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1. Dorsum of Nose formed by all of the following EXCEPT:a. Vomerb. Lower Lateral Cartilagec. Nasal Bonesd. Septal Cartilage

2. Upper lateral cartilage attached with the nasal bonea. Under side of the nasal boneb. Postero Superior part of the bonec. End to endd. Not attached at all

3. Nasal Vestibule lined by the:a. Cuboidal epitheliumb. Columnar epitheliumc. Skind. Pseudo stratified ciliated columnar epithelium

4. The paranasal sinuses drains into the middle meatus of the nose EXCEPT:a. Sphenoid sinusb. Middle ethmoid sinusc. Maxillary sinusd. Posterior sinus

5. Olfactory cleft lies between the:a. Middle turbinate & cribriform plateb. Superior turbinate & cribriform platec. Superior turbinate & inferior turbinated. Inferior turbinate & cribriform plate

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6. True about the nerve supply of the nose:a. Sympathetic supply from superior cervical ganglionb. Parasympathetic supply via nervus intermediusc. Nerve supply is extremely richd. All of the above

7. Type of sphenoid sinus in normal population is usually:a. Sellarb. Postsellerc. Presellerd. Maximal Pneumatisation

8. Pain in vertexis seen in:a. Ethmoid sinusitisb. Sphenoid sinusitisc. Frontal sinusitisd. Maxillary sinusitis

9. Nose develops from:a. Second branchial archb. First branchial archc. Third branchial archd. First & second arch

10.Incidence of mucocele is lowest ina. Frontal sinusb. Sphenoid sinusc. Maxillary sinusd. Ethmoid sinus

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11.Extraction of which tooth commonly leads on to oroantral fistula:a. Second pre molar b. First molarc. First pre-molard. Second molar

12.Sodium chromogycate is helpful in allergic rhinitis because it causes:a. Desensitizationb. Decongestion of nasal mucosac. Most cell stabilizationd. Vasoconstriction

13.Nasal polyps in a child should arouse the suspicion of:a. Celiac diseaseb. Aspirin hypersensitivityc. Cystic fibrosisd. All the above

14.Aquamous papilloma of the nose arises froma. Turbinatesb. Vestibulec. Septumd. Any of the above

15.Coincidental malignancy in upper respiratory tract with inverted papilloma is:

a. 2%b. 5%c. 4%d. 0.1%

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16.Best approach for surgical excision of inverted papilloma of nose is:a. Caldwell-luc’s approachb. External ethmoidectomyc. Intranasal approachd. Lateral rhinotomy

17.Syphilis of nose usually involves the:a. Nasal septumb. Ethmoid sinusc. Nasal boned. Maxillary sinus

18.Septal perforation may seen in all EXCEPT:a. Tuberculosisb. Syphilisc. Leprosyd. Toxoplasmosis

19.Cosmetic rhinoplasty is preferably avoided in:a. Nose with thick greasy skinb. Ethnic nosesc. Over forty years of aged. All of the above

20.Idead nasolabial angle in males is:a. 80b. 100c. 110d. 90

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21.Normal masofrontal angle is:a. 105b. 135c. 190d. 125

22.Ideal age for otoplasty in ears is:a. 1 yearb. 5 yearsc. 12 yearsd. 2 years

23.Cribriform plate is a part of:a. Ethmoid boneb. It is a separate bonec. Frontal boned. Vomer

24.Treatment for carcinoma maxillary sinus is:a. Radiotherapyb. Radiotherapy followed by surgeryc. Maxillectomy followed by radiotherapyd. Chemotherapy only

25.Sphenopalatine foramen lies posterosuperior to:a. Bulla ethmoidalisb. Middle turbinatec. Superior turbinated. Inferior turbinate

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26.Sensory supply of nasal cavity mainly from the:a. Ophthalmic nerveb. Infra orbital nervec. Mixillary nerved. Vidian nerve

27.Radiologically, maxillary sinus is best seen in:a. Lateral viewb. Oblique viewc. Occipito frontal viewd. Occipitomental view

28.Commonest intracranial complication of sinusitis is:a. Brain abscessb. Canernous sinus thrombosisc. Cortical venous thrombosisd. Meningitis

