class: mz1-a neet model date: 09-01-21 time: 3hrs wtn ......mz1-a_neet_wtn-30_exam.dt.09-01-21...
TRANSCRIPT
-
Corporate Office: 10th Floor, Melange Tower; No.80-84, Pathrika Nagar; Hitech-City, Madhapur, Hyderabad. Telangana - 500 081.
: 040-45009999(360/341) : [email protected] : http://www.narayanagroup.com
Class: MZ1-A NEET MODEL Date: 09-01-21
Time: 3hrs WTN-30 Max. Marks: 720
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS
➢ Section I- Physics (1 to 45)
➢ Section II- Chemistry (46 to 90)
➢ Section III- Biology (Botany & Zoology) (91 to 180) Total Number of
Questions: 180.
➢ The test is of 3 hours duration and Test Booklet contains 180 questions.
Each question carries 4marks. For each correct response, the candidate
will get 4 marks. For each incorrect response, one mark will be
deducted from the total scores. The maximum marks are 720.
➢ The answers to these questions should be answered in single OMR sheet
only.
-:Note:-
Physics : 01 to 45
Chemistry : 46 to 90
Botany : 91 to 135
Zoology : 136 to 180
mailto:[email protected]://www.narayanagroup.com/
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
2
01. If we imagine ideally smooth surfaces and if they are kept in
contact, the frictional force acting between them is
1) zero 2) a finite value but not zero
3) very large 4) we can’t predict
02. A block of mass 2 kg is placed on the floor. The coefficient of static
friction is 0.4. If a force of 2.8 N is applied on the block parallel to
the floor, the force of friction between the block and floor
(g=10m/s2) is
1) 2.8N 2) 8N 3) 2N 4) zero
03. In order to stop a car in shortest distance on a horizontal road, one
should
1) apply the brakes very hard so that the wheels stop rotating
2) apply the brakes hard enough to just prevent slipping
3) pump the brakes (press and release)
4) Shut the engine off and not apply brakes
04. A body is struck to the front part of the truck. The coefficient of
friction between the body and truck is . The minimum
acceleration with which the truck should travel so that the body
does not fall down is
1) / g 2) g 3) /g 4) 2g
05. When a person walks on a rough surface
1) the frictional force exerted by the surface keeps him moving
2) reaction of the force applied by the man on the surface keeps
him moving
3) the force applied by the man keep him moving
4) weight of the man keeps him moving
06. A block of mass 20 kg is pushed with a horizontal force of 90N. If
the coefficient of static and kinetic friction are 0.4 and 0.3, the
frictional force acting on the block is ( 210g ms−= )
1) 90N 2) 80N 3) 60N 4) 30N
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
3
07. A heavy uniform chain lies on horizontal table top. If the coefficient
of friction between the chain and the table surface is 0.25, the
maximum percentage of the length of the chain that can hang over
one edge of the table is
1) 20% 2) 25% 3) 35% 4) 15%
08. The coefficient of friction between a hemispherical bowl and an
insect is 0.44 and the radius of the bowl is 0.6 m. The maximum
height to which and insect can crawl in the bowl will be
1) 0.4 m 2) 0.2 m 3) 0.3 m 4) 0.1 m
09. An aeroplane requires for take off a speed of 108 kmph the run on
the ground being 100m. Mass of the plane is 104kg and the
coefficient of friction between the plane and the ground is 0.2.
Assuming the plane accelerates uniformly the minimum force
required is ( 210g ms−= )
1) 42 10 N 2) 42.43 10 N
3) 46.5 10 N 4) 48.86 10 N
10. A man of mass 65 kg is standing stationary with respect to a
coveyor belt which is acceleration with 21 /m s . If s is 0.2, the net
force on the man and the maximum acceleration of the belt so that
the man is stationary relative to the belt are ( 210 /g m s= )
1) zero, 22 /m s 2) 265 ,2 /N m s
3) zero, 21 /m s 4) 265 ,1 /N m s
11. A vehicle of mass M is moving on a rough horizontal road with a
momentum P. If the coefficient of friction between the tyres and the
road is , then the stopping distance is
1) 2
P
Mg 2)
2
2
P
Mg
3) 2
22
P
M g 4)
22
P
M g
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
4
12. The rear side of a truck is open and a box of 40 kg mass is placed
5 m away from the open end as shown in figure. The coefficient of
friction between the box the surface below it is 0.15. On a straight
road, the truck starts from rest and accelerates with 22ms− . At what
distance from the starting point does the box fall from the truck?
(Ignore the size of the box).
1) 20m 2) 10m 3) 20m 4) 5m
13. A body of mass 60 kg is pushed with just enough force to start it
moving on a rough surface with 0.5s = and 0.4k = and the force
continues to act afterwards. The acceleration of the body is (in
m/sec2)
1) 0.98 2) 3.92 3) 4.90 4) zero.
14. The coefficient of friction between a car wheels and a roadway is
0.5 The least distance in which the car can accelerate from rest to
a speed of 72kmph is ______ ( )210g ms−=
1) 0m 2) 20m 3) 30m 4) 40m
15. A marble block of mass 2kg lying on ice when given a velocity of
16ms− is stopped by friction in 10s. Then the coefficient of friction
is ______ ( )210g ms−=
1) 0.02 2) 0.03 3) 0.06 4) 0.01
16. A heavy uniform chain lies on horizontal table top. If the coefficient
of friction between the chain and the table surface is 0.5, the
maximum percentage of the length of the chain that can hang over
one edge of the table is
1) 20% 2) 33.3% 3) 76% 4) 50%
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
5
17. A particle is placed at rest inside a hollow hemisphere of radius R.
The coefficient of friction between the particle and the hemisphere
is 1
3 = . The maximum height up to which the particle can remain
stationary is
1) 2
R 2)
31
2R
−
3)
3
2R 4)
3
8
R
18. Consider a 14-tyre truck, whose only rear 8 wheels are power
driven (means only these 8 wheels can produce an acceleration).
