civils polity mcqs

Home Assignment 5(A) - Emergency Provisions

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Question:

1. Consider the following statement in contextEmergency provisions.

1) Emergency due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion that popularlyknown as National Emergency comes under Art. 356.

2) An Emergency due to the failure of the constitutional Machinery in thestates comes under Article 360.

3) Financial Emergency due to a threat to the financial stability or creditof India that popularly known as President Rule in the country comes underArticle 352.

Which of the statement given above is / are correct.

a) 1 & 2 only

b) 1, 2 & 3 only

c) 3 only

d) None of the above

Response:

a

b

c

d

Score -1 of 1

Question:

Consider the following statement.

1) The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 enabled the President of limit theoperation of a National Emergency to a specified part of India.

2) 44th Amendment Act of 1978 substituted the word ‘armed Rebellion’ forinternal disturance.

3) When a National emergency is declared on the ground of war or externalaggression it is known as ‘External Emergency’.

4) When National emergency declared on the ground of ‘armed rebellion’ it isknown as ‘Internal Emergency’.


a) 1, 3 & 4 only

b) 2 & 4 only

c) 1, 2 & 3 only

d) All of the above

Response:

a

bc

d

Score 1 of 1

Question:

3. Consider the following statement on context ofEmergency provisions.

1) The proclamation of Emergency must be approved by both the house ofparliament within 15 days from the date of its issue.

2) The period allowed for approval by the Parliament was two months beforethe 44th Amendment Act of 1978.

3) If approved by both the house of Parliament the emergency continues forsix months and can be extended to an indefinite period with an approval of theparliament for every six months.

4) its continuance must be passed by both house of parliament by a specialmajority.


a) 1 & 2 only

b) 1, 2 & 4 only

c) 2 & 3 only

d) All of the above

Response:

ab

c

dScore -1 of 1

Question:

Consider the following statements:

1) The Rajya Sabha alone has the power to declare that it would be in national interst for the parliament to legislate with respect to a matter in the state list.

2) Resolution appproving the proclamation of Emergency are passed only by the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 & 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Response:

a

b

c

dScore 1 of 1

Question:

Consider the following statement.

1) During the National emergency the state government are brought under the complete control of the centre and the Executive Power is also suspended.

2) The laws made by parliament on the state subjects during NationalEmergency become inoperative for 1 year after the emergency has ceased tooperate.

3) During the National emergency the President can modify the constitutionaldistribution of revenues between the center and states till the end of thefinancial year.


a) 1 & 2 only

b) 1 & 3 only

c) 3 only

d) 2 & 3 only

Response:

ab

c

d

Home Assignment 5(B) - President of India View Take My results

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Question:

1. Consider the following statements.

1) The president is elected by Rajya Sabha Member and the elected member of theState legislative assemblies.

2) In case of the bicameral legislature and the nominated members of theLegislative Assemblies of Delhi and Puducherry are participated in the electionof the President.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 & 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Response:

a

b

c

d

Score 1 of 1

Question:

Consider the following statements.

1) The President should be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha.

2) The President should not hold any office of profit as he qualified as apresidental candidate.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 & 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Response:

a

b

cd

Score -1 of 1

Question:


1) The Oath of office to the president is administered by the senior most judge of theSupreme Court.

2) In emergency, the president emoluments and allowances can be diminishedduring his term of office.

3) President can resign from his office at any time by addressing theresignation letter to the Lok Sabha.

Select the incorrect answer from the code given below.

a) 1, 2 only

b) 2, 3 only

c) 1, 3 only

d) 1, 2 & 3

Response:

a

b

c

d

Score -1 of 1

Question:

Consider the following statements on regards to Presidential Power.

1) President appoints the Prime Minister and the other Minister & they holdoffice during his pleasure.

2) President can appoint an inter-state council to promote centre-state andinter-state coperation.

Which statements given above is / are correct.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 & 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Response:

a

b

c

dScore -1 of 1

Question:


1) All treaties and agreements and signed by India in the name of the PrimeMinister.

2) The President is not an integral part of the Parliament of India, but theenjoys the legislative power.

3) President can nominate 12 members of the Lok Sabha.

Select the correct code given below.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 1, 2 & 3


Response:

ab

c

d

Home Assignment 6(A) - Vice-President of India


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TAKE MORE HOME ASSIGNMENTS

Question ResultsScore 0 of 1

Question:


1) The Election of Vice-President does not include the members of the State Legislative Assemblies.

2) The Vice-President should be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha.