29.Reduction rhinoplasty is for:a. Hump noseb. Narrow nosec. Crooked nosed. Saddle nose

30.Tripode fracture is seen in:a. Zygomatic boneb. Temporal bonec. Nasal bonesd. Maxilla

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31.Potato nose is seen in:a. Malignancyb. Sarcoidosisc. Rhinophymad. Rhinosporidiosis

32.Lefort II fracture also known as:a. Rhomboid fractureb. Pyramidal fracturec. Cranio-facial dissociationd. Molar fracture

33.Cranio-facial dislocation is seen in:a. Lefort I fractureb. Lefort II fracturec. Lefort III fractured. None of the above

34.True about nasopharyngeal angiofibroma:a. Benign but locally invasiveb. Seen only in males around pubertyc. High vascular tumord. All of the above

35.Commonest malignant neoplasm of the nose and paranasal sinuses is:a. Basal cell carcinomab. Squamous cellcarcinomac. Adenocarcinomad. Malignant melanoma

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36.Commonest site of inverted papilloma of the nose:a. Lateral wall of the noseb. Nasal septumc. Floor of the nosed. Roof of the nose

37.Fracture of the skull seen in:a. Lefort I fractureb. Lefort II fracturec. Lefort III fractured. Lefort IV fracture

38.Diagnosis of glandular fever is confirmed by:a. Positive monospot testb. Raised liver enzymec. Leucocytosisd. C-reactive protein

39.Scarlet fever rashes are differentiated by:a. These are painfulb. There are slightly tenderc. Rashes appear earlyd. Desquamation

40.Waldayer’s ring is:a. Lymphatic ringb. Venous ringc. Arterial ringd. Ring of pigmentation

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41.Shoberry tongue is seen in:a. Erysipelasb. Scarlet feverc. Monday feverd. All of the above

42.In Plummer Vinson syndrome most significant investigation is:a. Serum ironb. Bone marrow ironc. Serum hemoglobind. Serum ferritin

43.Killian Dehiscence leads to:a. Oesophageal diverticulaeb. Pharyngeal pouchc. Laryngoceled. Plummer-vinson syndrome

44.True about globus syndrome:a. Feeling of lump in the throatb. Organic lesion presentc. Relieved by anxietyd. Treatment is surgery

45.Difficulty in swallowing fluids than solids seen in:a. Achlasiab. Oesophageal stricturec. Pharyngeal pouchd. Carcinoma oesophagus

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46.Acute retropharyngeal abscess in infants is dangerous because:a. Space is smaller in sizeb. Immune system is poorc. Infant’s spine is short and larynx is highd. It occurs bilaterally

47.A fascial space is defined as the area:a. Bone and fasciab. Area bounded by connective tissuec. Area around the glandd. Between muscle and fascia

48.Retropharyngeal space extends from base of skull to:a. Hyoid boneb. Bifuraction of tracheac. Angle of mandibled. Cricoid cartilage

49.All are contents of parapharyngeal space except:a. Internal jugular vienb. Part of parotid glandc. Submandibular glandd. Carotid artery

50.Trismus in parapharyngeal abscess due to spasm of the:a. Buccinatorb. Temporalisc. Masseterd. Medial pterygoid

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51.Organism responsible for Ludwig’s angina is:a. Haemolyticus streptococcusb. Albus streptococcusc. Viridans streptococcusd. Aureus streptococcus

52.Mainstay of treatment in Ludwig’s angina is treated by:a. Supportive treatmentb. Antibioticsc. Incision and drainaged. Radiation

53.Commonest malignancy in nasopharynx is:a. Squamous cell carcinomab. Lymphomac. Adenocarcinomad. Transitional Cell Carcinoma

54.Treatment of carcinoma nasopharynx is:a. Radiotherapyb. Cryosurgeryc. Surgeryd. Chemotherapy

55.Oropharyngeal cancer mainly:a. Carcinosarcomab. Squamous cell carcinomac. Lymphoepitheliomad. Columnar cell carcinoma

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56.Common site of hypopharyngeal tumour is:a. Anterior wallb. Posterior wallc. Post cricoid areasd. Pyriform fossa

