CompTIA A+ 220-902 Exam 100-Question Practice Test Developed for www.GetCertified.nl This practice exam has been developed exclusively for GetCertified Opleidingen. Answers and explanations on last pages.

1. Windows 7/8/8.1 offer a security feature which limits privileges of software applications and access to administrative tasks. When a program makes a change that requires administrator-level permission or a user attempts to modify system settings that require administrative access, it triggers an on-screen prompt requiring an administrator password to proceed. This functionality is called: A. User Account Control (UAC) B. Trusted Platform Module (TPM) C. Windows Firewall D. Windows Defender real-time protection

2. What is the name of a Microsoft Windows feature that allows for encrypting entire drives?

A. Encrypting File System (EFS) B. LoJack C. Compact Disc File System (CDFS)

D. BitLocker

3. If personal files, such as email, documents, or photos are lost or deleted, Windows System Restore can be used to recover such files. A. True B. False

4. Windows 7/8/8.1 facilitate moving user accounts and settings, application configuration data, and personal files from one computer to another with the use of:

A. Windows Ease of Access B. Windows System Restore C. Windows Easy Transfer D. User Account Control (UAC)

5. What is the function of Windows Defender software?

A. Allowing and blocking applications through Windows Firewall B. Protection against spyware and other potentially unwanted software C. Reviewing computer's status and resolving issues D. Management of User Account Control settings

6. A Windows software that checks information coming from the Internet or other type of outside network and depending on settings either blocks it or allows it to pass through is called:

A. Antispyware B. Windows Defender C. Antivirus D. Windows Firewall

7. While upgrading from an earlier edition of Windows to Windows 7 it is important to make sure that programs and devices will work with the new OS version. To find potential compatibility problems with computer's hardware, devices, or programs that might affect the installation of Windows 7, Microsoft offers a free utility designed to check for any issues and to provide information on recommended actions before performing an upgrade to improve the PC's compatibility with Windows 7. What is the

name of that utility?

A. Files and Settings Transfer Wizard B. Upgrade Assistant C. Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor D. Windows Easy Transfer

8. Windows Upgrade Assistant is a free Microsoft tool released mainly for Windows 7/8 owners who wish to perform an in-place upgrade from their OS versions to Windows 8 or 8.1. The tool also allows to check for hardware compatibility of systems running Windows XP and Vista with Windows 8. This functionality is directed at those users who wish to upgrade older versions of their Windows OSs to Windows 8 through the clean installation option, which is the only upgrade path available in such case.

A. True B. False

9. Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) and Apple NetBoot are two examples of technologies that enable booting a computer system with the use of a network interface.

A. True B. False

10. Which of the terms listed below refers to an automated installation process that relies on an answer file and does not require user interaction or presence?

A. Repair installation B. Remote network installation C. Clean installation D. Unattended installation

11. An operating system installation that preserves system settings, personal files, and applications from the older OS version is referred to as:

A. Image deployment B. Unattended installation C. In-place upgrade D. Clean install

12. If a computer's hard disk has adequate free disk space, it is possible to install more than one operating system and then choose which OS to use during each startup. This type of configuration setup is often referred to as:

A. Single sign-on B. Multi-mode C. Multiboot D. Virtualization

13. Which of the installation types listed below provides a simpler and less costly alternative to manual OS installation in an environment consisting of multiple hosts requiring the same configuration settings?

A. Upgrade install B. Image deployment C. Repair installation D. Clean install

14. Which of the new built-in software options added in Windows 8 allows for reinstallation of the OS without affecting the existing user profiles and settings?

A. Reset B. Refresh C. Repair D. Restore

15. A new maintenance feature added in Windows 8 that enables clean installation of the OS without the need for installation media is called:

A. Reset B. Refresh C. Repair D. Restore

16. Provided that the process ID of NOTEPAD.EXE obtained with the TASKLIST command is 1230, which of the following answers lists the correct syntax for a Windows Command Prompt TASKKILL command that would allow to close this application?

A. TASKKILL /PID 1230 B. TASKKILL -IM 1230 C. TASKKILL /IM 1230 D. TASKKILL -PID 1230

17. Windows Recovery Environment (Windows RE) offers a set of tools and utilities to troubleshoot Windows startup issues. Which of the command-line commands launches a tool for manual troubleshooting of problems related to Master Boot Record (MBR), boot sector, and Boot Configuration Data (BCD) store in Windows RE Command Prompt?

A. DISKPART B. BOOTREC.EXE C. CHKDSK D. FIXBOOT

18. A Microsoft Windows command-line utility that provides disk partitioning functions in Windows 7/8/8.1 is called:

A. DISKPART B. MSTSC C. REGEDIT D. FDISK

19. The /F switch of the CHKDSK utility:

A. Locates bad sectors and recovers readable information B. Displays cleanup messages C. Displays the full path and name of every file on the disk D. Fixes errors on the disk

20. Which of the answers listed below refers to a Windows Command Prompt command used for uncompressing cabinet files?

A. REPLACE B. EXPAND C. CONVERT D. RECOVER

21. The "Run as administrator" option in MS Windows available after right-clicking on the Command Prompt application icon allows for execution of shell commands reserved for a system administrator.

