MAJOR TEST # 01
TARGET : PRE-MEDICAL 2014
Path to Success
CAREER INSTITUTEKOTA (RAJASTHAN)
T M
FORM NUMBER
CLASSROOM CONTACT PROGRAMME(ACADEMIC SESSION 2013-2014)
PAPER CODE 0 1 C M 3 1 3 2 2 3
Corporate Office
CAREER INSTITUTE
“SANKALP”, CP-6, Indra Vihar, Kota (Rajasthan)-324005
Trin : +91 - 744 - 2436001 Fax : +91-744-2435003
E-Mail: [email protected] Website: www.allen.ac.in
LEADER COURSE
INSTRUCTIONS ()
1. A seat marked with Reg. No. will be allotted to each student. The student should ensure that he/she occupies the correct seat only.If any student is found to have occupied the seat of another student, both the students shall be removed from the examination andshall have to accept any other penalty imposed upon them.
2. Duration of Test is 3 Hours and Questions Paper Contains 180 Questions. The Max. Marks are 720.
31807203. Student can not use log tables and calculators or any other material in the examination hall.
4. Student must abide by the instructions issued during the examination, by the invigilators or the centre incharge.
5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all the pages and that no question is missing.
6. Each correct answer carries 4 marks, while 1 mark will be deducted for every wrong answer. Guessing of answer is harmful.
17. A candidate has to write his / her answers in the OMR sheet by darkening the appropriate bubble with the help of Blue / Black Ball
Point Pen only as the correct answer(s) of the question attempted.
OMR
8. Use of Pencil is strictly prohibited.
Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so /
Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Your FormNo. & Complete Test Details.
Correction Form No. Test Details [email protected] mail
Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 2014
1 3
(Phase - MLA, MLB, MLC, MLD, MLE & MLV)
SYLLABUS – 01
AIPMT DATE : 23 - 03 - 2014
PHYSICS : Basic Mathematics used in Physics, Vectors, Units,
Dimensions and MeasurementKinematics (Motion along a straight line and Motion in a
plane)
Laws of Motion and Friction
Work, Energy & Power and Circular Motion
Conservation Laws and Collisions, Centre of Mass
Rotational Motion
CHEMISTRY : Some Basic Concept of Chemistry
Structure of Atom
States of Matter : Gases and Liquids
Thermodynamics
Equilibrium (Chemical Equilibrium & Ionic Equilibrium)
Solid State
Solutions
BIOLOGY : Diversity in the Living World :
(i) The living world
(ii) Biological Classification
(iii) Plant Kingdom
(iv) Animal Kingdom
Structural Organisation in Plants & Animals :
(i) Morphology of Flowering plants
(ii) Anatomy of Flowering Plants
(iii) Structural Organisation in Animals, Cockroach
Structure and Functions :
(i) Cell : The Unit of Life
(ii) Biomolecules (Protoplasm)
(iii) Cell cycle and Cell Division
MAJOR TEST # 01 DATE : 23 - 03 - 2014
AIPMT : SYLLABUS – 01
LEADER COURSE (PHASE : MLA, MLB, MLC, MLD, MLE & MLV)
23–03–2014PRE-MEDICAL : LEADER COURSE (MLA,MLB,MLC,MLD,MLE & MLV)
H - 1/37Your Target is to secure Good Rank in Pre-Medical 201401CM313223
MAJOR TEST
BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
HAVE CONTROL HAVE PATIENCE HAVE CONFIDENCE 100% SUCCESS
1. ˆ ˆA iA cos jAsin
A
B :-
(1) i Bcos + jBsin (2) i Bsin + j Bcos
(3) i Bsin – jBcos (4) i Bcos – j Bsin
2. [ ] :-
(1)1
tan tan4
(2) tan tan
(3) 1
tan tan2
(4) tan 2tan
3. E = , G = , I =
M = 2
2
GIM
E
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4. m v0 7 mg :-
(1) (2) mg
(3) 3 mg (4) 4 mg
5. A B A h B B :-(1) 2h
(2) h
2
A B(3) h
(4) Remains at rest.
1. Let ˆ ˆA iA cos jAsin
be any vector.
Another vector B
which is normal to A
is :-
(1) i Bcos + jBsin (2) i Bsin + j Bcos
(3) i Bsin – jBcos (4) i Bcos – j Bsin
2. A projectile is fired from level ground at an
angle above the horizontal the elevation angle
of the highest point as seen from the launch point
is releated to by the relation :-
(1)1
tan tan4
(2) tan tan
(3) 1
tan tan2
(4) tan 2tan
3. If E = energy, G = gravitational constant,
I = impulse and M = mass, the dimensions of
2
2
GIM
E are same as that of
(1) Time (2) Mass
(3) Length (4) Force
4. A ball of mass m is hanged by a light string of
length . It is given a horizontal velocity v0 at the
lowest point so that it will not slag at the top most
point of circular path. If tension in the string at
lowest point is 7 mg then tension in the string at
heighest point will be :-
(1) zero (2) mg
(3) 3 mg (4) 4 mg
5. Two pendulum bobs A and B of same mass are
initially placed at rest as shown. Bob A is pulled
to a height h and the released. If it collids
elastically with B then height acquired by it is :-
(1) 2h
(2) h
2
A B(3) h
(4) Remains at rest.
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MAJOR TEST
6. A force ˆ ˆ ˆF 5i 6 j 4k
acting on a body,
produces a displacement ˆ ˆS 6i – 5k
. Work done
by the force is :-
(1) 10 units (2) 18 units
(3) 11 units (4) 5 units
7. A particle moves with uniform speed in circular
path the angle between instantaneous velocity and
acceleration is :-
(1) 0º (2) 180º (3) 90º (4) 45º
8. According to Joule's law of heating, heat produced
H = I2 Rt, where I is current, R is resistance and t
is time. If the errors in the measurement of I, R
and t are 3%, 4% and 6% respectively then error
in the measurement of H is
(1) ±17% (2) ±16%
(3) ±19% (4) ±25%
9. Minimum power required to pull 373 kg block
against friction force of 250 N with constant
velocity of 2 m/s is : (In hp)
(1) 1
2(2)
2
3
(3) 5 (4) 10
10. A ball is dropped on the ground from a height of
1m. The coefficient of restitution is 0.6. The height
to which to which the ball will rebound is :-
(1) 0.6m (2) 0.4m
(3) 0.36 m (4) 0.16m
11. A body travels uniformly a distance of (12 ± 0.3)m
in a time (4 ± 0.1) s. The velocity of the body
within error limits is :-
(1) (3 ± 0.3) ms–1 (2) (3 ± 0.15)ms–1
(3) (3 ± 0.45) ms–1 (4) (3 ± 0.6) ms–1
12. A coin placed on a gramophone record rotating
at 33 rpm flies off the record. If it is placed at a
distance of more than 16 cm from the axis of
rotation. If the record is revolving at 66 rpm. the
coin will fly off it is placed at a distance not less
than :-
(1) 1cm (2) 2cm (3) 3cm (4) 4cm
13. The mass and volume of a body are found to be
5.00 ± 0.05 kg and 1.00 ± 0.05m3 respectively.