57.Incidence of lymph node metastasis in pyriform fossa tumour is:a. 50%b. 95%c. 25%d. 75%

58.Radiographic finding of plummer Vinson syndrome is:a. Cricoid constrictionb. Post cricoid webc. Enlarged vasculatured. Mass in the pyriform fossa

59.Plummer Vinson syndrome is also known as:a. Killiam syndromeb. Paterson-Brown Kelly syndromec. Brown syndromed. None of the above

60.Type of apthous ulcer seen in population normally:a. Minorb. Malignantc. Majord. Recurrent

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61.What is inappropriate about granular cell tumour of oral cavity:a. Common in upper jawb. Common in malesc. Common in fourth decaded. Arises from skeletal muscle

62.All are common sites of papilloma in oral cavity EXCEPT:a. Anterior pillarb. Buccal mucosac. Soft palated. Alveolus

63.Treatment of geographical tongue is:a. Reassuranceb. B-complexc. Vit. Ad. Iron

64.“Geographical tongue” is due to:a. Folic acid deficiencyb. Idiopathicc. Iron deficiencyd. Vit C deficiency

65.In “geographical tongue there is hypertrophy of:a. Circumvallate papillaeb. Filiform & fungiform papillaec. Fungiform papillaed. Filiform papillae

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66.Median rhomboid glossitis is due to:a. Candida albicansb. Folic acid deficiencyc. Herpes virusd. Iron deficiency

67.All are types of ranula EXCEPT:a. Plungingb. Dermoidc. Simpled. Cavernous

68.Carcinoma soft palate is treated by:a. Radiotherapyb. Cryosurgeryc. Surgeryd. Chemotherapy

69.True about nerve supply of pyriform fossa:a. Secretomotor fibres go to chorda tympanib. Devoid of any nervec. Poor sensory supplyd. It has rich nerve supply

70.Malignant pleomorphic adenoma is commonest in:a. Minor salivary glandsb. Parotid glandc. Submandibular glandd. Sublingual gland

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71.Most common malignant salivary gland tumour in children is:a. Muco-epidermoid tumourb. Adenoid cystic carcinomac. Adenocarcinomad. Squamous cell carcinoma

72.Parotid gland tumour associated with pain is:a. Pleomorphic adenomab. Warthim’s tumourc. Adenoid cystic carcinomad. Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

73.Most common site of mucoepidermoid tumour is:a. Submandibular glandb. Minor salivary glandsc. Sublingual glandd. Parotid gland

74.Accepted surgery for a benign parotid tumour is:a. Total parotidectomyb. Superficial parotidectomy + neck dissectionc. Superficial parotidectomyd. Enucleation

75.Cystic swelling in a parotid gland is usually caused by:a. Muco-epidemoid tumourb. Pleomorphic adenomac. Warthin’s tumourd. Adenoid cystic carcinoma

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76.In a parotid tumour malignancy may be suspected with:a. Facial palsyb. Painc. Skin involvementd. All of the above

77.In Sjogren’s syndrome biopsy taken from:a. Palatal glandsb. Monir sublabial glandc. Submandibulard. Lacrimal glands

78.Wide excision of the nerves is indicated in:a. Adenoid cystic carcinomab. Adenocarcinomac. Squamous cell carcinomad. Acinic cell tumour

79.Frey’s syndrome occurs:a. Sialectasisb. After parotidectomyc. Warthin’s tumourd. In pleomarphic adenoma

80.Not true abut pre-epiglottic space:a. To be removed in laryngectomyb. Site for tuberculosisc. Cancer spreads in it easilyd. It contains fat

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81.Not true about epiglottis:

a. It is elastic cartilageb. Forms the boundary of pre epiglottic spacec. Contains some glands alsod. It ossifies in old age

82.Abducters of vocal cords:a. Cricothyroidb. Thyroarytonoidc. Posterior cricoartytenoidd. Lateral cricoarytenoid

83.Unpaired laryngeal muscles:a. Vocalisb. Interarytenoidc. Lateral cricoarytenoidd. Posterior cricoarytenoid

84.all muscles of larynx are supplied by recurrent laryngeal nerve, except:a. Oblique arytenoidsb. Thyroarytenoidc. Cricothyroidd. Vocalis