These 8 wheels are supporting approximately half of the load. If
coefficient of friction between road and each tyre is 0.6, then what
could be the maximum attainable acceleration by this truck is
1) 26ms− 2) 224ms− 3) 23ms− 4) 210ms−
19. A horizontal force is applied on a body on a rough horizontal
surface produces an acceleration 'a'. If coefficient of friction
between the body and surface which is is reduced to / 3, the
acceleration increases by 2 units. The value of' ' ' is
1) 2
3g 2)
3
2g 3)
3
g 4)
1
g
20. A block of mass 2kg is placed on the surface of trolley of mass 20kg
which is on a smooth surface. The coefficient of friction between
the block and the surface of the trolley is 0.25. If a horizontal force
of 2N acts on the block, the acceleration of the system in 2ms− is
______ ( )210g ms−=
1) 1.8 2) 1.0 3) 0.9 4) 0.09
21. A man slides down on a telegraphic pole with an acceleration equal
to one-fourth of acceleration due to gravity. The frictional force
between man and pole is equal to (in terms of man’s weight W)
1) 4
W 2)
3
4
W 3)
2
W 4) W
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
6
22. Starting from rest, the time taken by a body sliding down on a
rough inclined plane at 045 with the horizontal is, twice the time
taken to travel on a smooth plane of same inclination and same
distance. Then the coefficient of kinetic friction is
1) 0.25 2) 0.33 3) 0.50 4) 0.75
23. Sand is piled up on a horizontal ground in the form of a regular
cone of a fixed base of radius R. The coefficient of static friction
between sand layers is . The maximum volume of sand that can
be piled up, without the sand slipping on the surface is
1) 3
3
R
2)
3
3
R 3)
3
3
R
4)
3
3
R
24. A body is sliding down an inclined plane forming an angle 30° with
the horizontal. If the coefficient of friction is 0.3 then acceleration
of the body is
1) 21.25ms− 2) 22.35ms− 3) 23.4ms− 4) 24.9ms−
25. A block sliding down on a rough 45° inclined plane has half the
velocity it would have been the inclined plane is smooth. The
coefficient of sliding friction between the block and the inclined
plane is
1) 1
4 2)
3
4 3)
1
2 2 4)
1
2
26. A body is allowed to slide from the top along a smooth inclined
plane of length 5m at an angle of inclination 30°. If 210g ms−= , time
taken by the body to reach the bottom of the plane is
1) 3
2s 2) 1.414s 3)
1
2s 4) 2s
27. A body is projected up along an inclined plane from the bottom with
speed is 2v . If it reaches the bottom of the plane with a velocity v .
If is the angle of inclination with the horizontal and be the
coefficient of friction.
1) 5
tan3
2) 3
tan5
3) 1
tan5
4) 2
tan5
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
7
28. The minimum force required to move a body up on an inclined
plane is three times the minimum force required to prevent it from
sliding down the plane. If the coefficient of friction between the
body and the inclined plane is 1
2 3, the angle of the inclined plane
is
1) 60° 2) 45° 3) 30° 4) 15°
29. A body takes 1
13
times as much time to slide down a rough inclined
plane as it takes to slide down an identical but smooth inclined
plane. If the angle of inclination is 045 , find the coefficient of friction.
1) 1
16 2)
3
16 3)
5
16 4)
7
16
30. A box of mass 4 kg is placed on a rough inclined plane of inclination
060 . Its downward motion can be prevented by applying an upward
pull is F and it can be made to slide upwards by applying a force
3F. The coefficient of friction between the box and inclined plane is
1) 2
3 2)
3
2 3)
1
2 4)
1
2
31. A weight W rests on a rough horizontal plane. If the angle of friction
is , the least force that can move the body along the plane will be
1) cosW 2) tanW 3) cotW 4) sinW
32. A car is going at a sped of 6 m/s when it encounters a 15 m slope
of angle 30°. The friction coefficient between the road and tyre is
0.5. The driver applies the brakes. The minimum speed of the car
with which it can reach the bottom is______ ( )210 / secg m=
1) 4 /m s 2) 3 /m s 3) 7.5 /m s 4) 8.45 /m s
33. the angle which the rough inclined plane makes with the horizontal
when the body placed on it just starts sliding down is called
1) angle of Friction 2) angle of repose
3) critical angle 4) Brewster’s angle
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
8
34. A body of mass M is placed on a rough inclined plane of inclination
and coefficient of friction k . A force of ( )sin coskmg mg+ is
applied in the upward direction, the acceleration of the body is
1) sing 2) ( )sin coskg +
3) ( )sin coskg − 4) zero
35. A block X kept on an inclined surface just begins to slide if the
inclination is 1 . The block is replaced by another block Y and it is
found that it just begins to slide if the inclination is ( )2 2 1 .