Then the maximum possible percentage error in
its density is
(1) 6% (2) 3% (3) 10% (4) 5%
6. ˆ ˆ ˆF 5i 6 j 4k
ˆ ˆS 6i – 5k
:-(1) 10 (2) 18 (3) 11 (4) 5
7. :-(1) 0º (2) 180º
(3) 90º (4) 45º
8. H = I2 Rt
I R t I, R t
3%, 4% 6%H
(1) ±17% (2) ±16%
(3) ±19% (4) ±25%
9. 373 kg 250 N 2 m/s :()
(1) 1
2(2)
2
3(3) 5 (4) 10
10. 1 0.6 :-(1) 0.6m (2) 0.4m
(3) 0.36 m (4) 0.16m
11. (4 ± 0.1) sec (12 ± 0.3)m :-(1) (3 ± 0.3) ms–1 (2) (3 ± 0.15)ms–1
(3) (3 ± 0.45) ms–1 (4) (3 ± 0.6) ms–1
12. 33 rpm
16 cm
66 rpm
:-
(1) 1cm (2) 2cm
(3) 3cm (4) 4cm
13. 5.00 ± 0.05 kg
1.00 ± 0.05m3 (1) 6% (2) 3%
(3) 10% (4) 5%
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MAJOR TEST
14. A block of mass 10 kg is placed on a rough surface
for which coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.5. If a force
of 100 N is applied on the block then work done by
force of friction in 2 seconds is (g = 10 m/s2) :-
10 kg F
(1) 1000 J (2) 500 J
(3) –500 J (4) –1000 J
15. Moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc about
a diameter is I. Its moment of inertia about an axis
perpendicular to its plane and passing through a
point on its rim will be:-
(1) 5 I (2) 3 I
(3) 6 I (4) 4 I
16. If P represents radiation pressure , c represents
speed of light and Q represents radiation energy
striking a unit area per second, then non zero
integers x, y and z such that PxQ ycz is
dimensionless are :
(1) x = 1, y = 1, z = –1 (2) x = 1, y = –1, z = 1
(3) x = –1, y = 1, z = 1 (4) x = 1, y = 1, z = 1
17. A conical pendulum of length L makes an angle with the vertical, the time period will be
R
(1)
L cos
2g
(2)
L2
gcos
(3)
Ltan
2y
(4)
L2
gtan
14. 10 0.5 100 N 2 :-
10 kg F
(1) 1000 J (2) 500 J
(3) –500 J (4) –1000 J
15. I (Rim)
(1) 5 I (2) 3 I
(3) 6 I (4) 4 I
16. P, c Q
x, y z PxQycz
:
(1) x = 1, y = 1, z = –1 (2) x = 1, y = –1, z = 1
(3) x = –1, y = 1, z = 1 (4) x = 1, y = 1, z = 1
17. L :-
R
(1)
L cos
2g
(2)
L2
gcos
(3)
Ltan
2y
(4)
L2
gtan
Key Filling
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MAJOR TEST
18. Bob of pendulum is released from horizontal
point. If length of pendulum is 2m then speed of
the bob at bottom most points ? Given that it looses
10% of its initial energy against air resistance :-
(Acceleration due to gravity g = 10m/s2)
(1) 6 m/s (2) 2 10 m / s
(3) 3 m/s (4) None
19. A Force of magnitude 20 N is applied on a body
in the direction of ˆ ˆ(3i 4 j) and displaces it from
(1, 4, 5) to (3, 7, 10) then work done by the applied
force is :-
(1) 72 J (2) 24 J (3) 48 J (4) 18 J
20. A particle of mass m is projected with a velocity
v making an angle of 45º with the horizontal. The
magnitude of angular momentum of the projectile
about an axis of projection when the particle is at
maximum height h is:-
(1) zero (2)
3mv
4 2g
(3)
2mv
2g(4)
2m 2gh
21. The quantities A and B related by the relation,
m = A/B , where m is the linear density and A is
the force. The dimensions of B are of :-
(1) Pressure (2) Work
(3) Latent heat (4) None of the above
22. A Stone is allowed to fall freely from rest. The
ratio of the times taken to fall through the first
meter and the second meter distance is :-
(1) 2 1– (2) 2 1(3) 2 (4) None of these
23. The bob A of a pendulum having length 10 cm is
released from 60° to the vertical hits another bob
B of the same mass at rest on a table as shown in
fig. then what is the velocity of bob B after
collision (Neglect the size of the bobs and assume
the collision to be elastic) :-
(acceleration due to gravity= 10 m/s2)
60º A
m
B
m
(1) 1 m/s (2) 10 m/s
(3) 10 m /s (4) zero
18. 2m ? 10% gks tkrk gSA ((g) = 10m/s2)
(1) 6 m/s (2) 2 10 m / s
(3) 3 m/s (4) 19. 20 N ˆ ˆ(3i 4 j)
(1, 4, 5) (3, 7, 10) :-(1) 72 J (2) 24 J (3) 48 J (4) 18 J
20. m 45º v (h) :-
(1) (2)
3mv
4 2g
(3)
2mv
2g(4)
2m 2gh
21. A B m = A/B m = AB :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
22. :-(1) 2 1– (2) 2 1(3) 2 (4)
23. A 60º 10 cm B B (= 10 m/s2)
60º A
m
B
m
(1) 1 m/s (2) 10 m/s
(3) 10 m /s (4)
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MAJOR TEST
24. A particle of mass M is projected vertically
upwards from ground so that it can reach to a
maximum height H, then ratio of potential energy
and kinetic energy of particle at a height of H/4
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 3
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1
25. A flywheel of mass 50 kg and radius of gyration
about its axis of rotation of 0.5 m is acted upon
by a constant torque of 12.5 N-m. Its angular
velocity at t = 5 sec is :-
(1) 2.5 rad/sec (2) 5 rad/sec
(3) 7.5 rad/sec (4) 10 rad/sec
26. The displacement of an object along the three axes
are given by x = 2t2 , y = 2t2 – 4t and z = 3 t – 5. The
initial velocity of the particle is :-
(1) 10 Unit (2) 12 Unit
(3) 5 Unit (4) 2 Unit
27. With respect to a rectangular cartesian coordinate
system, three vectors are expressed as
a
= ˆ4i – j , b
= –3 i + 2 j and c
= – k
where i , j , k are unit vectors, along the X, Y
and Z-axis respectively. The unit vectors r along
the direction of sum of these vector is
(1) r = 1
3 ( i + j – k )
(2) r = 1
2 ( i + j – k )
(3) r = 1
3 ( i – j + k )
(4) r = 1
2 ( i + j + k )
28. A particle is moving along x-axis with velocity
v = Ax3/2 where A is a constant then at any instant
the rate of work done is proportional to :-
(1) x2 (2) x5/2
(3) x7/2 (4) x9/2
24. M H H/4
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 3
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1
25. 50 0.5 12.5 t = 5 :-
(1) 2.5 / (2) 5 /
(3) 7.5 / (4) 10 /
26. x = 2t2 , y = 2t2 – 4t z = 3 t – 5 :-
(1) 10 Unit (2) 12 Unit
(3) 5 Unit (4) 2 Unit
27.
a
= ˆ4i – j , b
= –3 i + 2 j and c
= – k
i , j , k X, Y Z-
r
(1) r = 1
3 ( i + j – k )
(2) r = 1
2 ( i + j – k )
(3) r = 1
3 ( i – j + k )
(4) r = 1
2 ( i + j + k )
28. v = Ax3/2 x-A :-
(1) x2 (2) x5/2
(3) x7/2 (4) x9/2
Use stop, look and go method in reading the question
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MAJOR TEST
29. A man M1 of mass 80 kg runs up a staircase in 15
sec. Another man M2 also of mass 80 kg runs up
the same staircase in 20 sec. The ratio of the power
developed by them will be :-
(1) 1 (2) 4
3
(3) 16
9(4) None
30. A body of mass m slides down an incline and
reaches the botoom with a velocity v. If the same
mass was in the form of a ring which rolls down
this incline, the velocity of the ring at the bottom
would have been :-
(1) v (2) 2v
(3) v 2 (4) 2 / 5 v
31. The (x-t) equation is given as x=(2t+1). The
corresponding (v–t) graph is :-
(1) A straight line passing through origin.
(2) A straight line not passing through origin.
(3) A parabola
(4) None of them
32. Two vectors A
and B
have equal magnitudes. If
magnitude of A
+ B
is equal to n times the
magnitude of A
– B
, then the angle between
A
and B
is
(1) cos–1 n – 1
n 1
(2) cos–1
2
2
n –1
n 1
(3) sin–1 n – 1
n 1
(4) sin–1
2
2
n –1
n 1
33. A bolt of mass 0.1 kg falls from the ceiling of an
elevator moving down with an uniform speed of
10 m/s. It hits the floor of the elevator (length of
the elevator = 3 m) and does not rebound. What
is the heat produced by the impact ?
(g = 10 m/s2) :-
(1) 3 J
(2) 5 J
(3) 8 J
(4) No energy loss
29. 80 15 80 20 :-
(1) 1 (2) 4
3
(3) 16
9(4) None
30. m v (Ring)
(1) v (2) 2v
(3) v 2 (4) 2 / 5 v
31. x=(2t+1)(v–t) :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
32. A B
A
+ B
A
– B
n
AB
(1) cos–1 n –1
n 1
(2) cos–1
2
2
n –1
n 1
(3) sin–1 n –1
n 1
(4) sin–1
2
2
n –1
n 1
33. 0.1 kg 10 m/s ( 3 m) ?
