CompTIA A+ 220-801 Exam 100-Question Practice Test

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1. After a normal system shutdown, when the computer is turned off, contents of the memory used to

store BIOS settings are:

A. Stored in page file

B. Saved on hard drive

C. Retained

D. Erased

2. Which of the following terms refers to a technology that allows for storing passwords, certificates, or

encryption keys in a hardware chip?

A. Access Control List (ACL)

B. Encrypting File System (EFS)

C. User Account Control (UAC)

D. Trusted Platform Module (TPM)

3. Which of the following are power management specifications? (Select 2 answers)

A. ACPI

B. HCL

C. TPM

D. APM

E. EMI

4. In modern PCs, the procedure of replacing BIOS contents in order to upgrade to a newer version is

sometimes referred to as:

A. Direct memory access (DMA)

B. Overclocking

C. Flashing the BIOS

D. Hard boot

5. Which of the following acronyms refers to a series of basic hardware diagnostic tests performed by

the startup BIOS after the computer is powered on?

A. QoS

B. POTS

C. CMOS

D. POST

6. A computer supporting LoJack technology has two main components installed: an Application Agent

residing in the operating system which sends tracking signals to the monitoring center allowing the law

enforcement to locate and recover stolen device, and Persistence Module which restores the

Application Agent and allows it to survive operating system re-installation or hard drive format. The

highest level of security offered by LoJack can be achieved when Persistence Module resides in:

A. Operating system

B. Partition gap on the hard drive

C. USB key

D. Computer's BIOS

7. Chassis intrusion detection is an option that can be enabled/disabled in the BIOS setup utility (if a

BIOS comes equipped with this feature). Coupled with a hardware sensor mounted inside the computer

case, this option can be used to check if the case was opened and display a notification alert during next

boot.

A. True

B. False

8. Which of the following resources can be used by an operating system to communicate with

hardware? (Select 2 answers)

A. Secure Shell (SSH)

B. Device Manager

C. System BIOS

D. Device drivers

E. Command-line interface (CLI)

9. After replacing a modular hardware component inside computer case, the updated information about

specific parameters of the new device is stored in:

A. System BIOS

B. Startup BIOS

C. Secondary storage

D. CMOS RAM

10. The CMOS setup utility can be accessed by pressing: (Select best answer)

A. Reset button on the front panel of a computer case

B. The key set by the motherboard manufacturer for accessing CMOS setup utility during boot

C. Del key during boot

D. F1 key while logged in Windows

11. While trying to enable the entire drive encryption feature in Windows technician receives the

following error message: "A compatible Trusted Platform Module (TPM) Security Device must be

present on this computer, but a TPM was not found". Knowing that the system has a TPM chip installed,

which of the following steps might help in solving this problem?

A. Hard drive replacement

B. Enabling the TPM security feature in CMOS setup menu

C. Enabling the TPM security feature in Windows Control Panel

D. Re-installation of the OS

12. Which of the following is an example of a serial expansion bus?

A. PATA

B. PCIe

C. ISA

D. IEEE 1284

13. Which part of chipset manages communication between the CPU and memory for CPUs without

integrated memory controller?

A. Fusion Controller Hub (FCH)

B. Northbridge

C. Platform Controller Hub (PCH)

D. Southbridge

14. Which of the following slots on the motherboard allow for attaching a dedicated video card? (Select

2 answers)

A. PGA

B. AGP

C. ATX connector

D. PCIe

E. Slot A

15. CNR slot:

A. Is a general purpose expansion slot

B. Allows for connecting dedicated video adapter cards

C. Is used for specialized networking, audio, and telephony equipment

D. Allows for connecting mass storage devices such as hard disk drives and optical drives

16. Which of the following devices can be installed in an AMR slot?

A. RAM

B. Video adapter card

C. CPU

D. Modem

E. Keyboard

17. Certain types of RAM take advantage of an additional bit in order to detect whether a data error has

occurred. An extra bit is used to store information about the number of bits set to the value of one in a

given string of data (typically one byte) and by examining that information at different stages of

processing it is possible to detect whether the data has been corrupted or not. What is the name of that

extra bit? (Select best answer)

A. Digest

B. Binary number

C. Parity bit

D. Hash value

18. Which of the following sockets is designed to work with CPUs manufactured by AMD?

A. Socket AM3

B. Socket T

C. LGA 1366

D. Socket B

19. A type of PCI slot designed for expansion cards installed in laptops characterized by a much smaller

form factor when compared to its desktop version is called:

A. PCIe

B. miniPCI

C. AGP

D. PCI-X

20. The most notable difference between pin grid array (PGA) and land grid array (LGA) packaging

relates to the placement of contact pins, which in case of PGA can be found on the socket, and in case of

LGA on the CPU.