A. True B. False

22. Many of the utilities available in the Administrative Tools menu in Windows Control Panel are implemented as the so-called Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-ins. The most prominent MMC component in this menu (which contains a collection of other MMC snap-ins such as Device Manager, Disk Management, and Event Viewer) is called:

A. Task Manager B. Performance Monitor C. Computer Management D. System Configuration

23. If a device in Windows fails after driver update, the driver can be restored to the previously installed version in:

A. Device Manager B. Windows Update menu C. Programs and Features menu D. Task Manager

24. An MS Windows account that enables users to have temporary access to a computer without the capability to install software or hardware, change settings, or create a user password is called:

A. Guest account B. Temporary account C. Standard account D. Managed user account

25. Windows Task Scheduler is a component of Microsoft Windows that provides the ability to schedule the launch of programs or scripts at pre-defined times or after specified time intervals. Which of the locations listed below contains the application icon shortcut which can be used to launch the Task Scheduler MMC snap-in?

A. Ease of Access Center B. Programs and Features menu in Windows Control Panel C. Windows Command Prompt D. Administrative Tools menu in Windows Control Panel

26. System Configuration is a Windows tool that can help in finding and isolating problems that might prevent Windows from starting correctly by providing the capability to choose which common services and programs should be run during system startup. Which of the following commands is used to launch System Configuration from the Command Prompt?

A. TASKMGR B. MSINFO32 C. APPWIZ.CPL D. WSCUI.CPL E. MSCONFIG

27. In Windows Disk Management utility, a normal disk status indicating that the disk is ready for read/write operations is labeled as:

A. Basic B. Online C. Dynamic D. Unallocated

28. Which of the following Windows tools allow(s) for migrating user data and user information to a new computer? (Select all that apply)

A. Microsoft Management Console (MMC) B. CHKDSK C. USMT D. Windows Easy Transfer E. MBSA F. Files and Settings Transfer Wizard

29. Which of the Command Prompt commands listed below launches the Remote Desktop Connection utility in MS Windows?

A. MSTSC B. MMC C. SERVICES.MSC D. EXPLORER

30. A Windows Internet Properties applet tab containing an option for managing pop-up windows displayed by websites is called:

A. Security B. Programs C. Privacy D. General

31. Which of the power-saving states in Windows uses the least amount of power?

A. Sleep B. Standby C. High performance D. Hibernation

32. The term "Power plan" refers to a collection of hardware and system settings that manage how a Windows-based computer uses power. Available configuration options for managing power in MS Windows (accessible via the Power Options applet in Windows Control Panel) include three pre-set power plans (Balanced, Power saver, and High performance), along with the possibility of creating a custom power plan based on specific user preferences.

A. True B. False

33. Which of the following Control Panel applets in MS Windows provides an option for setting up a broadband, dial-up, or VPN connection?

A. Phone and Modem B. System Configuration C. Network and Sharing Center D. Windows Mobility Center

34. In Windows 7/8/8.1, the Remote Desktop Connection utility can be launched from the Start menu search box, from the Run menu dialog box, or from a command line. Which of the following commands is used to start Remote Desktop Connection from the Command Prompt?

A. MMC B. MSDS C. RDP D. MSTSC

35. If a network adapter's "Speed & Duplex" property is set to Half Duplex, communication on the network will be taking place:

A. Only in one direction at a time B. In both directions at half the speed C. In one direction at half the speed D. In both directions simultaneously

36. A solution that allows to turn on a network host remotely by sending a special data packet (known as Magic Packet) is called:

A. RDP B. Jumbo frame C. Backdoor access D. Wake-on-LAN

37. Which of the following terms refers to a mechanism that allows for controlling network resources and assigning priority to different types of traffic? (Select best answer)

A. Quality of Service (QoS) B. Bandwidth cap C. Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) D. Fair access policy

38. What is the function of archive bit in MS Windows?

A. Search indexing

B. Setting file attribute to read-only

C. Creating an extra copy of a file D. Indicating whether a file has been modified since the last backup

39. The backup utility in Windows 8/8.1 that allows for restoration of different versions of saved personal files is called:

A. NTBackup B. Backup and Restore C. File History D. System Restore

40. Virus definition database files contain all the known viruses and countermeasures against them that can be applied by a particular antivirus application. In order to be effective, an AV program needs up-to-date versions of these files which can be obtained through an AV software update feature.

A. True B. False

41. Data files containing detection and/or remediation code that antivirus or antispyware products use to identify malicious code are known as:

A. Repositories B. Signature files C. Macros D. Security logs

42. An antivirus software can be kept up to date through: (Select 2 answers)

A. Driver updates B. Audit trails C. Engine updates

D. OS updates E. Virus signature updates 43. Time Machine is a backup utility for:

A. Linux B. Mac OS X C. Windows D. Other

44. A Mac OS X system feature providing a single-screen thumbnail preview of all open windows and applications is called:

A. Spotlight B. Mission Control C. Ease of Access Center D. Desktop Window Manager

45. A service that enables storage of data on Apple cloud servers is known as:

A. iCloud

B. Remote Disk

C. OneDrive D.

Dropbox

46. Which of the following answers refers to an interface capable of sensing more than one finger press at a time?

A. Touchscreen B. Advanced Host Controller Interface (AHCI) C. Digital Visual Interface (DVI) D. Multi-touch

47. Which of the Apple software utilities enables installation of an alternative OS in a multiboot environment?

A. Boot Camp B. VirtualBox C. Hyper-V D. VMware Player

48. Which of the following commands in Linux is used to display information about files and directories contained within the current working directory?

