code part test-1 (pt-1) 0 - · pdf file13.the question paper consists of 3 parts (chemistry,...

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Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose. Date : 18-07-2010 Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 258 PAPER - 1 CODE 0 COURSE : VIJAY (R) PART TEST-1 (PT-1) TARGET : IIT-JEE 2011 INSTRUCTIONS A. General : 1. This Question Paper contains 78 questions. 2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner on this sheet of this booklet. 3. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work. 4. Blank paper, clipboard, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgets in any form are not allowed. 5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately. 6. Do not Tamper / mutilate the ORS or this booklet. 7. Do not break the seals of the question-paper booklet before instructed to do so by the invigilators. 8. Write your Name, Roll No. and Sign in the space provide on the back page of this booklet. B. Filling the bottom-half of the ORS : 9. The ORS has CODE printed on its lower and upper Parts. 10. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as that on this booklet. If the Codes do not match, ask for a change of the Booklet. 11. Write your Roll No., Name and Name of centre and sig with pen in appropriate boxes. Do not write these anywhere else. 12. Darken the appropriate bubbles below your registration number with HB Pencil. C. Question paper format and Marking scheme : 13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Chemistry, Mathematics & Physics). Each part consists of five Sections. 14. For each question in SectionI , you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 15. For each question in SectionII , you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble(s) corresponding to the correct choice(s) for the answer and zero mark if no bubbled is darkened. Partial marks will be answered for partially correct answers. No negative marks will be awarded in this Section. MCQ Partial Marking Scheme : (a) If one choice is correct then for correct choice 4 marks, else zero. (b) If two correct choices are answer then (i) for one correct choice 2 marks. (ii) for two correct choices 4 marks. (iii) If any wrong choice is bubbled then 0 mark. e.g. : If correct answer is (A, C) (i) If you bubble only (A) then you get 2 marks. (ii) If you bubble only (C) then you get 2 marks (iii) If you bubble (A,C) then you get 4 marks. (iv) If you bubble (A,B) then you get 0 mark. (c) If three choices are correct (i) for one correct choice 1 mark. (ii) for two correct choices 2 marks. (iii) for three correct choices 4 marks. (iv) If any wrong choice is bubbled then 0 mark. (d) If four choices are correct (i) for one correct choice 1 mark. (ii) for two correct choices 2 marks. (iii) for three correct choices 3 marks. (iv) for four correct choices 4 marks. (v) If any wrong choice is bubbled then 0 mark. 16. For each question in SectionIII, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 17. For each question in SectionIV, you will be awarded 2 marks if you darken only the bubble corresponding to the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (1) mark will be awarded. 18. For each question in SectionV, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to the correct answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one (1) mark will be awarded.

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Page 1: CODE PART TEST-1 (PT-1) 0 - · PDF file13.The question paper consists of 3 parts (Chemistry, Mathematics & Physics). Each part consists of five Sections. 14.For each question in Section

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

Date : 18-07-2010 Duration : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 258

PAPER - 1

CODE

0COURSE : VIJAY (R)

PART TEST-1 (PT-1)TARGET : IIT-JEE 2011

INSTRUCTIONSA. General :

1. This Question Paper contains 78 questions.

2. The question paper CODE is printed on the right hand top corner on this sheet of this booklet.

3. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.

4. Blank paper, clipboard, log tables, slide rules, calculators, cellular phones, pagers and electronic gadgetsin any form are not allowed.

5. The answer sheet, a machine-gradable Objective Response Sheet (ORS), is provided separately.

6. Do not Tamper / mutilate the ORS or this booklet.

7. Do not break the seals of the question-paper booklet before instructed to do so by the invigilators.

8. Write your Name, Roll No. and Sign in the space provide on the back page of this booklet.

B. Filling the bottom-half of the ORS :

9. The ORS has CODE printed on its lower and upper Parts.

10. Make sure the CODE on the ORS is the same as that on this booklet. If the Codes do not match, ask for achange of the Booklet.