3) The nomination of a candidate for election to the office of Vice-President must be subscribed by at least 20 electors as proposers and 20 electors as seconders.


a) 1 only

b) 1, 2 only

c) 1, 3 only

d) 1, 2 & 3

Response:

a

b

c

d

Score 0 of 1

Question:


1) The Vice-President acts as the ex-officio chairman of Rajya Sabha.

2) In the absence of President, the Vice-President act as President only for a maximum period three month.


a) 1 only

b) 1, 2 only

c) Both 1 & 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Response:

a

b

c

dScore 0 of 1

Question:


1) The Vice-President can be removed from office by a Resolution of the council of states (Rajya Sabha) agreed to by the House of the people (Lok-Sabha).

2) The Vice-President can remove only by the cause of 'violation of the constitution'.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Response:

a

b

c

dScore 0 of 1

Question:

4. Consider the following statements:

1.An election petition calling in question an election to the office of Vice-president may be presented by an candidate at such election or by any ten or more electors joined together as petitioners.

2 According to Article 71 of the constitution, all doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of President or Vice-president shall be inquired into and decided by the chief election commissioner.

which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) only 1

b) only 2

c) both 1 and 2

d) neither 1 nor 2

Response:

a

b

c

dScore 0 of 1

Question:


1 The Vice-president may resign his office by writing to the Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha.

2. A candidate seeking election as Vice-President is required to make a security deposit of Rs.15,000.

3. The candidate seeking election as Vice-President loss the security deposit if he does not secure 1/6th of the valid votes.


a) only 1 and 2

b) only 1 and 3

c) only 2 and 3

d) all of the above.

Response:

a

b

c

d

Home Assignment 6(B) - Attorney General of India





Question:


1) The Attorney General of India is the Indian Government’s Chief legal advisor.

2) The salary of the Attorney General is fixed by the Parliament.

3) The Attorney General is appointed by the President of India under Article 76.

Select the correct statement is / are given below.

a) 1 only

b) 1, 2 only

c) 2 & 3 only

d) 1 & 3 only

Response:

ab

c

d

Score 0 of 1

Question:


1 Attorney general must be a person qualified to be appointed as a judge ofthe Supreme Court.

2 In discharge of his duties the Attorney General is assisted by foursolicitor general.

Which of the above statements is/are correct ?

a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Response:

a

b

cd

Score 0 of 1

Question:

3. Consider the following statements about the duties of Attorney General:

1 To give advice to the Government of India upon such legal matters and to perform such other duties of legal character as may be referred or assigned to him by the President.

2 To give advice to the Governments of any of the states upon such legal matters as may be referred or assigned to him by the Governor of that state.


a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Response:

a

b

c

dScore 0 of 1

Question:


1 In the performance of his duties, he has the right of audience in the Supreme Court only.

2 The Attorney General also represents the Government of India in any reference made by the President to the Supreme Court under article-143 of the constitution.


a) Only 1

b) Only 2

c) Both 1 and 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Response:

a

b

c

dScore 0 of 1

Question:


1.The Attorney General has the right to take part in the proceedings of parliament with the right to vote.

2. The Attorney General can practice as a lawyer but cannot appear against the Government.

3 Attorney General of India does not have any executive authority.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

a) Only 1 and 2

b) Only 1 and 3

c) Only 2 and 3

d) All of the above

Response:

a

b

c

d

Home Assignment 7(A) - Parliament of India View Take My results




Question:


1) The parliament of India consists of three parts viz. the President, the Council of states and the House of the people.

2) The President of India is not a member of either House of Parliament.

3) The Parliament is the legislative organ of the Union Government.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

a) 1 only

b) 1 & 2 onlyc) 1 & 3 only d) 1, 2 & 3 only

Response:

ab

c

d

Score 0 of 1

Question:


1) The fourth schedule of the constitution deals with the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha to the states and Union territories.

2) In Rajya Sabha has 245 member out of these 6 member represent the Union territories.


a) 1 only b) 2 onlyc) Both 1 & 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Response:

a

b

cd

Score 0 of 1

Question:


1) Out of the seven Union territories, only Delhi & Pondicherry haverepresentation in Rajya Sabha.

2) The President can nominates only 12 members to the Rajya Sabha.

3) In Lok Sabha 20 members are to be representatives of the Union Territories.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 1, 2 only

d) 1, 2 & 3

Response:

a

bc

d

Score 1 of 1

Question:


1) If a person is elected to both the houses of Parliament he must intimate within 10 days in which house he desire to serve.

