class: mz1-a neet model date: 09-01-21 time: 3hrs wtn ......mz1-a_neet_wtn-30_exam.dt.09-01-21...

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: 040-45009999(360/341) : [email protected] : http://www.narayanagroup.com

Class: MZ1-A NEET MODEL Date: 09-01-21

Time: 3hrs WTN-30 Max. Marks: 720

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS

➢ Section I- Physics (1 to 45)

➢ Section II- Chemistry (46 to 90)

➢ Section III- Biology (Botany & Zoology) (91 to 180) Total Number of

Questions: 180.

➢ The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions.

Each question carries 4marks. For each correct response, the candidate

will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be

deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.

➢ The answers to these questions should be answered in single OMR sheet

only.

-:Note:-

Physics : 01 to 45

Chemistry : 46 to 90

Botany : 91 to 135

Zoology : 136 to 180

mailto:[email protected]://www.narayanagroup.com/

MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21

Narayana CO Schools

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01. If we imagine ideally smooth surfaces and if they are kept in

contact, the frictional force acting between them is

1) zero 2) a finite value but not zero

3) very large 4) we can’t predict

02. A block of mass 2 kg is placed on the floor. The coefficient of static

friction is 0.4. If a force of 2.8 N is applied on the block parallel to

the floor, the force of friction between the block and floor

(g=10m/s2) is

1) 2.8N 2) 8N 3) 2N 4) zero

03. In order to stop a car in shortest distance on a horizontal road, one

should

1) apply the brakes very hard so that the wheels stop rotating

2) apply the brakes hard enough to just prevent slipping

3) pump the brakes (press and release)

4) Shut the engine off and not apply brakes

04. A body is struck to the front part of the truck. The coefficient of

friction between the body and truck is . The minimum

acceleration with which the truck should travel so that the body

does not fall down is

1) / g 2) g 3) /g 4) 2g

05. When a person walks on a rough surface

1) the frictional force exerted by the surface keeps him moving

2) reaction of the force applied by the man on the surface keeps

him moving

3) the force applied by the man keep him moving

4) weight of the man keeps him moving

06. A block of mass 20 kg is pushed with a horizontal force of 90N. If

the coefficient of static and kinetic friction are 0.4 and 0.3, the

frictional force acting on the block is ( 210g ms−= )

1) 90N 2) 80N 3) 60N 4) 30N


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07. A heavy uniform chain lies on horizontal table top. If the coefficient

of friction between the chain and the table surface is 0.25, the

maximum percentage of the length of the chain that can hang over

one edge of the table is

1) 20% 2) 25% 3) 35% 4) 15%

08. The coefficient of friction between a hemispherical bowl and an

insect is 0.44 and the radius of the bowl is 0.6 m. The maximum

height to which and insect can crawl in the bowl will be

1) 0.4 m 2) 0.2 m 3) 0.3 m 4) 0.1 m

09. An aeroplane requires for take off a speed of 108 kmph the run on

the ground being 100m. Mass of the plane is 104kg and the

coefficient of friction between the plane and the ground is 0.2.

Assuming the plane accelerates uniformly the minimum force

required is ( 210g ms−= )

1) 42 10 N 2) 42.43 10 N

3) 46.5 10 N 4) 48.86 10 N

10. A man of mass 65 kg is standing stationary with respect to a

coveyor belt which is acceleration with 21 /m s . If s is 0.2, the net

force on the man and the maximum acceleration of the belt so that

the man is stationary relative to the belt are ( 210 /g m s= )

1) zero, 22 /m s 2) 265 ,2 /N m s

3) zero, 21 /m s 4) 265 ,1 /N m s

11. A vehicle of mass M is moving on a rough horizontal road with a

momentum P. If the coefficient of friction between the tyres and the

road is , then the stopping distance is

1) 2

P

Mg 2)

2

2

P

Mg

3) 2

22

P

M g 4)

22

P

M g


Narayana CO Schools

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12. The rear side of a truck is open and a box of 40 kg mass is placed

5 m away from the open end as shown in figure. The coefficient of

friction between the box the surface below it is 0.15. On a straight

road, the truck starts from rest and accelerates with 22ms− . At what

distance from the starting point does the box fall from the truck?

(Ignore the size of the box).

1) 20m 2) 10m 3) 20m 4) 5m

13. A body of mass 60 kg is pushed with just enough force to start it

moving on a rough surface with 0.5s = and 0.4k = and the force

continues to act afterwards. The acceleration of the body is (in

m/sec2)

1) 0.98 2) 3.92 3) 4.90 4) zero.

14. The coefficient of friction between a car wheels and a roadway is

0.5 The least distance in which the car can accelerate from rest to

a speed of 72kmph is ______ ( )210g ms−=

1) 0m 2) 20m 3) 30m 4) 40m

15. A marble block of mass 2kg lying on ice when given a velocity of

16ms− is stopped by friction in 10s. Then the coefficient of friction

is ______ ( )210g ms−=

1) 0.02 2) 0.03 3) 0.06 4) 0.01

16. A heavy uniform chain lies on horizontal table top. If the coefficient

of friction between the chain and the table surface is 0.5, the

maximum percentage of the length of the chain that can hang over

one edge of the table is

1) 20% 2) 33.3% 3) 76% 4) 50%


Narayana CO Schools

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17. A particle is placed at rest inside a hollow hemisphere of radius R.