11. Write your Roll No., Name and Name of centre and sig with pen in appropriate boxes. Do not write theseanywhere else.

12. Darken the appropriate bubbles below your registration number with HB Pencil.

C. Question paper format and Marking scheme :

13. The question paper consists of 3 parts (Chemistry, Mathematics & Physics). Each part consists of five Sections.

14. For each question in Section�I , you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to thecorrect answer and zero marks if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minusone (�1) mark will be awarded.

15. For each question in Section�II , you will be awarded 4 marks if you darken the bubble(s) correspondingto the correct choice(s) for the answer and zero mark if no bubbled is darkened. Partial marks will beanswered for partially correct answers. No negative marks will be awarded in this Section.MCQ Partial Marking Scheme :(a) If one choice is correct then for correct choice 4 marks, else zero.

(b) If two correct choices are answer then(i) for one correct choice 2 marks. (ii) for two correct choices 4 marks.(iii) If any wrong choice is bubbled then 0 mark.

e.g. : If correct answer is (A, C)(i) If you bubble only (A) then you get 2 marks. (ii) If you bubble only (C) then you get 2 marks(iii) If you bubble (A,C) then you get 4 marks. (iv) If you bubble (A,B) then you get 0 mark.

(c) If three choices are correct(i) for one correct choice 1 mark. (ii) for two correct choices 2 marks.(iii) for three correct choices 4 marks. (iv) If any wrong choice is bubbled then 0 mark.

(d) If four choices are correct(i) for one correct choice 1 mark. (ii) for two correct choices 2 marks.(iii) for three correct choices 3 marks. (iv) for four correct choices 4 marks.(v) If any wrong choice is bubbled then 0 mark.

16. For each question in Section�III, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding tothe correct answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minusone (�1) mark will be awarded.

17. For each question in Section�IV, you will be awarded 2 marks if you darken only the bubble correspondingto the correct answer and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer,minus one (�1) mark will be awarded.

18. For each question in Section�V, you will be awarded 3 marks if you darken the bubble corresponding to thecorrect answer, and zero mark if no bubble is darkened. In case of bubbling of incorrect answer, minus one(�1) mark will be awarded.

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RESONANCE P1R180710C0-1

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

PART-IAtomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, Si = 28,P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75,Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]

SECTION - IStraight Objective Type

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), outof which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. How much volume of 63% w/w aq. HNO3 solution (d = 1.5 g/ml) is diluted with sufficient water to prepare1 L of 3 M HNO3 solution(A) 200 ml (B) 300 ml (C) 1200 ml (D) 1300 ml

2. Br2 () + Cl2 (g) 2BrCl (g)

excess25 ml of Br2() react completely with Cl2 (g) and forms BrCl (g). How much volume of BrCl (g) will form at STP.Density of Br2 () is 3200 Kg /m3. ( Assume molar volume of an ideal gas is 22.4 L.) [Br = 80, Cl = 35.5](A) 11.2 litre (B) 22.4 litre (C) 50 ml (D) 25 ml

3. A chemist decided to determine the Emprical formula of an unknown compound. He collects followinginformations :(I) Compound contains 2 : 1 ratio of 'H' and 'O' atoms(number of atoms).(II) Compound has 40% C by mass(III) Compound contains C, H and O only.What is the empirical formula of the compound :(A) CH3O (B) CH2O (C) C2H2O (D) CH3O2

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RESONANCE P1R180710C0-2

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

4. A 25 ml volume of 0.3 M H3PO3 is completely titrated with 45 ml of Ba(OH)2. The molarity of Ba(OH)2

solution is :

(A) 0.348 M (B) 0.500 M

(C) 0.167 M (D) 0.250 M

5. Hydrazine reacts with KIO3 in presence of HCl as

N2H4 + IO3� + 2H+ + Cl� ICI + N2 + 3H2O

The equivalent masses of N2H4 and KIO3 respectively are : [N = 14, K = 39, I = 127, O = 16]

(A) 8 and 53.5 (B) 16 and 53.5

(C) 8 and 35.6 (D) 8 and 87

6. The correct decreasing order of preferance of functional group during the IUPAC nomenclature of polyfunctional

groups compound is :