2) A member of parliament may resign his seat by writing to the chariman of Lok Sabha or speaker of the Rajya Sabha.


a) 1 only b) 2 only

c) Both 1 & 2 d) Neither 1 nor 2

Response:

a

bcd

Score 0 of 1

Question:


1) The President has to assent to a bill before it can become a law.

2) The President has the right to address either or both houses of Parliament.

3) The President has the power to call both houses for a joint sitting.


a) 1 only b) 1, 2 onlyc) 1, 3 only d) 1, 2 & 3

Response:

a

b

c

d

Home Assignment 7(B) - Office of Profit View Take My results


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Question:


1. Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1950, 1951 and 1953 were made exempting certain posts from being considered as offices of profit.

2. It is the privilege of the parliament to do so regarding all Central executive posts.


a. Only 1b. Only 2c. Both 1 and 2d. Neither 1 nor 2

Response:

ab

c

dScore 0 of 1

Question:


1. List of non-profit offices have been mentioned in part H of the schedule to the parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act 1959.

2. Holders of these non-profit offices are not disqualified from being legislators or from contesting to be members of Parliament.



Response:

a

b

c

dScore 0 of 1

Question:

3. Consider the following Statements:

1. Parliament passed the parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Amendment Bill 2006.

2. The Primary aim of the Bill was to shield the MPs holding offices that could be interpreted as office of profit.

Which of the above statements is/are true?


Response:

a

b

c

d

Score 1 of 1

Question:


1. Before election, it is the duty of the Election Commission and its officers to look into the nominations and study whether the contesting candidates hold any post which would disqualify them for contesting elections

2. The Supreme Court set aside the election of Shibu Soren, to Rajya Sabha in June 1998, on the ground that he was holding an office of profit under the Government.



Response:

ab

c

dScore 0 of 1

Question:


1. Article 102 says a person shall be disqualified as a member of Parliament if he holds any office of profit.

2. President Kalam disqualified Rajya Sabha MP Jaya Bachchan on holding office of profit.

3. If the member subjected to disqualifications on ground of holding an office of profit then the President shall obtain the opinion of the Election Commission and shall act according to such opinion.


a) 1 only b) 2 & 3 onlyc) 1 & 3 only d) All of the above

Response:

ab

c

Home Assignment 8(A) - The Judiciary View Take My results




Question:


1) The judge of Supreme Court can resign his office by writing to the Chief Justice of India.

2) The judge of Supreme Court can be removed from his office by the President on the recommendation of Chief Justice of India.

3) The Removal of Supreme Court judge is based on two grounds - proved misbehaviour or incapacity.


a) 1 only b) 2 onlyc) 3 only d) 1, 3 only

Response:

a

b

c

dScore 0 of 1

Question:


1) The President can appoint a judge of the Supreme Court as an acting Chief Justice of India.

2) Art. 130 says that the Supreme Court shall sit in Delhi or in such other place or places, as the CJI of India may with the approval of the president from time to time appoint. Which of the statement given above is / are correct.


Response:

a

b

c

dScore 0 of 1

Question:


1) Article 124 of the constitution of India deals with the appointment of Supreme Court judges.

2) Supreme Court judge retires when he attains the age of 62 years.



Response:

a

b

c

dScore 0 of 1

Question:


1) Art. 131 says that if there is a federal dispute between states and centre then Supreme Court has exclusive power to settle it.

2) If there is a federal dispute between states then the High Court has exclusive power to settle it.

3) The judges of High Court can remain in office till the completion of 62 year of age.


a) 1 only b) 2, 3 onlyc) 1, 3 only d) All of the above

Response:

ab

c

d

Score 0 of 1

Question:


1) Lok Adalats are monitored by the Central legal Aid and Adivisory Boards.

2) The District and sessions Court is the highest court of the district.

3) When a District Judge hears criminal cases he is called the Session judge.


a) 1 only b) 2, 3 onlyc) 1, 3 only d) All of the above

Response:

a

b

c

d

Home Assignment 8(B) - Lokpal and Lokayukta





Question:


1) Ombudsman is a government official who investigates citizens’ complaints against the high government functionaries.

2) The central vigilance commission (CVC) is designed to inquire into allegations of corruption by administrative officials of the state government as well as union govt.



Response:

a

b

cd

Score 0 of 1

Question:


1) The Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) set up in 1966 recommended the constitution of a two-tier machinery of a Lokpal at the Centre and Lokayuktas in the states.

2) P.D. Deshmukh was the chairman of the Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) set up in 1966.


a) Only 1b) Only 2c) Both 1 & 2d) Neither 1 nor 2

Response:

a

b

c

dScore 0 of 1

Question:


1) The Lokpal Bill was for the first time presented during the fourth Loksabha in 1968 in the Parliament.