The coefficient of friction between the particle and the hemisphere

is 1

3 = . The maximum height up to which the particle can remain

stationary is

1) 2

R 2)

31

2R

−

3)

3

2R 4)

3

8

R

18. Consider a 14-tyre truck, whose only rear 8 wheels are power

driven (means only these 8 wheels can produce an acceleration).

These 8 wheels are supporting approximately half of the load. If

coefficient of friction between road and each tyre is 0.6, then what

could be the maximum attainable acceleration by this truck is

1) 26ms− 2) 224ms− 3) 23ms− 4) 210ms−

19. A horizontal force is applied on a body on a rough horizontal

surface produces an acceleration 'a'. If coefficient of friction

between the body and surface which is is reduced to / 3, the

acceleration increases by 2 units. The value of' ' ' is

1) 2

3g 2)

3

2g 3)

3

g 4)

1

g

20. A block of mass 2kg is placed on the surface of trolley of mass 20kg

which is on a smooth surface. The coefficient of friction between

the block and the surface of the trolley is 0.25. If a horizontal force

of 2N acts on the block, the acceleration of the system in 2ms− is

______ ( )210g ms−=

1) 1.8 2) 1.0 3) 0.9 4) 0.09

21. A man slides down on a telegraphic pole with an acceleration equal

to one-fourth of acceleration due to gravity. The frictional force

between man and pole is equal to (in terms of man’s weight W)

1) 4

W 2)

3

4

W 3)

2

W 4) W


Narayana CO Schools

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22. Starting from rest, the time taken by a body sliding down on a

rough inclined plane at 045 with the horizontal is, twice the time

taken to travel on a smooth plane of same inclination and same

distance. Then the coefficient of kinetic friction is

1) 0.25 2) 0.33 3) 0.50 4) 0.75

23. Sand is piled up on a horizontal ground in the form of a regular

cone of a fixed base of radius R. The coefficient of static friction

between sand layers is . The maximum volume of sand that can

be piled up, without the sand slipping on the surface is

1) 3

3

R

2)

3

3

R 3)

3

3

R

4)

3

3

R

24. A body is sliding down an inclined plane forming an angle 30° with

the horizontal. If the coefficient of friction is 0.3 then acceleration

of the body is

1) 21.25ms− 2) 22.35ms− 3) 23.4ms− 4) 24.9ms−

25. A block sliding down on a rough 45° inclined plane has half the

velocity it would have been the inclined plane is smooth. The

coefficient of sliding friction between the block and the inclined

plane is

1) 1

4 2)

3

4 3)

1

2 2 4)

1

2

26. A body is allowed to slide from the top along a smooth inclined

plane of length 5m at an angle of inclination 30°. If 210g ms−= , time

taken by the body to reach the bottom of the plane is

1) 3

2s 2) 1.414s 3)

1

2s 4) 2s

27. A body is projected up along an inclined plane from the bottom with

speed is 2v . If it reaches the bottom of the plane with a velocity v .

If is the angle of inclination with the horizontal and be the

coefficient of friction.

1) 5

tan3

2) 3

tan5

3) 1

tan5

4) 2

tan5


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28. The minimum force required to move a body up on an inclined

plane is three times the minimum force required to prevent it from

sliding down the plane. If the coefficient of friction between the

body and the inclined plane is 1

2 3, the angle of the inclined plane

is

1) 60° 2) 45° 3) 30° 4) 15°

29. A body takes 1

13

times as much time to slide down a rough inclined

plane as it takes to slide down an identical but smooth inclined

plane. If the angle of inclination is 045 , find the coefficient of friction.

1) 1

16 2)

3

16 3)

5

16 4)

7

16

30. A box of mass 4 kg is placed on a rough inclined plane of inclination

060 . Its downward motion can be prevented by applying an upward

pull is F and it can be made to slide upwards by applying a force

3F. The coefficient of friction between the box and inclined plane is

1) 2

3 2)

3

2 3)

1

2 4)

1

2

31. A weight W rests on a rough horizontal plane. If the angle of friction

is , the least force that can move the body along the plane will be

1) cosW 2) tanW 3) cotW 4) sinW

32. A car is going at a sped of 6 m/s when it encounters a 15 m slope

of angle 30°. The friction coefficient between the road and tyre is

0.5. The driver applies the brakes. The minimum speed of the car

with which it can reach the bottom is______ ( )210 / secg m=

1) 4 /m s 2) 3 /m s 3) 7.5 /m s 4) 8.45 /m s

33. the angle which the rough inclined plane makes with the horizontal

when the body placed on it just starts sliding down is called

1) angle of Friction 2) angle of repose

3) critical angle 4) Brewster’s angle


Narayana CO Schools

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34. A body of mass M is placed on a rough inclined plane of inclination

and coefficient of friction k . A force of ( )sin coskmg mg+ is

applied in the upward direction, the acceleration of the body is

1) sing 2) ( )sin coskg +

3) ( )sin coskg − 4) zero

35. A block X kept on an inclined surface just begins to slide if the

inclination is 1 . The block is replaced by another block Y and it is

found that it just begins to slide if the inclination is ( )2 2 1 .

Then

1) Mass of X = mass of Y 2) Mass of X < mass of Y

3) Mass of X > mass of Y 4) All the three are possible

36. The angle of inclination of an inclined plane is 60°. Coefficient of

friction between 10kg body on it and its surface is 0.2, 210g ms−= .