(g = 10 m/s2):-
(1) 3 J
(2) 5 J
(3) 8 J
(4)
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MAJOR TEST
34. A block of mass m is moving with a constant
acceleration a on a rough plane. If the coefficient
of friction between the block and the ground is µ,
the power delivered by the external agent after a
time t from the begining is :-
(1) ma2t (2) µmg at
(3) m(a + µg)gt (4) m(a + µg)at
35. A wheel is rotating about an axis through its
centre at 720 rpm. It is acted on by a constant
torque opposing its motion for 8 seconds to
bring it to rest finally. The value of torque
(in N-m) is:-
224Given I kg m
(1) 48 (2) 72
(3) 96 (4) 120
36. Four bodies P,Q,R and S are projected with equal
velocities having angles of projection 15º, 30º, 45º
and 60º with the horizontal respectievly. The body
having shortest range is :-
(1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S
37. A vector a
is turned without a change in its length
through a small angle d. The value of | a |
and
a are respectively.
(1) 0, ad (2) ad, 0
(3) 0, 0 (4) None of these
38. A lady pulls a suitcase on a rough railway
platform. She applies 100 N force initially but
this force regularly decreases linearly to 50 N at
the end. If distance travelled by lady is 10m
then :-
(1) 1000 J
(2) 750 J
(3) 500 J
(4) Calculation is not possible
39. A particle of mass 2kg is moving with velocity
3m/s towards east and another particle of mass 4kg
is moving with velocity of 2m/sec towards north
then velocity of centre of mass of the system is :-
(1) 7m/sec (2) 10
3m/sec
(3) 10 m/sec (4) 1
3m/sec
34. m a µ t :-
(1) ma2t (2) µmg at
(3) m(a + µg)gt (4) m(a + µg)at
35. 720 8 ()
224I
(1) 48 (2) 72
(3) 96 (4) 120
36. P, Q, R S 15º, 30º, 45º 60º :-
(1) P (2) Q (3) R (4) S
37. a
d | a |
a
(1) 0, ad (2) ad, 0
(3) 0, 0 (4) 38.
100 N 50 N 10m :-(1) 1000 J
(2) 750 J
(3) 500 J
(4) 39. 2 3m/sec
4 2m/sec :-
(1) 7m/sec (2) 10
3m/sec
(3) 10 m/sec (4) 1
3m/sec
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MAJOR TEST
40. A uniform solid sphere rolls on a horizontal
surface at 20 ms–1 . It then rolls up an incline
having an angle of inclination at 30º with the
horizontal. If the friction losses are negligible, the
value of height h above the ground where the ball
stops is:-
(1) 14.3 m (2) 28.6 m
(3) 57.2 m (4) 9.8 m
41. A body is projected at an angle of 30º with the
horizontal with momentum P. At its highest point
the magnitude of the momentum is :-
(1)3
P2
(2) 2
P3
(3) P (4) P
2
42. S = A (1–e–Bxt), where S is speed and x is
displacement. The unit of B is
(1) m–1s–1 (2) m–2s
(3) s–2 (4) s–1
43. A stone tied at the end of 200 cm long thread in
horizontal circle with constant speed. If it
completes 14 revolution in 22 s then its linear
speed is :-
(1) 2 m/s (2) 4 m/s
(3) 8 m/s (4) 1 m/s
44. A ball of mass m moving with speed u undergoes
a head on elastic collision with a ball of mass nm
initially at rest. The fraction of the incident energy
transferred to the second ball is :-
(1) n
1 n (2) 2
n
(1 n)
(3) 2
2n
(1 n)(4) 2
4n
(1 n)
45. If the earth were to suddenly contact to l/nth of its
present radius without any change in its mass, the
duration (in hrs.) of the new day will be nearly:-
(1) 24/n (2) 24n
(3) 24/n2 (4) 24n2
40. 20 30º h
(1) 14.3 m (2) 28.6 m
(3) 57.2 m (4) 9.8 m
41. 30º P :-
(1)3
P2
(2) 2
P3
(3) P (4) P
2
42. S = A (1–e–Bxt), S x B
(1) m–1s–1 (2) m–2s
(3) s–2 (4) s–1
43. 200 cm 22 s 14 :-
(1) 2 m/s (2) 4 m/s
(3) 8 m/s (4) 1 m/s
44. m u nm :-
(1) n
1 n (2) 2
n
(1 n)
(3) 2
2n
(1 n)(4) 2
4n
(1 n)
45. l/n :-
(1) 24/n (2) 24 n
(3) 24/n2 (4) 24n2
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MAJOR TEST
46. One litre N2, 7
8litre O2 and 1 litre CO are taken
in a mixture under indentical conditions of P and
T. The amount of gases present in mixture is given
by :
(1) 2NW =
2OW > W
CO
(2) 2NW = W
CO >
2OW
(3) 2NW =
2OW = WCO
(4) WCO
> 2NW
>
2OW
47. If 1.2 g of a metal displace 1.12 litre hydrogen at
normal temperature and pressure, equivalent
weight of metal would be :
(1) 12 (2) 24
(3) 1.2 × 11.2 (4) 1.211.2
48. At STP, the order of root mean square speed of
molecule of H2, N
2, O
2 and HBr is?
(1) H2 > N2 > O2 > HBr (2) HBr > O2 > N2 > H2
(3) HBr > H2 > O
2 > N
2(4) N
2 > O
2 > H
2 > HBr
49. A certain radiostation broadcasts at a frequency
of 900 kHz. The wavelength of electromagnetic
radiations broadcast by radiostation is :-
(1) 900 m (2) 270 m
(3) 2.70 km (4) 330 m
50. Solubility of calcium phosphate (molecular mass M)
in water is Wg per 100 ml at 25°C. Its Ksp is
(approx.) :-
(1) 109
5W
M
(2) 107
5W
M
(3) 105
5W
M
(4) 103
5W
M
51. The equivalent weight of H3PO4 in the following
reaction is,
H3PO4 + Ca(OH)2 CaHPO4 + 2H2O :
(1) 98 (2) 49
(3) 32.66 (4) 40
52. The total molarity of all the ions containing 0.1 M
of CuSO4 and 0.1 of Al2(SO4)3 is :
(1) 0.2 M (2) 0.7 M
(3) 0.8 M (4) 1.2 M
46. P, T 1 N2, 7
8 O2
1 CO
?
(1) 2NW =
2OW > W
CO
(2) 2NW = W
CO >
2OW
(3) 2NW =
2OW = WCO
(4) WCO
> 2NW
>
2OW
47. N.T.P 1.2g 1.12
(1) 12 (2) 24
(3) 1.2 × 11.2 (4) 1.2/11.2
48. STP H2, N
2, O
2 HBr
(1) H2 > N2 > O2 > HBr (2) HBr > O2 > N2 > H2
(3) HBr > H2 > O
2 > N
2(4) N
2 > O
2 > H
2 > HBr
49. 900 kHz. (1) 900 m (2) 270 m
(3) 2.70 km (4) 330 m
50. ( M) Wg /100 ml 25°C Ksp :-
(1) 109
5W
M
(2) 107
5W
M
(3) 105
5W
M
(4) 103
5W
M
51. H3PO4 ?
H3PO4 + Ca(OH)2 CaHPO4 + 2H2O :
(1) 98 (2) 49
(3) 32.66 (4) 40
52. 0.1 M, CuSO4 0.1 Al2(SO4)3 (1) 0.2 M (2) 0.7 M
(3) 0.8 M (4) 1.2 M
Take it Easy and Make it Easy
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MAJOR TEST
53. The approximate quantum number of a circular
orbit of diameter, 20.6 nm of the hydrogen atom
according to Bohr's theory is?
(1) 10 (2) 14 (3) 12 (4) 16
54. Calculate the equilibrium constant for the
reaction:
PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2
(g) (g) (g)
at 400K if Hº = 69418.86 J/mol and
Sº = 154.4 JK–1mol–1
(1) 1 (2) 10 (3) 100 (4) 1000
55. Silver ions are added to the solution with
(Br–) = (Cl–) = 23(CO ) = ( 3
4AsO ) = 0.1 M.
Which compound will precipitate at the lowest
(Ag+) :-
(1) AgBr (Ksp = 5 × 10–13)
(2) AgCl (Ksp = 1.8 × 10–10)
(3) Ag2CO
3 (K
sp = 8.1 × 10–12)
(4) None
56. The atomic weight of a metal (M) is 27 and its
equivalent weight is 9, the formula of its chloride
will be :
(1) MC (2) MC9(3) M3C4 (4) MC3
57. Equivalent weight of bivalent metal is 32.7.
Molecular weight of its chloride is :
(1) 68.2 (2) 103.7
(3) 136.4 (4) 166.3
58. If h is planck's constant the momentum of a
photon of wavelength 0.01 Å is ?