A. pwd B. ls C. grep D. ps

49. Which of the answers listed below refers to a Linux command for copying files and directories?

A. cp

B. copy

C. xcopy D. robocopy 50. What is the name of a Linux command used for renaming files and directories?

A. rm B. ps C. mv D. ls

51. A solution that allows multiple operating systems to work simultaneously on the same hardware is known as:

A. Virtualization B. Clustering C. Hyperthreading D. Load balancing

52. A software application used to manage multiple guest operating systems on a single host system is called:

A. ICS server B. Hypervisor C. UC server D. Virtual switch

53. A cloud computing infrastructure type where applications are hosted over a network (typically Internet) eliminating the need to install and run the software on the customer's own computers is known as:

A. Thick client B. SaaS C. Virtualization D. IaaS

54. In which of the cloud computing infrastructure types clients, instead of buying all the hardware and software, purchase computing resources as an outsourced service from suppliers who own and maintain all the necessary equipment?

A. IaaS B. SaaS C. P2P D. PaaS

55. Which of the following cloud services would provide the best solution for a web developer intending to create a web app?

A. SaaS B. API C. PaaS D. IaaS

56. Which of the server types listed below is used for dynamic assignment of IP addresses?

A. DNS server

B. FTP server

C. SMTP server

D. DHCP server

57. Which of the following acronyms refers to a network security solution combining the functionality of a firewall with additional safeguards such as URL filtering, content inspection, or malware inspection?

A. MTU B. STP C. UTM D. XML

58. A procedure of identifying someone's physical location by obtaining GPS data from their mobile device or other GPS-enabled devices is called:

A. User authentication B. Phishing C. Geotracking D. SSID broadcast

59. The process of establishing connection between Bluetooth devices (for example between a Bluetooth enabled headset and a Bluetooth enabled phone) is commonly referred to as:

A. Linking B. Three-way handshake C. Crosstalk D. Pairing

60. An authentication subsystem that enables a user to access multiple, connected system components (such as separate hosts on a network) after a single login at only one of the components is known as:

A. SSO B. TLS C. SSL D. WAP

61. Which of the answers listed below refers to a general term used to describe software designed specifically to damage or disrupt the operation of a computer system?

A. Adware B. Spyware C. Spam D. Malware

62. Which of the following answers refers to malicious software performing unwanted and harmful actions in disguise of a legitimate and useful program?

A. Trojan horse B. Spyware C. Logic bomb D. Adware

63. A collection of software tools used by a hacker in order to mask intrusion and obtain administrator-level access to a computer or computer network is known as:

A. Backdoor B. Botnet C. Rootkit D. Armored virus

64. An email sent from unknown source disguised as a source known to the message receiver is an example of:

A. Spoofing B. Shoulder surfing C. Backdoor D. Birthday attack

65. Zero-day attack

exploits: A. New accounts B. Patched software C. Vulnerability that is present in already released software but unknown to the software

developer D. Well known vulnerability

66. An attack against encrypted data that relies heavily on computing power in order to check all possible keys and passwords until the correct one is found is known as a brute-force attack.

A. True B. False

67. What is tailgating?

A. Gaining unauthorized access to restricted areas by following another person B. Manipulating a user into disclosing confidential information C. Scanning for unsecured wireless networks while driving in a car D. Looking over someone's shoulder in order to get information

68. Which of the security controls listed below is used to prevent tailgating?

A. Hardware locks B. Mantraps C. Video surveillance D. EMI shielding

69. What type of countermeasure would be used to prevent shoulder surfing?

A. Security guard

B. Video surveillance

C. Privacy filter D. Cable lock 70. Which of the following is an example of a multifactor authentication?

A. Password and biometric scan B. User name and PIN C. Smart card and identification badge D. Iris and fingerprint scan

71. A system that uses public network (such as Internet) as a means for creating private encrypted connections between remote locations is called:

A. WAN B. NAT C. VPN D. LAN

72. Which of the features listed below are supported by the New Technology File System (NTFS)?

A. Object permissions B. Encryption C. Compression D. All of the above features are supported by NTFS

73. Which type of password gives the highest level of permissions in BIOS?

A. root

B. Administrator

C. Supervisor D.

Power User

74. Which of the following acronyms refers to a policy of permitting employees to bring personally owned mobile devices and to use those devices to access privileged company information and applications?

A. BSOD B. BYOD C. JBOD D. BYOB

75. What is the most effective way for permanent removal of data stored on a magnetic

drive? A. Quick format

B. Recycle bin

C. Degaussing D. Low-level format 76. Disabling SSID broadcast:

A. Is one of the measures used for securing networks B. Makes a WLAN harder to discover C. Blocks access to WAP D. Prevents wireless clients from accessing the network

77. Which WAP configuration setting allows for adjusting the boundary range of the wireless

signal? A. Beacon frame B. Power level controls C. Quality of Service (QoS)

D. MAC filtering

78. Which of the following technologies simplifies configuration of new wireless networks by providing non-technical users with a capability to easily configure network security settings and add new devices to an existing network?

A. WPA B. WPS C. WEP D. WAP

79. A network access control method whereby the 48-bit address assigned to each network card is used to determine access to the network is known as:

A. EMI shielding B. Hardware lock C. MAC filter D. Quality of Service (QoS)

80. Which of the following would be the easiest step to troubleshoot BSoD?

A. System restart B. Safe Mode C. Driver rollback D. Fixboot

81. Which of the tools listed below is used to rearrange data on disks and drives in order to improve system performance?