The acceleration of the body down the plane in 2ms− is

1) 5.667 2) 6.66 3) 7.66 4) zero

37. When a body slides down an inclined plane with coefficient of

friction as k , then its acceleration is given by

1) ( )sin coskg + 2) ( )sin coskg −

3) ( )sin coskg + 4) ( )sin coskg −

38. A brick of mass 2kg just begins to slide down on inclined plane at

an angle of 45° with the horizontal. The force of friction will be

1) 19.6 sin 45° 2) 9.8 sin 45°

3) 19.6 cos 45° 4) 9.8 cos 45°

39. A block slides down a rough inclined plane of slope angle with a

constant velocity. It is then projected up the same plane with an

initial velocity v . The distance travelled by the block up the plane

before coming to rest is

1) 2

4 sin

v

g 2)

2

2 sin

v

g 3)

2

sin

v

g 4)

24

sin

gv


Narayana CO Schools

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40. The minimum force required to start pushing a body up a rough

(frictional coefficient ) inclined plane is 1F while the minimum

force needed to prevent it from sliding down is 2F . If the inclined

plane makes an angle with the horizontal such that tan 2 = ,

then the ratio 1

2

F

F is

1) 4 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3

41. The horizontal acceleration that should be given to a smooth

inclined plane of angle 1sin

I

l

−

to keep an object stationary on the

plane, relative to the inclined plane is

1) 2 1

g

l − 2) 2 1g l − 3)

2 1l

g

− 4)

2 1

g

l +

42. The force required to move a body up a rough inclined plane is

double the force required to prevent the body from sliding down the

plane. The coefficient of friction when the angle of inclination of the

plane is 60° is

1) 1

2 2)

1

3 3)

1

2 4)

1

3

43. The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination ‘ ’ is perfectly

smooth while the lower half is rough. A block starting from rest at

the top of the plane will again come to rest at the bottom. The

coefficient of friction between the block and the lower half of the

plane is given by

1) 2 tan = 2) 2

tan =

3) tan = 4)

1

tan =

44. A block weighing 10kg is at rest on a horizontal table. The

coefficient of static friction between the block and the table is 0.5.

If a force acts downward at 060 with the horizontal, how large can

it be without causing the block to move? ( )210g ms−=

1) 346N 2) 446 N 3) 746N 4) 846N

45. A smooth block is released from rest on a 45° inclined plane and

it slides a distance ‘d’. The time taken to slide is n times that on a

smooth inclined plane. The coefficient of friction

1) 2

11k

n = − 2)

2

11k

n = − 3)

2

1

1k

n =

− 4)

2

1

1k

n =

−


Narayana CO Schools

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46. The ratio among most probable Velocity, mean velocity and root

mean square velocity is given by

1) 1:2: 3 2) 1: 2 : 3

3) 2 : 3 : 8/ 4) 2 : 8/ : 3

47. Which of the following has maximum root mean square velocity of

the same temperature

1) 2SO 2) 2CO 3) 2O 4) 2H

48. The temperature at which RMS velocity of 2SO molecules is half

that of He molecules at 300K is

1) 150K 2) 600K 3) 900K 4) 1200K

49. The temperature of an ideal gas is increased from 140K to 560K. If

at 140 K the root mean square velocity of the gas molecules is u,

at 560 K it becomes

1) 5u 2) 2u 3) u/2 4) u/4

50. The average velocity of an ideal gas molecule at 27oC is 0.3 /sec.m

The average velocity at 927oC will be

1) 0.6 /secm 2) 0.3 /secm 3) 0.9 /secm 4) 3.0 /secm

51. The average kinetic energy associated with one mole of a gas is

1) 1

2RT 2)

3

2KT 3)

3

2RT 4)

1

2KT

52. Intermolecular forces of attraction are more in

1) Fluorine 2) Iodine

3) Bromine 4) Chlorine

53. Gram molar volume of a gas under S.A.T.P conditions is

1) 22.414L 2) 22.711L

3) 24.789L 4) 21.789L

54. Density at S.T.P is very high for the following gas

1) Methane 2) Nitrogen

3) Helium 4) Carbon dioxide


Narayana CO Schools

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55. An ideal gas will have maximum density when

1) 0.5P = atm, 600T K= 2) 2P = atm, 150T K=

3) 1P = amt, 300T K= 4) 1.0P = atm, 500T K=

56. Absolute zero is defined as the temperature

1) At which all molecular motion ceases

2) At which liquid helium boils

3) At which ether boils

4) All of the above

57. Containers A and B have same gases. Pressure, Volume and

temperature of A, are all twice that of B, then the ration of number

of molecules of A and B are

1) 1:2 2) 2:1 3) 1:4 4) 4:1

58. Pressure of 1g of an ideal gas A at 27o C is found to be 2 bar. When

2g of another ideal gas B is introduced in the same flask at the

same temperature, the pressure become 3 bar. Find a relationship

between their molecular masses.