(1) 10–2 h (2) h
(3) 102 h (4) 1012 h
59. Bond energy of H-H, F-F and H-F bonds are 434,
158 and 565 kJ/mol respectively, than calculate
H for the reaction H2 + F2 2H-F
(1) 538 kJ (2) –538 kJ
(3) 27 kJ (4) –27 kJ
60. If you have saturated solution of CaF2 then :-
(1) (Ca+2) = spK (2) (Ca+2) = 2 (F –)
(3) (Ca+2) = (Ksp/4)1/3 (4) None
61. A metal M forms a compound M2HPO4. The
formula of the metal sulphate is :
(1) M2SO4 (2) MSO4
(3) M(SO4)2 (4) M2(SO4)3
53. 20.6 nm ?(1) 10 (2) 14
(3) 12 (4) 16
54. 400 K PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2
(g) (g) (g)
Hº = 69418.86 J/mol Sº=154.4 JK–1mol–1 (1) 1 (2) 10 (3) 100 (4) 1000
55. Ag+
(Br–) = (Cl–) = 23(CO ) ( 3
4AsO ) = 0.1 M.
Ag+ :-
(1) AgBr (Ksp = 5 × 10–13)
(2) AgCl (Ksp
= 1.8 × 10–10)
(3) Ag2CO3 (Ksp = 8.1 × 10–12)
(4) None
56. 27 9
(1) MC (2) MC9
(3) M3C4 (4) MC3
57. 32.7 (1) 68.2 (2) 103.7
(3) 136.4 (4) 166.3
58. h 0.01 Å ?(1) 10–2 h (2) h
(3) 102 h (4) 1012 h
59. H-H, F-F H-F 434,
158 565 kJ/mol H2 + F2 2H-F
H (1) 538 kJ (2) –538 kJ
(3) 27 kJ (4) –27 kJ
60. CaF2 :-
(1) (Ca+2) = spK (2) (Ca+2) = 2 (F –)
(3) (Ca+2) = (Ksp/4)1/3 (4) None
61. M M2HPO4 (1) M2SO4 (2) MSO4
(3) M(SO4)2 (4) M2(SO4)3
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MAJOR TEST
62. Volume of 2 M HCl needed to neutralise the
solution containing one litre of 1 M solution of
NaOH is :
(1) 1 litre (2) 2 litre
(3) 3 litre (4) 1
2 litre
63. For the process, NH3(g) + HCl(g) NH
4 Cl (s)
(1) H = +ve, S = +ve (2) H = –ve, S = +ve
(3) H = +ve, U = –ve (4) H = –ve, S = –ve
64. The enthalpy of neuteralisation of the given
reaction.
H2SO
4 + 2NaOH Na
2SO
4 + 2H
2O + yKcal
(1) y Kcal/equivalent
(2) –yKcal/equivalent
(3)y
2 Kcal/equivalent
(4)y
2 Kcal/equivalent
65. What will be the pH of a solution formed by
mixing 40 cm3 of 0.1 M HCl with 10 cm3 of
0.45M NaOH :-
(1) 10 (2) 8 (3) 5 (4) 12
66. An oxide of sulphur contains 50% S. What will
be its empirical formula ?
(1) SO (2) SO2
(3) SO3 (4) S2O3
67. An element forms an oxide, in which the oxygen
is 20% of the oxide by weight, the equivalent
weight of the given element will be:
(1) 32 (2) 40
(3) 60 (4) 128
68. A gas expands adiabatically at constant pressure
such that
1T
V
The value of i.e. (CP/CV) of the gas will be ?
(1) 1.30 (2) 1.50
(3) 1.70 (4) 2
62. 1 M, NaOH 1 Lt
2 M HCl
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) 1
2
63. NH3(g) + HCl(g) NH
4 Cl (s)
(1) H = +ve, S = +ve (2) H = –ve, S = +ve
(3) H = +ve, U = –ve (4) H = –ve, S = –ve
64.
H2SO
4 + 2NaOH Na
2SO
4 + 2H
2O + yKcal
(1) y Kcal/equivalent
(2) –yKcal/equivalent
(3)y
2 Kcal/equivalent
(4)y
2 Kcal/equivalent
65. 40 cm3 0.1 M HCl 10 cm3 0.45M NaOH
pH :-
(1) 10 (2) 8 (3) 5 (4) 12
66. 50% S (1) SO (2) SO2
(3) SO3 (4) S2O3
67. 20% w/w
(1) 32 (2) 40
(3) 60 (4) 128
68.
1T
V
?(1) 1.30 (2) 1.50
(3) 1.70 (4) 2
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MAJOR TEST
69. If x and y are extensive properties then, which
one is incorrect ?
(1) (x + y) is an extensive variable
(2) (x/y) is an intensive variable
(3) (dx/dy) is an intensive variable
(4) (x – y) is an intensive variable
70. Autoprotolysis constant of NH3 is :-
(1)4 3(NH )(NH ) (2)
2 3(NH )(NH )
(3)4 2(NH )(NH ) (4)
4
2
(NH )
(NH )
71. The normality of 10% (weight/volume) acetic acid
is :
(1) 1N (2) 10 N
(3) 1.7 N (4) 0.83 N
72. The number of Cl– and Ca2+ ions in 222g CaCl2are :
(1) 4NA, 2NA (2) 2NA, 4NA
(3) 1NA, 2NA (4) 2NA, 1NA
73. The orbital diagram in which both the pauli's
exclusion principle and hund's rule are violated
is :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
74. For the following reaction
CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO
2(g)
if at 0K, S of this reaction is x cal K–1mol–1 then
entropy of CO2(g) of 0K is :-
(1) 0 cal K–1mol–1 (2) –x cal K–1 mol–1
(3) +x cal K–1 mol–1 (4) –2x cal K–1 mol–1
75. For this reaction 62(g) cI 2I K 10 then
what is correct :-
(1) (I2) > (I –) (2) (I2) < (I
–)
(3) (I2) = (I ) (4) (I2) = 1
2(I –)
69. x y
(1) (x + y)
(2) (x/y) is
(3) (dx/dy)
(4) (x – y)
70. NH3 :-
(1)4 3(NH )(NH ) (2)
2 3(NH )(NH )
(3)4 2(NH )(NH ) (4)
4
2
(NH )
(NH )
71. 10% (w/v) CH3COOH
(1) 1N (2) 10 N
(3) 1.7 N (4) 0.83 N
72. 222g CaCl2 Cl– Ca2+
(1) 4NA, 2NA (2) 2NA, 4NA
(3) 1NA, 2NA (4) 2NA, 1NA
73.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
74.
CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g)
0K, S, x cal K–1mol–1
CO2(g) 0K
(1) 0 cal K–1mol–1 (2) –x cal K–1 mol–1
(3) +x cal K–1 mol–1 (4) –2x cal K–1 mol–1
75.
62(g) cI 2I K 10
(1) (I2) > (I –) (2) (I
2) < (I –)
(3) (I2) = (I ) (4) (I
2) =
1
2(I –)
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MAJOR TEST
76. 1 M, NaCl (1.0585 g/mL) (1) 1.0585 (2) 1.0
(3) 0.10 (4) 0.0585
77.
(1) O2
(2) 1 × 10–23 O2
(3) O2–
(4) 1 O2
78.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
79. 250 ml H+ pH = 3 :-
(1) 1.5 × 1022 (2) 1.5 × 1023
(3) 1.5 × 1020 (4) 3 × 1021
80. NH4COONH2(s) 2NH3(g) + CO2(g)
3 atm Kp
:-(1) 4 (2) 27 (3) 4/27 (4) 1/27
81. 0.8 M 0.1 ?(1) 100 mL (2) 125 mL
(3) 500 mL (4) 0.125 mL
82. 0.1N HCl, 100 ml
(1) 4.0 g (2) 0.04 g (3) 0.4 g (4) 2.0 g
83. H e
–3.02 eV
(1) 4.761 Aº (2) 8.464 Å
(3) 2.116 Aº (4)
76. The molality of 1 M solution of NaCl (specific
gravity 1.0585 g/mL) is :
(1) 1.0585 (2) 1.0
(3) 0.10 (4) 0.0585
77. The highest mass corresponds to which of the
following ?
(1) 1 molecule of O2
(2) 1 × 10–23 g mole of O2
(3) An O2– ion
(4) 1 mole of O2
78. Which is not the characteristic property of plank's
quantum theory ?