A. True

B. False

21. An expansion card equipped with slots for additional adapter cards is called: (Select best answer)

A. Printed circuit board (PCB)

B. Riser card

C. Field replaceable unit (FRU)

D. Motherboard

22. Which of the following configuration settings can be applied to Parallel ATA (PATA) drives to set their

priority when multiple drives are attached to the same cable? (Select all that apply)

A. SCSI ID

B. Cable select

C. Master

D. Logical Unit Number (LUN)

E. Slave

23. The ability to replace computer system components without causing interruption to the system is

referred to as:

A. Hardware acceleration

B. Multitasking

C. Hot swapping

D. Cold plugging

24. SCSI ID:

A. Is used to identify SCSI devices on a network

B. Is used as another term for Logical Unit Number (LUN)

C. Identifies logical device embedded in the physical device on a SCSI chain

D. Identifies physical device on a SCSI chain

25. RAID Level 10 requires a minimum of:

A. 2 drives

B. 3 drives

C. 4 drives

D. 5 drives

26. What is the maximum number of USB devices that can be connected to a single USB host controller?

A. 31

B. 63

C. 127

D. 255

27. What is the maximum cable length for USB devices?

A. 18 inches

B. 4.5 meters

C. 5 meters

D. 1 meter

28. Which of the following are memory form factors used in laptops? (Select 2 answers)

A. SO-DIMM

B. ECC

C. AGP

D. SO-RIMM

E. C-RIMM

29. What is the maximum allowable cable length defined in the Parallel ATA (PATA) interface standard?

A. 18 inches

B. 2 meters

C. 5 meters

D. 1 meter

30. Which of the following components is used for passive cooling of the CPU?

A. Heat sink

B. Computer case

C. Cooling fan

D. Chipset

31. What is the name of a hardware device that allows for administering multiple hosts with the use of a

single mouse, keyboard, and computer screen?

A. Device Manager

B. KVM switch

C. Microsoft Management Console (MMC)

D. Docking station

32. What is the maximum data transfer rate supported by the SATA 3.0 standard?

A. 6 Gbps

B. 800 Mbps

C. 3 Gbps

D. 480 Mbps

33. A single Parallel ATA (PATA) cable can be used to connect one motherboard socket with:

A. Up to 2 devices

B. Up to 3 devices

C. Only 1 device

D. Up to 4 devices

34. A single Serial ATA (SATA) data cable can be used to connect one motherboard socket with:

A. Up to 3 devices

B. Up to 2 devices

C. Only 1 device

D. Up to 4 devices

35. What is the maximum data transfer rate offered by Hi-Speed USB?

A. 800 Mbps

B. 480 Mbps

C. 400 Mbps

D. 12 Mbps

36. Which of the following are parallel communication interfaces? (Select all that apply)

A. AGP

B. PCI

C. IEEE 1284

D. IEEE 1394

E. PCI Express

37. Which of the following statements apply to the IEEE 1394a standard? (Select 2 answers)

A. Data transfer rate of up to 800 Mbps

B. FireWire 400

C. Data transfer rate of up to 480 Mbps

D. FireWire 800

E. Data transfer rate of up to 400 Mbps

F. Parallel bus interface standard

38. What is the maximum data transfer rate supported by the SATA 1.0 standard?

A. 1.5 Gbps

B. 1 Gbps

C. 2.5 Gbps

D. 3 Gbps

39. Which of the following interfaces is used for digital audio?

A. DVI

B. AGP

C. VGA

D. S/PDIF

40. A feature that can be found in some types of PC Power Supply Units that allows a PSU to

automatically adapt to the AC voltage supplied from the power socket is called:

A. Fixed-input

B. Inverter

C. Auto-switching

D. Hot plugging

41. Which of the following answers describe the features of tape drives? (Select 3 answers)

A. Fast seek times

B. Low capacity

C. Volatile storage medium

D. Magnetic media

E. Slow seek times

F. High capacity

42. A smaller, faster memory type for storing copies of the data from frequently used main memory

locations used by the central processing unit of a computer to reduce the average time to access

memory is called:

A. Secondary storage

B. RAM

C. ECC memory

D. CPU cache

43. Video Graphics Array (VGA) connector is a:

A. Three-row 15-pin connector

B. Two-row 40-pin connector

C. Three-row 29-pin connector

D. PCIe 6/8-pin connector

44. A computer on a network where most functions are carried out on a central server or a software

application that uses the client-server model where the server performs all the processing is called:

A. Workstation

B. Hub

C. Thin client

D. Virtual machine

45. Which of the following answers lists storage media types arranged from lowest to highest capacity?

A. Floppy disk, CD, DVD, BD (Blu-ray), Tape

B. CD, DVD, Floppy disk, BD (Blu-ray), Tape

C. Floppy disk, CD, DVD, Tape, BD (Blu-ray)

D. Floppy disk, Tape, CD, DVD, BD (Blu-ray)

46. In computer graphics, the frequency at which the screen is redrawn is called:

A. Aspect ratio

B. Interlacing

C. Refresh rate

D. Screen resolution

47. Brightness of an LCD monitor (the level of light emitted by an LCD display) is measured in:

A. Pixels

B. Candelas per square metre (cd/m2)

C. Watts

D. Dots per inch (DPI)

48. A component of computer graphics display adapters which converts digitally encoded images into

analog signals that can be displayed by a monitor is called:

A. OLED

B. CAD

C. RAMDAC

D. CRT

49. The practice of running a motherboard or microprocessor at a higher speed than recommended by

the manufacturer is commonly referred to as:

A. Throttling

B. Overclocking

C. Hyper-Threading

D. Virtualization

50. In order to ensure the sharpest text and image displayed by a CRT monitor it is usually

recommended to set the monitor to run only at a specific resolution (which is also referred to as the

CRT's native resolution).

