flowcharts, programmers can break large systems into subsystems that are easier to understand and code.

PTS: 1 REF: 454

3. If a module must be made more cohesive, it can be combined into one unit, which performs multiple functions.

PTS: 1 REF: 458

4. Structure charts are based on the DFDs constructed during data and process modeling and object models that might have been developed.

PTS: 1 REF: 459

5. To draw a structure chart, working from a logical model the systems analyst transforms program modules into functional primitives and object methods.

PTS: 1 REF: 459

6. Working from a general plan, a programmer uses a programming language to transform code statements into program logic.

PTS: 1 REF: 465

7. Systems analysts use application generators, report writers, screen generators, fourth-generation languages, and other CASE tools that produce code directly from program design specifications.

PTS: 1 REF: 466

8. Compiling a program using a CASE tool or a language compiler detects syntax errors, which are language grammar errors.

PTS: 1 REF: 466

9. When the output from a validation program becomes input to a master file update program, testing the two programs independently guarantees that the data passed between them is correct.

PTS: 1 REF: 467

10. A testing sequence should move to the integration stage as soon as it has performed properly in any unit tests.

PTS: 1 REF: 468

11. Commercial software packages must undergo unit and integration testing similar to that of in-house developed systems, although system testing usually is not performed.

PTS: 1 REF: 468

12. Systems analysts prepare overall documentation, such as process descriptions and report layouts, early in the SDLC.

PTS: 1 REF: 469

13. A systems analyst prepares most of the systems documentation during the systems analysis and systems design phases.

PTS: 1 REF: 470

14. The skill set required to develop documentation usually is the same as that to develop a system.

PTS: 1 REF: 471

15. Systems analysts seldom are responsible for preparing documentation to help users learn a system.

PTS: 1 REF: 471

16. Effective online documentation is an important productivity tool because it empowers users and reduces the time that IT staff members must spend in providing telephone, e-mail, or face-to-face assistance.

PTS: 1 REF: 472

17. Most Webinars are Web-based broadcasts that allow a user to download multimedia files to a PC or portable device.

PTS: 1 REF: 478

18. Data conversion is easier when the new system replaces a manual system, because all data can be entered manually, unless it must be scanned.

PTS: 1 REF: 484

19. To minimize the need to require information from two different systems, cyclical information systems usually are converted using the direct cutover method at the beginning of a quarter, calendar year, or fiscal year.

PTS: 1 REF: 485

20. Restricting the implementation to a pilot site increases the risk of system failure, compared with a direct cutover method, and operating both systems for only the pilot site is more expensive than a parallel operation for the entire company.

PTS: 1 REF: 486

21. Phased operation is more expensive than full parallel operation because the entire system must be worked with at one time.

PTS: 1 REF: 486

22. The post-implementation evaluation verifies that a new system meets specified requirements, complies with user objectives, and produces the anticipated benefits.

PTS: 1 REF: 487

23. Whenever possible, people who were not directly involved in developing a system should conduct the post-implementation evaluation.

PTS: 1 REF: 488

24. Post-implementation evaluation primarily is concerned with assessing the quality of a new system.

PTS: 1 REF: 489

25. Post-implementation evaluations are optional for most information systems projects.

PTS: 1 REF: 489

COMPLETION

1. The main objective of ____________________ is to avoid problems or to detect them as soon as possible.

2. A(n) ____________________, such as that illustrated in the accompanying figure, consists of rectangles that represent the program modules, with arrows and other symbols that provide additional information.

3. In the accompanying figure, a higher-level module, called a(n) ____________________ module, directs lower-level modules.

4. In the accompanying figure, a lower-level module is called a(n) ____________________ module.

5. In the accompanying figure, a(n) ____________________ module is reusable code and can be invoked from more than one point in a structure chart.

6. Testing two or more programs that depend on each other is called

____________________.

7. After completing integration testing, a systems analyst must perform ____________________, which involves the entire information system and includes all typical processing situations.

8. System developers use ____________________ software to document and track program defects, code changes, and replacement code.