(1) Energy is neither absorbed nor emitted in
simple multiples of quanta
(2) Radiation is related to energy
(3) Energy is not radiated continuously but in
small packages of enegy called quantum
(4) The energy of a quantum is proportional to
its frequency
79. Number of H+ ions present in 250 ml of lemon
juice of pH = 3 is :-
(1) 1.5 × 1022 (2) 1.5 × 1023
(3) 1.5 × 1020 (4) 3 × 1021
80. NH4COONH2(s) 2NH3(g) + CO2(g). If
equilibrium pressure is 3 atm for the above
reaction Kp will be :-
(1) 4 (2) 27 (3) 4/27 (4) 1/27
81. What volume of 0.8 M solution contains 0.1 milli
mole of solute ?
(1) 100 mL (2) 125 mL
(3) 500 mL (4) 0.125 mL
82. What weight of sodium hydroxide is required to
neutralise 100 ml of 0.1N HCl?
(1) 4.0 g (2) 0.04 g (3) 0.4 g (4) 2.0 g
83. The P.E. of an e– in a particular shell of H atom
is –3.02 eV then calculate the radius of that
particular shell :-
(1) 4.761 Aº (2) 8.464 Å
(3) 2.116 Aº (4) Cannot predict
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MAJOR TEST
84. AxB
y C
:-
(1) = eqk / C(x y) (2) = eqk C
xy
(3) =
1/ x y
eq
x y 1 x y
k
C x y
(4) None
85. CH3COOH CH
3COONa
:-
(1) CH3COO–
(2) [H+]
(3) OH–
(4) H+
86. 2 4
(1) 88 (2) 44 (3) 132 (4) 72
87. X X ?
(1) 64 (2) 32
(3) 4.0 (4) 8.0
88. Cr (z = 24) = 1 2
(1) 16 4 (2) 12 5
(3) 12 4 (4) 16 5
89. NH4Cl
1M, 0.1 M, 0.01 M 0.001 M
h1, h
2, h
3, h
4 :-
(1) h1 > h2 > h3 > h4 (2) h1 = h2 = h3 = h4
(3) h4 > h3 > h2 > h1 (4) None
90. 0.1M 5 ml 0.1 M HCl
100 ml
(1) CH3COONa + CH3COOH
(2) CH3COONa + HCl
(3) CH3COOH + HCl
(4) CH3COOH
84. For a concentrated solution of a weak electrolyte
AxB
y of concentration 'C' the degree of
dissociation is given as :-
(1) = eqk / C(x y) (2) = eqk C
xy
(3) =
1/ x y
eq
x y 1 x y
k
C x y
(4) None
85. When a buffer solution of CH3COOH and
CH3COONa is diluted with water :-
(1) CH3COO– ion concentration increases
(2) [H+] ion concentration increases
(3) OH– ion concentration increases
(4) H+ ion concentration does not change
86. If a compound contains two oxygen atoms, fourcarbon atoms and number of hydrogen atoms is
double of carbon atoms, the vapour density of itis :
(1) 88 (2) 44 (3) 132 (4) 72
87. The rate of diffusion of methane at a given
temperature is twice that of a gas X. The
molecular weight of X is?
(1) 64 (2) 32 (3) 4.0 (4) 8.0
88. Consider the ground state of Cr atom (z = 24).
The number of electrons with azimuthal numbers
= 1 and 2 are respectively :-
(1) 16 and 4 (2) 12 and 5
(3) 12 and 4 (4) 16 and 5
89. Four solutions of NH4Cl are taken with
concentrations 1M, 0.1 M, 0.01 M and 0.001 M.
Their degree of hydrolysis are h1, h2, h3, h4 . What
is the order of degree of hydrolysis :-
(1) h1 > h2 > h3 > h4 (2) h1 = h2 = h3 = h4
(3) h4 > h
3 > h
2 > h
1(4) None
90. To a 5 ml of 0.1 M sodium acetate solution,
100 ml of 0.1 M HCl has been added the
species present in the system would be :–
(1) CH3COONa + CH3COOH
(2) CH3COONa + HCl
(3) CH3COOH + HCl
(4) Only CH3COOH
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MAJOR TEST
91. How many plants in the list given below have
marginal placentation and lomentum fruit.
Mustard, Acacia, Cassia fistula, Pisum sativum,
Tulip, Glycine max, Cicer arietinum
(1) Three (2) Six
(3) One (4) Two
92. Select incorrect statement
(1) In most algal genera life cycle pattern is
haplonitc.
(2) Diplontic life cycle pattern is found in all seed
bearing plants
(3) In all pteridophytes, prothallus is
photosynthetic
(4) Protonema stage is found in the life cycle of
mosses
93. Examine the figures (A to E) given below and
select the right option out of 1-4, in which all the
structures a,b,c and d are identified correctly:-
a
(A)
b
(B)
(C)
c
d
(d)
Phloem(1) Tunica Periblem Lumen
parenchyma
Companion(2) Tunica Plerome Lumen
cell
Companion(3) Corpus Periblem Lumen Lumen
cell
Sievetube Simplepit(4) Tunica Dermatogen
element cavity
a b c d e
91. (1) (2) (3) (4)
92. (1)
(2)
(3) (4)
93. (A E) a,b,c d :-
a
(A)
b
(B)
(C)
c
d
(d)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
a b c d e
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MAJOR TEST
94. A cladogram showing evolution of plants given
below :-
Liverworts
5
4
3 2
1
Embryo
BGA Naked DNA
Chlorophyll 'C'
Chlorophyll-'a'
Chlorophyll-'b'
Phycobillins
Silicated cell wall
Leaf gametophyte
Number '2' & '3' representing the which group of
plants, respectively :-
(1) Dinoflagellates & Moss
(2) Moss & Diatoms
(3) Diatom & Red algae
(4) Pteriodophyta & Red algae
95. Match the given figures of aestivation with related
plants?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(i) Cassia (ii) Pea
(iii) Calotropis (iv) Gossypium
(1) A - (iv), B - (i), C - (ii), D - (iii)
(2) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (ii), D - (i)
(3) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (ii)
(4) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (i), D - (ii)
94.
Liverworts
5
4
3 2
1
Embryo
BGA Naked DNA
Chlorophyll 'C'
Chlorophyll-'a'
Chlorophyll-'b'
Phycobillins
Silicated cell wall
Leaf gametophyte
'' & '3'
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
95. ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (1) A - (iv), B - (i), C - (ii), D - (iii)
(2) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (ii), D - (i)
(3) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (ii)
(4) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (i), D - (ii)
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MAJOR TEST
96. Which of the following statement (s) is/are true
and false with regards to epithelium :-
(A) The structure of the cells different, according
to their function
(B) Epitheliul tissue faces either the body fluid
or the outside environment
(C) Simple epithelium has protective function as
it does in our skin
(1) A, B and C are correct
(2) A, and B are correct but C is incorrect
(3) A is correct while B and C are incorrect
(4) A and C are correct while B is incorrect
97. Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct
with respect to erythrocytes :-
(A) Most aboundent corpuscles which have no
nucleus
(B) Blood normally contains 5 to 5.5 milion/mm3
(C) It contains haemoglobin which is iron
containing simple proteins
(D) It plays important role in transportation of
gases during respiration
(1) A and C
(2) A, B and D
(3) B, C and D
(4) All are correct
98. Read the following four statements (A-D) -
(A) On an average, female Cockroach produce
9-10 Oothecae, each Containing 14-16 eggs.
(B) The development of P. americana is
Ametabolous.
(C) The Nymph grows by moulting about 20
times to reach the adult form.
(D) In male Cockroach mushroom shaped gland
is present in the 6th-7th abdominal segments.
How many of the above statements are wrong :-
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
96.
:-
(A)
(B)
(C)
(1) A, B C
(2) A, B C
(3) A B C
(4) A C B
97. :-
(A)
(B) 5 5.5 3
(C)
(D)
(1) A C
(2) A, B D
(3) B, C D
(4) 98. (A-D) -
(A)9-10
14-16
(B)
(C) (Nymph)
(20)
(D)
:-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
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MAJOR TEST
99. The cells in the folllowing figure were all taken
from the same individual (a mammal). Identify
the cell division events happening in each cell:-
××××××
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) (a) Meiotic metaphase I, (b) Mitotic
Anaphase, (c) Meiotic Anaphase II
(2) (a) Mitotic Metaphase, (b) Mitotic Anaphase,
(c) Meiotic Anaphase II
(3) (a) Mitotic Metaphase, (b) Mitotic Anaphase
(c) Meiotic Anaphase I
(4) (a) Meiotic Metaphase II (b) Meiotic Anaphase
I (c) Meotic Anaphase II
100. Which type of glycosidic linkage is found in mal-
tose ?