85.Commonest benign tumour of salivary glands:a. Orcocytomab. Manomorphic adenomac. Pleomorphic adenomad. None of the above

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86.Delphian lymph node lies on:a. Cricoid cartilageb. Cricothyroid membranec. Thyroid cartilaged. Epiglottis

87.all are main functions of larynx EXCEPT:a. To control the air flowb. Phonationc. Generation of speechd. To protect the lungs

88.Microlaryngoscopy is usually done with an objective lens with focal length of:

a. 200 mmb. 400 mm c. 100 mmd. 300 mm

89.Vocal nodules present usually seen at:a. Anterior 2/3 & posterior 1/3 junctionb. Middle of the cordc. At the junction of anterior 1/3 & posterior 2/3 of the cordd. Posterior 1/3 of the cord

90.Most appropriate about spastic dysphonia:a. Seen in childrenb. Macrolaryngeal surgery cures the diseasec. It is stress relatedd. Hereditary

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91.Diplophonia usually seen in:a. Vocal polypsb. Dysphonia plica ventricularisc. Contact ulcerd. Papilloma of larynx

92.Length of vocal cord in adult males:a. 3.5 cmb. 2.5 cmc. 1 cmd. 2 cm

93.Treatment of choice in early glottic cancer is:a. Chemotherapyb. Radiotherapyc. Toral laryngectomyd. Surgery followed by radiotherapy

94.Origin of laryngocele from:a. Vocal foldsb. Ventricular foldsc. Ventricled. All of the above

95.Left recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy is:a. aortic aneurysmb. Mitral stenosis surgeryc. Surgery of patent ductus arteriosisd. Subclavian artery aneurysm

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96.Right recurrent laryngeal paralysis due to all EXCEPT:a. Carcinoma of apex of lungb. Aortic aneurismc. Thyroid surgeryd. Carcinoma of oesophagus

97.Dead space is reduced in tracheotomy:a. 15%b. 30 - 50%c. 10%d. 20%

98.Tracheal rings incised in tracheostomy are:a. Third & fourthb. Fifth & sixthc. Second & thirdd. First & second rings

99.Carotid body tumour is confirmed by:a. Ultrasoundb. Tomographyc. CT scand. Angiography

100. Commonest occult primary site is:a. Tonsilb. Pyriform fossac. Nasopharynxd. Base of tongue

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101. Occult nodes are maximum in:a. Pyroform fossa tumoursb. Base of tongue malignancyc. Supraglottic tumoursd. Glottic tumours

102. Regurgitation of undigested good after a long time of swallowing is seen in:

a. Plummer Vinson syndrome b. Pharyngeal pouchc. Peptic ulcerd. Cardiac achlasia

103. Malignant changes occur in leukoplakia with:a. Hyperkeratosisb. Dyskeratosisc. Dysplasiad. Simple keratosis

104. The best method to secure a tracheostomy tube is:a. Tapeb. Bandage c. Suturing d. All of the above

105. Nasopharynx extends from base of skull to:a. Base of tongueb. Styloid processc. Level of hard palated. Cricoid cartilage

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106. Hyoid bone gives stability to hypopharynx through:a. Superior constrictorb. Middle constrictorc. Inferior constrictord. All the constrictor

107. Chief artery of tonsil comes from:a. Ascending pharyngeal arteryb. Facial arteryc. Palatine arteryd. Dorsal lingual artery

108. Palatine tonsils lie in:a. Hard palateb. Eustachian tubec. Facial pillarsd. Soft palate

109. Common symptom of laryngitis is:a. Painb. Dysphoniac. Burning sensationd. Foreign body sensation

110. Ludwig’s angina is infection of:a. Submental spaceb. Parapharyngeal spacec. Retropharyngeal spaced. Submandible space

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111. Tuberculosis of the larynx affect the:a. Anterior part of the larynxb. Posterior part of the larynxc. Entire larynxd. None of the above

112. Tonsillar bed formed by all EXCEPT:a. Buccopharyngeal membraneb. Suprerior constrictor musclec. Pharyngobasilar fasiad. Inferior constrictor muscles