A. FORMAT B. File recovery software C. CHKDSK D. Disk Defragmenter

82. A command-line utility in Microsoft Windows operating systems for registering and unregistering DLLs and ActiveX controls in the Windows Registry is called:

A. REGEDT32 B. BOOTREC C. REGSVR32 D. MSCONFIG

83. Which Windows Command Prompt command launches the Registry Editor? A. MSTSC B. REGEDIT

C. MMC D. MSCONFIG

84. A Windows utility used for browsing logs related to application events, user activity, and hardware or network failures is called:

A. Device Manager B. Control Panel C. Event Viewer D. Performance Monitor

85. Which of the following allows to start Windows only with default settings and basic device drivers?

A. Standby mode

B. System Restore

C. Safe mode D. Guest account 86. What would be the fastest for validating a digital certificate?

A. IPX B. OCSP C. CRL D. OSPF

87. Which of the tools listed below would be used to protect against ESD? (Select all that

apply) A. Antistatic bag

B. Ground mat

C. Tech bench D. Antistatic wrist strap 88. Which devices may pose a risk to electrical safety due to accumulated high voltage?

A. CRT monitor B. Power supply unit (PSU) C. Inverter D. Laser printer E. All of the above devices and components require high AC voltage and may pose a risk to a technician's safety

89. Guidelines outlining safe handling and disposal of various computer components can be found

in: A. IDE configuration B. Hardware Compatibility List (HCL) C. MBSA D. MSDS documentation 90. Which of the following solutions is used for controlling temperature and humidity?

A. Faraday cage B. UART C. EMI shielding D. HVAC

91. In forensic procedures, a chronological record outlining persons in possession of an evidence is referred to as:

A. Proxy list B. Order of volatility C. Access log D. Chain of custody

92. Any type of information pertaining to an individual that can be used to uniquely identify that individual is known as:

A. PIN B. PII C. ID D. Password

93. Which of the acronyms listed below refers to a set of rules enforced in a network that restrict the use to which the network may be put?

A. OEM B. AUP C. UAT D. ARO

94. A software or hardware based security solutions designed to detect and prevent unauthorized use and transmission of confidential information outside of a corporate network are referred to as:

A. AUP B. DLP C. UAT D. LTO

95. Which of the following is an example of good communication skills when dealing with a

customer? A. Ask close-ended questions to let the customer answer with a simple "Yes" or "No" B. Argue with a technical user if necessary to educate them C. Listen to the customer and do not interrupt until he or she has finished describing the problem

D. Rely on your own judgment and do not restate and clarify what the customer says

96. Examples of proper communication and professional skills while dealing with difficult customer include: (Select 2 answers)

A. Clarifying customer statements by asking open ended questions to narrow the scope of the problem B. Restating the issue to verify understanding C. Adjusting to the technical user conversation style by using technical jargon D. Talking to co-workers while interacting with the customer E. Clarifying customer statements by interrupting them if necessary

97. Which of the following actions should be the first step in the troubleshooting

process? A. Establishing a theory of probable cause

B. Implementing the solution

C. Identifying the problem D. Establishing a plan of action to resolve the problem

98. Once a plan of action to resolve a problem has been established, the next step in the troubleshooting methodology process is to:

A. Test the theory to determine cause B. Question users C. Implement the solution D. Establish a theory of probable cause

99. According to the troubleshooting theory, verification of full system functionality and implementation of applicable preventative measures should be performed:

A. After documenting findings, actions and outcomes B. As the first step of the troubleshooting process C. After implementing the solution D. As the last step of the troubleshooting process

100. The very last step of the troubleshooting process involves documenting findings, actions and outcomes. This step comes after verification of full system functionality and implementation of applicable preventative measures.

A. True B. False

ANSWERS

1. Answer: A. User Account Control (UAC)

Explanation: Windows 7/8/8.1 offer a security feature called User Account Control (UAC), which limits privileges of software applications and access to administrative tasks. When a program makes a change that requires administrator-level permission or a user attempts to modify system settings that require administrative access, it triggers an on-screen prompt requiring an administrator password to proceed.

2. Answer: D. BitLocker

Explanation: A Microsoft Windows feature that allows for encrypting entire drives is called BitLocker.

3. Answer: B. False

Explanation: If personal files, such as email, documents, or photos are lost or deleted, Windows System Restore cannot be used to recover such files. Windows System Restore helps restore only a computer's system files to an earlier point in time (undo system changes to the computer) without affecting personal files.

4. Answer: C. Windows Easy Transfer

Explanation: Windows Easy Transfer is a system tool, introduced in Windows Vista and available in later releases, which facilitates moving user accounts and settings, application configuration data, and personal files from one computer to another.

5. Answer: B. Protection against spyware and other potentially unwanted software

Explanation: Windows Defender software provides protection against spyware and other potentially unwanted software.

6. Answer: D. Windows Firewall

Explanation: A Windows software that checks information coming from the Internet or other type of outside network and depending on settings either blocks it or allows it to pass through is called Windows Firewall.

7. Answer: C. Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor

Explanation: Windows 7 Upgrade Advisor is a free system utility offered by Microsoft that allows to check for any issues as well as to obtain information on recommended actions before performing an upgrade from an earlier version of MS Windows to Windows 7. The function of this utility is to improve the PC's compatibility with Windows 7.

8. Answer: A. True

Explanation: Windows Upgrade Assistant is a free Microsoft tool released mainly for Windows 7/8 owners who wish to perform an in-place upgrade from their OS versions to Windows 8 or 8.1. The tool also allows to check for hardware compatibility of systems running Windows XP and Vista with Windows 8. This functionality is directed at those users who wish to upgrade older versions of their Windows OSs to Windows 8 through the clean installation option, which is the only upgrade path available in such case. 9. Answer: A. True

Explanation: Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) and Apple NetBoot are two examples of technologies that enable booting a computer system with the use of a network interface.