1) 4A BM M= 2) 4B AM M=

3) 2A BM M= 4) 2B AM M=

59. For a given mass of gas isobar is the graph drawn between

1) P and volume at constant T 2) T and P at constant V

3) T and V at constant P 4) P and 1V

at constant T

60. If P, V, T represent pressure, volume and temperature of the gas,

the correct representation of Boyle’s law is

1) 1

VT

( at constant P) 2) PV RT=

3) 1

VP

( at constant T) 4) PV nRT=


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61. Which of the following graphs represent Boyle’s law

1) 2)

3) 4)

62. Which of the following pairs will diffuse at the same rate through a

porous plug

1) 2,CO NO 2) 2 2,NO CO

3) 3 3,NH PH 4) 2 6,NO C H

63. If three unreactive gases having partial pressures ,A BP P and CP and

their moles are 1, 2 and 3 respectively then their total pressure will

be

1) A B CP P P P= + + 2) 6

A B CP P PP+ +

=

3) 3

A B CP P PP+ +

= 4) None

64. An what temperature will be rate of effusion of 2N be 1.625 times

the rate of effusion of 2SO at 500oC ?

1) 273 K 2) 830 K

3) 110 K 4) 173 K

65. The rate of diffusion of hydrogen gas is

1) 1.4 time to He gas 2) same as gas

3) 5 times to gas 4) 2 times to gas

66. Hydrogen diffuses six times faster than gas. The molar mass of gas

is

1) 72 2) 6 3) 24 4) 36


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67. According to Grahman’s law at a given temperature, the ratio of the

rates of diffusion /A Br r of gases A and B is given by

1) ( ) ( )1/2

/ /A B A BP P M M 2) ( ) ( )1/2

/ /A B A BM M P P

3) ( ) ( )1/2

/ /A B B AP P M M 4) ( ) ( )1/2

/ /A B B AM M P P

68. A solution is prepared by adding 5g of substance x to 18g of water.

Calculate the mass percent of the solute.

1) 21.74% 2) 31.74% 3) 41.74% 4) 51.74%

69. A solution is prepared by adding 360g of glucose to 864g of water.

Calculate mole faction of glucose (molar mass of glucose = 180)

1) 0.06 2) 0.04 3) 1 4) 4

70. A given solution of NaOH contains 4.00g of NaOH per litre of

solution. Calculate the molarity of this solution.

1) 0.4M 2) 0.3M 3) 0.2M 4) 0.1M

71. 74.5 of metal chloride contains 35.5 g of chlorine. The equivalent

weight of metal is

1) 74.5 2) 39 3) 35.5 4) 7.45

72. Equivalent wight of crystalline oxalic acid is

1) 90 2) 63 3) 53 4) 45

73. Equivalent mass of 3 4H PO for the given reaction

( )3 4 4 22 2H PO Ca OH CaHPO H O+ → +

1) 1

M 2)

2

M 3) 2M 4)

4

M

74. 100 ml of 0.2N HCl solution is added to 100 ml of 0.2N 3AgNO

solution. The molarity of nitrate ions in the resulting mixture will

be

1) 0.5 M 2) 0.05 M 3) 0.1 M 4) 0.2 M

75. The density of 3 M solution of NaCl is 1.25 g 1mL− . The molality of

the solution is

1) 2.79m 2) 1.79m

3) 3.5m 4) 5.58m


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76. The molarity of ( )2 498% 1.8 /H SO d g ml= by wt. is

1) 6M 2) 18M 3) 10M 4) 4M

77. If 1.26 gram of oxalic acid is dissolved in 250ml of solution then its

normality is

1) 0.05 2) 0.04 3) 0.02 4) 0.08

78. Which one of these solution has the highest normality?

1) 8 100gr KOH per ml 2) 2 40.5M H SO

3) 6gr ofNaOH per 100ml 4) 3 41N H PO

79. Which has maximum number of molecules among the following?

1) 244gmCO 2) 348gmO

3) 28gmH 4) 264gmSO

80. How many grams of concentrated nitric acid solution should be

used to prepared 250 mL of 32.0 ?M HNO The concentrated acid is

70% 3HNO

1) 390.0 .g conc HNO 2) 370.0 .g conc HNO

3) 354.0 .gconc HNO 4) 345.0 .g conc HNO

81. If 100 mL of 2 41NH SO is mixed with 100 mL of 1 M NaOH solution.

The resulting solution will be

1) Highly acidic 2) Neutral

3) Highly basic 4) Slightly acidic

82. A solution contains 10 moles of sucrose in 1kg of solvent. calculate

the molality of solution in mole kg -1

1) 10 2) 20 3) 30 4) 40


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83. The equivalent mass of nitrogen in nitrogen pentoxide is

1) 14 2) 28 3) 2.8 4) 4.66

84. If 5.85g NaCl is dissolved in 90 g of water, the mole fraction of

solute is

1) 0.0196 2) 0.01 3) 0.1 4) 0.2

85. Mass percentage (w/w) if ethylene glycol ( )2 2HOCH CH OH− in a

aqueous solution is 20, then mole fraction of solute is

1) 0.5 2) 0.067 3) 0.1 4) 0.4

86. The volume of water to be added to 400 ml of N/8 HCL to make it

exactly N/12is

1) 400ml 2) 300ml 3) 200ml 4) 100ml

87. How many grams of 40% pure sodium hydroxide is dissolved in 0.5

M, 250 ml NaOH solution?