A. True

B. False

51. Which of the following acronyms refers to a technology enabling more efficient use of electric power

in a PSU?

A. PFC

B. PXE

C. PVC

D. PCB

52. The floppy drive ribbon cable connector consists of:

A. 34 pins

B. 15 pins

C. 80 pins

D. 40 pins

53. Which of the following auxiliary connectors is used to supply dedicated power for a high-end CPU?

A. 4/8-pin 12v

B. P1

C. PCIe 6/8-pin

D. T568A

54. Which of the following connectors are used with optical fiber cabling? (Select all that apply)

A. ST

B. SC

C. BNC

D. LC

E. RJ-11

55. An Ethernet crossover cable uses:

A. T568A pin/pair assignments on both ends

B. T568A pin/pair assignment on one end and T568B pin/pair assignment on the opposite end

C. BNC connectors on both ends

D. T568B pin/pair assignments on both ends

56. The FTP protocol is designed for:

A. Sending email messages between servers

B. Serving web pages

C. Translating domain names into IP addresses

D. File exchange

57. Which of the following connector types can be used for connecting keyboards and mice to a PC?

(Select all that apply)

A. S/PDIF

B. PS/2

C. 6-pin Mini-DIN

D. USB

E. PCIe 6/8-pin

58. Which of the following connector types are used with twisted-pair cabling? (Select 2 answers)

A. BNC

B. LC

C. RJ-45

D. RJ-11

E. ST

59. What is the function of IMAP and POP?

A. Exchange of email messages between servers

B. Retrieval of email messages from servers

C. Serving of web pages

D. Translation of domain names into IP addresses

60. Which of the following acronyms refers to a Microsoft-proprietary protocol providing a user with

graphical interface to connect to another computer over a network connection?

A. SMTP

B. RDP

C. DHCP

D. DNS

61. TCP port 143 is used by:

A. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)

B. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

C. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)

D. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)

62. A security access control method whereby the 48-bit address assigned to each network card is used

to determine access to the network is called:

A. Routing

B. MAC filtering

C. Quality of Service (QoS)

C. Subnetting

63. Which of the following TCP port numbers is used by Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)?

A. 110

B. 25

C. 22

D. 143

64. TCP port 80 is used by:

A. HTTPS

B. IMAP

C. HTTP

D. Telnet

65. TCP port 443 is used by:

A. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP)

B. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

C. Hypertext Transfer Protocol over TLS/SSL (HTTPS)

D. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)

66. A lightly protected subnet placed on the outside of the company's firewall consisting of publicly

available servers is commonly referred to as:

A. Bridge

B. VLAN

C. DMZ

D. VPN

67. An IPv6 address consists of:

A. 32 bits

B. 48 bits

C. 64 bits

D. 128 bits

68. IEEE 802.11 is a set of standards for implementing:

A. Ethernet

B. WiMAX

C. WLANs

D. Bluetooth

69. Post Office Protocol v3 (POP3) runs on TCP port:

A. 110

B. 143

C. 25

D. 443

70. Which of the following default port numbers is not used by a remote administration tool?

A. 23

B. 22

C. 3389

D. 25

71. Which of the following technologies simplifies configuration of new wireless networks by providing

non-technical users with a capability to easily configure network security settings and add new devices

to an existing network?

A. WPA

B. WPS

C. WEP

D. WAP

72. Which of the following offers the highest level of security?

A. WEP

B. 802.11i

C. WPA

D. 802.3

73. 802.11a devices operate in the frequency range of:

A. 11 GHz

B. 2.4 GHz

C. 5 GHz

D. 1.2 GHz

74. Which of the following acronyms refers to a technology utilizing multiple antennas at both the

transmitter and receiver to increase wireless bandwidth and range?

A. MIMO

B. AES

C. CCFL

D. OLED

75. UTP cabling falls into the category of:

A. Multi-mode fiber-optic cabling

B. Single-mode fiber-optic cabling

C. Twisted-pair cabling

D. Coaxial cabling

76. Cabling with a fire-retardant jacket placed in the space between dropped ceiling and structural

ceiling is known as:

A. PVC

B. EMI

C. T568B

D. Plenum-grade

77. Which of the following hides the internal IP addresses by modifying IP address information in IP

packet headers while in transit across a traffic routing device?

A. QoS

B. Subnet mask

C. NAT

D. DMZ

78. IEEE 802.11n offers backward compatibility with which of the following standards? (Select all that

apply)

A. 802.11g

B. 802.11a

C. 802.3

D. 802.11b

79. In structured cabling, the interference between signals sent over adjacent wires is commonly

referred to as:

A. Multiple-In/Multiple-Out (MIMO)

B. Communications and Networking Riser (CNR)

C. Interrupt Request (IRQ)

D. Crosstalk (XT)

80. ExpressCard /34 and ExpressCard /54 are two form factors specified by the ExpressCard standard.

Numbers after slash in these two form factors refer to the card's:

A. Width

B. Length

C. Thickness

D. Speed

81. Which of the following functionalities allows overcoming keyboard size restrictions in laptops?

A. Touchpad

B. Numeric keypad

C. Fn key

D. Digitizer

82. Which of the following tools would be used for attaching cables to a patch panel?

A. Crimper

B. Toner probe

C. Punchdown tool

D. Cable tester

83. A double colon in an IPv6 address indicates that part of the address containing only zeroes has been

compressed to help make the address shorter.