113. Most common malignancy of the tongue:a. Metastaticb. Malignant melanomac. Basal cell carcinomad. Squamous cell carcinoma

114. Most common site of salivary calculi:a. Submandibular glandb. Lingual glandc. Parotid glandd. Minor salivary glands

115. Paul-Bunnel test is for:a. Leukemiab. Diphtheriac. Glandular feverd. All of the above

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116. Peritonsillar abscess most commonly occurs around which part of the tonsil:a. Anterosuperiorb. Lateralc. Anteroinferiord. Posterosuperior

117. Normal length of the styloid process is:a. 1.5 cmb. 2.5 cmc. 3.5 cmd. 4 cm

118. Which of the laryngeal cartilage does not ossify:a. Epiglottisb. Cuneiform cartilagec. Corniculate cartilaged. All of the above

119. Lining epithelium of vocal cords:a. Stratified squamous epitheliumb. Simple squamous epitheliumc. Transitional epitheliumd. Cuboidal epithelium

120. Inspiratory strider seen in obstruction of:a. Larynxb. Tracheac. Bronchusd. Bronchiole

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121. Most common histological type of laryngeal malignancy:a. Adenocarcinomab. Transitional cell carcinomac. Squamous cell carcinomad. None of the above

122. Angioneurotic edema is:a. Type I reactionb. Type II reactionc. Type III reactiond. Type IV reaction

123. Most common type of oesophageal malignancy:a. Adenocarcinomab. Squamous cell carcinomac. Transitional cell carcinomad. None of the above

124. Occult nodes commonly seen in malignancy of:a. Nasopharynxb. Larynxc. Oesophagusd. Lungs

125. Commonest type of malignancy of auricle and external auditory:a. Adenocarcinomab. Squamous cell carcinomac. Malignant melanomad. Transitional cell carcinoma

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126. The cartilage of pinna made up of:a. Hyaline cartilageb. Fibrous cartilagec. Elastic cartilaged. Mixed cartilage

127. External auditery meatus is cartilaginous in its:a. Outer one thirdb. Outer two thirdc. Outer one forthd. Outer half

128. Boils of external auditory canal are very painful due to:a. Associated perichondritisb. Close attachment of skinc. It is extremely rich in sensory supplyd. Presence of cerumenous glands

129. Depth of the middle ear is the least in:a. Mesotympanumb. It is equal c. Epitympanumd. Hypotympanum

130. The vascular structure lie below the floor of middle ear is:a. Internal jugular veinb. Internal carotid arteryc. Jugular bulbd. Emissary vein

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131. Processus cochleariform contains:a. Stapedius tendonb. Apex of cochlearc. Tensor tympani tendond. Semi circular canal

132. Secondary tympanic membrane is:a. Covers the oval windowb. There is no such entityc. Covers the round windowd. False tympanic membrane

133. Promontary is performed by:a. Medial semicircular canalb. Lateral semicircular canalc. Basal turn of cochlead. Superior semicircular canal

134. Fallopian canal is:a. Internal auditory meatusb. Facial nerve canalc. External auditory canald. Eustachian tube

135. Stapedious is inserted to:a. Neck of stapesb. Foot plate of stapesc. Head of stapesd. Crura of stapes

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136. Eustachian tube length is:a. 48 mm b. 40 mmc. 24 mmd. 36 mm

137. Swallowing movements opens the Eustachian tube through:a. Levator palatib. Tensor palatic. Tensor tympani muscled. Palatoglossus

138. Cartilagenous part of Eustachian tube is:a. Outer halfb. Medial two thirdc. Outer two thirdd. Middle third

139. The fluid near to consistency of CSF:a. Cortilymphb. Perilymphc. Endolymphd. Prilymph & endolymph

140. Reissener’s membrane is between the:a. Scala media and scala tympanib. Scala vestibule and scala tympanic. Scala media and scala vestibulid. Cochlea and vestibule

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141. Tympani membrane functions best when the middle ear pressure is:a. slightly higher than external earb. equal to external ear pressurec. slightly lower than external eard. None of the above is correct

142. Pain in the ear may be due to diseases of all parts of ear EXCEPT: a. External auditory canalb. Middle earc. Cochlead. Auricle

