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TRANSCRIPT
discoverI 2016
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CLASS : IX
I. Read the poem and answer the questions:
Dawn's Awake
By Otto Leland Bohanan
The Dawn's awake!
A flash of smoldering flame and fire
Ignites the East. Then, higher, higher,
O'er all the sky so gray, forlorn,
The torch of gold is borne.
The Dawn's awake!
The dawn of a thousand dreams and thrills.
And music singing in the hills
A paean of eternal spring
Voices the new awakening.
The Dawn's awake!
Whispers of pent-up harmonies,
With the mingled fragrance of the trees;
Faint snatches of half-forgotten song--
Fathers! torn and numb,--
The boon of light we craved, awaited long,
Has come, has come!
1) Identify the figurative language used in the first line; “The Dawn’s awake”
a) Metaphor
b) Simile
c) Personification
d) Symbolism
2) “Fathers! Torn and numb,”
This line access the sense of;
a) Smell
b) Touch
c) Sight
d) Taste
3) The most suitable synonym for “forlorn”;
a) Abandoned
b) Unhappy
c) Restless
d) Darkened
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4) The tone in most of this poem is;
a) Bright and positive
b) Pessimistic
c) Melancholic
d) Informative
5) Select the best suitable interpretation for the word “dawn” beyond its literal meaning according to
the poem.
a) A rise of new day
b) Awakening of a new culture and freedom
c) Freedom
d) A new beginning
6) Who wrote the line: ' A thing of beauty is a joy forever'?
a) John Keats
b) Robert Browing
c) P.B.Shelley
d) William Wordsworth
7) Who is the writer of 'Swamy and Friends'?
a) Munshi Premchand
b) Raman
c) Max Muller
d) R. K. Narayan
8) ‘In Custody', an English novel is written by which one of the following?
a) Anita Desai
b) Vikram Seth
c) Shoba De
d) V.S. Naipaul
9) The sky flowed over us while we walked under its wide open canopy. This sentence is an
example of a/an
a) Similie
b) Imagery
c) Personification
d) Metaphor
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10) Ethan Curtis wants to write a Christmas card on behalf of his family members. Which of the
following is the correct way to write his last name?
a) Merry Christmas from the Curtis'
b) Merry Christmas from the Curtis's
c) Merry Christmas from the Curtises
d) Both A and B are correct
11) My favorite music is alternative rock from the __________.
a) 90s
b) '90's
c) 90's
d) '90s
12) Which sentence uses proper punctuation and capitalization?
a) As Jenny Smith noted in Making a Difference, “it is worth
investigating every nuance, for the devil will be in the minutia.” (213)
b) As Jenny Smith noted in Making a Difference, “it is worth investigating
every nuance, for the devil will be in the minutia” (213).
c) As Jenny Smith noted in Making a Difference, “It is worth
investigating every nuance, for the devil will be in the minutia,” (213)
d ) As Jenny Smith noted in Making a Difference, “It is worth investigating
every nuance, for the devil will be in the minutia” (213).
13) President is the head of India.
a) nominal
b) real
c)acting
d) none of the above
14) Assuming the CEO is doing the speaking, which punctuation is most correct?
a) The CEO was not optimistic. "Profits are down 18% from last year."
b) The CEO was not optimistic: "Profits are down 18% from last year."
c) The CEO was not optimistic, "Profits are down 18% from last year."
d) The CEO was not optimistic; "Profits are down 18% from last year."
15) The repetition of the first consonant sound in words is:
a) Hyperbole
b) Personification
c) Alliteration
d) Simile
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16) The repetition of vowel sounds in the middle of words.
a) Assonance
b) Alliteration
c) Hyperbole
d) Onomatopoeia
17) Help him. (Convert to passive)
a) He should be helped by me.
b) He will be helped by me
c) I am going to help me.
d) Let him be helped.
18) James smokes. His brother does not smoke. (Join the sentence appropriately)
a) James smoke so his brother also smoke.
b) Despite that his brother doesn’t smoke James smoke.
c) James smoke but his brother doesn’t smoke.
d) James smokes so that his brother does smoke.