Then
1) Mass of X = mass of Y 2) Mass of X < mass of Y
3) Mass of X > mass of Y 4) All the three are possible
36. The angle of inclination of an inclined plane is 60°. Coefficient of
friction between 10kg body on it and its surface is 0.2, 210g ms−= .
The acceleration of the body down the plane in 2ms− is
1) 5.667 2) 6.66 3) 7.66 4) zero
37. When a body slides down an inclined plane with coefficient of
friction as k , then its acceleration is given by
1) ( )sin coskg + 2) ( )sin coskg −
3) ( )sin coskg + 4) ( )sin coskg −
38. A brick of mass 2kg just begins to slide down on inclined plane at
an angle of 45° with the horizontal. The force of friction will be
1) 19.6 sin 45° 2) 9.8 sin 45°
3) 19.6 cos 45° 4) 9.8 cos 45°
39. A block slides down a rough inclined plane of slope angle with a
constant velocity. It is then projected up the same plane with an
initial velocity v . The distance travelled by the block up the plane
before coming to rest is
1) 2
4 sin
v
g 2)
2
2 sin
v
g 3)
2
sin
v
g 4)
24
sin
gv
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
9
40. The minimum force required to start pushing a body up a rough
(frictional coefficient ) inclined plane is 1F while the minimum
force needed to prevent it from sliding down is 2F . If the inclined
plane makes an angle with the horizontal such that tan 2 = ,
then the ratio 1
2
F
F is
1) 4 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3
41. The horizontal acceleration that should be given to a smooth
inclined plane of angle 1sin
I
l
−
to keep an object stationary on the
plane, relative to the inclined plane is
1) 2 1
g
l − 2) 2 1g l − 3)
2 1l
g
− 4)
2 1
g
l +
42. The force required to move a body up a rough inclined plane is
double the force required to prevent the body from sliding down the
plane. The coefficient of friction when the angle of inclination of the
plane is 60° is
1) 1
2 2)
1
3 3)
1
2 4)
1
3
43. The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination ‘ ’ is perfectly
smooth while the lower half is rough. A block starting from rest at
the top of the plane will again come to rest at the bottom. The
coefficient of friction between the block and the lower half of the
plane is given by
1) 2 tan = 2) 2
tan =
3) tan = 4)
1
tan =
44. A block weighing 10kg is at rest on a horizontal table. The
coefficient of static friction between the block and the table is 0.5.
If a force acts downward at 060 with the horizontal, how large can
it be without causing the block to move? ( )210g ms−=
1) 346N 2) 446 N 3) 746N 4) 846N
45. A smooth block is released from rest on a 45° inclined plane and
it slides a distance ‘d’. The time taken to slide is n times that on a
smooth inclined plane. The coefficient of friction
1) 2
11k
n = − 2)
2
11k
n = − 3)
2
1
1k
n =
− 4)
2
1
1k
n =
−
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
10
46. The ratio among most probable Velocity, mean velocity and root
mean square velocity is given by
1) 1:2: 3 2) 1: 2 : 3
3) 2 : 3 : 8/ 4) 2 : 8/ : 3
47. Which of the following has maximum root mean square velocity of
the same temperature
1) 2SO 2) 2CO 3) 2O 4) 2H
48. The temperature at which RMS velocity of 2SO molecules is half
that of He molecules at 300K is
1) 150K 2) 600K 3) 900K 4) 1200K
49. The temperature of an ideal gas is increased from 140K to 560K. If
at 140 K the root mean square velocity of the gas molecules is u,
at 560 K it becomes
1) 5u 2) 2u 3) u/2 4) u/4
50. The average velocity of an ideal gas molecule at 27oC is 0.3 /sec.m
The average velocity at 927oC will be
1) 0.6 /secm 2) 0.3 /secm 3) 0.9 /secm 4) 3.0 /secm
51. The average kinetic energy associated with one mole of a gas is
1) 1
2RT 2)
3
2KT 3)
3
2RT 4)
1
2KT
52. Intermolecular forces of attraction are more in
1) Fluorine 2) Iodine
3) Bromine 4) Chlorine
53. Gram molar volume of a gas under S.A.T.P conditions is
1) 22.414L 2) 22.711L
3) 24.789L 4) 21.789L
54. Density at S.T.P is very high for the following gas
1) Methane 2) Nitrogen
3) Helium 4) Carbon dioxide
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
11
55. An ideal gas will have maximum density when
1) 0.5P = atm, 600T K= 2) 2P = atm, 150T K=
3) 1P = amt, 300T K= 4) 1.0P = atm, 500T K=
56. Absolute zero is defined as the temperature
1) At which all molecular motion ceases
2) At which liquid helium boils
3) At which ether boils
4) All of the above
57. Containers A and B have same gases. Pressure, Volume and
temperature of A, are all twice that of B, then the ration of number
of molecules of A and B are
1) 1:2 2) 2:1 3) 1:4 4) 4:1
58. Pressure of 1g of an ideal gas A at 27o C is found to be 2 bar. When
2g of another ideal gas B is introduced in the same flask at the
same temperature, the pressure become 3 bar. Find a relationship
between their molecular masses.