A. True

B. False

84. Inverter: (Select 2 answers)

A. Converts AC power into DC power

B. Supplies voltage to backlights of an LCD panel

C. Converts DC power into AC power

D. Supplies voltage to backlights of an OLED display

85. Which of the following answers lists the most common battery type that can be found in modern

portable devices?

A. Nickel–metal hydride

B. Lithium-ion

C. Alkaline

D. Nickel-cadmium

86. Which of the following answers lists an HDD form factor used in laptops?

A. 3.5-inch

B. 5.25-inch

C. 1.8-inch

D. 2.5-inch

87. Which of the following provides physical security against laptop theft?

A. Security slot and locking cable

B. Geotracking

C. LoJack for Laptops

D. GPS

88. The disadvantage from using this device results from a fact that any incoming signal on any of its

ports is re-created and sent out on any connected ports, which in turn forces all the connected devices

to share the total amount of available bandwidth.

A. Router

B. Switch

C. Bridge

D. Hub

89. Guidelines outlining safe handling and disposal of various computer components can be found in:

A. IDE configuration

B. Hardware Compatibility List (HCL)

C. MBSA

D. MSDS documentation

90. In incident response procedures a process that ensures proper handling of collected evidence is

called:

A. Intrusion detection/notification

B. Chain of custody

C. MSDS documentation

D. Equipment grounding

91. A software that temporarily stores print jobs on the computer hard disk or in memory until the

printer is ready to print them is called:

A. Print spooler

B. Task Manager

C. Feed assembly

D. Task Scheduler

92. Which of the following printer types use inked ribbon to produce an imprint on paper? (Select 2

answers)

A. Inkjet

B. Laser

C. Dot matrix

D. Thermal

E. Daisy wheel

93. Which of the following answers lists the correct order of the laser printing process?

A. Processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, cleaning

B. Developing, cleaning, exposing, transferring, charging, fusing, processing

C. Processing, exposing, charging, transferring, developing, fusing, cleaning

D. Cleaning, fusing, exposing, developing, transferring, processing, charging

94. Which of the following printer types fall into the category of impact printers? (Select 2 answers)

A. Daisy wheel

B. Laser

C. Inkjet

D. Thermal

E. Dot matrix

95. Which extinguisher type should be used for fires that involve ordinary solid combustibles, such as

paper and wood?

A. Class A

B. Class B

C. Class C

D. Class D

96. Which of the following devices may pose a risk to electrical safety due to accumulated high voltage?

A. CRT monitor

B. Power supply unit (PSU)

C. Inverter

D. Laser printer

E. All of the above devices and components require high AC voltage and may pose a risk to a technician's

safety

97. Which of the following printer components allows for automatic printing on both sides of the page?

A. Roller

B. Print head

C. Duplexing assembly

D. Feeder

98. Which of the following is an example of good communication skills when dealing with a customer?

A. Ask close-ended questions to let the customer answer with a simple "Yes" or "No"

B. Argue with a technical user if necessary to educate them

C. Listen to the customer and do not interrupt until he or she has finished describing the problem

D. Rely on your own judgment and do not restate and clarify what the customer says

99. Which of the following tools are used to protect against ESD? (Select all that apply)

A. Antistatic bag

B. Ground mat

C. Tech bench

D. Antistatic wrist strap

100. Which of the following are examples of proper communication and professional skills while dealing

with difficult customer? (Select 2 answers)

A. Clarifying customer statements by asking open ended questions to narrow the scope of the problem

B. Restating the issue to verify understanding

C. Adjusting to the technical user conversation style by using technical jargon

D. Talking to co-workers while interacting with the customer

E. Clarifying customer statements by interrupting them if necessary

ANSWERS

1. Answer: C. Retained

Explanation: BIOS settings are stored in a non-volatile memory that retains its contents when the power

is turned off.

2. Answer: D. Trusted Platform Module (TPM)

Explanation: The Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is an international standard for a dedicated micro-

controller designed to secure hardware by integrating cryptographic keys into devices. The nature of

hardware-based cryptography ensures that the information stored in hardware is better protected from

external attacks executed with the use of software. Trusted modules can be found in PCs and laptops,

but also in mobile devices and network equipment.

3. Answers: A and D. ACPI and APM

Explanation: Both, Advanced Configuration and Power Interface (ACPI) and Advanced Power

Management (APM) are specifications designed to provide means for device configuration and power

management by the operating system. ACPI is intended as the successor to APM.

4. Answer: C. Flashing the BIOS

Explanation: In modern PCs the BIOS is stored in rewritable memory and the capability to replace its

contents is sometimes referred to as flashing. A BIOS might be reflashed in order to upgrade to a newer

version to fix bugs or provide improved performance or to support newer hardware, or a reflashing

operation might be needed to fix a damaged BIOS.

5. Answer: D. POST

Explanation: Power-on self-test (POST) is a series of basic hardware diagnostic tests performed by the

startup BIOS after the computer is powered on and before initializing the operating system to ensure

that the hardware components are working properly.