19) She was listening _____ the radio when the doorbell rang.
a) of
b) at
c) on
d) to
20) I don’t really know this city. Could you ___________ a bit?
a) show me inside
b) show me around
c) show me down
d) Show me in
21) What can you say about the motion of an object whose distance time graph
is a straight line parallel to time axis
a) no motion
b) velocity increases
c) constant velocity
d) constant acceleration
22) Which force always opposes the motion of an object?
a) gravitational force
b) frictional force
c) elastic force
d) none
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23) What is the name for Newton’s first law?
a) law of motion
b) law of inertia
c) law of gravitation
d) all
24) How is mass of body determined?
a) by physical balance
b) by hygrometer
c) both of above
d) none
25) The earth attracts an apple with a force of 2N. Calculate the force with
which the apple attracts earth?
a) less than 2 N
b) equal to 2 N
c) greater than 2 N
d) zero
26) Which force means centre seeking force?
a) centrifugal force
b) centripetal force
c) gravitational force
d) frictional force
27) What is the unit of specific gravity?
a) Kg/m3
b) g/cm3
c) N/m
d) None
28) A dry cell converts
a) electrical energy to chemical energy
b) mechanical energy to chemical energy
c) chemical energy to electrical energy
d) chemical energy to sound energy
29) When spring is compressed, work is done on it, its elastic potential energy
a) increases
b) decreases
c) disappear
d) does not change
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30) When a body rolls down in an inclined plane it has
a) only K.E
b) Only P.E
c) both KE and PE
d) Neither K.E nor P.E
31) The velocity time graph of an object with zero acceleration is
a) a curved line
b) an oblique straight line
c) a straight line parallel to time axis
d) all of them
32) The odometer of a car reads 4000km at the start of a trip and 4600km at
the end of the trip. If the trip took 10h, the average speed of the car is
a) 50kmh-1
b) 16.6ms-1
c) 400kmh-1
d) 10 kmh-1
33) If the resultant of all the forces acting on the body is zero, then the forces are
a) balanced
b) frictional
c) unbalanced
d) none
34) The speed of a car weighing 1500kg increases from 40ms-1 to 50ms-1.
The change in its momentum is
a) 10kgms-1
b) 1500 kgms-1
c) 15000 kgms-1
d) 40 kgms-1
35) The earth attracts the moon with a force, F. The moon attracts the earth
with the force
a) 3F
b) 2F
c) F/2
d) F
36) A ship going from sea water to river water has to displace
a) more water
b) less water
c) same amount of water
d) cannot say
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37) When the velocity of a moving car becomes three times, its kinetic energy becomes
a) 1/3 times
b) 3 times
c) 9 times
d) 2 times
38) The unit of energy is/are
a) joule
b) kilowatt hour
c) watt
d) both (a) and (b)
39) If a thunder is heard by a man 4s after the lightning is seen, how far is the lightning from the
man? Speed of sound in air is 330ms-1.
a) 1320m
b) 10m
c) 330m
d) 100m
40) The frequency of a human heart which beats 75 times a minute is
a) 1.25Hz
b) 75 Hz
c) 20Hz
d) 2Hz
41) Which of the following process / processes release heat
(i)Condensation (ii) vapourisation (iii) freezing (iv) melting
a) only (i)
b) (i) and (iii)
c) (ii) and (iv)
d) all the above.
42) Which of the following cannot be separated from air by the process
of fractional distillation?
a) Oxygen
b) Argon
c) Hydrogen
d) Nitrogen.
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43) As the pressure of air decreases, the boiling point of a liquid
a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains fixed
d) none of these
44) Which of the following is a chemical change?
a) mixing of iron filings and sand
b) freezing of water
c) electricity passing through wires
d) fermentation of grapes.
45) The number of particles present in one mole of any substance contains:
a) 11.2 litres
b) 8.314 lit atm
c) 6.022x1023 particles
d) 6.023x1021 particles.
46) Elements having the same number of valence electrons in their
atoms have similar
a) combining capacities
b) chemical properties
c) atomic sizes
d) metallic characters.
47) The name of the ionic compound CrO3 is
a) Chromic oxide
b) Chromous oxide
c) Chromium ((VI) oxide
d) Chromium (III) oxide.