1) 5 gm 2) 2g 3) 12.5 g 4) 4 gm

88. Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.0 molal aqueous solution is:

1) 0.0344 2) 1.7700 3) 0.1770 4) 0.0177

89. A molal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in

1) 1000g of the solvent 2) one litre of the solvent

3) one litre of the solution

4) 22.4 litres of the solution

90. 206.02 10 molecules of urea are present in 100 mL of its solution,

the concentration of solution is

1) 0.01 M 2) 0.001 M 3) 0.1 M 4) 0.2 M


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91. Which one of the following taxonomical aid is used for identification

of plants and animal tased on similarities and dissimirities?

1) Flora 2) Keys

3) Monographs 4) Catalogues

92. Which one of the following is not a correct statement?

1) Biological gardens have colletion of living plants for reference

2) Key is a taxonomic and for identification of specimens

3) A museum has collection of photographs of plants and animals

4) Hebarium is store house that contains dried, pressed and

preserved plant specimens

93. For wheat which of the following combination is correct?

1) Genus→ Triticum, Family→ poaceae, order→poales, class

→Monocotyledonae

2) Genus→Triticum, Family→poaceae; order→poales class

→Dicotyledonae

3) Genus→Triticum, Family→poaceae, order→ sapindales class

→Monocotyledonae

4) Genus→Triticum; Family→anacondiaceae; order→poales,

class→monocotyledonae

94. Identify the mismatched pair

1) Panthera leo–Belongs to class mammalian

2) Musca domestica –The commn house lozard a reptile

3) Solanum tabarosum –A dicotyledonous plant

4) Triticum aestivum –Angiosperic plant

95. Which one of the following statement is incorrect?

1) indica, tuberosum and leo represents the specific epithets

2) Monocotyledonae and Dicotyledonae are the two classes of

division Angiospermae

3) Solnanum, panthera and Mangifera represent the generic

epithets

4) In plants, classes with a few similar characters are assigned to

a lower category called division


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96. Two organisms are present in the same class but not in the same

family. They may belong to same

1) genus 2) species 3) varity 4) order

97. Study the following statements and identify the correct ones

I) Herbarium is a store house of collected plant specimens that are

dried, pressed and preserved on sheets

II) Flora provides the index to the plant species found in a

particular area.

III) Monographs contain information on only one taxon

1) I and II only 2) II and III only

3) I and III only 4) I,II and III

98. Match the following and choose the correct option

Column-I Column-II

A) Family I) tuberosum

B) Order II) slanum

C) Species III) polymoniales

D) Genus IV) solanacae

1) A–IV,B–II,C–I,D–II 2) A–I,B–II,C–I,D–IV

3) A–II,B–IV,C–I,D–II 4) A–II,B–I,C–IV,D–II

99. Which of the following options are represents the correct

classification for the animal of tiger?

1) class-vertibereta; order-felidae;family-felidae; genus-panthara,

species-leo

2) class-Mammalian, order-carnivora; family –felidae genus-

panthera;specics-tigris

3) class-Felidae; order-chiroptera; family-felidae; genes-

Panthera;species-tigris

4) class-Mammalian; order –carnivora; Family-felidae; genes-

panthera; species-leo

100. Mangifera is a

1) variety 2) species 3) genus 4) class


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101. ‘X’ being a higher category is the assemblage of families which

exhibit a few ‘Y’ characters. The ‘Z’ characters are less in a number

as compared to different genera included in a family identify X Y

and Z

1) X-order; Y-Similar;Z-similar

2) X-aenus; Y-Similar; Z-Different

3) X–species; Y-Different;Z-Similar

4) X-class; Y-Different; Z-Different

102. Read the following species

Man, House fly, Mango, wheat, Dog, cat, Lion, Tiger, Potato,

Leopard and Barijal

Given here belong to how many different families?

1) 4 2) 7 3) 5 4) 6

103. Fill in the blanks according to taxonomical aids

1) 1→Flora; 2→kingdom; 3→Botanical gardens

2) 1→Catalogues; 2→keys; 3→species

3) 1→Biological graden; 2→Musem; 3→keys

4) 1→Monographs; 2→order; 3→Manuals

104. Each plant is labeled indicating its Botanical/scientific name and

its family. The taxonomical aid used for this is

1) Museum 2) Botanical garden

3) Zoological park 4) Herbarium

105. Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae are included in the order

polynomials mainly on the basis of

1) Vegetative characters 2) Morphological characters

3) Floral characters 4) Somatic characters


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106. Which of the following taxonomical aids is being described by the

given statements (I-IV)?

I) They are generally established in educational inistutes.

II) They have collection of preserved plant and animal specimens

for study and reference

III) Insects are preserved in boxes of after collecting killing and

pinning

IV) They often have collections of skeletons of animals too

1) Herbarium 2) Museum

3) Zoological park 4) Botanical gardens

107. Read the following statements

Statement-I The family solanaceae includes a number of genera

like solanum, petunia and Datara etc

Statement-II Family contains one or more related genera

1) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct

2) Statement-I incorrect Statement-I correct

3) Statement-I correct Statement-II incorrect

4) Statement-I and Statement-II both are incorrect

108. Match the following

Column-I Column-II

A) Couplet I) Each statement in the key

B) Lead II) Information on any one taxon

C) Manuals III) A pair of contrasting characters

D) Monographs IV) Specially designed for ready reference

1) A→III,B→I,C→IV,D→II 2) A→II,B→I,C→IV,D→III

3) A→I,B→II,C→IV,D→II 4) A→I,B→II,C→II,D→III

109. The taxonomic unit phylum is the classification of animals is

equalent to which hierarchial level of classification of plants

1) Class 2) Order

3) Division 4) Family


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110. Consider the following diagram and fill the following blank

spaces/boxes

1) A→strain; B→order; C→subkingdom;