10. Answer: D. Unattended installation

Explanation: An automated installation process that relies on an answer file and does not require user interaction or presence is referred to as an unattended installation.

11. Answer: C. In-place upgrade

Explanation: A type of operating system installation that preserves system settings, personal files, and applications from the older OS version is referred to as an in-place upgrade.

12. Answer: C. Multiboot

Explanation: If a computer's hard disk has adequate free disk space, it is possible to install more than one operating system and then choose which OS to use during each startup. This type of configuration setup is often referred to as multiboot environment.

13. Answer: B. Image deployment

Explanation: Image deployment provides a simpler and less costly alternative to manual OS installation in an environment consisting of multiple hosts requiring the same configuration settings. Drive imaging allows for creating a backup copy of the entire contents of a disk drive (which may include a pre-configured Windows installation) and replicating the drive to a new computer.

14. Answer: B. Refresh

Explanation: A new built-in software functionality added in Windows 8 that allows for reinstallation of the OS without affecting the existing user profiles and settings is called Refresh.

15. Answer: A. Reset

Explanation: A new maintenance feature added in Windows 8 that enables clean installation of the OS without the need for installation media is known as Reset.

16. Answer: A. TASKKILL /PID 1230

Explanation: TASKKILL is an MS Windows command-line utility that allows to terminate tasks by process id or image name. In an example scenario, where the process ID of NOTEPAD.EXE obtained with the TASKLIST command is 1230, the correct syntax that would allow to close this application is TASKKILL /PID 1230.

17. Answer: B. BOOTREC.EXE

Explanation: The command-line command in Windows Recovery Environment (Windows RE) Command Prompt that launches a tool for manual troubleshooting of problems related to Master Boot Record (MBR), boot sector, and Boot Configuration Data (BCD) store is called BOOTREC.EXE.

18. Answer: A. DISKPART

Explanation: DISKPART is a command-line utility providing disk partitioning functions in Windows 7/8/8.1. DISKPART replaces the FDISK utility known from the earlier versions of MS Windows.

19. Answer: D. Fixes errors on the disk

Explanation: CHKDSK is a Microsoft Windows command-line utility used for checking disk, fixing errors on the disk, and displaying status report. The /F switch of the CHKDSK utility allows for fixing errors on the disk.

20. Answer: B. EXPAND

Explanation: A Windows Command Prompt command used for uncompressing cabinet files is called EXPAND.

21. Answer: A. True

Explanation: The "Run as administrator" option in MS Windows available after right-clicking on the Command Prompt application icon allows for execution of shell commands reserved for a system administrator.

22. Answer: C. Computer Management

Explanation: Many of the utilities available in the Administrative Tools menu in Windows Control Panel are implemented as the so-called Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-ins. The most prominent MMC component in this menu (which contains a collection of other MMC snap-ins such as Device Manager, Disk Management, and Event Viewer) is called Computer Management (COMPMGMT.MSC).

23. Answer: A. Device Manager

Explanation: If a device in Windows fails after driver update, the driver can be restored to the previously installed version in Windows Device Manager (DEVMGMT.MSC).

24. Answer: A. Guest account

Explanation: An MS Windows account that enables users to have temporary access to a computer without the capability to install software or hardware, change settings, or create a user password is called Guest. Due to the fact that the Guest account in Windows allows a user to log on to a network, browse the Internet, and shut down the computer, it is recommended to keep it disabled when it isn't needed.

25. Answer: D. Administrative Tools menu in Windows Control Panel

Explanation: Windows Task Scheduler (TASKSCHD.MSC) is a component of Microsoft Windows that provides the ability to schedule the launch of programs or scripts at pre-defined times or after specified time intervals. An application shortcut for launching the Task Scheduler MMC snap-in can be found in the Administrative Tools menu in Windows Control Panel.

26. Answer: E. MSCONFIG

Explanation: System Configuration is a Windows tool that can help in finding and isolating problems that might prevent Windows from starting correctly by providing the capability to choose which common services and programs should be run during system startup. System Configuration utility can be launched in Windows Command Prompt with the MSCONFIG command.

27. Answer: B. Online

Explanation: In Windows Disk Management utility (DISKMGMT.MSC), a normal disk status indicating that the disk is ready for read/write operations is labeled as Online.

28. Answers: C, D, and F. USMT, Windows Easy Transfer, and Files and Settings Transfer Wizard

Explanation: Files and Settings Transfer Wizard, Windows Easy Transfer, and User State Migration Tool (USMT) are all tools for moving user data and user information to a new computer running MS Windows. Files and Settings Transfer Wizard is a user migration tool available in Windows XP. Windows

Easy Transfer is an improved version of the Files and Settings Transfer Wizard for Windows Vista and Windows 7. USMT is a more advanced, scriptable command-line tool used for migrating multiple user profiles in Windows domain environment.

29. Answer: A. MSTSC

Explanation: Microsoft Terminal Services Client (MSTSC) is a former name of the Remote Desktop Connection (RDC) utility in Windows. RDC can be launched with the MSTSC command in Windows Command Prompt.

30. Answer: C. Privacy

Explanation: In Microsoft Windows, an option for managing pop-up windows displayed by websites can be found on the Privacy tab of the Internet Properties (aka Internet Options) applet located in Windows Control Panel.

31. Answer: D. Hibernation

Explanation: Hibernation is a power-saving state in Windows which consumes the least amount of power.