(1) 1' ––1" (2) 1' –– 4"
(3) 1' ––2" (4) 1' –– 6"
101. How many organisms in the list given below are
autotrophs
Spirulina, Chlorella, Nostoc, Streptomyces,
Nitrosomonas, Polytrichum, Lactobacillus
Cedrus, Chromatium, Chlorobium, Utricularia,
Cuscuta.
(1) Ten (2) Nine
(3) Five (4) Eight
102. In how many plants, sporophyte is differentiated
into foot, seta & capsule :-
Riccia, Marchantia, Porella, Anthoceros,
Polytrichuon, Funaria
(1) Three (2) Four
(3) Two (4) Five
103. The living differentiated cell which have lost the
capacity to divide, can regain capacity of division
under certain condition. This phenomenon is
called :–
(1) Dedifferentiation
(2) Differentiation
(3) Redifferentiation
(4) None of these
99. :-
××××××
(a)
(b)
(c)
(1) (a) Meiotic metaphase I, (b) Mitotic
Anaphase, (c) Meiotic Anaphase II
(2) (a) Mitotic Metaphase, (b) Mitotic Anaphase,
(c) Meiotic Anaphase II
(3) (a) Mitotic Metaphase, (b) Mitotic Anaphase
(c) Meiotic Anaphase I
(4) (a) Meiotic Metaphase II (b) Meiotic Anaphase
I (c) Meotic Anaphase II
100. ?(1) 1' ––1" (2) 1' –– 4"
(3) 1' ––2" (4) 1' –– 6"
101.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
102.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
103.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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104. Which of the following pair is not correctly
matched :-
(1) (Colony)Volvox
(2) Nostoc
(3) Zygnema (4) Ulothrix
105. Name of the plants are given below :-
Anthoceros, Ulothrix, Laminaria, Fucus,
Polytrichum, Gelidium, Pinus, Pisum, Pteris,
Dryopteris and Ipomea
How many are vascular embryophytes :
(1) Three (2) Six (3) Two (4) Five
106. Which of the following pair is correctly matched:-
(1) Ciliated epithelium PCT of nephron in the
kidney
(2) Columner epithelium Blood vessels and
fallopian tubes
(3) Squamous epithelium function :secretion
& absorption
(4) Simple squamous epithelium forming a
diffusion
boundaries
107. Identify the given below figure of animal tissue
along with its correct location :-
Tissue Location
(1)Dense regularconnective tissue
Pericardium
(2)Dense irregularconnective tissue
All bone joints
(3) Adipose tissue Beneath the skin
(4)Areolar connectivetissue
Beneath the skin
104. :-
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
105. :- (1) (2) (3) (4)
106. :-
(1)
(2)
(3) :
(4)
107. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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MAJOR TEST
108. The Cockroach compound eyes are situated at the
dorsal surface of head, each eyes consits of
ommatidia about :-
(1) 1000 (2) 2000
(3) 3000 (4) 4000
109. A few major discoveries in cell biology are listed:-
(a) Schleiden and Schwann proposed the cell
theory
(b) Leewenhoek discovered bacteria
(c) Golgi stained cells with silver nitrate
discovered golgi apparatus
The correct chronological order of these events
starting with the earliest event is :-
(1) a,b,c (2) b,a,c
(3) b,c,a (4) c,b,a
110. In prokaryotes at the time of protein synthesis
“S. D. Sequence” helps mRNA in recognition of:-
(1) Smaller sub unit of ribosome
(2) Larger sub unit of ribosome
(3) Initiation factors
(4) Elongation factors
111. Which of the following combination is incorrect:-
(1) Rhizophore - Selaginella
(2) Pnumatophore-Rhizophora
(3) Carpophore-Coriander
(4) Pappus-Clematis
112. Select incorrectly matched pair :-
(1) Fucus-Air bladder
(2) Marchantia-Gemma cup
(3) Phylogenetic classification-Cladistic
(4) Puccinia-Smut
113. Which of the following statement is/are true about
parenchyma?
(1) The cells are generally isodiametric.
(2) The cells may either be closely packed or have
intercellular spaces.
(3) It performs various functions like storage,
secretion and photosynthesis.
(4) All the above
108. :-
(1) 1000 (2) 2000
(3) 3000 (4) 4000
109.
:
(a)
(b) Leewenhoek
(c) silver nitrate
:-
(1) a,b,c (2) b,a,c
(3) b,c,a (4) c,b,a
110. “S. D. ” m–RNA :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
111.
(1) -
(2) -(3) -
(4) -
112.
(1)
(2) (3)
(4) 113.
(1)
(2)
(Intercellular)
(3)
(4)
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MAJOR TEST
114. Arrange the following events in a correct
sequence with respect to life cycle of fern :-
(I) Fertilization
(II) Liberation of spores
(III) Prothallus
(IV) Embryo
(1) II, III, I, IV (2) IV, III, II, I
(3) I, II, III, IV (4) I, IV, III, II
115.A
B
C
D
Identify the A, B, C and D are, respectively :-
(1) Seta, Leaves, Capsule, Rhizoids
(2) Leaves, Capsule, Seta, Rhizoids
(3) Capsule, Seta, leaves, Rhizome
(4) Capsule, Seta, leaves, Rhizoids
116. Read the following four statements (A-D) :-
(a) Tight function helps connecting the cytoplasm
and adjoining cells
(b) Adhering junction helps to stop substances
from leaking across a tissue
(c) Gap function keeps neighbouring cells
together
(d) Ions & small molecules and rarely large
molecules quickly transports through gap
junction
How many of the above statements are incorrect?
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4) All of these
114. (I) (II) (III) (IV) (1) II, III, I, IV (2) IV, III, II, I(3) I, II, III, IV (4) I, IV, III, II
115.A
B
C
D
A, B, C D :-
(1) , , ,
(2) , , ,
(3)
(4) , , , 116. (A-D) :-
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
?
(1) 1 (2) 2
(3) 3 (4)
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117. Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of a
certain type of epithelial tissue. Identify it and
choose the correct option in which type of
epithelium, its location and their function is
correctly identified ?
Name ofepithelium
Location Function
(1)SquamousEpithelium
Blood vesselsand Air sacs
Diffusion
(2)ColumnarEpithelium
Stomach andIntestine
Secretion &absorption
(3)CuboidalEpithelium
Tubuler partof Nephron
Secretion &Absorption
(4)Ciliatedcolumnarepithelium
Broncheoles
To movemucous in aspecificdirection
118. In nerve - cord of cockroach, how many ganglia
present in the thorax and abdomen ?
(1) 3, 7 (2) 3, 5
(3) 3, 6 (4) 3, 9
119. The cytoskeletal elements are involved in :
(i) Amoeboid movement
(ii) Separation of chromosomes
(iii) Ciliary movement
(iv) Formation of cell plate
(1) i,ii and iv (2) i, ii and iii
(3) ii, iii and iv (4) i, ii iii and iv
120. In prokaryotes, which factor helps RNA
polymerase enzyme to recognise the terminator
site ?
(1) –factor (2) –factor
(3) –factor (4) None of them
121. How many plants in the list given below are
ornamentals
Indigofera, Glycine, Lupin, Petunia, Withania,
Colchichum, Tulip, Gloriosa
(1) Three (2) Five (3) Four (4) Six
117.
?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
118. (1) 3, 7 (2) 3, 5
(3) 3, 6 (4) 3, 9
119. :(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (1) i,ii and iv (2) i, ii and iii
(3) ii, iii and iv (4) i, ii iii and iv
120. ‘Terminator site’ () RNA– ?
(1) –factor (2) –factor
(3) –factor (4) 121.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
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122. Select incorrect statement :-
(1) The members of basidiomycetes are
commonly known as imperfect fungi
(2) Bacteriophages are generally double stranded
DNA viruses
(3) Plant viruses are generally single stranded
RNA Viruses.
(4) Free infectious RNA was discovered by T.O.
Diener
123. In a transverse section of a Sunflower root:-
(1) Both protoxylem and metaxylem vessels are
present towards the periphery.
(2) Both protoxylem and metaxylem vessels are
present towards the centre.
(3) The protoxylem vessels are present towards
the centre and metaxylem vessels are present
towards the periphery.
(4) The protoxylem vessels are present towards
the periphery and metaxylem vessels are
present towards the centre.