2) A→subspaces; B→tribe; C→kingdom

3) A→subspaces; B→order;C→Domine

4) A→species; B→order ;C→Kingdom

111. Read the following and identify the A,B and C in this below

respectively

I) Indian Botanical garden ______A______

II) National Botanical Research Institute______ B_______

III) The famous Botanical gardens are at______ C________

1) A→kew (England); B→Lucknow (India); C→Howrah (India)

2) A→Howrah (India); B→Lucknow (India); C→Kew (England)

3) A→Howrah (England); B→Lucknow (Britan); C→Kew (England)

4) A→Lucknow (India); B→Howrah (India); C→Kew (England)


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112. Which of the following shows the correct example of taxonomical

category–Genus?

1) Lion, leopard, and Tigor belong to panthera

2) Monkey, Gorilla and gibbon are placed in mammalian

3) Solanum, petunia and datura are placed in solanaceae

4) Mangifiru indica, solanum tuberosum and panther leo


Column-I Column-II

A) Potato I) Mangifera indica

B) Brinjal II) Solanum tuberosum

C) Mango III) Tritium aestivum

D) Wheat IV) Solanum melongena

1) A→II, B→IV, C→I,D→III 2) A→III, B→IV, C→I,D→II

3) A→IV, B→II, C→I,D→III 4) A→I, B→IV, C→II,D→III

114. There is a need to standardize the naming of living organisms such

that a particular organism is known by the same name all over the

world this process is called

1) Systematics 2) Cytotaxonomy

3) Nomenclature 4) Taxonomy

115. The Title Alexander “Agassiz professor of zoology emeritus goes to

1) P.Mehashwari 2) R.Mishra

3) G.N Ramachandran 4) Ernst mayr

116. Human beings were since long not only interested in knowing more

about different kinds of organisms and their diversities, but also

the relationship among them. This branch of study is referred to as

1) classification 2) systematics

3) Taxomy 4) Identification


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117. Read the following statements and identify the incorrect one in this

below

1) Mountains, bounders and sand mounds do grow if we take

increase in

2) Many organisms like males, sterile worker bees and infertile

human couples do not reproduce at all

3) Living organism are self replicating evolving and self regulating

interactive system capable of responding to external stimuli

4) Isolated metabolic reaction in vitro are living things

118. The number of species that are known and described ranges

between

1) 1.5–1.7 millions 2) 1.7–1.8 millions

3) 1.7–1.8lakhs 4) 1.5–1.7lakhs

119. The process by which anything grouped into convenient categories

based on some easily observable characters is called

1) systematic 2) New systematics 3) classification 4) called

120. In chlamydomonas and Amoeba

1) Repoduction is synonymous with growth i.e increase in number

of cells

2) Multicellular organization may be formed

3) Goruth does not occur by increase in mous

4) Growth occur by increase in mass but not by increases in

number

121. Read the following statements

I) consciousness is the defining prosperity of living organisms

II) The environmental stimuli can be physical, chemical or

biological

III) All organism can sense and respond to stimuli

IV) All organisms show the property of self – consciousness

V) Few living organisms can not sense and respond to the

environment

How many of the above statements are incorrect?

1) Three 2) one 3) two 4) four


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122. In binomial nomenclature system

1) A scientific name has one part only

2) A scientific name has two components the generic name and

specific epithet

3) A scientific name is same as local name

4) A scientific name has three parts the generic name specific

epithet and subspecific name

123. Fill in the balnks

In ______X______ growth by cell division occurs continuously

through their life span. In ______Y_____, this growth is seen only up

to a certain age

Identify the X and Y in this below respectively

1) X–plants; Y–Animal

2) X–Animal; Y–Plant

3) X- Prokaryotes; Y–Eukaryotes

4) X–Eukaryotes; Y–Prokaryotes

124 The basic components of taxonomy are

A) characterization B) Identification

C) Nomenclature D) Classification

1) B, C and D only 2) A, C and D only

3) A, B and C only 4) A, B, C and D

125. Ernst Mayr’s work is related to this branch of biology

1) Physiology 2) Ecology

3) Evolutionary biology 4) Embryology

126. __________and_________are twin characteristics of growth

respectively

1) Increase in growth and increase in number of bivalents

2) Increase in mass and increase number of individual

3) Increase in growth increase in reproduction

4) Increase in mutualism and increase in consciousness


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127. Which of the following statements is wrong w.r.t rules of

nomenclature?

1) The first word denoting the genus starts with a capital letter

2) The specific epithet starts with a small letter

3) Biological names are printed in italics to indicate their Latin

origin

4) In the biological name Mangifera indica L ‘L’ denotes the word

‘Latin’

128. Identify a set which does not possess defining properties of living

organisms?