(A) �CONH2, �COCl, �CN, �CHO (B) � COOH,

OO||||�C�O�C� , �OH, �CHO

(C) �CHO, �CN, �NH2, �OH (D) � COOR,

O||

X�C� , � CN,

O||

R�C� (Ketone)

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RESONANCE P1R180710C0-3

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

7. Select the structure with correct numbering for IUPAC name of the compound :

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

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RESONANCE P1R180710C0-4

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

8. Number of isomers represented by molecular formula C5H10O2 which have most prior functional group inIUPAC system.(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

SECTION - IIMultiple Correct Answers Type

This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A),(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

9. Which of the following molarity values of ions are correct for a aqueous solution which contain 5.85 % w/vNaCl, 5.55% w/v CaCl2 and 6% w/v NaOH. [Na = 23, Cl = 35.5 , Ca = 40, O = 16 ](A) [Cl�1] = 2M (B) [Na+] = 1M (C) [Ca2+] = 0.5 M (D) [OH�] = 1.5 M

10. For CuSO4.5H2O, which is incorrect mole relationship.(A) 9 × mole of Cu = mole of O atom (B) 5 × mole of Cu = mole of O atom

(C) 9 × mole of Cu = mole of O2 molecule (D) mole of Cu = 5 × mole of O atom

11. Lithium metal reacts with nitrogen gas to produce a white solid Lithium nitride (Li3N) according to the reac-tion:

6 Li (s) + N2 (g) 2Li3N(s)

If 8.4 g of Li is taken initially with excess of N2 (g) then :(A) Volume of nitrogen gas consumed at STP is 4.48 L(B) Total mass of the product obtained is 14g(C) Total number of atoms obtained in the product is 1.6 NA(D) Lithium and nitrogen combine in ratio 3 : 2 by mass.

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RESONANCE P1R180710C0-5

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

12. Molecular formula C4H8O will show :(A) chain isomerism (B) position isomerism(C) functional group isomerism (D) metamerism

SECTION - IIIComprehension Type

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have tobe answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Paragraph for Question Nos. 13 to 15

632 g of sodium thiosulphate (Na2S2O3 ) reacts with copper sulphate to form cupric thiosulphate which isreduced by sodium thiosulphate to give cuprous compound which is dissolved in excess of sodium thiosulphateto form a complex compound sodium cuprothiosulphate ( Na4[Cu6(S2O3)5] ).

CuSO4 + Na2S2O3 CuS2O3 + Na2SO4

2CuS2O3 + Na2S2O3 Cu2S2O3 + Na2S4O6

3Cu2S2O3 + 2Na2S2O3 Na4[Cu6(S2O3)5]

Sodium cuprothiosulphateIn this process, 0.2 mole of sodium cuprothiosulphate is formed. (O = 16, Na = 23, S = 32)

13. The average oxidation states of sulphur in Na2S2O3 and Na2S4O6 are respectively.(A) + 5 & + 2 (B) + 2 & + 2.5 (C) + 5 & 2.5 (D) + 2 & + 4

14. Moles of sodium thiosulphate reacted and unreacted after the reaction are respecticvely.(A) 3 & 2 (B) 2 & 3 (C) 2.2 & 1.8 (D) 1.8 & 2.2

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RESONANCE P1R180710C0-6

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

15. If instead of given amount of sodium thiosulphate, 8 moles of sodium thiosulphate along with 3 moles ofCuSO4 were taken initially. Then moles of sodium cuprothiosulphate formed and remaining mole of Na2S2O3are respectively :(A) 0.5, 5.5 (B) 0.5, 2.5 (C) 1.5, 4 (D) 2, 2.5

Paragraph for Question Nos. 16 to 18

While naming unsaturated hydrocarbons, lowest locant is alloted for multiple bond than any substituent,since the priorty of multiple bond is more than any substituent present. When the locant for unsaturated issame from either side then double bond is given priority over triple bond. For main chain selection if the sizeof main chain and number of unsaturation are equal, then priority is given to the lowest set of locants forunsaturation.