32. Answer: A. True

Explanation: The term "Power plan" refers to a collection of hardware and system settings that manage how a Windows-based computer uses power. Available configuration options for managing power in MS Windows (accessible via the Power Options applet in Windows Control Panel) include three pre-set power plans (Balanced, Power saver, and High performance), along with the possibility of creating a custom power plan based on specific user preferences.

33. Answer: C. Network and Sharing Center

Explanation: A Windows Control Panel applet providing an option for setting up a broadband, dial-up, or VPN connection is called Network and Sharing Center.

34. Answer: D. MSTSC

Explanation: In Windows 7/8/8.1, the Remote Desktop Connection utility can be launched from the Start menu search box, from the Run menu dialog box, or from a command line by typing in the MSTSC command.

35. Answer: A. Only in one direction at a time

Explanation: If a network adapter's "Speed & Duplex" property is set to Half Duplex, communication on the network will be taking place only in one direction at a time.

36. Answer: D. Wake-on-LAN

Explanation: A solution that allows to turn on a network host remotely by sending a special data packet (known as Magic Packet) is known as Wake-on-LAN.

37. Answer: A. Quality of Service (QoS)

Explanation: A mechanism that allows for controlling network resources and assigning priority to different types of traffic is called Quality of Service (QoS).

38. Answer: D. Indicating whether a file has been modified since the last backup

Explanation: The function of the archive bit in Windows is to indicate whether a file has been modified since the last backup.

39. Answer: C. File History

Explanation: The backup utility in Windows 8/8.1 that allows for restoration of different versions of saved personal files is called File History.

40. Answer: A. True

Explanation: Virus definition database files contain all the known viruses and countermeasures against them that can be applied by a particular antivirus application. In order to be effective, an AV program needs up-to-date versions of these files which can be obtained through an AV software update feature.

41. Answer: B. Signature files

Explanation: Data files containing detection and/or remediation code that antivirus or antispyware products use to identify malicious code are known as signature files.

42. Answers: C and E. Engine updates and Virus signature updates

Explanation: An antivirus software can be kept up to date through engine updates and virus signature updates.

43. Answer: B. Mac OS X

Explanation: Time Machine is a backup utility for Mac OS X.

44. Answer: B. Mission Control

Explanation: A Mac OS X system feature providing a single-screen thumbnail preview of all open windows and applications is called Mission Control.

45. Answer: A. iCloud

Explanation: A service that enables storage of data on Apple cloud servers is known as iCloud.

46. Answer: D. Multi-touch

Explanation: A type of interface capable of sensing more than one finger press at a time is referred to as a multi-touch interface.

47. Answer: A. Boot Camp

Explanation: Apple software that enables installation of an alternative OS in a multiboot environment is called Boot Camp.

48. Answer: B. ls

Explanation: ls is a Linux command used to display information about files and directories contained within the current working directory.

49. Answer: A. cp

Explanation: Copying files and directories in Linux can be carried out with the use of the cp command.

50. Answer: C. mv

Explanation: A Linux command used for renaming files and directories is called mv.

51. Answer: A. Virtualization

Explanation: Virtualization is a technology that allows multiple operating systems to work simultaneously on the same hardware.

52. Answer: B. Hypervisor

Explanation: A software application used to manage multiple guest operating systems on a single host system is called hypervisor.

53. Answer: B. SaaS

Explanation: Software as a Service (SaaS) is a type of cloud computing infrastructure where applications

are hosted over a network (typically Internet) eliminating the need to install and run the software on the customer's own computers which simplifies maintenance and support. Compared to conventional software deployment which requires licensing fee and often investment in additional hardware on the client side, SaaS can be delivered at a lower cost by providing remote access to applications and pricing based on monthly or annual subscription fee.

54. Answer: A. IaaS

Explanation: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) is one of the cloud computing infrastructure types where clients, instead of buying all the hardware and software, purchase computing resources as an outsourced service from suppliers who own and maintain all the necessary equipment. The clients usually pay for computational resources on a per-use basis. In IaaS, cost of the service depends on the amount of consumed resources.

55. Answer: C. PaaS

Explanation: Platform as a Service (PaaS) is a category of cloud computing services providing cloud-based application development tools, in addition to services for testing, deploying, collaborating on, hosting, and maintaining applications.

56. Answer: D. DHCP server

Explanation: Dynamic IP addresses are managed by Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) servers. Domain Name System (DNS) servers resolve host names to IP addresses. File Transfer Protocol (FTP) servers are used for file sharing services. Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) servers handle electronic mail (e-mail) messages.

57. Answer: C. UTM

Explanation: The term Unified Threat Management (UTM) refers to a network security solution (commonly in the form of a dedicated device called UTM appliance) which combines the functionality of a firewall with additional safeguards such as for example URL filtering, spam filtering, gateway antivirus protection, intrusion detection or prevention, content inspection, or malware inspection.

58. Answer: C. Geotracking

Explanation: A procedure of identifying someone's physical location by obtaining GPS data from their mobile device or other GPS-enabled devices is known as geotracking.

59. Answer: D. Pairing

Explanation: The process of establishing connection between Bluetooth devices (for example between a Bluetooth enabled headset and a Bluetooth enabled phone) is commonly referred to as device pairing.

60. Answer: A. SSO

Explanation: An authentication subsystem that enables a user to access multiple, connected system components (such as separate hosts on a network) after a single login at only one of the components is known as Single Sign-On (SSO). A single sign-on subsystem typically requires a user to log in once at the beginning of a session, and then during the session grants further access to multiple, separately protected hosts, applications, or other system resources without further login action by the user.