143. Most common symptom of ear disease is:a. Painb. Tinnitusc. Discharged. Deafness

144. Semicircular canal stimulated by:a. Linear movementb. Gravityc. Angular movementd. Vigorous exercise

145. Perforation of tympanic membrane with ragged edges is seen in:a. Chronic otitis mediab. Bass traumac. T.M. traumad. Myringotomy

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146. Pain and tenderness in the region of tragus are usually caused by:a. Furuncleb. Mastoiditisc. Waxd. Temporamandibular joint dysfunction

147. Lining of the eustachian tube is:a. Cuboid epitheliumb. Transitional epitheliumc. Squamous epitheliumd. Ciliated columnar epithelium

148. Preferred frequency of tuning fork for hearing test is:a. 512b. 204c. 256d. 102

149. The Rinne test will be negative in conductive deafness of:a. 5-10 dbb. 0 - 5 dbc. 10 - 15 dbd. more than 15 db

150. Absolute bone conduction measures:a. Middle ear functionb. External ear functionc. Inner ear functiond. Middle and inner ear function

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151. Absolute bone conduction is reduced in:a. Perceptive deafnessb. Conductive deafnessc. Psycogenic deafnessd. Malignant otitis media

152. Pharyngeal opening of Eustachian tube is at:a. Posterior end of superior turbonateb. Posterior end of middle turbonatec. Posterior end of inferior turbonated. Below the inferior turbonate

153. Weber’s test is lateralized when the hearing loss is:a. 7 dbb. 5 dbc. more than 15 dbd. more than 10 db

154. Masking is applied in better ear if the difference in threshold of two years is:a. 20 - 30 dbb. 30 - 40 dbc. 40 db or mored. more than 20 db

155. False about speech audiometry:a. It predicts the usefulness of hearing aidsb. It predicts the benefits of operationsc. It is very useful in functional deafnessd. It is a valuable method to access actual disability

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156. Impedance audiometry is useful in:a. Ossicular discontinuityb. Eustachian tube obstructionc. Sercretory otitis mediad. All of the above

157. Recruitment denotes lesions of:a. Cochleab. Central connectionsc. Middle eard. Cochlea nerve

158. All are true about acoustic reflexes EXCEPT:a. It can help in localizing the facial nerve lesionsb. It is useful in malingerersc. It is very useful in Meniere’s diseased. Tensor tymapani contraction can be tested by stimulating cornea with

cold air

159. Most effective test in functional hearing loss is:a. Stenger’s testb. Lombard’s testc. Evoked response audimetryd. Delayed speech feedback

160. Fatiguable nystagmus is seen in:a. Vestibular typeb. Ocular typec. Central typed. Cochlear type

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161. In caloric test, the interval between two irrigation is:a. 10 secondsb. 40 secondsc. 5 secondsd. 2 seconds

162. Caloric test is carried out in supine position with head raised about:a. 20b. 40c. 10d. 30

163. Perichondritis of the auricle usually caused by:a. Streptococcusb. Staphylococcusc. E. Colid. Pseudomonas

164. Ceruminous glands are present in external auditory canal in:a. Outer thirdb. Entire canalc. Outer halfd. Outer two third

165. Most common benign tumour of external auditory meatus:a. Osteomab. Adenomac. Papillomad. Ceruminoma

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166. Primary cause of osteoma of external auditory canal is:a. Otitis externalb. Swimming in cold waterc. Traumad. Long standing otitis media

167. Commonest organism responsible for otitis externa in tropics is:a. Streptococcusb. H. influenzac. Staphylococcusd. Pseudomonas

168. Abnormally patent Eustachian tube may be seen in all of the following EXCEPT:a. Marked weight lossb. Adenoid enlargementc. Debilitating diseases in old aged. Congenital

169. Unilateral secretory otitis media in an adult may seen in:a. Grandular feverb. Parapharyngeal tumourc. Aidsd. Carcinoma nasopharynx

170. Commonest bacterial isolate in acute suppurative otitis media is:a. Pneumococcusb. H. influenzac. E. Colid. Staphylococcus

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171. Chief complaint in chronic middle ear effusion in adult is:a. Pain in earb. Blocked feeling in earc. Tinnitusd. Deafness