16. IUPAC name of the following compound is

(A) 3-(Prop-2-ynl)hexe-1,3,5-triene (B) 4-Ethenylhepta-1, 3-dien-6-yne(C) 4-Ethenylhexa-4, 6-dien-1-yne (D) 4-(Prop-2-ynyl) hexa-1,3,5-triene

17. IUPAC name of the following compound is

(A) 4�Fluoro�1�methoxypent�1�yn�4�ene (B) 1�Fluoro�1�methyl�4�methoxybut�1�en�3�yne

(C) 4�Fluoro�1�methoxypent�3�en�1�yne (D) 2�Fluro�5�methoxypent�2�en�4�yne

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RESONANCE P1R180710C0-7

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

18. IUPAC name of the following compound is

(A) 3�(cyclohexa�1, 3-dienyl)cyclohexa-1,4-diene (B) 4�(cyclohexa�2, 5-dienyl)cyclohexa-1,3-diene

(C) 2�(cyclohexa�1, 3-dienyl)cyclohexa-1,3-diene (D) 1�(cyclohexa�2, 5-dienyl)cyclohexa-1,3-diene

SECTION - IVTrue & False Type

This Section Contains 4 questions. Each question is either true (T) or false (F).

19. Vapour density of mixture of NO2 and N2O4 decreases with temp because N2O4 decompose into NO2 onheating.

20. The valency factor of H3PO4 against reaction with NaOH, where it form monohydrogenphosphate salt, isequal to '2'.

21. If all the oxygen from 40g SO3, 22 g CO2 and 9 g H2O is made to combine to form oxygen gas, then thevolume of oxygen gas produced at NTP is 67.2 L.

22. All structural isomers have same general formula and different physical properties.

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RESONANCE P1R180710C0-8

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

SECTION - VInteger Answer Type

This section contains 4 questions. The answer to each of the questions isa single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubble below therespective question number in the ORS have to be darkened.

23. 5.6 g of an oxide of a hypothetical metal required 2.4 g coke for its complete reduction to metal along with theproduction of CO gas. Find the equivalent weight of metal in case of given metal oxide.

24. In the reaction, xHI + yHNO3 NO + 2 + H2O. Calculate the sum of (x + y) value for per mole of nitric

oxide in balanced reaction.

25. How many moles of cuprous sulphide could be oxidised by 4 moles of acidified K2Cr2O7 solution to producea bent-shaped gas (SO2) and Cu2+ ?

26. The total number of metamers possible for a compound with the molecular formula C5H12O.

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RESONANCE P1R180710C0-9

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

PART- II

SECTION - IStraight Objective Type

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for itsanswer, out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

27. Let P is the set of positive values of x satisfying the inequation 0)4�x}(2x){3�x(sin

x]x.[)2�x( 32

and Q is the set

of values of x where y = }x{

)x(sinis defined. Number of integer in P Q are

(where [ . ] and { . } denote greatest integer function and fractional part function respectively)(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 8

28. Number of solution(s) of the equation, 3x2 � 2x3 = log2 (x2 + 1) � log

2x is

(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

29. If , are the roots of the equation 2x2 � (a3 + 8a � 1) x + (a3 � 4a) = 0, then the interval in which 'a' should

lie so that (�, 0) and (1, ), is

(A) (�, �1) (B) (2, ) (C)

2,

41

(D)

21

,1�

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

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RESONANCE P1R180710C0-10

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

30. Let x = elog )a(logc , y = elog

)a( 2/c , z = elog )c(log b, where a, b, c are positive and a 1, b 1, c 1. If

y = zx

xz2

, then c is equal to

(A) loga(log

ab) (B) log

b(log

ba) (C) log

b(log

aa) (D) log

a(log

ba)

31. The value of the expression E = 10

sinlog

125

tan +

32

cos5

coslog

12401

cot is

(A) 0 (B) 21

(C) 1 (D) � 21

32. The quadratic equation x2 � 9x + 4 = 0 has roots and . If x2 � bx � c = 0 has roots 2 and2, then(A) b = 73, c = � 16 (B) b = �73, c = � 16 (C) b = 73, c = 16 (D) b = � 73, c = 16