6. Answer: D. Computer's BIOS

Explanation: A computer supporting LoJack technology has two main components installed: an

Application Agent residing in the operating system which sends tracking signals to the monitoring center

allowing the law enforcement to locate and recover stolen device, and Persistence Module which

restores the Application Agent and allows it to survive operating system re-installation or hard drive

format. The highest level of security offered by LoJack can be achieved when Persistence Module resides

in a computer's BIOS.

7. Answer: A. True

Explanation: Chassis intrusion detection is an option that can be enabled/disabled in the BIOS setup

utility (if a BIOS comes equipped with this feature). Coupled with a hardware sensor mounted inside the

computer case, this functionality can be used to check if the case was opened and display a notification

alert during next boot.

8. Answers: C and D. System BIOS and Device drivers

Explanation: System BIOS and device drivers are the two means utilized by an operating system to

communicate with hardware.

9. Answer: D. CMOS RAM

Explanation: After replacing a modular hardware component inside a computer case the updated

information about specific parameters of the new device is stored in a memory type capable of retaining

its contents when the computer is powered off. Commonly it still refers to a volatile CMOS RAM

powered by a small battery, however in modern PCs this information resides in a non-volatile storage

such as EEPROM or flash memory.

10. Answer: B. The key set by the motherboard manufacturer for accessing CMOS setup utility during

boot

Explanation: The actual key for entering the CMOS setup utility depends on specific hardware and most

often the instructions on which key to press are displayed in a short text message during boot.

11. Answer: B. Enabling the TPM security feature in CMOS setup menu

Explanation: If the system has a TPM chip installed, the easiest troubleshooting step would be to

double-check whether the Trusted Platform Module setting has been enabled in BIOS.

12. Answer: B. PCIe

Explanation: PCI Express (PCIe) is an example of a serial expansion bus. All other answers for this

question including: Parallel ATA (PATA), Industry Standard Architecture (ISA), Peripheral Component

Interconnect (PCI), and IEEE 1284 refer to standards/expansion buses that rely on parallel

communication. PCIe was designed to replace the older PCI, PCI-X, and AGP bus standards.

13. Answer: B. Northbridge

Explanation: In modern CPUs the memory controller functions are integrated into the CPU chip itself.

For CPUs without integrated memory controller communication between the CPU and memory is

handled by northbridge. Northbridge and southbridge are the two chips that form the conventional

chipset.

14. Answers: B and D. AGP and PCIe

Explanation: Dedicated video cards can be attached to the motherboard through the older Accelerated

Graphics Port (AGP) and PCI Express (PCIe) slots.

15. Answer: C. Is used for specialized networking, audio, and telephony equipment

Explanation: Communications and Networking Riser (CNR) is a slot found on certain PC motherboards

and used for specialized networking, audio, and telephony equipment.

16. Answer: D. Modem

Explanation: The audio/modem riser, also known as an AMR slot, is a riser expansion slot found on the

motherboards of some Pentium III, Pentium 4, Duron, and Athlon personal computers. It was designed

by Intel to interface with chipsets and provide analog functionality, such as sound cards and modems, on

an expansion card.

17. Answer: C. Parity bit

Explanation: Certain types of RAM take advantage of a parity bit in order to detect whether a data error

has occurred. An extra bit is used to store information about the number of bits set to the value of one

in a given string of data (typically one byte), and by examining that information at different stages of

processing it is possible to detect whether the data has been corrupted or not.

18. Answer: A. Socket AM3

Explanation: Socket AM3 is a CPU socket for AMD microprocessors. LGA 775 (also known as Socket T)

and LGA 1366 (also known as Socket B) are both sockets designed for Intel CPUs.

19. Answer: B. miniPCI

Explanation: miniPCI is a type of PCI slot designed for expansion cards installed in laptops characterized

by a much smaller dimensions when compared to its desktop counterpart.

20. Answer: B. False

Explanation: The most notable difference between pin grid array (PGA) and land grid array (LGA)

packaging relates to the placement of contact pins, which in case of PGA can be found on the CPU, and

in case of LGA on the socket.

21. Answer: B. Riser card

Explanation: An expansion card equipped with slots for additional adapter cards is commonly referred to

as a riser card. Riser cards are often used to allow adding expansion cards to a system enclosed in a low-

profile case where the height of the case doesn't allow for a perpendicular placement of the full-height

expansion card.

22. Answers: B, C, and E. Cable select, Master, and Slave

Explanation: When installing two PATA drives on a single parallel cable, each drive must be configured

with a jumper to designate it as the primary (device 0 aka "master") drive or secondary (device 1 aka

"slave") drive. A drive set to "cable select" automatically configures itself as master or slave, according

to its position on the cable.

23. Answer: C. Hot swapping

Explanation: The ability to replace computer system components without causing interruption to the

system is referred to as hot swapping.

24. Answer: D. Identifies physical device on a SCSI chain

Explanation: SCSI ID identifies the physical device on a SCSI chain. Logical unit number (LUN) might also

be used to identify and address logical devices. For example, in a SCSI disk array formatted as a RAID

each physical disk drive can be identified by its SCSI ID and each logical volume created within the array

can be identified and addressed with the use of its logical unit number.