124. If the number of chromosomes in a megaspore
mother cell of Pinus is 36, then what will be the
chromosome number of the cells of endosperm:-
(1) 72 (2) 36
(3) 48 (4) 18
125. If the aerial parts of a typical pteridophyte are
destroyed by fire, then which plant part helps to
regenerate :-
(1) Root (2) Rhizome
(3) Leaf - tip (4) Pinnule
126. Read the following four statements (A-D) :-
(A) The fibers of connective tissue provide
strength, elasticity and flexibility to the tissue.
(B) In all connective tissues, cells secrete fibres
made up of structural protein with out any
exception.
(C) Adipose tissue is a type of loose connective
tissue located mainly beneath the skin.
(D) Mast cells produce and secrete fibres in
connective tissue.
Out of these which are true statements ?
(1) A and B (2) B and C
(3) C and D (4) A and C
122.
(1)
(2) DNA
(3) RNA
(4) RNA T.O.
123. (1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
124. 36 :-(1) 72 (2) 36
(3) 48 (4) 18
125. :-(1) (2) (3) - (4)
126. (A-D) :-(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
?(1) A B (2) B C(3) C D (4) A C
Time Management is Life Management
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MAJOR TEST
127. Given below a diagramme of a type of WBC.
Identify and select the correct option :-
Nucleus
Cytoplasm
(1) It is basophill and its (i) No. = 0.5 – 1%
(ii) function –To secrete histamine, Hiparin
and seratonin
(2) It is Neutrophills and its (i) No. = 60 – 65%
(ii) function :- To destruct microbes
(3) It is Eosinophills and its (i) No. = 2-3%
(ii) Function – Protection against infection
(4) It is nutrophills and its (i) No. = 6-8%
(ii) function – Phagocytosis
128. Which type of metamorphosis present in
cockroach ?
(1) Holometabolous (2) Paurometabolous
(3) Catadromous (4) Anadromous
129. Which of the following is incorrect :-
(1) Microtubules are made up of tubulin
monomers
(2) The golgi apparatus is made up of cisternae
(3) The nucleus is enclosed by 2 phospholipid
bilayers
(4) Peroxisomes generate hydrogen peroxide as
a waste product
130. In prokaryote, which part of m–RNA helpful in
the recognition of smaller subunit of ribosome ?
(1) Cap–region
(2) Tail–region
(3) Shine–dalgarno region
(4) All the above
131. Read the following four statements (A-D)
(A) In Ginkgo, male and female gametophyte do
not have an independent free living existance.
(B) Calotropis and Petunia have corolla with
valvate aestivation
(C) Opposite phyllotaxy is found in Oscimum,
Calotropis and Psidium
(D) Sexual reproduction in-Fucus is isogamous
How many of the above statements are right?
(1) Three (2) Two
(3) One (4) Four
127. WBC :-
Nucleus
Cytoplasm
(1) (i) = 0.5 – 1%
(ii) –
(2) (i) = 60 – 65%
(ii) (3) (i) = 2-3%
(ii) – (4) (i) = 6-8%
(ii) – 128.
(1) (2) (3) (4)
129. :-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) H2O
2
130. m–RNA ?(1) Cap–region
(2) Tail–region
(3) Shine–dalgarno region
(4) All the above
131. (A-D) (A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(1) (2) (3) (4)
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132. How many plants in the list given below are
homosporous :-
Pteridium, Azolla, Salvinia, Dryopteris, Cycas,
Pinus, Lycopodium, Adiantum, Equisetum
(1) Four (2) Three
(3) Two (4) Five
133. Which is/are correct statment/s:-
(1) P-protein helps in wound sealing
(2) In gymnosperms, tracheids are the chief water
transporting elemetns
(3) The companion cells play an important role
in the maintenance of a pressure gradient in
the sieve tubes
(4) All of these
134. Dry mosses are useful for translocation of new
seedling plants, because :–
(1) They have water absorption capacity and
water holding capacity
(2) They have capacity to incerase the acidity
of soil
(3) They are used as manure
(4) They have antiseptic properties
135. Read the following statement :-
(A) Possess chlorophyll a, c, carotenoids and
xanthophylls
(B) Cellulosic Cell wall usually covered by
gelatinous coating of algin
(C) Gametes are pyriform and bear two laterally
attached flagella
(D) Members are found primarily in marine
habitats.
All these information are related to which class
(1) Phaeophyceae (2) Chlorophyceae
(3) Rhodophyceae (4) Cyanophyceae
136. How many bones in the list given below are
cartilagenous bones :-
Femur, Ribs, Pubis, Sternum, Clevical, Humerus,
Scapula, Tibiofibula, Radioulna, Mandible
(1) six (2) five
(3) four (4) seven
137. The tissue which allows the body to interact with
both its internal and external environments is :-
(1) Muscular tissue
(2) Nervous tissue
(3) Epithelial tissue
(4) Connective tissue
132.
(1) (2)
(3) (4) 133.
(1) P-
(2)
(3)
(4) 134.
:–
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 135. :-
(A) a, c,
(B)
(C)
(D)
:-(1) (2) (3) (4)
136. :-, , , , , ,
, , , (1) (2) (3) (4)
137. :-(1)
(2)
(3) (4)
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MAJOR TEST
138. Mushroom gland is a part of :-
(1) Male reproductive system of cockroach
(2) Female reproductive system of cockroach
(3) Male reproductive system of rabbit
(4) Female reproductive system of rabbit
139. Refer to the list of organelles (parts) of cell :-
Ribosome,Nucleolus,Centrosome,Microbodies,Cytoskeleton,Cilia,Flagella,Nucleus,Plastid,Mitochondria
How many of above organelles/parts contains
nucleotide polymer :-
(1) 9 (2) 7 (3) 5 (4) 3
140. In prokaryote the sigma factor recognize start
signal on DNA molecule for transcription, but in
the absence of factor, What will happen ?
(1) Synthesis of RNA will be stopped
(2) In the absence of -factor core enzyme
initiates RNA synthesis in a random manner
(3) Rate of transcription of DNA is increases
(4) Transcription of DNA does not occur
141. Select incorrect statement ?
(1) Families are characterized on the basis of both
vegetative and reproductive features of plant
species.
(2) Plant families like convolvulaceae & solanaceae
are included in the order polymoniales mainly
based on floral characters.
(3) The word systematic is derived from latin
word systema
(4) The taxonomic categories are morphological
aggregates.
142. Select incorrect statement
(1) In bacterium slime layer protects the cells from
loss of water and nutrients.
(2) Teichoic acid is found in Gram +ve bacteria
(3) Slime moulds are saprophytic protists
(4) All single celled eukaryotes are placed in
monera.
143. Which of the following statement is/are true about
sieve cells ?
(1)They have less conspicuous sieve areas located
on their lateral wall.
(2)They are narrow elongated cells.
(3)They taper at the end or have inclined walls.
(4)All the above
138. (1) (2) (3) (4)
139. :-
Nucleotide :-(1) 9 (2) 7 (3) 5 (4) 3
140. ?(1) (2) –
(3) (4)
141.
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 142.
(1)
(2) (3) (4)
143. (1) (2) (3)
(4)
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144. Given diagrams A to D are, respectively :-
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(1) Agaricus, TMV, Laminaria, Selaginella
(2) Euglena, TMV, Fucus, Equisetum
(3) Chlamydomonas, Bacteriophage, Dictyota,
Adiantum
(4) Polytrichum, TMV, Agaricus, Equisetum
145. Consider the following four statement (A–D)
related to the animal tissue and select the correct
option stating ones are true (T) and which ones
are false (F).
Statements :-
(A) Compound epithelium has a limited role in
secretion and absorption
(B) Main function of compound epithelium is to
provide protection against chemical and
mechanical stresses
(C) Compound epithelium cover the dry surface
of the skin and moist surface of buccal cavity.
(D) The inner linning of ducts of salivary glands
and of pancreatic duct is made up of
compound epithelium
(1) A T; B F; C T; D F
(2) A T; B T; C T; D T
(3) A F; B F; C T; D F
(4) A T; B T; C F; D F
144. A D :-
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(1) ,
(2)
(3) , , ,
(4) , , , 145. (A–D)
(T) (F)
:-
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(1) A T; B F; C T; D F
(2) A T; B T; C T; D T
(3) A F; B F; C T; D F
(4) A T; B T; C F; D F
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MAJOR TEST
146. Read the following features of various types of
muscles :-
(i) Present in walls of heart.