9. Replacement code for applications is sometimes referred to as ____________________.

10. ____________________ describes the system, helps people interact with it, and includes program documentation, system documentation, operations documentation, and user documentation.

11. The environment for the actual system operation is called the ____________________ environment.

12. A pre-recorded Webinar session can be delivered as a(n) ____________________, which is a one-way transmission, whenever a user wants or needs training support.

13. A(n) ____________________ refers to a Web-based broadcast that allows a user to download multimedia files to a PC or portable device.

14. When training is complete, many organizations conduct a full-scale test, or ____________________, which is a dress rehearsal for users and IT support staff.

15. During ____________________, existing data is loaded into the new system.

16. An old system might be capable of ____________________ data in an acceptable format for a new system or in a standard format, such as ASCII or ODBC.

17. ____________________ is an industry-standard protocol that allows most DBMSs from various vendors to interact and exchange data.

18. ____________________ is the process of putting a new information system online and retiring the old system.

19. In a pilot operation changeover, the group that uses the new system first is called the ____________________.

20. A(n) ____________________ assesses the overall quality of a new information system.

MATCHING


a. training plan f. pseudocode

b. status flag g. operational

c. control h. top-down

d. parallel i. phased

e. release plan j. data conversion

1. When planning a program or set of programs, most analysts use this kind of approach, which proceeds from a general design to a detailed structure.

2. In a structure chart, typically this kind of module directs lower-level modules.

3. In XP, specifies when user stories will be implemented.

4. Passing this down from a control module generally is regarded as poor design, because logic problems in the control module can affect logic and coding in the subordinate module.

5. Because this is not language-specific, it can be used to describe a software module in plain English without requiring strict syntax rules.

6. A separate test environment is necessary to maintain system security and integrity and protect this kind of environment.

7. This should be considered early in the systems development process.

8. Depending on the system, this can be done before, during, or after the operational environment is complete.

9. This kind of operation is an inappropriate changeover method when the two systems perform different functions or if the new system involves a new method of business operations.

10. With this kind of operation, part of the system is given to all users.

ESSAY

1. What are the steps to follow when you create a structure chart?

2. List at least five of the objectives of system testing.

3. What is system changeover? Discuss in detail at least three of the changeover options and compare the options.

CASE


Jonathan is part of a team that is responsible for implementing a new information system, the design of which was developed using traditional structured methods. To manage the complexity of the application development process, Jonathan wants to employ structured development techniques, and he turns to you for information about these techniques. You begin by telling him about structure charts, which show program modules and the relationships among them using various graphical symbols.

1. You inform Jonathan that one type of element in a structure chart is a data couple, which shows data that one module passes to another. What symbol is used for a data couple?

a. an arrow with a filled circle

b. an arrow with an empty circle

c. a line with a diamond on one end

d. a curved arrow

2. Jonathan asks you how to represent the fact that one program module (a control module) determines which other subordinate modules will be invoked. You tell him that he can use a condition. What symbol is used for a condition?

a. an arrow with a filled circle

b. an arrow with an empty circle

c. a line with a diamond on one end

d. a curved arrow


Libby and her team have finished the coding of a new application, and they are ready to begin testing. She asks Emma for help in designing the types of tests that she and her team should perform.

3. Libby mentions that she must test a program that interacts with other programs, and she wants to begin by testing the program individually. Emma tells her about a process in which a programmer simulates each program outcome or result and displays a message to indicate whether or not the program executed successfully. What is the name of this process?

a. integration testing

b. system testing

c. link testing

d. stub testing

4. Emma also recommends that Libby test groups of programs that depend on each other to ensure that they work together properly. What is one name for this type of testing?

a. integration testing

b. unified testing

c. unit testing

d. stub testing

Chapter 12 – Managing Systems Support and Security

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. In most organizations, ____ IT department effort goes into supporting existing systems and making them more valuable to users.

a. no c. more than half of all

b. less than half of all d. all

PTS: 1 REF: 504

2. If significant changes take place in an existing system or if a new version is released, the IT department might develop a ____.