25. Answer: C. 4 drives

Explanation: RAID Level 10 requires a minimum of 4 drives.

26. Answer: C. 127

Explanation: A maximum of 127 USB devices can be connected to a single USB host controller.

27. Answer: C. 5 meters

Explanation: The USB 1.1 Standard specifies that a standard cable can have a maximum length of 5

meters with devices operating at Full Speed (12 Mbps). USB 2.0 provides for a maximum cable length of

5 meters for devices running at Hi Speed (480 Mbps). The USB 3.0 standard does not directly specify a

maximum cable length.

28. Answers: A and D. SO-DIMM and SO-RIMM

Explanation: Small outline dual in-line memory module (SO-DIMM) and small outline Rambus in-line

memory module (SO-RIMM) are memory form factors used in laptops. Both provide a smaller

alternative to their desktop counterparts. As opposed to DIMMs, Rambus memory modules (RIMMs)

must be installed in sets of two and any remaining open memory slots must be filled with the so-called

continuity RIMMs (CRIMMs).

29. Answer: A. 18 inches

Explanation: The Parallel ATA (PATA) interface standard specifies a maximum allowable cable length of

18 inches.

30. Answer: A. Heat sink

Explanation: Heat sink is a passive cooling component used for lowering the temperature of high

performance integrated circuits such as central processing units (CPUs), graphics processing units

(GPUs), and memory. A typical heat sink is a metal device made of copper or aluminum alloy mounted

on the top of a chip. Improved heat transfer between these two components is achieved by covering the

surface of the chip with a thin layer of a thermal compound. For integrated circuits generating much

higher temperatures, heat sinks are usually coupled with cooling fans (which fall into the category of

active cooling components).

31. Answer: B. KVM switch

Explanation: A KVM switch (with KVM in its name referring to keyboard, video and mouse) is a hardware

device that allows a user to control multiple computers with the use of a single keyboard, video monitor

and mouse.

32. Answer: A. 6 Gbps

Explanation: Serial ATA (SATA) 3.0 specifies the maximum data transfer rate of 6 Gbps.

33. Answer: A. Up to 2 devices

Explanation: A single Parallel ATA (PATA) cable can be used to connect one motherboard socket with up

to 2 devices.

34. Answer: C. Only 1 device

Explanation: A single Serial ATA (SATA) data cable can be used to connect one motherboard socket with

only 1 device.

35. Answer: B. 480 Mbps

Explanation: USB 2.0 (also known as "Hi-Speed") specifies the maximum data transfer rate of 480 Mbps.

36. Answers: A, B, and C. AGP, PCI, and IEEE 1284

Explanation: Peripheral Component Interconnect (PCI) is a parallel bus. Accelerated Graphics Port (AGP)

is a parallel interface specification based on PCI designed for the throughput demands of 3-D graphics.

IEEE 1284 is a standard that defines bi-directional parallel communications between computers and

other devices.

37. Answers: B and E. FireWire 400 and Data transfer rate of up to 400 Mbps

Explanation: Both answers refer to the IEEE 1394a standard. IEEE 1394 interface ("FireWire") is a serial

bus interface standard developed by Apple supporting data transfer rates of up to 400Mbps (IEEE

1394a) and 800Mbps (IEEE 1394b).

38. Answer: A. 1.5 Gbps

Explanation: Serial ATA (SATA) 1.0 specifies the maximum data transfer rate of 1.5 Gbps.

39. Answer: D. S/PDIF

Explanation: Sony/Philips Digital Interface Format (S/PDIF) facilitates the transfer of digital audio signals

from one device to another over a coaxial cable with RCA connectors or a fiber optic cable with TOSLINK

connectors.

40. Answer: C. Auto-switching

Explanation: Auto-switching is a feature that can be found in PC Power Supply Units (PSUs) allowing a

PSU to automatically adapt to the AC voltage supplied from the power socket.

41. Answers: D, E, and F

Explanation: The characteristic features of tape drives include high capacity, slow seek times, and

reliance on magnetic media.

42. Answer: D. CPU cache

Explanation: A smaller, faster memory type for storing copies of the data from frequently used main

memory locations used by the central processing unit of a computer to reduce the average time to

access memory is called CPU cache.

43. Answer: A. Three-row 15-pin connector

Explanation: Video Graphics Array (VGA) connector is a three-row 15-pin connector.

44. Answer: C. Thin client

Explanation: A computer on a network where most functions are carried out on a central server or a

software application that uses the client-server model where the server performs all the processing is

called thin client.

45. Answer: A. Floppy disk, CD, DVD, BD (Blu-ray), Tape

Explanation: The correct answer for this test question lists storage media types arranged from lowest to

highest capacity.

46. Answer: C. Refresh rate

Explanation: In computer graphics, the frequency at which the screen is redrawn is called refresh rate.

47. Answer: B. Candelas per square metre (cd/m2)

Explanation: Brightness of an LCD monitor (the level of light emitted by an LCD display) is measured in

candelas per square metre (cd/m2).

48. Answer: C. RAMDAC

Explanation: Random Access Memory Digital-to-Analog Converter (RAMDAC) is a component of

computer graphics display adapters which converts digitally encoded images into analog signals that can

be displayed by a monitor.