1) 4A BM M= 2) 4B AM M=
3) 2A BM M= 4) 2B AM M=
59. For a given mass of gas isobar is the graph drawn between
1) P and volume at constant T 2) T and P at constant V
3) T and V at constant P 4) P and 1V
at constant T
60. If P, V, T represent pressure, volume and temperature of the gas,
the correct representation of Boyle’s law is
1) 1
VT
( at constant P) 2) PV RT=
3) 1
VP
( at constant T) 4) PV nRT=
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
12
61. Which of the following graphs represent Boyle’s law
1) 2)
3) 4)
62. Which of the following pairs will diffuse at the same rate through a
porous plug
1) 2,CO NO 2) 2 2,NO CO
3) 3 3,NH PH 4) 2 6,NO C H
63. If three unreactive gases having partial pressures ,A BP P and CP and
their moles are 1, 2 and 3 respectively then their total pressure will
be
1) A B CP P P P= + + 2) 6
A B CP P PP+ +
=
3) 3
A B CP P PP+ +
= 4) None
64. An what temperature will be rate of effusion of 2N be 1.625 times
the rate of effusion of 2SO at 500oC ?
1) 273 K 2) 830 K
3) 110 K 4) 173 K
65. The rate of diffusion of hydrogen gas is
1) 1.4 time to He gas 2) same as gas
3) 5 times to gas 4) 2 times to gas
66. Hydrogen diffuses six times faster than gas. The molar mass of gas
is
1) 72 2) 6 3) 24 4) 36
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
13
67. According to Grahman’s law at a given temperature, the ratio of the
rates of diffusion /A Br r of gases A and B is given by
1) ( ) ( )1/2
/ /A B A BP P M M 2) ( ) ( )1/2
/ /A B A BM M P P
3) ( ) ( )1/2
/ /A B B AP P M M 4) ( ) ( )1/2
/ /A B B AM M P P
68. A solution is prepared by adding 5g of substance x to 18g of water.
Calculate the mass percent of the solute.
1) 21.74% 2) 31.74% 3) 41.74% 4) 51.74%
69. A solution is prepared by adding 360g of glucose to 864g of water.
Calculate mole faction of glucose (molar mass of glucose = 180)
1) 0.06 2) 0.04 3) 1 4) 4
70. A given solution of NaOH contains 4.00g of NaOH per litre of
solution. Calculate the molarity of this solution.
1) 0.4M 2) 0.3M 3) 0.2M 4) 0.1M
71. 74.5 of metal chloride contains 35.5 g of chlorine. The equivalent
weight of metal is
1) 74.5 2) 39 3) 35.5 4) 7.45
72. Equivalent wight of crystalline oxalic acid is
1) 90 2) 63 3) 53 4) 45
73. Equivalent mass of 3 4H PO for the given reaction
( )3 4 4 22 2H PO Ca OH CaHPO H O+ → +
1) 1
M 2)
2
M 3) 2M 4)
4
M
74. 100 ml of 0.2N HCl solution is added to 100 ml of 0.2N 3AgNO
solution. The molarity of nitrate ions in the resulting mixture will
be
1) 0.5 M 2) 0.05 M 3) 0.1 M 4) 0.2 M
75. The density of 3 M solution of NaCl is 1.25 g 1mL− . The molality of
the solution is
1) 2.79m 2) 1.79m
3) 3.5m 4) 5.58m
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
14
76. The molarity of ( )2 498% 1.8 /H SO d g ml= by wt. is
1) 6M 2) 18M 3) 10M 4) 4M
77. If 1.26 gram of oxalic acid is dissolved in 250ml of solution then its
normality is
1) 0.05 2) 0.04 3) 0.02 4) 0.08
78. Which one of these solution has the highest normality?
1) 8 100gr KOH per ml 2) 2 40.5M H SO
3) 6gr ofNaOH per 100ml 4) 3 41N H PO
79. Which has maximum number of molecules among the following?
1) 244gmCO 2) 348gmO
3) 28gmH 4) 264gmSO
80. How many grams of concentrated nitric acid solution should be
used to prepared 250 mL of 32.0 ?M HNO The concentrated acid is
70% 3HNO
1) 390.0 .g conc HNO 2) 370.0 .g conc HNO
3) 354.0 .gconc HNO 4) 345.0 .g conc HNO
81. If 100 mL of 2 41NH SO is mixed with 100 mL of 1 M NaOH solution.
The resulting solution will be
1) Highly acidic 2) Neutral
3) Highly basic 4) Slightly acidic
82. A solution contains 10 moles of sucrose in 1kg of solvent. calculate
the molality of solution in mole kg -1
1) 10 2) 20 3) 30 4) 40
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
15
83. The equivalent mass of nitrogen in nitrogen pentoxide is
1) 14 2) 28 3) 2.8 4) 4.66
84. If 5.85g NaCl is dissolved in 90 g of water, the mole fraction of
solute is
1) 0.0196 2) 0.01 3) 0.1 4) 0.2
85. Mass percentage (w/w) if ethylene glycol ( )2 2HOCH CH OH− in a
aqueous solution is 20, then mole fraction of solute is
1) 0.5 2) 0.067 3) 0.1 4) 0.4
86. The volume of water to be added to 400 ml of N/8 HCL to make it
exactly N/12is
1) 400ml 2) 300ml 3) 200ml 4) 100ml
87. How many grams of 40% pure sodium hydroxide is dissolved in 0.5
M, 250 ml NaOH solution?