48) The mass of one atom of an element X is 2.0 x10-23 g.
What could the element X be?
a) Carbon
b) Nitrogen
c) Oxygen
d) Phosphorus.
49) What mass of nitrogen N2, will contain the same number of molecules
as 1.8g of water? (H2O)
a) 28g
b) 2.8g
c) 0.28g
d) 0.028g
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50) Four elements W, X, Y and Z contain 8,11,9 and 17 protons per atom respectively. The element
which cannot form an anion is most likely to be:
a) W
b) Z
c) Y
d) X
51) Where does the line y=x-3 cross the y axis?
a) (2,3)
b) (0,-3)
c) (-3,2)
d) (-3,3)
52) The mean of 10 numbers is 20. If 5 is subtracted from every number,
what will be the new mean?
a) 15
b) 20
c) 25
d) 10
53) If one angle of a triangle is equal to the sum of other two angles,
then the triangle is
a) Obtuse triangle
b) Right triangle
c) Equilateral triangle
d) Isosceles triangle
54) For the given two quantities, one in column A and one in column B.
Compare them and choose the correct option
Column A- Area of rectangle with length 8
Column B- Area of rectangle with breadth 9
a) The quantity in column A is greater.
b) The quantity in column B is greater.
c) Both are equal.
d) The relationship cannot be determined from the given information.
55) The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 2:3:4. The smallest angle of the triangle is
a) 60°
b) 80°
c) 40°
d) 20°
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56) A clock strikes once at 1 o’clock, twice at 2 o’clock, thrice at 3 o’clock and so on.
How many times will it strike in 24 hours?
a) 76
b) 136
c) 156
d) 196
57) 106 × 106 – 94 × 94 =?
a) 2004
b) 2400
c) 1906
d) 1904
58) Which of the following numbers gives 240 when added to its own square?
a) 15
b) 16
c) 18
d) 20
59) Which number is missing? 1, 9, 25, 49, (?)
a) 121
b) 16
c) 81
d) 161
60) The square root of 0.0081 is
a) 0.09
b) 0.9
c) 0.009
d) 0.0009
61) Rs 2496 is spend in the floor repair of 30 × 16 m hall.
What is repair cost per square metre?
a) Rs. 5.20
b) Rs. 78.00
c) Rs. 12.48
d) Rs. 52.00
62) 30% of 6000 ‒ 25% of (?)=1640. The correct value of (?) is
a) 460
b) 640
c) 650
d) 600
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63) A triangle and a rectangle are on the same base and between the same parallels.
Then the area of triangle is ______ of the area of the rectangle.
a) 1/3
b) 3/4
c) 1/2
d) ¼
64) Concept of “Decimals” is invented in
a) Egypt
b) China
c) Germany
d) India
65) The sum of all the interior angles of a pentagon is
a) 180°
b) 360°
c) 540°
d) 720°
66) (√32 + √48)/ (√8 + √12) =
a) √2
b) 2
c) 4
d) 8
67) 1/ (3 + 2√2) =
a) ( 3- 2√2 )/17
b) ( 3- 2√2) /13
c) 3-2√2
d) none of these
68) Zero of the polynomial p(x) = 2x + 3 is
a) 3/2
b) -3/2
c) -2/3
d) ½
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69) If ( x2 + kx -3 ) = (x-3)( x+1) , then k =
a) 2
b) -2
c) 3
d) -1
70) When ( x31 + 31 ) is divided by ( x + 1 ) , the remainder is
a) 0
b) 1
c) 30
d) 31
71) If ( x + 5 ) is a factor of p ( x ) = x3 – 20x + 5k , then k =
a) -5
b) 3
c) 5
d) -3
72) If x/y + y/x = -1, where x ≠ 0 and y ≠ 0 , then the value of (x3-y3) is
a) 1
b) -1
c) 0
d) ½
73) The value of (369)3 – (368)3 is
a) 1
b) 81
c) 37
d) 737
74) If x + y + z = 9 and xy + yz + zx = 23, then ( x3 + y3 + z3 -3xyz ) =
a) 108
b) 207
c) 669
d) 729
75) Two complementary angles are such that twice the measure of the one
is equal to three times the measure of the other. The larger of the two measures
a) 72ᴼ
b) 54ᴼ
c) 63ᴼ
d) 36ᴼ
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76) If 3 ∟A = 4 ∟B = 6∟C, then A: B: C =
a) 3: 4 : 6
b) 4 : 3 : 2
c) 2 : 3 : 4
d) 6 : 4 : 3
77) The vertical angle of a triangle is 130ᴼ, then the angle between the bisectors
of the base angles of the triangle is
a) 65ᴼ
b) 100ᴼ
c) 130ᴼ
d) 155ᴼ
78) In triangle ABC, AB = 2.5 cm and BC = 6cm. Then, the length of AC cannot be
a) 3.4 cm
b) 4 cm
c) 3.8 cm
d) 3.6 cm
79) O is any point in the interior of triangle ABC.