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RESONANCE P1R180710C0-11

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

33. If , are the roots of the equation (cot2 135º) x2 � (cosec10º � 3 sec10º) x + tan2 240º = 0 then, the

quadratic equation whose roots are 3 + and + 3 is

(A) x2 � 4x + 1 = 0 (B) x2 � 16x + 60 = 0 (C) x2 � 8x + 3 = 0 (D) x2 + 6x � 4 = 0

34. If tanA = 3�4

3 and tanB =

34

3

then

6.2log (tan(A � B)) is

(A) An irrational number (B) a rational number(C) a natural number (D) a positive integer

SECTION - IIMultiple Correct Answer Type

This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) for itsanswer, out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

35. The solution set of the system of inequations 2 sin2x � 3 sinx + 1 0 and x2 + x � 12 0 has(A) three integers (B) one prime numbers(C) two natural numbers (D) no composite number

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RESONANCE P1R180710C0-12

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

36. If |2 � | [x] � 1| | 2 , then (where [.] represents greatest integer function).(A) [�3, 6) (B) [�4, 6) (C) [�3, 7) (D) [�3, 6]

37. If the equation tan |x| = |tanx| , where x (�2, 2), then

(A) solution is

,

20,

2�

23

�,2�

(B) solution is

�,

23

23

,

(C) number of natural number in solution of given equation is one(D) number of natural number in solution of given equation is two

38. Which of the following equations have no real solutions ?(A) x2 � x + 6 + ex = 0

(B) x4 � 2x2 sin2 2x

+ 1 = 0

(C) log{x}

21

= � 2 (where {.} denotes fractional part function)

(D) cosx = |x|

SECTION - IIIComprehension Type

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based open each paragraph, there are 3 multiple choice questions.Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

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RESONANCE P1R180710C0-13

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

Paragraph for Question Nos. 39 to 41

Consider the equation |x2 + 2|x| � 8| = .

39. If the given equation has four real solutions, then complete set of values of is(A) (0, 9) (B) (8, 9) (C) (0, 8) (D) (8, )

40. The complete set of values of so that the given equation has only two real solutions, is(A) (0, 9) (B) [9, ) {0} (C) [8, ) (D) (8, ) {0}

41. The number of natural values of so that the equation has only three real solutions is(A) 8 (B) 9 (C) 1 (D) 0

Paragraph for Question Nos. 42 to 44

Consider a rational function

f(x) = 1xx

1�xx2

2

, (where x R) and a quadratic function g(x) = x2 � 2x + ( � 3) , R

Also p and q are the integers in the range of f(x), where p < q.

42. q � p is equal to

(A) �1 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 2

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RESONANCE P1R180710C0-14

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

43. If one root of g(x) = 0 is less than p and other root is greater than q, then lies in the interval.

(A)

3

2,� (B)

3,

3

2(C) (3, ) (D)

,

3

2�

44. If = p + q, then roots of g(x) = 0 are

(A) real and distinct (B) real and equal (C) imaginary (D) rational

SECTION - IVTrue & False Type

This Section Contains 4 questions. Each statement is either true (T) or false (F).

45. Maximum and minimum values of sin2x � 4sinx + 1 are 6 and � 2 respectively.

46. The graph of y = 4logxx is

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RESONANCE P1R180710C0-15

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

47. If sinx {x} (where { . } denotes the fractional part function), then number of integers in the interval [0, 5]satisfying the inequality are 6.

48. x3 + 3x + 1 = 0 has atleast one solution in (�1, 0).

SECTION - VInteger Answer Type

This section contains 4 questions. The answer to each of the questions isa single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubble below therespective question number in the ORS have to be darkened.

49. Let y = [2x + 4] = 4[x � 3]. (where [ . ] denotes the greatest integer function). If is the sum of possible values

of [3x + y], then 89

is equal to

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RESONANCE P1R180710C0-16

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

50. Find the number of integral value of x satisfying the following system of inequalities.

0)1�5(log

31

log

2xlog3�xlog

35

22

2

and x � 02�x .