1) 5 gm 2) 2g 3) 12.5 g 4) 4 gm
88. Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.0 molal aqueous solution is:
1) 0.0344 2) 1.7700 3) 0.1770 4) 0.0177
89. A molal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in
1) 1000g of the solvent 2) one litre of the solvent
3) one litre of the solution
4) 22.4 litres of the solution
90. 206.02 10 molecules of urea are present in 100 mL of its solution,
the concentration of solution is
1) 0.01 M 2) 0.001 M 3) 0.1 M 4) 0.2 M
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
16
91. Which one of the following taxonomical aid is used for identification
of plants and animal tased on similarities and dissimirities?
1) Flora 2) Keys
3) Monographs 4) Catalogues
92. Which one of the following is not a correct statement?
1) Biological gardens have colletion of living plants for reference
2) Key is a taxonomic and for identification of specimens
3) A museum has collection of photographs of plants and animals
4) Hebarium is store house that contains dried, pressed and
preserved plant specimens
93. For wheat which of the following combination is correct?
1) Genus→ Triticum, Family→ poaceae, order→poales, class
→Monocotyledonae
2) Genus→Triticum, Family→poaceae; order→poales class
→Dicotyledonae
3) Genus→Triticum, Family→poaceae, order→ sapindales class
→Monocotyledonae
4) Genus→Triticum; Family→anacondiaceae; order→poales,
class→monocotyledonae
94. Identify the mismatched pair
1) Panthera leo–Belongs to class mammalian
2) Musca domestica –The commn house lozard a reptile
3) Solanum tabarosum –A dicotyledonous plant
4) Triticum aestivum –Angiosperic plant
95. Which one of the following statement is incorrect?
1) indica, tuberosum and leo represents the specific epithets
2) Monocotyledonae and Dicotyledonae are the two classes of
division Angiospermae
3) Solnanum, panthera and Mangifera represent the generic
epithets
4) In plants, classes with a few similar characters are assigned to
a lower category called division
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
17
96. Two organisms are present in the same class but not in the same
family. They may belong to same
1) genus 2) species 3) varity 4) order
97. Study the following statements and identify the correct ones
I) Herbarium is a store house of collected plant specimens that are
dried, pressed and preserved on sheets
II) Flora provides the index to the plant species found in a
particular area.
III) Monographs contain information on only one taxon
1) I and II only 2) II and III only
3) I and III only 4) I,II and III
98. Match the following and choose the correct option
Column-I Column-II
A) Family I) tuberosum
B) Order II) slanum
C) Species III) polymoniales
D) Genus IV) solanacae
1) A–IV,B–II,C–I,D–II 2) A–I,B–II,C–I,D–IV
3) A–II,B–IV,C–I,D–II 4) A–II,B–I,C–IV,D–II
99. Which of the following options are represents the correct
classification for the animal of tiger?
1) class-vertibereta; order-felidae;family-felidae; genus-panthara,
species-leo
2) class-Mammalian, order-carnivora; family –felidae genus-
panthera;specics-tigris
3) class-Felidae; order-chiroptera; family-felidae; genes-
Panthera;species-tigris
4) class-Mammalian; order –carnivora; Family-felidae; genes-
panthera; species-leo
100. Mangifera is a
1) variety 2) species 3) genus 4) class
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
18
101. ‘X’ being a higher category is the assemblage of families which
exhibit a few ‘Y’ characters. The ‘Z’ characters are less in a number
as compared to different genera included in a family identify X Y
and Z
1) X-order; Y-Similar;Z-similar
2) X-aenus; Y-Similar; Z-Different
3) X–species; Y-Different;Z-Similar
4) X-class; Y-Different; Z-Different
102. Read the following species
Man, House fly, Mango, wheat, Dog, cat, Lion, Tiger, Potato,
Leopard and Barijal
Given here belong to how many different families?
1) 4 2) 7 3) 5 4) 6
103. Fill in the blanks according to taxonomical aids
1) 1→Flora; 2→kingdom; 3→Botanical gardens
2) 1→Catalogues; 2→keys; 3→species
3) 1→Biological graden; 2→Musem; 3→keys
4) 1→Monographs; 2→order; 3→Manuals
104. Each plant is labeled indicating its Botanical/scientific name and
its family. The taxonomical aid used for this is
1) Museum 2) Botanical garden
3) Zoological park 4) Herbarium
105. Convolvulaceae and Solanaceae are included in the order
polynomials mainly on the basis of
1) Vegetative characters 2) Morphological characters
3) Floral characters 4) Somatic characters
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
19
106. Which of the following taxonomical aids is being described by the
given statements (I-IV)?
I) They are generally established in educational inistutes.
II) They have collection of preserved plant and animal specimens
for study and reference
III) Insects are preserved in boxes of after collecting killing and
pinning
IV) They often have collections of skeletons of animals too
1) Herbarium 2) Museum
3) Zoological park 4) Botanical gardens
107. Read the following statements
Statement-I The family solanaceae includes a number of genera
like solanum, petunia and Datara etc
Statement-II Family contains one or more related genera
1) Statement-I and Statement-II both are correct
2) Statement-I incorrect Statement-I correct
3) Statement-I correct Statement-II incorrect
4) Statement-I and Statement-II both are incorrect
108. Match the following
Column-I Column-II
A) Couplet I) Each statement in the key
B) Lead II) Information on any one taxon
C) Manuals III) A pair of contrasting characters
D) Monographs IV) Specially designed for ready reference
1) A→III,B→I,C→IV,D→II 2) A→II,B→I,C→IV,D→III
3) A→I,B→II,C→IV,D→II 4) A→I,B→II,C→II,D→III
109. The taxonomic unit phylum is the classification of animals is
equalent to which hierarchial level of classification of plants
1) Class 2) Order
3) Division 4) Family
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
20
110. Consider the following diagram and fill the following blank
spaces/boxes
1) A→strain; B→order; C→subkingdom;
2) A→subspaces; B→tribe; C→kingdom
3) A→subspaces; B→order;C→Domine
4) A→species; B→order ;C→Kingdom
111. Read the following and identify the A,B and C in this below
respectively
I) Indian Botanical garden ______A______
II) National Botanical Research Institute______ B_______
III) The famous Botanical gardens are at______ C________
1) A→kew (England); B→Lucknow (India); C→Howrah (India)
2) A→Howrah (India); B→Lucknow (India); C→Kew (England)
3) A→Howrah (England); B→Lucknow (Britan); C→Kew (England)
4) A→Lucknow (India); B→Howrah (India); C→Kew (England)
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
21
112. Which of the following shows the correct example of taxonomical
category–Genus?