1) consciousness, metabolism

2) cellular organization metabolism

3) reproduction growth

4) cellular organization, cons ciousness

129. Each category referred to as a unit of classififcation, in fact

represents a rank and is commonly termed as

1) Taxon 2) Species 3) Genus 4) Family

130. Identify the correct statements about reproduction

I) It produces progeny with more or less similar features to parents

II) It occurs by involving one parent (asexual) or two parents

III) It is through budding pragmentation, spores or gametes

IV) It is not observed in non living organisms

1) I,II,III and IV 2) All except-I

3) All except-IV 4) All except-III


Column-I Column-II

A) Metabolism I) off-springs formation

B) Cellular-organization II) Human beings are aware of himself

C) Reproduction III) Sum total of all chemical reaction

occurring in body

D) Self-consciousness IV) Composed of one or more cells

1) A→III,B→IV,C→I,D→II 2) A→II,B→IV,C→I,D→III

3) A→IV,B→III,C→I,D→II 4) A→IV,B→I,C→IV,D→II


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132. Identify the organism which do not show the reproduction

1) Yeast 2) Sterile worker bee

3) Amoeba 4) Fertile human couple

133. Read the following statements and identify correct option

I) Biology is the story of life on earth

II) Biology is the story of evolution of living organisms on earth

III) All living organisms present, past and futures, are linked to one

another by the sharing of the common genetic material, but to

varying degree

IV) All multicellular organism grows by cell division

1) I,II and III only 2) I,III and IV only

3) II,III and IV only 4) I,II, III and IV

134. ICBN stands for

1) International classification of biological nomenclature

2) International class of biological nomenclature

3) International code for botanical nomenclature

4) International classification of biological naming

135. Read the following

I) growth II) reproduction

III) Response to stimuli IV) Metabolism

V) Cellular organisation

Which of the above features are generally characters of life?

1) I, II, III, and V only 2) II, III, and V only

3) I, II, IV and V only 4) I, II, III, IV and V


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136. What is incorrect regarding Periplaneta americana?

1) Excretion by malpighian tubules

2) Haemolymph delivering oxygen to tissues

3) Paurometabolous development

4) Mosaic vision

137. Which of the following also help in excretion apart from malpighian

tubules in Periplaneta americana?

1) Fat body 2) Urecose gland

3) Nephrocytes 4) All of these

138. In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in which part of the

reproductive system?

1) Seminal vesicles 2) Mushroom glands

3) Testes 4) Vas deferens

139. Complete the following analogy regarding reproductive system of

cockroach:-

Testes: IV-VI abdominal segments:: Ovaries: _____ abdominal

segments

1) II - VI 2) III-VIII 3) II-III 4) IV-IX

140. Complete the following analogy:-

Vertebrates : Brain :: Cockroach : ______

1) Lower oesophageal ganglion

2) Supra oesophageal ganglion

3) Nephrocytes

4) Ommatidia


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141. Which among the following is incorrect regarding the vision of

cockroach?

1) Compound eyes are located at dorsal surface of head

2) They have nocturnal type of vision

3) Each eye consists of 3000 ommatidia

4) Their vision is known as mosaic vision with more sensitivity but

less resolution

142. Malpighian tubules of cockroach are lined by which of the following

cells?

1) Epithelial cells

2) Glandular and Ciliated cells

3) Ciliated cells only

4) Epithelial and glandular cells

143. Find the mismatched pair:

1) Anal style - Sexual dimorphism

2) Spermatheca - Accessory reproductive gland

3) Malpighian tubules - Removal of nitrogenous waste

4) Supra - oesophageal ganglion - supply nerves to antennae and

compound eye

144. Excretion is performed by malpighian tubules, cockroach is

1) Ammonotelic

2) Uricotelic

3) Usually ammonotelic but uricotelic in unfavourable conditions

4) Ureotelic

145. If the head of a cockroach is cut off, it will still live for as long as

one week because:

1) It has four ganglia in the thorax, and six in the abdomen

2) The head holds a bit of a nervous system while the rest is

situated along the ventral part of its body

3) The head holds most of the nervous system while the rest is

situated along its belly side

4) In the head region, the brain is represented by lower oesophageal

ganglion which supplies nerves to compound eyes.


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146. Which among the following is not a sense organ of cockroach?

1) Labial palps 2) Maxillary palps

3) Caudal style 4) Anal cerci

147. Which among the following is the correct location of Spermatheca

?

1) Male cockroach, IV Segment

2) Male cockroach, VI Segment

3) Female cockroach, VI Segment

4) Male cockroach, VII Segment

148. Which among the following statement is incorrect with respect to

ootheca of cockroach?

1) The unfertilized eggs are encased in ootheca

2) Each ootheca contains 14-16 eggs on an average

3) Ootheca is a dark reddish to blackish brown capsule

4) It is absout 8 mm long

149. Which among the following is incorrect with respect to development

in cockroach?

1) The development is paurometabolous

2) Last nymphal stage has proper wings

3) Only adult cockroach has proper wings

4) Nymph moults about 13 times to reach the adult form

150. Complete the following statement:

Heart of cockroach consists of elongated muscular tube lying along

__________ of thorax and abdomen.

1) Ventral line 2) Lateral line

3) Mid dorsal line 4) Mid ventral line

151. Malpighian tubules in cockroach absorb nitrogenous waste

products and convert them into ___A_____ which is excreted out

through the ___B___.