49. Answer: B. Overclocking

Explanation: The practice of running a motherboard or microprocessor at a higher speed than

recommended by the manufacturer in order to achieve performance gains is commonly referred to as

overclocking.

50. Answer: B. False

Explanation: The term native resolution refers to a single fixed resolution of the display screen. While

CRT monitors can usually display images at various resolutions, for an LCD monitor in order to ensure

the best quality of displayed image it is usually recommended to set the monitor to run only at a specific

resolution (it's native resolution).

51. Answer: A. PFC

Explanation: Power factor correction (PFC) is a technology enabling more efficient use of electric power

by reducing voltage distortion and loss of power.

52. Answer: A. 34 pins

Explanation: The floppy drive ribbon cable connector consists of 34 pins.

53. Answer: A. 4/8-pin 12v

Explanation: ATX12V 4-pin power connector (also called the P4 power connector) is a second connector

that goes to the motherboard (in addition to the main 24-pin connector) to supply dedicated power for

the processor. 8-pin connectors are used for high-end motherboards and processors with higher power

requirements.

54. Answers: A, B, and D. ST, SC, and LC

Explanation: ST, SC, and LC are connectors types used with optical fiber cabling.

55. Answer: B. T568A pin/pair assignment on one end and T568B pin/pair assignment on the opposite

end

Explanation: T568A and T568B are pin/pair assignment specifications for twisted-pair cabling. An

Ethernet crossover cable uses T568A pin/pair assignment on one end and T568B pin/pair assignment on

the opposite end.

56. Answer: D. File exchange

Explanation: File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is the protocol for exchanging files over the Internet.

57. Answers: B, C, and D. PS/2, 6-pin Mini-DIN, and USB

Explanation: The PS/2 connector is a 6-pin Mini-DIN connector used for connecting keyboards and mice

to a PC compatible computer system. Keyboards and mice are also attached to a PC via USB.

58. Answers: C and D. RJ-45 and RJ-11

Explanation: RJ-45 and RJ-11 are connector types used with twisted-pair cabling.

59. Answer: B. Retrieval of email messages from servers

Explanation: Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP) and Post Office Protocol (POP) are protocols for

retrieval of email messages from servers.

60. Answer: B. RDP

Explanation: Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a Microsoft-proprietary protocol providing a user with

graphical interface to connect to another computer over a network connection.

61. Answer: C. Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP)

Explanation: TCP port 143 is used by Internet Message Access Protocol (IMAP).

62. Answer: B. MAC filtering

Explanation: A security access control method whereby the 48-bit address assigned to each network

card is used to determine access to the network is called Media Access Control (MAC) address filtering.

63. Answer: B. 25

Explanation: Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) runs on TCP port 25.

64. Answer: C. HTTP

Explanation: TCP port 80 is used by Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP).

65. Answer: C. Hypertext Transfer Protocol over TLS/SSL (HTTPS)

Explanation: TCP port 443 is used by Hypertext Transfer Protocol over TLS/SSL (HTTPS).

66. Answer: C. DMZ

Explanation: A lightly protected subnet placed on the outside of the company's firewall consisting of

publicly available servers is commonly referred to as demilitarized Zone (DMZ).

67. Answer: D. 128 bits

Explanation: An IPv6 address consists of 128 bits.

68. Answer: C. WLANs

Explanation: IEEE 802.11 is a set of standards for implementing Wireless Local Area Networks (WLANs).

69. Answer: A. 110

Explanation: Post Office Protocol v3 (POP3) runs on TCP port number 110.

70. Answer: D. 25

Explanation: Of the four possible answer choices listed for this question only port number 25 is not used

by a remote administration tool (TCP port 25 is used by the SMTP protocol for exchanging email

messages between servers). Port number 23 is used by Telnet. Port number 22 is used by Secure Shell

(SSH). 3389 is the default port number for Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP). Telnet, SSH (designed as a

more secure alternative for Telnet), and RDP are all remote administration tools.

71. Answer: B. WPS

Explanation: Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) is a network security standard which simplifies configuration

of new wireless networks by providing non-technical users with a capability to easily configure network

security settings and add new devices to an existing network. WPS has known vulnerabilities and

disabling this functionality is one of the recommended ways of securing the network.

72. Answer: B. 802.11i

Explanation: 802.11i, implemented as WPA2, is an amendment to the original IEEE 802.11 standard.

WPA2 supersedes the previous security specification, Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP), known for having

security vulnerabilities.

73. Answer: C. 5 GHz

Explanation: 802.11a devices operate in the frequency range of 5 GHz.

74. Answer: A. MIMO

Explanation: Multiple-input and multiple-output (MIMO) is a technology utilizing multiple antennas at

both the transmitter and receiver in order to increase wireless bandwidth and range.

75. Answer: C. Twisted-pair cabling

Explanation: Unshielded twisted pair (UTP) cabling falls into the category of twisted-pair cabling.

Another type in this category is shielded twisted pair (STP). The difference between the two is that STP

cabling takes advantage of additional protective cover reducing signal interference from outside

sources.

76. Answer: D. Plenum-grade

Explanation: Cabling with a fire-retardant jacket placed in the space between dropped ceiling and

structural ceiling is known as plenum-grade cabling.