1) Lion, leopard, and Tigor belong to panthera
2) Monkey, Gorilla and gibbon are placed in mammalian
3) Solanum, petunia and datura are placed in solanaceae
4) Mangifiru indica, solanum tuberosum and panther leo
113. Match the following
Column-I Column-II
A) Potato I) Mangifera indica
B) Brinjal II) Solanum tuberosum
C) Mango III) Tritium aestivum
D) Wheat IV) Solanum melongena
1) A→II, B→IV, C→I,D→III 2) A→III, B→IV, C→I,D→II
3) A→IV, B→II, C→I,D→III 4) A→I, B→IV, C→II,D→III
114. There is a need to standardize the naming of living organisms such
that a particular organism is known by the same name all over the
world this process is called
1) Systematics 2) Cytotaxonomy
3) Nomenclature 4) Taxonomy
115. The Title Alexander “Agassiz professor of zoology emeritus goes to
1) P.Mehashwari 2) R.Mishra
3) G.N Ramachandran 4) Ernst mayr
116. Human beings were since long not only interested in knowing more
about different kinds of organisms and their diversities, but also
the relationship among them. This branch of study is referred to as
1) classification 2) systematics
3) Taxomy 4) Identification
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
22
117. Read the following statements and identify the incorrect one in this
below
1) Mountains, bounders and sand mounds do grow if we take
increase in
2) Many organisms like males, sterile worker bees and infertile
human couples do not reproduce at all
3) Living organism are self replicating evolving and self regulating
interactive system capable of responding to external stimuli
4) Isolated metabolic reaction in vitro are living things
118. The number of species that are known and described ranges
between
1) 1.5–1.7 millions 2) 1.7–1.8 millions
3) 1.7–1.8lakhs 4) 1.5–1.7lakhs
119. The process by which anything grouped into convenient categories
based on some easily observable characters is called
1) systematic 2) New systematics 3) classification 4) called
120. In chlamydomonas and Amoeba
1) Repoduction is synonymous with growth i.e increase in number
of cells
2) Multicellular organization may be formed
3) Goruth does not occur by increase in mous
4) Growth occur by increase in mass but not by increases in
number
121. Read the following statements
I) consciousness is the defining prosperity of living organisms
II) The environmental stimuli can be physical, chemical or
biological
III) All organism can sense and respond to stimuli
IV) All organisms show the property of self – consciousness
V) Few living organisms can not sense and respond to the
environment
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
1) Three 2) one 3) two 4) four
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
23
122. In binomial nomenclature system
1) A scientific name has one part only
2) A scientific name has two components the generic name and
specific epithet
3) A scientific name is same as local name
4) A scientific name has three parts the generic name specific
epithet and subspecific name
123. Fill in the balnks
In ______X______ growth by cell division occurs continuously
through their life span. In ______Y_____, this growth is seen only up
to a certain age
Identify the X and Y in this below respectively
1) X–plants; Y–Animal
2) X–Animal; Y–Plant
3) X- Prokaryotes; Y–Eukaryotes
4) X–Eukaryotes; Y–Prokaryotes
124 The basic components of taxonomy are
A) characterization B) Identification
C) Nomenclature D) Classification
1) B, C and D only 2) A, C and D only
3) A, B and C only 4) A, B, C and D
125. Ernst Mayr’s work is related to this branch of biology
1) Physiology 2) Ecology
3) Evolutionary biology 4) Embryology
126. __________and_________are twin characteristics of growth
respectively
1) Increase in growth and increase in number of bivalents
2) Increase in mass and increase number of individual
3) Increase in growth increase in reproduction
4) Increase in mutualism and increase in consciousness
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
24
127. Which of the following statements is wrong w.r.t rules of
nomenclature?
1) The first word denoting the genus starts with a capital letter
2) The specific epithet starts with a small letter
3) Biological names are printed in italics to indicate their Latin
origin
4) In the biological name Mangifera indica L ‘L’ denotes the word
‘Latin’
128. Identify a set which does not possess defining properties of living
organisms?