51. If the minimum value of y = x + |x � 1| + 2�x

2�x is and maximum value of y = |2x + 1| � |2x � 2| is , then

+ µ is equal to

52. Let a function f(x) is defined in [�2, 2] as

f(x) = 2x1

1x1�

1x2�

,

,

,

}x{�

|xsgn|

}x{

, where {x} and sgn x denotes fractional part and signum functions

respectively. Find the area bounded by the graph of f(x) and the x-axis.

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

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(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

RESONANCE P1R180710C0 - 17

PART - III

SECTION - IStraight Objective Type

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out

of which ONLY ONE is correct.

53. A ray of light travelling in air is incident at grazing incidence on a slab

with variable refractive index, n (y) = [k y3/2 + 1]1/2 where k = 1 m 3/2 and

follows path as shown in the figure. What is the angle of refractionwhen the ray comes out.(A) 60º (B) 53º

(C) sin 1 (1) (D) None of these

54. A ray of light is incident at angle i on a surface of a prism of small angle (A = 4º) and emerges normally

from the opposite surface. If the refractive index of the material of the prism is = 3/2, the angle of

incidence i is nearly equal to :(A) 0 (B) 4

(C) (D) None of these

55. A beam of diameter � d

� is incident on a glass hemisphere as shown in

the figure. If the radius of curvature of the hemisphere is very large incomparison to d, then the radius of the beam at the base of thehemisphere will be:

(A)4

3 d (B) d

(C) 3

d(D)

3

2 d

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RESONANCE P1R180710C0 - 18

56. Two plane mirrors of length L and 2L are separated by some distanceand a man M

2 is standing at distance L from the connecting line of

mirrors as shown in figure. A man M1 is walking in a straight line at

distance 2L parallel to mirrors at speed u, then man M2 at O will be

able to see image of M1 for time:

(A) uL4

(B) u

L14

(C) uL6

(D) uL9

57. In the figure shown a thin parallel beam of light is incident on a plane mirrorm

1 at small angle ��. m

2 is a concave mirror of focal length �f�. After three

successive reflections of this beam the x and y coordinates of the image is

(A) x = f � d, y = f (B) x = 2d + f , y = � f

(C) x = f � d, y = � f (D) x = 2d � f , y = � f

58. A ray of light starts from mid point 'D' of side BC of an equilateraltriangular prism ABC and moves along EA, where E is the mid point ofside AC and the prism is surrounded by air. The refraction index ofprism is :

(A) 2 (B) 2

(C) 3 (D) None of these.

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RESONANCE P1R180710C0 - 19

59. A square ABCD of side 1/2 mm is kept at distance 15 cm infront of the concavemirror as shown in the figure. The focal length of the mirror is 10 cm. The area of theits image will be(nearly): (A) 1.5 mm2 (B) 4 mm2

(C) 2 mm2 (D) None of these

60. A truck travelling due north at 50 km/hr turns west and travels at the same speed. What is the changein magnitude of velocity.

(A) 50 km/hr north-west (B) 50 2 km/hr north-west

(C) 0 (D) 50 2 km/hr south-west

SECTION - IIMultiple Correct Answers Type

This section contains 4 multiple correct answer(s) type questions. Each question has 4 choices (A),(B), (C) and (D), out of which ONE OR MORE is/are correct.

61. Two refracting media are separated by a spherical interface as shown in

the figure. P P

is the principal axis,

1 and

2 are the refractive indices of

medium of incidence and medium of refraction respectively. Then:

(A) if 2 >

1, then there cannot be a real image of real object

(B) if 2 >

1, then there cannot be a real image of virtual object

(C) if 1 >

2, then there cannot be a virtual image of virtual object

(D) if 1 >

2, then there cannot be a real image of real object

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RESONANCE P1R180710C0 - 20

62. A point object is placed between two plane mirrors whose reflecting surfaces make an angle of 900 withone another. All its images along with object lie on :(A) straight line (B) parabola (C) circle (D) ellipse

63. For the system as shown in the figure, the image formed by the concave mirror:

(A) will have speed greater than the speed of the object(B) will move in the direction of motion of the mirror.(C) will have speed greater than the speed of the mirror(D) moves away from the mirror.