a. user training package c. maintenance module

b. documentation process d. utility index

PTS: 1 REF: 506

3. ____ costs include expenses for items such as supplies, equipment rental, and software leases.

a. Operational c. Maintenance

b. Corrective d. Adaptive

PTS: 1 REF: 508

4. ____ expenses vary significantly during a system’s operational life and include spending to support maintenance activities.

a. Preventive c. Corrective

b. Maintenance d. Adaptive

PTS: 1 REF: 508

5. ____ activities include changing programs, procedures, or documentation to ensure correct system performance; adapting the system to changing requirements; and making the system operate more efficiently.

a. Procedural c. Maintenance

b. Documented d. Programmatic

PTS: 1 REF: 508

6. As shown in the accompanying figure, maintenance expenses usually are high when a system is implemented because problems must be detected, investigated, and resolved by ____ maintenance.

a. corrective c. perfective

b. adaptive d. preventive

PTS: 1 REF: 509

7. As shown in the accompanying figure, once a system becomes stable, maintenance costs usually remain low and involve minor ____ maintenance.

a. corrective c. perfective

b. adaptive d. preventive

PTS: 1 REF: 509

8. As shown in the accompanying figure, ____ when it becomes clear that the company plans to replace the system.

a. adaptive, corrective, and perfective maintenance expenses all increase rapidly

b. perfective maintenance expenses increase rapidly, but adaptive and corrective maintenance typically decrease

c. adaptive and corrective maintenance expenses increase rapidly, but perfective maintenance typically decreases

d. adaptive, corrective, and perfective maintenance expenses all decrease rapidly

PTS: 1 REF: 509

9. Corrective maintenance ____.

a. adds enhancements to an operational system and makes the system easier to use

b. diagnoses and corrects errors in an operational system

c. involves changing an operational system to make it more efficient, reliable, or maintainable

d. requires analysis of areas where trouble is likely to occur in order to avoid problems

PTS: 1 REF: 509

10. Adaptive maintenance ____.





PTS: 1 REF: 511

11. Perfective maintenance ____.





PTS: 1 REF: 511

12. Perfective maintenance usually is cost effective ____ the system’s operational life.

a. early in c. late in

b. during the middle of d. throughout

PTS: 1 REF: 511

13. Preventive maintenance ____.





PTS: 1 REF: 512

14. ____ means examining the whole in order to learn about the individual elements.

a. Synthesis c. Analysis

b. Risk management d. Risk identification

PTS: 1 REF: 513

15. ____ involves studying the parts to understand the overall system.

a. Synthesis c. Analysis

b. Risk management d. Risk identification

PTS: 1 REF: 513

16. ____ is a process for controlling changes in system requirements during software development.

a. EM c. CM

b. DM d. TM

PTS: 1 REF: 516

17. The ____ is responsible for assigning maintenance tasks to individuals or to a maintenance team.

a. user c. systems review committee

b. programmer d. system administrator

PTS: 1 REF: 516

18. When setting priorities, many IT managers believe that evaluating all projects together leads to the best possible decisions because ____.

a. maintenance and new development require similar IT department resources

b. in IT departments organized into separate maintenance and development groups, it makes no sense to evaluate requests separately

c. maintenance is more likely to receive a proportional share of IT department resources

d. all of the above

PTS: 1 REF: 516

19. In a typical system, the initial version of the system is 1.0, and the release that includes the first set of maintenance changes is version ____.

a. 1.0 c. 2.0

b. 1.1 d. 2.1

PTS: 1 REF: 517

20. Which of the following is not an advantage of the release methodology?

a. all changes are tested together before a new system version is released

b. costs are reduced because only one set of system tests is needed

c. documentation changes are coordinated and become effective simultaneously

d. new features or upgrades are available more often

PTS: 1 REF: 517

21. The ____ is the configuration of a system documented at the beginning of the project and consists of all necessary system requirements and design constraints.

a. functional baseline c. allocated baseline

b. operational baseline d. product baseline

PTS: 1 REF: 518

22. The ____ documents a system at the end of the design phase, identifies any changes since the beginning of the project, and includes testing and verification of all system requirements and features.