172. All points towards chronic middle ear effusion EXCEPT:a. Reduced mobility of drumb. Flat tympanogramc. Conductive deafnessd. Red tympanic membrane

173. Cholesteatoma commonly erodes all of the following EXCEPT:a. Fallopian canalb. Cochleac. Incusd. Lateral semicircular

174. Characteristic discharge in attico-antral disease is:a. Purulent dischargeb. Mostly stained dischargec. Mucopurulent discharged. Mucoid discharge

175. Commonest material used in myringoplasty is:a. Perichondriumb. Cartilagec. Temporalis fasciad. Dura matter

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176. Symptomless multiple osteomas of external auditory meatus:a. Should be excisedb. No treatmentc. Radiationd. Chemotherapy

177. Mastoid cell always present in infants is:a. Facial cellsb. Mastoid antrumc. Perisinus celld. Labyrinthine cells

178. Sudden disappearance of symptoms in Gradenigo syndrome indicates:a. Improper antibioticsb. Psychogenic causec. Intracraniald. Complete cure of disease

179. Gradenigo syndrome consist all EXCEPT:a. Pain and headacheb. Diplopiac. Ear discharged. Fascial plasty

180. Evening rise of temperature with rigors after mastoid surgery occurs in:a. Tubercular otitis mediab. Lateral sinus thombosisc. Meningitisd. Extradural abscess

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181. Tobey Ayer test is positive in:a. Otitic hydrocephalusb. Petrositisc. Lateral sinus thrombosisd. Cavernous sinus thrombosis

182. Griesinger sign seen in:a. Bezold’s abscessb. Lateral sinus thrombosisc. Acute mastoiditisd. Citelli’s abscess

183. Voice in otosclerosis:a. High, well modulated voiceb. Loud, harsh speechc. Low, well modulated voiced. Medium, harsh speech

184. Tympanic membrane in chronic non-active otosclerosis in most cases:a. Slightly congestedb. Pinkc. Yellowd. Normal

185. Main symptom of otosclerosis are:a. Deafness and vertigob. Deafness and heaviness of earc. Tinnitis and vertigod. Deafness and tinnitus

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186. Family history is positive in otosclerosis is about:a. 20%b. 50%c. 10%d. 30%

187. Manifestation of otosclerosis is usually at the age of:a. 15 - 20 yearsb. 20 - 35 yearsc. 10 - 25 yearsd. never before 30 years

188. Most commonly affected area in otosclerosis is:a. Post fenestramb. Ante fenestramc. Annular alignmentd. Foot plate of stapes

189. Hearing aid gives best results in:a. Sensory deafnessb. Mixed deafnessc. Neural deafnessd. Conductive deafness

190. Conchlear implant is useful in:a. Mixed deafnessb. Sensorineural deafnessc. Total deafnessd. Unilateral sensorineural deafness

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191. Feedback in hearing aid is more common in a:a. Ear level hearing aidb. Body worm hearing aidc. Low tone hearing aidd. All of the above

192. Acute middle ear effusion is a variety of:a. CSOMb. Mastoiditisc. Catarrhal otitis mediad. None of the above

193. After acute unilateral labyrinthine failure the normal functions usually come in:a. 1 dayb. 6 monthsc. 2 weeksd. 6 weeks

194. Treatment of acute suppurative otitis media:a. Local antibioticsb. Systemic antibioticsc. Both of the aboved. Local antibiotics and steroids

195. Deafness in Meniere’s disease is:a. Conductiveb. Fluctuating sensorineuralc. Mixedd. Unilateral conductive deafness

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196. Meniere’s disease bilateral in:a. 40%b. 80%c. 10%d. 90%

197. Lermoyez syndrome is variant of:a. Presbyacusisb. Meniere’s diseasec. Vestibular neuronitisd. Otosclerosis

198. Acoustic neuroma arise usually from:a. Inferior vestibular nerveb. Cochlear nervec. Nervous intermediusd. Superior vestibular nerve

199. In cerebellopontine angle tumours, acoustic neuroma comprise of:a. 60%b. 80%c. 51%d. 10%

200. Hardest bone is:a. Squamous partb. Bony labyrinthc. Tympanic partd. Petrous part

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201. Common fracture of temporal bone is:a. Longitudinalb. Obliquec. Mixedd. Transverse