61. Answer: D. Malware

Explanation: Unwanted programs designed specifically to damage or disrupt the operation of a computer system are referred to as malicious software, or malware.

62. Answer: A. Trojan horse

Explanation: Software that performs unwanted and harmful actions in disguise of a legitimate and useful program is referred to as a Trojan horse. This type of malware may act like a legitimate program and have all the expected functionalities, but apart from that it will also contain a portion of malicious code appended to it that the user is unaware of.

63. Answer: C. Rootkit

Explanation: A collection of software tools used by a hacker in order to mask intrusion and obtain administrator-level access to a computer or computer network is known as rootkit.

64. Answer: A. Spoofing

Explanation: An email sent from unknown source disguised as a source known to the message receiver is an example of spoofing.

65. Answer: C. Vulnerability that is present in already released software but unknown to the software developer

Explanation: Zero-day attacks exploit vulnerabilities that are present in already released software but unknown to the software developer.

66. Answer: A. True

Explanation: An attack against encrypted data that relies heavily on computing power in order to check all possible keys and passwords until the correct one is found is known as a brute-force attack.

67. Answer: A. Gaining unauthorized access to restricted areas by following another person

Explanation: The practice of gaining unauthorized access to restricted areas by following another person is called tailgating.

68. Answer: B. Mantraps

Explanation: Mantraps are two-door entrance points connected to a guard station. A person entering mantrap from the outside remains inside until he/she provides authentication token required to unlock the inner door. Mantraps are used to prevent tailgating, which is the practice of gaining unauthorized access to restricted areas by following another person.

69. Answer: C. Privacy filter

Explanation: Privacy filter is a protective overlay placed on the screen that narrows the viewing angle so data is only visible directly in front of the monitor and cannot be seen by others nearby. Privacy filter is one of the countermeasures against shoulder surfing.

70. Answer: A. Password and biometric scan

Explanation: Authentication is proving user identity to a system. Authentication process can be based on

different categories of authentication factors, including unique physical traits of each individual such as

fingerprints ("something you are"), physical tokens such as smart cards ("something you have"), or user

names and passwords ("something you know"). Additional factors might include geolocation ("somewhere you are"), or user-specific activity patterns such as for example keyboard typing style

("something you do"). Multi-factor authentication systems require implementation of authentication

factors from two or more different categories.

71. Answer: C. VPN

Explanation: Virtual Private Network (VPN) is a system that uses public network (such as Internet) as a means for creating private encrypted connections between remote locations.

72. Answer: D. All of the above features are supported by NTFS

Explanation: New Technology File System (NTFS) was designed as a replacement for its predecessor, the File Allocation Table (FAT) file system. Its advantages over FAT include improved reliability due to the file system recovery features, increased security achieved by allowing users to set permissions on files or folders, support for the Encrypting File System (EFS) technology used to store encrypted files on NTFS volumes, file compression, and disk quotas.

73. Answer: C. Supervisor

Explanation: The supervisor password gives the highest level of permissions in BIOS. Another type of

password available for the BIOS interface is user password. Installing a supervisor password enables

additional security features in the BIOS interface. Depending on implementation, once the supervisor

password is set, the supervisor may for example disable user access to the BIOS setup utility, allow

access in a view only mode preventing the user from applying any changes, grant user access only to

selected fields in BIOS, or allow the user to view and change all the fields in the BIOS setup utility by

granting full access. Supervisor may also change or clear the user password, or set the point when the

user will be asked for password (for example only while accessing BIOS setup utility or when accessing

setup and booting the system).

74. Answer: B. BYOD

Explanation: The term Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) refers to a policy of permitting employees to bring personally owned mobile devices and to use those devices to access privileged company information and applications.

75. Answer: C. Degaussing

Explanation: Degaussing provides the most effective way for permanent removal of data stored on a magnetic drive.

76. Answer: B. Makes a WLAN harder to discover

Explanation: Service Set Identifier (SSID) is another term for the name of a Wireless Local Area Network

(WLAN). Wireless networks advertise their presence by regularly broadcasting the SSID in a special

packet called beacon frame. In wireless networks with disabled security features knowing the network

SSID is enough to get access to the network. SSID can be hidden by disabling the SSID broadcast on the

Wireless Access Point (WAP), but hidden SSID makes a WLAN only harder to discover and is not a true

security measure. Wireless networks with hidden SSID can still be discovered with the use of a packet

sniffing software. Security measures that help in preventing unauthorized access to a wireless network

include strong encryption schemes such as WPA and WPA2.

77. Answer: B. Power level controls

Explanation: Power level controls in Wireless Access Point (WAP) configuration settings allow for adjusting the boundary range of the wireless signal. From a security standpoint, this functionality keeps the signal coverage within the designated area and serves as a countermeasure against unauthorized network access attempts from outside.

78. Answer: B. WPS

Explanation: Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) is a network security standard which simplifies configuration of new wireless networks by providing non-technical users with the capability to easily configure network security settings and add new devices to an existing network. WPS has known vulnerabilities and disabling this functionality is one of the recommended ways of securing the network.

79. Answer: C. MAC filter

Explanation: Network Access Control (NAC) method based on the physical address (MAC address) of the Network Interface Card (NIC) is called MAC filtering or MAC address filtering. 48-bit MAC address is a unique number assigned to every network adapter. Devices acting as network access points can have certain MAC addresses blacklisted or whitelisted and based on the entry on either of the lists grant or deny access to the network.