1) consciousness, metabolism
2) cellular organization metabolism
3) reproduction growth
4) cellular organization, cons ciousness
129. Each category referred to as a unit of classififcation, in fact
represents a rank and is commonly termed as
1) Taxon 2) Species 3) Genus 4) Family
130. Identify the correct statements about reproduction
I) It produces progeny with more or less similar features to parents
II) It occurs by involving one parent (asexual) or two parents
III) It is through budding pragmentation, spores or gametes
IV) It is not observed in non living organisms
1) I,II,III and IV 2) All except-I
3) All except-IV 4) All except-III
131. Match the following
Column-I Column-II
A) Metabolism I) off-springs formation
B) Cellular-organization II) Human beings are aware of himself
C) Reproduction III) Sum total of all chemical reaction
occurring in body
D) Self-consciousness IV) Composed of one or more cells
1) A→III,B→IV,C→I,D→II 2) A→II,B→IV,C→I,D→III
3) A→IV,B→III,C→I,D→II 4) A→IV,B→I,C→IV,D→II
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
25
132. Identify the organism which do not show the reproduction
1) Yeast 2) Sterile worker bee
3) Amoeba 4) Fertile human couple
133. Read the following statements and identify correct option
I) Biology is the story of life on earth
II) Biology is the story of evolution of living organisms on earth
III) All living organisms present, past and futures, are linked to one
another by the sharing of the common genetic material, but to
varying degree
IV) All multicellular organism grows by cell division
1) I,II and III only 2) I,III and IV only
3) II,III and IV only 4) I,II, III and IV
134. ICBN stands for
1) International classification of biological nomenclature
2) International class of biological nomenclature
3) International code for botanical nomenclature
4) International classification of biological naming
135. Read the following
I) growth II) reproduction
III) Response to stimuli IV) Metabolism
V) Cellular organisation
Which of the above features are generally characters of life?
1) I, II, III, and V only 2) II, III, and V only
3) I, II, IV and V only 4) I, II, III, IV and V
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
26
136. What is incorrect regarding Periplaneta americana?
1) Excretion by malpighian tubules
2) Haemolymph delivering oxygen to tissues
3) Paurometabolous development
4) Mosaic vision
137. Which of the following also help in excretion apart from malpighian
tubules in Periplaneta americana?
1) Fat body 2) Urecose gland
3) Nephrocytes 4) All of these
138. In male cockroaches, sperms are stored in which part of the
reproductive system?
1) Seminal vesicles 2) Mushroom glands
3) Testes 4) Vas deferens
139. Complete the following analogy regarding reproductive system of
cockroach:-
Testes: IV-VI abdominal segments:: Ovaries: _____ abdominal
segments
1) II - VI 2) III-VIII 3) II-III 4) IV-IX
140. Complete the following analogy:-
Vertebrates : Brain :: Cockroach : ______
1) Lower oesophageal ganglion
2) Supra oesophageal ganglion
3) Nephrocytes
4) Ommatidia
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
27
141. Which among the following is incorrect regarding the vision of
cockroach?
1) Compound eyes are located at dorsal surface of head
2) They have nocturnal type of vision
3) Each eye consists of 3000 ommatidia
4) Their vision is known as mosaic vision with more sensitivity but
less resolution
142. Malpighian tubules of cockroach are lined by which of the following
cells?
1) Epithelial cells
2) Glandular and Ciliated cells
3) Ciliated cells only
4) Epithelial and glandular cells
143. Find the mismatched pair:
1) Anal style - Sexual dimorphism
2) Spermatheca - Accessory reproductive gland
3) Malpighian tubules - Removal of nitrogenous waste
4) Supra - oesophageal ganglion - supply nerves to antennae and
compound eye
144. Excretion is performed by malpighian tubules, cockroach is
1) Ammonotelic
2) Uricotelic
3) Usually ammonotelic but uricotelic in unfavourable conditions
4) Ureotelic
145. If the head of a cockroach is cut off, it will still live for as long as
one week because:
1) It has four ganglia in the thorax, and six in the abdomen
2) The head holds a bit of a nervous system while the rest is
situated along the ventral part of its body
3) The head holds most of the nervous system while the rest is
situated along its belly side
4) In the head region, the brain is represented by lower oesophageal
ganglion which supplies nerves to compound eyes.
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
28
146. Which among the following is not a sense organ of cockroach?
1) Labial palps 2) Maxillary palps
3) Caudal style 4) Anal cerci
147. Which among the following is the correct location of Spermatheca
?
1) Male cockroach, IV Segment
2) Male cockroach, VI Segment
3) Female cockroach, VI Segment
4) Male cockroach, VII Segment
148. Which among the following statement is incorrect with respect to
ootheca of cockroach?
1) The unfertilized eggs are encased in ootheca
2) Each ootheca contains 14-16 eggs on an average
3) Ootheca is a dark reddish to blackish brown capsule
4) It is absout 8 mm long
149. Which among the following is incorrect with respect to development
in cockroach?
1) The development is paurometabolous
2) Last nymphal stage has proper wings
3) Only adult cockroach has proper wings
4) Nymph moults about 13 times to reach the adult form
150. Complete the following statement:
Heart of cockroach consists of elongated muscular tube lying along
__________ of thorax and abdomen.
1) Ventral line 2) Lateral line
3) Mid dorsal line 4) Mid ventral line
151. Malpighian tubules in cockroach absorb nitrogenous waste
products and convert them into ___A_____ which is excreted out
through the ___B___.