Then, which of the following is true?
a) ( OA + OB +OC ) > ( AB + BC + CA )
b) ( OA + OB + OC ) > 1/2 ( AB + BC + CA )
c) ( OA + OB + OC ) < 1/2( AB + BC + CA )
d) None of these
80) If the altitudes from two vertices of a triangle to the opposite sides are equal,
then the triangle is
a) Equilateral
b) isosceles
c) scalene
d) right angled
81) Which is the smallest state in terms of area?
a) Punjab
b) Sikkim
c) Goa
d) Tripura
82) Where is the tomb of Akbar?
a) Delhi
b) Sikandra
c) Lahore
d) Fatehpur Sikri
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83) Which is the national animal of India?
a) Elephant
b) Deer
c) Cow
d) Tiger
84) Which is the national motto of India?
a) Indivisibly and inseparably
b) Peace, Work, Fatherland
c) Truth always Triumphs
d) Honour, homeland and people
85) Who founded Indian National Congress?
a) W. C. Banerji
b) A.O. Hume
c) Annie Besant
d) Motilal Nehru
86) Which state was known as North East Frontier Agency?
a) Mizoram
b) Tripura
c) Manipur
d) Arunachal Pradesh
87) Which state or union territory has French as an official language?
a) Goa
b) Lakshadweep
c) Pondicherry
d) Diu and Daman
88) Which largest lake of Asia is in the state of Jammu and Kashmir?
a) Wular Lake
b) Sukhna Lake
c) Rewalsar Lake
d) Dal Lake
89) Which place in India receives the highest rainfall in the world?
a) Wayanad
b) Mawsynram
c) Cherrapunji
d) Sikkim
90) What is the number of states in India?
a) 14
b) 16
c) 25
d) 29
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91) Which is the first state to be formed on the basis of language?
a) Andhra Pradesh
b) Bombay
c) Madhya Bharat
d) Meghalaya
92) When was Burma separated from India?
a) 1948
b) 1901
c) 1937
d) 1945
93) When was the storming of the Bastille?
a) 4th July, 1789
b) 14th July, 1798
c) 14th June, 1789
d) 14th June, 1798
94) India is a secular state because
a) there is no state religion
b) every citizen has the right to adopt and practice any religion
c) no discrimination can be made among citizens on
the basis of religion
d) all of the above
95) Who was the Speaker of the Lok Sabha before he became the President of India?
a) R. Venkataraman
b) P. J. Abdul Kalam
c) N. Sanjeeva Reddy
d) K. R. Narayanan
96) The President addresses both the houses of the Parliament assembled together
a) During emergency session summoned for a purpose
b) Every session
c) First session after each general election and first session
of each year
d) Any session
97) How was Tamil Nadu known?
a) Mysore
b) Madras
c) Bombay
d) Hyderabad
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98) Kharif crop is
a) Sown in July and harvested in October
b) Sown in October and harvested in March
c) Sown in March and Harvested in July
d) Sown in September and harvested in February
99) The central banking functions in India are performed by the
a) Central Bank of India
b) Reserve Bank of India
c) State Bank of India
d) Punjab National Bank
100) Which factor is necessary for the development of democratic institutions?
a) strong military forces
b) respect for individual rights
c) a one-party system
d) an agricultural economy