80. Answer: A. System restart

Explanation: Restarting Windows and allowing the system to automatically recover from the Blue Screen of Death (BSoD) error is the easiest way to troubleshoot this problem.

81. Answer: D. Disk Defragmenter

Explanation: Disk Defragmenter is a tool that rearranges data on disks and drives in order to improve

system performance. Defragmentation results in faster read/write operations of the magnetic hard

drive's read/write heads as they can access the data sequentially without seeking data fragments in

different areas of the disk (defragmentation consolidates data into smallest contiguous regions).

82. Answer: C. REGSVR32

Explanation: A command-line utility in Microsoft Windows operating systems for registering and unregistering Dynamic Link Libraries (DLLs) and ActiveX controls in the Windows Registry is called REGSVR32.

83. Answer: B. REGEDIT

Explanation: Windows Registry Editor can be launched in the Command Prompt with the REGEDIT command.

84. Answer: C. Event Viewer

Explanation: Event Viewer (EVENTVWR) is a Windows utility for monitoring system health and

troubleshooting problems with applications, operating system, and hardware. Event Viewer allows for

browsing and managing event logs. The most common logs available in Event Viewer include

Application, System, and Security logs. Depending on the severity of the event, Application and System

logs display events that fall into three categories: Information, Warning, and Error. Information events

denote normal operation of the system (such as starting and stopping of system services, or successful

completion of some routine background tasks), warning events point to non-critical errors (for example

when installation of a software component fails because the component is already on the system), error

events point to serious issues, for example when programs stop responding and need to be closed by

Windows. Security log contains events such as valid and invalid logon attempts, as well as events related

to resource use, such as creating, opening, or deleting files or other objects. Security-related events are

called audits and inform only about success or failure of an event. Administrators can specify what

events are recorded in the security log (for example in order to monitor attempts at logging on to the

system).

85. Answer: C. Safe mode

Explanation: Safe mode allows to start Windows only with default settings and basic device drivers. Safe mode is a diagnostic mode intended for troubleshooting operating system problems and removing malicious software.

86. Answer: B. OCSP

Explanation: Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) allows for querying Certificate Authority (CA) for validity of a digital certificate. Another solution for checking whether a certificate has been revoked is Certificate Revocation List (CRL). CRLs are updated regularly and sent out to interested parties. Compared to CRL, OCSP allows for querying the CA at any point in time and retrieving information without any delay.

87. Answers: A, B, and D. Antistatic bag, Ground mat, and Antistatic wrist wrap

Explanation: Antistatic bags, ground mats, and antistatic wrist wraps are used to protect the equipment against electrostatic discharge (ESD). Most of the internal computer parts are delicate and require very low voltage; the above mentioned tools are used by technicians in order to prevent an accidental electrical short which might damage the equipment during handling or repair.

88. Answer: E. All of the above devices and components require high AC voltage and may pose a risk to a technician's safety

Explanation: Laser printers, CRT monitors, PC power supplies, and inverters are all devices/components that require high AC voltage and may pose a risk of electrocution.

89. Answer: D. MSDS documentation

Explanation: Guidelines outlining safe handling and disposal of various computer components can be found in Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) documentation.

90. Answer: D. HVAC

Explanation: Heating, Ventilation, and Air Conditioning (HVAC) systems are used for controlling temperature and humidity.

91. Answer: D. Chain of custody

Explanation: In forensic procedures, a chronological record outlining persons in possession of an evidence is referred to as chain of custody.

92. Answer: B. PII

Explanation: Personally Identifiable Information (PII) includes any type of information pertaining to an

individual that can be used to uniquely identify that individual. Identity of a person can be established by tracing their most basic attributes such as name, surname, phone number or traditional mailing address,

but also through their social security or credit card numbers, IP or email addresses, or data collected via biometric devices. Security of PII has become major concern for companies and organizations due to the

accessibility of this type of data over the Internet, but also due to misuse of personal electronic devices

such as USB drives or smartphones that are easily concealable and can carry large amounts of data.

93. Answer: B. AUP

Explanation: Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) is a set of rules enforced in a network that restrict the use to which the network may be put.

94. Answer: B. DLP

Explanation: Data Loss Prevention (DLP) solutions are software or hardware based security solutions designed to detect and prevent unauthorized use and transmission of confidential information outside of a corporate network.

95. Answer: C. Listen to the customer and do not interrupt until he or she has finished describing the problem

Explanation: One example of good communication skills is the ability to listen without interrupting until the customer finishes describing their problem.

96. Answer: A and B. Clarifying customer statements by asking open ended questions to narrow the scope of the problem and Restating the issue to verify understanding

Explanation: Clarifying customer statements by asking open ended questions to narrow the scope of the problem and restating the issue to verify understanding are examples of proper communication and professional skills while dealing with difficult customer.

97. Answer: C. Identifying the problem

Explanation: Problem identification should be the very first step in the troubleshooting methodology recommended by CompTIA. This step involves questioning the user and identifying user changes to the computer.

98. Answer: C. Implement the solution

Explanation: In troubleshooting methodology recommended by CompTIA, implementing the solution should come after establishing a plan of action to resolve problem and identifying potential effects.

99. Answer: C. After implementing the solution

Explanation: According to the troubleshooting theory, verification of full system functionality and implementation of applicable preventative measures should be performed after implementing solution to the problem.

100. Answer: A. True

Explanation: The very last step of the troubleshooting process involves documenting findings, actions and outcomes. This step comes after verification of full system functionality and implementation of applicable preventative measures.