PTS: 1 REF: 518

23. A ____ is a formal reference point that measures system characteristics at a specific time.

a. feature line c. product point

b. baseline d. risk point

PTS: 1 REF: 518

24. The ____ describes the system at the beginning of system operation and includes the results of performance and acceptance tests for the operational system.



PTS: 1 REF: 518

25. To measure system performance, companies use ____ testing, which uses a set of standard tests on one system to compare its performance and capacity to that of other systems.

a. metric c. threat

b. benchmark d. allocation

PTS: 1 REF: 520

26. ____ include the volume of online data, the number of records accessed, and the number of transactions processed in a given time period.

a. Metrics c. Allocations

b. Risk assessments d. Baselines

PTS: 1 REF: 520

27. ____ describes the amount of data that a system can transfer in a fixed time period.

a. Throughput c. Dimensionality

b. Resolution d. Bandwidth

PTS: 1 REF: 520

28. Bandwidth will not be measured in which of the following units?

a. Kbps (kilobits per second) c. Dbps (decibits per second)

b. Mbps (megabits per second) d. Gbps (gigabits per second)

PTS: 1 REF: 520

29. ____ also can be used to measure the quality of IT support or services by measuring the time from a user request for help to the resolution of the problem.

a. Bandwidth c. Throughput

b. Turnaround time d. Response time

PTS: 1 REF: 521

30. ____ protects information from unauthorized disclosure and safeguards privacy.

a. Availability c. Confidentiality

b. Integrity d. Risk management

PTS: 1 REF: 524

31. ____ prevents unauthorized users from creating, modifying, or deleting information.



PTS: 1 REF: 524

32. ____ ensures that authorized users have timely and reliable access to necessary information.



PTS: 1 REF: 524

33. Risk ____ analyzes the organization's assets, threats, and vulnerabilities.

a. assessment c. identification

b. management d. control

PTS: 1 REF: 524

34. Risk ____ measures risk likelihood and impact.



PTS: 1 REF: 525

35. A ____ is an internal or external entity that could endanger an asset.

a. menace c. malware

b. strike d. threat

PTS: 1 REF: 525

36. Risk ____ develops safeguards that reduce risks and their impact.



PTS: 1 REF: 526

37. ____ means that in risk control, nothing is done.

a. Acceptance c. Mitigation

b. Avoidance d. Transference

PTS: 1 REF: 526

38. ____ shifts the risk to another asset or party, such as an insurance company, in risk control.

a. Acceptance c. Mitigation

b. Avoidance d. Transference

PTS: 1 REF: 526

39. Preset ____ determine whether a firewall will allow network traffic to pass.

a. adaptations c. port scans

b. rules d. super-users

PTS: 1 REF: 533

40. A(n) ____ is an unauthorized attempt to increase permission levels.

a. privilege escalation attack c. Trojan horse

b. denial-of-service attack d. identity management invasion

PTS: 1 REF: 537

MULTIPLE RESPONSE


1. A main objective of a service desk is to ____.

a. show people how to use system resources more effectively

b. provide answers to technical or operational questions

c. make users more productive by teaching them how to meet their own information needs

d. choose the appropriate risk control strategy for the firm

2. Possible disadvantages of rotating IT staff from maintenance to new systems groups include ____.

a. analysts learn only one skill and the organization is less versatile

b. overhead costs increase when people move from one job to another

c. systems analysts have less opportunity to become skilled at any one job

d. some analysts must spend a substantial amount of time in a job that is less desirable to them

3. Response time is affected by the____.

a. system design c. system vulnerabilities

b. capabilities d. processing methods

4. When planning capacity, detailed information is needed about ____.

a. the number of transactions and the number of queries

b. the number of threats and critical risks posed to a system

c. the number, type, and size of all generated reports

d. the daily, weekly, or monthly transaction patterns

5. Indications that a system has reached the end of its economically useful life include ____.

a. adaptive and corrective maintenance is increasing rapidly

b. operational costs and execution times are decreasing rapidly

c. maintenance changes or additions are difficult and expensive to perform

d. users request significant new features to support business requirements

MODIFIED TRUE/FALSE

1. Both adaptive and perfective maintenance activities decrease in a dynamic business environment. _________________________