202. Type of deafness in longitudinal fracture of temporal bone is:a. Sensorineural deafnessb. Central deafnessc. Conductive deafnessd. Mixed deafness

203. Barotrauma occurs if the pressure difference between nasopharynx and middle ear is above:a. 60 mm of Hgb. 120 mm of Hgc. 90 mm of Hgd. 30 mm of Hg

204. All are true about transverse fracture of temporal bone EXCEPT:a. Facial nerve commonly involvedb. Sensorinueral deafnessc. Conductive deafnessd. These fractures are less common

205. Noise trauma first of all involves the frequency range of:a. 1 - 3 K Hzb. 4 - 6 K Hzc. 1 - 2 K Hzd. 3 - 14 K Hz

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206. Sound level in factory of 8 hours shift should not exceed:a. 65 dbb. 50 dbc. 45 dbd. 85 db

207. MacEwen’s triangle corresponds to:a. Mastoid tipb. Cochleac. Mastoid antrumd. All of the above

208. Most dangerous type of labyrinthisis:a. Circumscribed labyrinthisisb. Purulent labyrinthisisc. Paralabyrinthisisd. Serous labyrinthisis

209. Main disadvantage of modified radical mastoidectomy is:a. Facial palsyb. Intracranial complicationsc. Large cavityd. Severe deafness

210. Main disadvantage of combined approach tympanomastoidectomy is:a. High rate of complicationsb. Deafnessc. Large cavityd. Recurrence of cholesteatoma

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211. Bezoid’s abscess is:a. Digastric abscessb. Zygematic abscessc. Abscess posterior to mastoid processd. Subperiosteal abscess

212. Gradenigo’s syndrome is diagnostic of:a. Mastoiditisb. CSOMc. Petrositisd. Masked mastoiditis

213. Nerve supply of tensor tympani:a. Trigeminal nerveb. Greater auricular nervec. Chorda tympani nerved. Facial nerve

214. Air bubbles in secretary otitis media are seen when the fluid is:a. Purulentb. Haemorrhagicc. Mucoidd. Serous

215. Sound intensity required to elicit stapedial reflex is more than:a. 45 - 65 db b. 70 - 90 dbc. 90 - 100 dbd. 30 - 45 db

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216. Cochlear microphanics generated by:a. Tympanic membraneb. Cochleac. Organ of d. All of the above

217. Maximum amount of conductive deafness caused by secretary otitis media:a. 10 - 25 dbb. 15 - 30 dbc. 25 - 40 dbd. 40 - 55 db

218. Which of the following s absent in Bat ear:a. Helisb. Antihelixc. Tragusd. Lobule

219. Treatment of traumatic perforation of the tympanic membrane is:a. Local antibioticsb. Systemic antibioticsc. Steroid dropsd. Observation

220. Most common symptoms of acoustic neuroma is:a. Painb. Unilateral deafnessc. Tinnitusd. Vertigo

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221. Lermoye syndrome is variant of:a. Otosclerosisb. Otitis mediac. Mastoiditisd. Meniere’s disease

222. Sudden development in patient having tinnitus & hearing loss followed by loss of tinnitus and improvement in hearing seen in:a. Ossicular otosclerosisb. Lermoyez syndromec. Cochlear otosclerosisd. Masked mastoiditis

223. Earliest syndrome of drug induced ototoxicity:a. Low pitched tinnitusb. High pitched tinnitusc. Sensorineural deafnessd. Any of the above

224. Vestibular neuronitis caused by:a. Fungusb. Virusc. Bacteriad. Malignancy

225. Which of the following is most common site of extradural abscess following otitis media is:a. Temporal lobeb. Cerebellumc. Frontal lobed. Occipital lobe

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226. Most common cause of tinnitus is:

a. Otitis mediab. Meniere’s diseasec. Glamus tumoursd. Idiopathic

227. Intensity of the whispering is:a. 5 dbb. 20 dbc. 30 dbd. 40 db

228. Intensity sound of normal conversation:a. 40 dbb. 60 dbc. 50 dbd. 30 db


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