1) A- ammonia, B- Hindgut 2) A- uric acid, B-Hindgut

3) A- ammonia, B- Midgut 4) A- Midgut, B- Uric acid


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152. Blood vascular system of cockroach is

1) Open type

2) Haemocoel is present

3) Haemolymph bathes the visceral organs

4) All are correct

153. Spiracles in cockroach are

1) Present on ventral side of the body

2) Present on lateral side of the body

3) Present on dorsal side of the body

4) absent

154. Which of the following statements is wrong?

1) Spiracles are regulated by sphincters in cockroach

2) Tracheoles is the place for gaseous exchange

3) There will be 10 pairs of spiracles

4) Tracheoles divide into tracheal tubes

155. The nervous system of cockroach is made up of a series of ganglia

which are joined by

1) Paired lateral connectives

2) Single longitudinal connectives

3) Paired longitudinal connectives

4) Single horizontal connectives

156. The abdomen has _____ while thorax has _____ ganglia in cockroach

1) Six, three 2) Nine, six

3) Three, two 4) Two, one

157. Ommatidia are not

1) Hexagonal

2) 2000 in cockroach

3) Forms multiple images of an object

4) Visual units


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158. Male reproductive system of cockroaches has not

1) A pair of testes on lateral side in 4th -6th abdominal segments

2) Paired ejaculatory ducts

3) An accessory reproductive gland which is mushroom shaped in

the 6th-7th abdominal segments

4) Phallomeres are chitinous asymmetrical structures surrounding

the male gonopore

159. At the time of copulation in Cockroach

1) Sperms are not discharged

2) Spermatophores are discharged

3) Spermatheca are discharged

4) Spermatozoa are not discharged

160. Cockroaches are

1) Vector for bacterial disease

2) Of no economic importance

3) Bisexual

4) More than one option is correct

161. Vestibulum is a part of

1) Genital chamber of male cockroach

2) Genital pouch of female cockroach

3) Both (1) and (2)

4) Rudimentary part of female circulatory system in cockroach

162. The sclerites in exoskeleton of cockroach are joined to each other

by:

1) Tergites 2) Arthrodial membrane

3) Mesothorax 4) Tegmina

163. Which mouth part of cockroach has grinding and incising part?

1) Mandible 2) Labium

3) Mandible and Maxilla 4) Hypopharynx


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164. Which among the following statements are incorrect with respect

to cockroach?

1) It has mosaic vision with high sensitivity and less resolution

2) Salivary reservoir has eight highly chitinous plates called teeth

3) Tracheoles carry oxygen from air to all other body parts

4) Blood is devoid of respiratory pigment

165. The hardened plates of exoskeleton ventrally is known as

1) Sclerites 2) Tergites 3) Sternites 4) Ternites

166. Identify the incorrect option with regard to Tegmina in cockroach

1) Mesothoracic 2) Forewings

3) Cover hindwings at flight 4) First pair of wings

167. Anal cerci are

1) Jointed filamentous structure

2) Present in 9th segment

3) Present only in males

4) More than one option is correct

168. Find the incorrect match.

1) Junction of midgut and hindgut - Malpighian tubules

2) Gizzard - Chitinous plates

3) Crop - Chemical digestion of food

4) Gastric Caecae - Digestive juice

169. Which of the following mouth parts of the cockroach acts like a

tongue?

1) Labium 2) Labrum

3) Hypopharynx 4) Proventriculus

170. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Periplaneta

amerciana?

1) Uricotelism

2) Mosaic vision

3) Monoecious

4) Paurometabolous development


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171. Alary muscles play an important role in

1) Circulation of blood 2) Respiration

3) Body movement 4) Peristalsis

172. Hind wings in cockroach arises form

1) Prothorax 2) Mesothorax

3) Metathorax 4) Pronotum

173. In cockroach, foregut comprises of

1) Pharynx, oesophagus, crop and gizzard

2) Mesenteron, crop and gizzard

3) Ileum, colon and rectum

4) Pharynx, oesophagus and rectum

174. External genitalia in cockroach consists of small irregular

chitinous plates known as

1) Seminal vesicles

2) Collaterial gland

3) Phallomeres

4) Abdominal sclerites

175. In cockroach the wings that help in flying are

1) Fore wings

2) Mesothroacic wings

3) The hind wings which are transparent and membranous

4) Tegmina

176. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect

to Periplaneta americana.

1) Nervous system dorsally consists of segmentally arranged

ganglia joined by a pair of longitudinal connectives

2) Males bear a pair of short thread like anal styles

3) There are 16 very long malpighian tubules present at the

junctions of midgut and hindgut

4) Grinding of food is carried out only by the mouth parts


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177. Label A, B, C, D and E respectively in the following figure:-

1) Labium, mandible, hypopharynx, maxilla, labrum

2) Labrum, hypopharynx, maxilla, mandible, labium

3) Labrum, mandible, hypopharynx, maxilla, labium

4) Labium, maxilla, hypopharynx, labium, mandible

178. Identify A, B, C and D in the following diagram respectively

1) Spermatheca, vestibulum, vagina, genital chamber

2) Spermatheca, collaterial glands, vagina, genital chamber

3) Vagina, spermatheca, collaterial glands, genital chamber

4) Vestibulum, collaterial glands, vagina, genital chamber.

179. In Periplaneta americana, the wings extends beyond the tip of the

abdomen in

1) Males 2) Females

3) Both Males and Females 4) Wings absent

180. Head of cockroach is formed by the fusion of

1) Ten segments and trigonal in shape

2) Six segments and triangular in shape

3) Eleven segments and rectangular in shape

4) Three segments and tetragonal in shape

class: mz1-a neet model date: 09-01-21 time: 3hrs wtn ......mz1-a_neet_wtn-30_exam.dt.09-01-21...

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