2. Adaptive maintenance requests for major errors receive a high priority and a maintenance team begins work on the problem immediately. _________________________

3. Using a release methodology increases the documentation burden. _________________________

4. Attacks are hostile acts that target the system, or the company itself. _________________________

5. When network traffic is encrypted, it is invisible and its content and purpose are masked. _________________________

TRUE/FALSE

1. Successful, robust systems often need the most support because users want to learn the features, try all the capabilities, and discover how the system can help them perform their business functions.

PTS: 1 REF: 504

2. The systems support and security phase begins when a system becomes operational and continues until the system reaches the end of its useful life.

PTS: 1 REF: 506

3. The main objective of user training is to show users how to become service desk staff members.

PTS: 1 REF: 506

4. A service desk is a highly effective replacement for traditional IT maintenance and support activities.

PTS: 1 REF: 506

5. The systems support and security phase is an important component of TCO (total cost of ownership) because ongoing maintenance expenses can determine the economic life of a system.

PTS: 1 REF: 508

6. The procedure for minor adaptive maintenance is similar to routine corrective maintenance.

PTS: 1 REF: 511

7. Although the procedures for corrective maintenance and adaptive maintenance are alike, minor corrective maintenance requires more IT department resources than minor adaptive maintenance.

PTS: 1 REF: 511

8. Adaptive maintenance always is less difficult than new systems development because the enhancements need not work within the constraints of an existing system.

PTS: 1 REF: 511

9. Requests for corrective and adaptive maintenance normally come from the IT department, while users usually initiate perfective maintenance.

PTS: 1 REF: 511

10. Perfective maintenance can improve system reliability.

PTS: 1 REF: 511

11. Companies with limited resources always consider new systems development, adaptive maintenance, and corrective maintenance less important than perfective maintenance.

PTS: 1 REF: 511

12. One technique that can be used in perfective maintenance is software reengineering.

PTS: 1 REF: 511

13. When analysts learn different skills, the organization is more versatile and people can shift to meeting changing business needs.

PTS: 1 REF: 514

14. Newly hired and recently promoted IT staff members often are assigned to maintenance projects because their managers believe that maintenance work offers a valuable learning

experience.

PTS: 1 REF: 514

15. IT staff members usually initiate requests for perfective and preventive maintenance.

PTS: 1 REF: 515

16. Configuration management is sometimes referred to as change control.

PTS: 1 REF: 516

17. When corrective action cannot occur immediately, users appreciate feedback from the system administrator and should be kept informed of any decisions or actions that affect their maintenance requests.

PTS: 1 REF: 516

18. In many companies, the systems review committee separates maintenance requests from new systems development requests when evaluating requests and setting priorities.

PTS: 1 REF: 516

19. As enterprise-wide information systems grow more complex, configuration management becomes less and less useful.

PTS: 1 REF: 516

20. With a release methodology, even when changes would improve system efficiency or user productivity, the potential savings must wait until the next release date, which might increase operational costs.

PTS: 1 REF: 517

21. Bandwidth requirements are expressed in bytes per minute.

PTS: 1 REF: 520

22. As the first step in capacity planning, analysts develop a current model based on the system’s present workload and performance specifications.

PTS: 1 REF: 522

23. In a PKE environment, each user on the network has a pair of keys: a public key and a private key.

PTS: 1 REF: 531

24. Application security requires an understanding of services, hardening, application permissions, input validation techniques, software patches and updates, and software logs.

PTS: 1 REF: 535

25. Retention periods can be a specific number of months or years, depending on legal requirements and company policy.

PTS: 1 REF: 541

COMPLETION

1. As shown in the accompanying figure, ____________________ maintenance is a type of maintenance performed to fix errors.

2. As shown in the accompanying figure, ____________________ maintenance is a type of maintenance that adds new capability and enhancements.