1) A- ammonia, B- Hindgut 2) A- uric acid, B-Hindgut
3) A- ammonia, B- Midgut 4) A- Midgut, B- Uric acid
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
29
152. Blood vascular system of cockroach is
1) Open type
2) Haemocoel is present
3) Haemolymph bathes the visceral organs
4) All are correct
153. Spiracles in cockroach are
1) Present on ventral side of the body
2) Present on lateral side of the body
3) Present on dorsal side of the body
4) absent
154. Which of the following statements is wrong?
1) Spiracles are regulated by sphincters in cockroach
2) Tracheoles is the place for gaseous exchange
3) There will be 10 pairs of spiracles
4) Tracheoles divide into tracheal tubes
155. The nervous system of cockroach is made up of a series of ganglia
which are joined by
1) Paired lateral connectives
2) Single longitudinal connectives
3) Paired longitudinal connectives
4) Single horizontal connectives
156. The abdomen has _____ while thorax has _____ ganglia in cockroach
1) Six, three 2) Nine, six
3) Three, two 4) Two, one
157. Ommatidia are not
1) Hexagonal
2) 2000 in cockroach
3) Forms multiple images of an object
4) Visual units
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
30
158. Male reproductive system of cockroaches has not
1) A pair of testes on lateral side in 4th -6th abdominal segments
2) Paired ejaculatory ducts
3) An accessory reproductive gland which is mushroom shaped in
the 6th-7th abdominal segments
4) Phallomeres are chitinous asymmetrical structures surrounding
the male gonopore
159. At the time of copulation in Cockroach
1) Sperms are not discharged
2) Spermatophores are discharged
3) Spermatheca are discharged
4) Spermatozoa are not discharged
160. Cockroaches are
1) Vector for bacterial disease
2) Of no economic importance
3) Bisexual
4) More than one option is correct
161. Vestibulum is a part of
1) Genital chamber of male cockroach
2) Genital pouch of female cockroach
3) Both (1) and (2)
4) Rudimentary part of female circulatory system in cockroach
162. The sclerites in exoskeleton of cockroach are joined to each other
by:
1) Tergites 2) Arthrodial membrane
3) Mesothorax 4) Tegmina
163. Which mouth part of cockroach has grinding and incising part?
1) Mandible 2) Labium
3) Mandible and Maxilla 4) Hypopharynx
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
31
164. Which among the following statements are incorrect with respect
to cockroach?
1) It has mosaic vision with high sensitivity and less resolution
2) Salivary reservoir has eight highly chitinous plates called teeth
3) Tracheoles carry oxygen from air to all other body parts
4) Blood is devoid of respiratory pigment
165. The hardened plates of exoskeleton ventrally is known as
1) Sclerites 2) Tergites 3) Sternites 4) Ternites
166. Identify the incorrect option with regard to Tegmina in cockroach
1) Mesothoracic 2) Forewings
3) Cover hindwings at flight 4) First pair of wings
167. Anal cerci are
1) Jointed filamentous structure
2) Present in 9th segment
3) Present only in males
4) More than one option is correct
168. Find the incorrect match.
1) Junction of midgut and hindgut - Malpighian tubules
2) Gizzard - Chitinous plates
3) Crop - Chemical digestion of food
4) Gastric Caecae - Digestive juice
169. Which of the following mouth parts of the cockroach acts like a
tongue?
1) Labium 2) Labrum
3) Hypopharynx 4) Proventriculus
170. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Periplaneta
amerciana?
1) Uricotelism
2) Mosaic vision
3) Monoecious
4) Paurometabolous development
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
32
171. Alary muscles play an important role in
1) Circulation of blood 2) Respiration
3) Body movement 4) Peristalsis
172. Hind wings in cockroach arises form
1) Prothorax 2) Mesothorax
3) Metathorax 4) Pronotum
173. In cockroach, foregut comprises of
1) Pharynx, oesophagus, crop and gizzard
2) Mesenteron, crop and gizzard
3) Ileum, colon and rectum
4) Pharynx, oesophagus and rectum
174. External genitalia in cockroach consists of small irregular
chitinous plates known as
1) Seminal vesicles
2) Collaterial gland
3) Phallomeres
4) Abdominal sclerites
175. In cockroach the wings that help in flying are
1) Fore wings
2) Mesothroacic wings
3) The hind wings which are transparent and membranous
4) Tegmina
176. Select the correct statement from the ones given below with respect
to Periplaneta americana.
1) Nervous system dorsally consists of segmentally arranged
ganglia joined by a pair of longitudinal connectives
2) Males bear a pair of short thread like anal styles
3) There are 16 very long malpighian tubules present at the
junctions of midgut and hindgut
4) Grinding of food is carried out only by the mouth parts
-
MZ1-A_NEET_WTN-30_Exam.Dt.09-01-21
Narayana CO Schools
33
177. Label A, B, C, D and E respectively in the following figure:-
1) Labium, mandible, hypopharynx, maxilla, labrum
2) Labrum, hypopharynx, maxilla, mandible, labium
3) Labrum, mandible, hypopharynx, maxilla, labium
4) Labium, maxilla, hypopharynx, labium, mandible
178. Identify A, B, C and D in the following diagram respectively
1) Spermatheca, vestibulum, vagina, genital chamber
2) Spermatheca, collaterial glands, vagina, genital chamber
3) Vagina, spermatheca, collaterial glands, genital chamber
4) Vestibulum, collaterial glands, vagina, genital chamber.
179. In Periplaneta americana, the wings extends beyond the tip of the
abdomen in
1) Males 2) Females
3) Both Males and Females 4) Wings absent
180. Head of cockroach is formed by the fusion of
1) Ten segments and trigonal in shape
2) Six segments and triangular in shape
3) Eleven segments and rectangular in shape
4) Three segments and tetragonal in shape