2) The NCWRC (2000-2002) in its report recommended that the constitution be amended to incorporate a provision making it obligatory on the state governments to set up the institution of Lokayukta.


a) Only 1b) Only 2

c) Both 1 & 2d) Neither 1 nor 2

Response:

a

b

c

dScore 1 of 1

Question:


1) The Second Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) set up in 2005 recommended that the Lokpal be given a constitutional status and renamed the 'Rastriya Lokayukta'.

2) In its fourth report on 'Ethics in Governance' the commission recommended steps to bring about greater transparency and accountability in governance at all levels and root out corruption.


a) Only 1b) Only 2c) Both 1 & 2d) Neither 1 nor 2

Response:

ab

c

dScore 0 of 1

Question:

5. Consider the following statements about the essential features of the Lokpal Bill 2001:

1) Its objective is to provide speedy, cheaper form of justice to people.

2) The Lokpal shall complete the inquiry within a period of six months.

3) The Lokpal has the power of a Civil court to summon any person or authority.


a) Only 1 and 2b) Only 1 and 3c) Both 2 and 3d) All of the above

Response:

ab

c

d

Home Assignment 9(A) - Federal System View Take My results


YOU PASSED THIS TEST!


Question:


1) The Parliament alone can make extra territorial legislation and it applicable to the Indian citizens and their property in any part of the world.

2) The state legislature can make laws for the whole or any part of the state.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 & 2


Response:

a

b

c

dScore 0 of 1

Question:


1) The Parliament has exclusive power to make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the union list.

2) Both the Parliament and state legislature can make laws with respect to any of the matters enumerated in the state list.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 & 2

d) Neither 1 nor 2

Response:

a

b

cd

Score 0 of 1

Question:


1) The governor can reserve certain types of bills passed by the state legislature for the consideration of President.

2) During financial emergency the President may direct the state government to send for his consideration Money Bill and related Bill.

3) Article 256 to 263 in part XI of the constitution deal with the administrative relation between the center and the state.


a) 1 only

b) 2, 3 only

c) 1, 3 only

d) 1, 2 & 3 only

Response:

a

b

c

d

Score 1 of 1

Question:

4. Consider the following statements with regards to Public Service Commission.

1) The Chairman and members of state public service commission are appointed by the President.

2) The Chairman and members of the joint state public service commission are appointed by Prime Minister.

3) The Chairman and member of a state public service commission can be removed only by the President.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 & 3 only

Response:

ab

c

dScore 1 of 1

Question:


1) Article 268 says that duties levied by the centre but collected and appropriated by the states.

2) Article 269 says that taxes levied and collected by the centre but assigned to the states.

3) Article 271 : The taxes levied and collected by the centre but distributed between the centre and the states.

Which of the statement given above is / are incorrect.

a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 3 only

d) 1, 2 & 3 only

Response:

ab

c

d

Home Assignment 9(B) - Governor





Question:


1) 7th constitutional Amendment Act of 1956 facilitated the appointment of the same person as a governor for two or more states.

2) The governor is the chief executive head of the state.

3) Part VI of the constitution is not applicable to the state of Jammu and Kashmir.


a) 1 only

b) 1 & 3 only

c) 2 & 3 only

d) 1, 2 & 3 only

Response:

a

b

c

d

Score 0 of 1

Question:


1) Art. 157 lays down two qualifications for the office of the Governor.

2) The governor’s should be a member of the state legislature.

3) Governor should have completed the age of 40 years before the appointment.


a) 1 only

b) 2 & 3 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) 1, 2 & 3 only

Response:

a

b

c

dScore 0 of 1

Question:


1) All executive actions of the Government of a state are formally taken by Governor’s name.

2) The Governor can not promulgate ordinances when the state legislature is not in session.

3) No demand for a grant can be made except on Governor recommendations.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) 1 & 3 only

d) a, 2 & 3 only

Response:

ab

c

d

Score 1 of 1

Question:

4. Which of the following authorities has the power to declare an area as disturbed area under the Armed Forces Special Power Act (AFSPA).

a) President of India

b) Governor of a state

c) Both the President and governor of a state

d) Armed Forces

Response:

ab

c

dScore 0 of 1

Question:


1) The governor may with hold his assent to the bill, the bill then ends and does not become an Act.

2) Governor can summon or prorogue the state legislature but cannot dissolve the state legislative assembly.


a) 1 only

b) 2 only

c) Both 1 & 2

d) None of above

Response:

a

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