64. A person, standing on the roof of a 40 m high tower, throws a ball vertically upwards with speed10 m/s. Two seconds later, he throws another ball again in vertical direction. (use g = 10 m/s2) Both theballs hit the ground simultaneously.(A) The first ball hits the ground after 4 seconds.(B) The second ball was projected vertically downwards with speed 10 m/s.(C) The distance travelled by the first ball is 10 m greater than the distance travelled by the second ball.(D) Both balls hit the ground with same velocities.

SECTION - IIIComprehension Type

This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon each paragraph, 3 multiple choice questions have tobe answered. Each question has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

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RESONANCE P1R180710C0 - 21

Paragraph for Question Nos. 65 to 67A plane mirror is rotating about a vertical axis passing through mid point as shown in figure with angular

velocity 2

rad/sec. Length of mirror is 2R. R is the radius of a circle. A and B are two persons standing at the

circumference of the circle. Now answer the following questions :

65. The distance travelled by the image of 'A' during the time mirror rotates one revolution will be :(A) zero (B) 2R (C) R (D) None of these.

66. The time interval in which 'B' can see image of 'A' when mirror completes one revolution will be :(A) zero (B) one second (C) two seconds (D) three seconds

67. The speed of the image of 'A' (whenever it is formed) with respect to ground will be :

(A) R2

(B) R (C) 2R (D) None of these.

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RESONANCE P1R180710C0 - 22

Paragraph for Question Nos. 68 to 70

A particle moves along a straight line with constant velocity 4 m/s. It passes through point P and there afterthrough point Q whose coordinates are respectively (1, 2), (1, �1). Then solve the following questions :

68. From which of the following points particle will not pass :(A) (2, 1) (B) (1, 0) (C) (1, �2) (D) (1, 5)

69. Find time taken by particle to travel from P to Q :

(A) 1 sec (B) 43

sec (C) 42

sec (D) 413

sec.

70. Velocity vector of particle will be :

(A) j�2i�22 (B) j�4 (C) j�4 (D) None of these.

SECTION - IVTrue & False Type

This Section Contains 4 questions. Each question is either true (T) or false (F).

71. In case of straight line motion distance travelled and displacement will be equal in magnitude. (T/F)

72. j�,i� and j�i� are the vectors along which incident ray, reflected ray and normal can exist. (T/F)

73. In case of refraction through fixed spherical surface object and image moves in same direction. (for themotion along principle axis). (T/F)

74. Whenever light is incident at critical angle C, then angle of deviation due to refraction will be 90º � C away

from the normal to the surface irrespective of whether light is incident from denser or rarer medium. (T/F)

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RESONANCE P1R180710C0 - 23

SECTION - V

Integer Answer Type

This section contains 4 questions. The answer to each of the questions isa single digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The appropriate bubble below therespective question number in the ORS have to be darkened.

75. In the given figure rays incident on an interface would converge 2 cm belowthe interface if they continued to move in straight lines without bending.But due to refraction, the rays will bend and meet some where else. Writethe distance of meeting point of refracted rays below the interface (in cm),assuming the rays to be making small angles with the normal to theinterface.

76. A point object lies inside a transparent solid sphere of radius 20 cm and of refractive index n = 2. When theobject is viewed from air through the nearest surface it is seen at a distance 5 cm from the surface. If theapparent distance of object when it is seen through the farthest curved surface is x cm, then write the value

of 10x

.

77. A fish is rising up vertically inside a pond with velocity 8cm/s, and notices a bird, which is divingvertically downward and its velocity appears to be 16 cm/s (to the fish). Write the real velocity of thediving bird (in m/sec), if refractive index of water is 4/3?

78. A bird is at a point P (4m, 1m, 5m) and sees two points P1 (1m, 1m, 0m) and P

2 (3m, 1m, 3m).

At time t = 0, it starts flying in a plane of the three positions, with a constant speed of 1 m/s in a directionperpendicular to the straight line P

1 P

2 till it is collinear with P

1 and P

2 at time t. Write the value of t in sec.

(SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK)

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