77. Answer: C. NAT

Explanation: Network Address Translation (NAT) hides the internal IP addresses by modifying IP address

information in IP packet headers while in transit across a traffic routing device. NAT solves the problem

of depleting IPv4 address space by allowing multiple hosts to share a single public IP address.

78. Answers: A, B, and D. 802.11g, 802.11a, and 802.11b

Explanation: IEEE 802.11 is a set of standards for implementing wireless networks. Backward

compatibility enables cooperation between devices designed for different standard versions. IEEE

802.11n offers backward compatibility with all previous standards (a, b, and g).

79. Answer: D. Crosstalk (XT)

Explanation: In structured cabling, the interference between signals sent over adjacent wires is

commonly referred to as crosstalk (XT).

80. Answer: A. Width

Explanation: ExpressCard /34 and ExpressCard /54 are two form factors specified by the ExpressCard

standard. Numbers after slash in these two form factor names refer to the card's width.

81. Answer: C. Fn key

Explanation: The Fn (function) key allows overcoming keyboard size restrictions in laptops. The Fn key

allows to combine keys which are usually kept separate facilitating more compact design of a laptop

keyboard.

82. Answer: C. Punchdown tool

Explanation: Attaching a cable to a patch panel requires punchdown tool.

83. Answer: A. True

Explanation: Double colon in an IPv6 address indicates that part of the address containing only zeroes

has been compressed to help make the address shorter.

84. Answer: B and C. Supplies voltage to backlights of an LCD panel and Converts DC power into AC

power

Explanation: An inverter is an electric device that changes direct current (DC) to alternating current (AC).

In laptops, inverter supplies voltage to backlights of an LCD panel.

85. Answer: B. Lithium-ion

Explanation: Lithium-ion is the most common battery type that can be found in modern portable

devices.

86. Answer: D. 2.5-inch

Explanation: Laptop hard disk drives (HDDs) use the 2.5-inch form factor compared to larger 3.5-inch

disks used in desktop computers.

87. Answer: A. Security slot and locking cable

Explanation: A reinforced hole found on portable computers and electronic equipment coupled with a

locking cable provide physical security against device theft.

88. Answer: D. Hub

Explanation: The disadvantage from using a network hub results from a fact that any incoming signal on

any of its ports is re-created and sent out on any connected ports, which in turn forces all the connected

devices to share the total amount of available bandwidth.

89. Answer: D. MSDS documentation

Explanation: Guidelines outlining safe handling and disposal of various computer components can be

found in material safety data sheet (MSDS) documentation.

90. Answer: B. Chain of custody

Explanation: In incident response procedures a process that ensures proper handling of collected

evidence is called chain of custody.

91. Answer: A. Print spooler

Explanation: A software that temporarily stores print jobs on the computer hard disk or in memory until

the printer is ready to print them is called print spooler.

92. Answers: C and E. Dot matrix and Daisy wheel

Explanation: Dot matrix and daisy wheel are printer types that require inked ribbon to produce an

imprint on paper.

93. Answer: A. Processing, charging, exposing, developing, transferring, fusing, cleaning

Explanation: Answer A in this question lists the correct sequence of steps used in the laser imaging

(printing) process.

94. Answers: A and E. Daisy wheel and Dot matrix

Explanation: Daisy wheel and dot matrix printers fall into the category of impact printers. An impact

printer uses a print head that either hits the surface of the ink ribbon, pressing the ink ribbon against the

paper (similar to the action of a typewriter), or hits the back of the paper, pressing the paper against the

ink ribbon.

95. Answer: A. Class A

Explanation: Class A extinguishers are used for fires that involve ordinary solid combustibles, such as

paper and wood. Class B extinguishers are designed for flammable liquids and gases. Class C

extinguishers are designed for containing fires involving energized electrical equipment. Label on an

extinguisher (in a pictogram form) informs about its intended use.

96. Answer: E. All of the above devices and components require high AC voltage and may pose a risk to a

technician's safety

Explanation: Laser printers, CRT monitors, PC power supplies, and inverters are all devices/components

that require high AC voltage and may pose a risk of electrocution.

97. Answer: C. Duplexing assembly

Explanation: Duplexing assembly is a printer component that allows for automatic printing on both sides

of the page.

98. Answer: C. Listen to the customer and do not interrupt until he or she has finished describing the

problem

Explanation: One example of good communication skills is the ability to listen without interrupting until

the customer finishes describing their problem.

99. Answers: A, B, and D. Antistatic bag, Ground mat, and Antistatic wrist wrap

Explanation: Antistatic bags, ground mats, and antistatic wrist wraps are used to protect the equipment

against electrostatic discharge (ESD). Most of the internal computer parts are delicate and require very

low voltage; the above mentioned tools are used by technicians in order to prevent an accidental

electrical short which might damage the equipment during handling or repair.

100. Answer: A and B. Clarifying customer statements by asking open ended questions to narrow the

scope of the problem and Restating the issue to verify understanding

Explanation: Clarifying customer statements by asking open ended questions to narrow the scope of the

problem and restating the issue to verify understanding are examples of proper communication and

professional skills while dealing with difficult customer.