3. As shown in the accompanying figure, ____________________ maintenance is a type of maintenance that improves efficiency.

4. A(n) ____________________ is a new feature or capability added to an operational system that makes the system easier to use.

5. When performing perfective maintenance, analysts often use a technique called software ____________________.

6. When a(n) ____________________ is used, all noncritical changes to a system are held until they can be implemented at the same time.

7. When a maintenance release methodology is used, each change is documented and installed as a new version of the system called a(n) ____________________.

8. Commercial software suppliers provide maintenance releases, often called ____________________.

9. ____________________ is the process of tracking system releases.

10. ____________________ is the overall time between a request for system activity and the delivery of the response.

11. ____________________ measures actual system performance under specific circumstances and is affected by network loads and hardware efficiency.

12. ____________________ time, which applies to centralized batch processing operations, measures the time between submitting a request for information and the fulfillment of the request.

13. To enhance security, many companies are installing ____________________ scanning systems, which map an individual’s facial features, fingerprints, handprint, or eye characteristics.

14. The use of a(n) ____________________ password requires that the password be entered before the computer can be started.

15. A(n) ____________________ is defined as two or more devices that are connected for the purpose of sending, receiving, and sharing data.

16. To provide security for network traffic, data can be ____________________, which refers to a process of encoding the data so it cannot be accessed without authorization.

17. The most recent wireless security enhancement, ____________________, further strengthens the level of wireless protection.

18. ____________________ refers to the practice of storing backup media away from the main business location, in order to mitigate the risk of a catastrophic disaster such as a

19. A(n) ____________________ is a separate IT location, which might be in another state or even another country, that can support critical business systems in the event of a power outage, system crash, or physical catastrophe.

20. ____________________ means that in normal operating conditions, any transaction that occurs on the primary system must automatically be mirrored to the hot site.

MATCHING


a. private key encryption f. transference

b. public key encryption g. attack

c. CIA h. security

d. threat i. CM

e. mitigation j. software reengineering

1. An asymmetric kind of encryption.

2. In risk control, this shifts the risk to another asset or party.

3. A hostile act that targets the system or the company itself.

4. Protects the system and keeps it safe, free from danger, and reliable.

5. Triangle that shows the three main elements of system security.

6. In risk control, this reduces the impact of a risk by careful planning and preparation.

7. Uses a single key to encrypt and decrypt information.

8. Uses analytical techniques to identify potential quality and performance improvements in an information system.

9. An internal or external entity that could endanger an asset.

10. A process for controlling changes in system requirements during software development.

ESSAY

1. List at least eight different tasks a service desk staff member might have to perform during a typical day.

2. Explain configuration management.

3. What is capacity planning? Include an explanation of what-if analysis in your answer.

CASE


Jamal's firm contracts to provide risk management services for a wide range of smaller companies that cannot provide the service for themselves. One of Jamal's responsibilities

at the end of each month is to review the threats encountered by the companies and put them into the appropriate categories.

1. One of his firm's clients details an incident in which a hacker — a former employee — stole trade secrets from the client and threatened to release them to the competition if he was not paid. In which of the following categories does Jamal place this incident?

a. vandalism

b. trespass and espionage

c. extortion

d. software attack

2. Another of Jamal's clients has software that is so outdated that it has become increasingly vulnerable to attack. How does Jamal categorize this threat?

a. human error

b. technical obsolescence

c. service failure

d. espionage


As another one of his responsibilities, Jamal captures information from clients about attacks they have borne and from their description, he identifies the kind of attack they have experienced.

3. One of Jamal's clients reports that the traffic on their network is being intercepted and scanned for valuable information. How does Jamal categorize this incident?

a. spoofing

b. man in the middle

c. dumpster diving

d. sniffing

4. Another of Jamal's clients describes a situation in which a caller to their service desk pretended to be a legitimate user and requested that his password to his company account be changed. How does Jamal categorize this incident?

a. social engineering

b. man in the middle

c. spoofing

d. privilege escalation

cis 210 week 11 final exam – strayer new

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