(ii) Muscle fibres are spindle in shape.
(iii) Multinucleated fibres.
(iv) Uninucleated fibres.
(v) Controlled by CNS + ANS.
(vi) Richly blood supplies in muscles.
(vii) Oblique bridges are present.
(viii) Fibres are always branchest.
Out of these how many features are shown by the
cardiac muscles ?
(1) Five (2) Six
(3) Seven (4) All of these
147. Cells of epithelial tissue that line the stomach and
intestine have following junction :-
(1) Interdigitation
(2) Tight junction
(3) Adherens junction
(4) Desmosomes
148. Arrows A,B and C in the diagram below represent
the processes necessary to make the energy stored
in food available for muscle activity :
Food A
Simpler moleculesB
Mitochondria
C
ATP in muscle cells
The correct sequence of processes represented by
A, B and C is :-
(1) Diffusion Synthesis Active transport
(2) DigestionExcretionCellular respiration
(3) Synthesis Active transport Excretion
(4) DigestionDiffusionCellular respiration
149. To study the ability to secrete a specific protein,
cells were homogenised mechanically and
organelles were separated by centrifugation.
Which organelle should be used for further
investigation ?
(1) Microsome
(2) Peroxisome
(3) Lysosome
(4) Ribosome
150. In process of protein synthesis how many
Releasing factors have been identified in
prokaryotes ?
(1) 7 (2) 3 (3) 9 (4) 10
146. :-(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) CNS + ANS (vi) (vii) (viii) ?(1) (2) (3) (4)
147. (lining) :-(1) (2) (3) (4)
148. :
ATP
:-(1) (2) (3) (4)
149. ?
(1) Microsome
(2) Peroxisome
(3) Lysosome
(4) Ribosome
150. ?(1) 7 (2) 3
(3) 9 (4) 10
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151. According to five kingdom system
Chlamydomonas, Chlorella, Paramoecium and
Amoeba are placed in which kingdom.
(1) Monera (2) Plantae
(3) Fungi (4) Protista
152. Which of the following is wrongly matched
(1) Spirogyra-Motile gametes
(2) Sargassum-Chlorophyll a & c
(3) Basidiomycetes-Puff balls
(4) Anabaena - Water bloom
153. Meristematic tissue are characterised by all
except:-
(1)The nucleus is bigger in size
(2)Colourful plastids are present
(3) Having cell division capacity
(4) Cellulosic primary cell wall
154. A transverse section of a plant material shows the
following anatomical features under microscope:-
thick cuticle, Sunken stomata, discontinuous
sclerenchymatous hypodermis, Armed
parenchyma, 'T' shaped sclerenchymatous girdle,
Two-conjoint, collateral and open vascular
bundle.
The plant material should be
(1) Cycas rachis
(2) Cycas leaflet
(3) Pinus needle
(4) Nerium leaf
155. Consider the following four statement (A–D)
related to the animal tissue and select the correct
option which includes all the correct ones only.
(A) The intercellular matrix of cartilage is solid
and pliable and resists compression.
(B) Bones have a hard and non-pliable ground
substance
(C) Cartilage is the main tissue that provides
structural frame of the body
(D) Bones support and protect softer tissues and
organs
(1) Statement 'C' and 'D'
(2) Statement 'A', 'B' and 'D'
(3) Statement 'B' and 'D'
(4) Statement only 'A'
151. (1) (2) (3) (4)
152. (1) -(2) -a & c
(3) -(4) -
153. (1) (2) (3) (4)
154.
'T' shaped
2-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
155. (A–D)
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
(1) 'C' 'D'
(2) 'A', 'B' 'D'
(3) 'B' 'D'
(4) 'A'
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156. Read the following statements (A-D) :-
(A) Both B and T-lymphocyte are responsible for
immunity
(B) ABO-system depends on absence and presence
of two antigen present in blood plasma
(C) Rh-antibodies from the mother can leak into
the blood of foetus and destroy foetus RBCes
(D) Persons with AB and O blood group are called
universal recepient and universal donors
respectively
From above statements which one is incorrect ?
(1) (A) (2) (B) (3) (C) (4) (D)
157. Consider the following four statement (a-d) and
select the option which includes all the correct
ones only.
(a) Loose connective tissue has cells and fibres
loosely arranged in a semi fluid ground
substance.
(b) Haversian system is unique feature of spongy
bones. This system is present in mammalian
bone.
(c) Fibroblasts cells are large present in all the
general connective tissues. They secretes
fibres and components of the matrix.
(d) An epithelial tissue has no blood vessels,
whereas most connective tissue have
significant networks of blood vessels.
Option :-
(1) Statements (a), (b) and (c)
(2) Statements (a), (b)
(3) Statements (b), (c) and (d)
(4) Statements (a), (c) and (d)
158. The diagram below shows a cell cycle :-
Z Y
X
W
V
Interphase
What is the process occur during V ?
(1) Replication of DNA
(2) Replication of centrioles
(3) Chromosomes condense and become shorter
and thicker
(4) High metabolic rate and synthesis of proteins
and cellular organelles
156. (A-D) :-(A) B T-
(B) ABO-
(C) Rh-RBCes
(D) AB O
?
(1) (A) (2) (B) (3) (C) (4) (D)
157. (a-d) (a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
:-
(1) (a), (b) (c)
(2) (a), (b)
(3) (b), (c) (d)
(4) (a), (c) (d)
158. :-
Z Y
X
W
V
Interphase
V ?(1) DNA (2) (3) (4)
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159. Isomer which are formed as a result of interchange
of the –OH and H on carbon atoms 2nd, 3rd and
4th of glucose are known as –
(1) D and L isomer (2) d and isomer
(3) Anomer (4) Epimer
160. In t–RNA, activated amino acids attach at which
end ?
(1) 5' end, which contains free – OH group of
ribose sugar.
(2) 3' end, which contains free –COOH group
(3) 5' end, which contains free – COOH group
(4) 3' end of t–RNA, which contains free –OH
group of ribose sugar.
161. Select correctly matched pair/s
(A) Bacillus anthrasis-Endospore
(B) Diatoms-Auxospore
(C) Lichens-Soredia
(D) Agaricus-gills
(E) Salvinia-sporocarps
(1) Only A, B & E
(2) Only C, D & E
(3) Only A, B, C & D
(4) All A to E
162. Kuru disease, little leaf disease of brinjal & potato
spindle tuber disease, are respectively caused by:-
(1) Mycoplasma, viroid, prions
(2) Prions, Mycoplasma, viroid
(3) Prions, Mycoplasma, viriod
(4) Viroid, Mycoplasma, virus
163. Which of the following type of thickenings are
most common among the protoxylem vessels ?
(1) Only scalariform
(2) Annular & spiral
(3) Spiral, pitted and reticulate
(4) Annular, spiral & pitted
164. The cross section of a plant material 'X' shows the
following anatomical features under microscope:-
Sclerenchymatous hypodermis, Scattered
vascular bundles in ground tissue, each vascular
bundle is surround by sclerenchymatous bundle
sheath, vascular bundles are conjoint, collateral
and closed, endarch xylem, phloem parenchyma
is absent, lack of well demarcated pith.
Plant material should be :-
(1) Maize stem (2) Maize root
(3) Sunflower stem (4) Cucurbita stem
159. 2nd, 3rd 4th OH H–(1) D L (2) d (3) (4)
160. t–RNA (1) 5 – OH
(2) 3' –COOH
(3) 5 – COOH
(4) t–RNA 3'
–OH 161.
(A) (B) (C) (D) (E) (1) A, B E
(2) C, D E
(3) A, B, C D(4) A E
162. (1) (2) (3) (4)
163. (1) (2) (3) (4)
164. –
(1) (2) (3) (4)
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MAJOR TEST
165. (1) (2) (3) (4)
166. (A) (B) :-"
.......(A).........
.......(B).......
?
-A -B
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
167. :-
(i)
(a)
(ii) (b)
(iii)
(c)
(iv)
(d)
PCT
(1) i-(d) ii-(c) iii-(a) iv-(b)
(2) i-(d) ii-(c) iii-(b) iv-(a)
(3) i-(c) ii-(d) iii-(a) iv-(b)
(4) i-(c) ii-(d) iii-(b) iv-(a)
165. A student scrapped thin layer from inner surface
of cheeks by blunt end of a scalpal and observed
it in microscope which type of cell can be seen
in microscopic observation :-
(1) Columnar cell (2) Squamous cell
(3) Cuboidal cell (4) Pigmental cell
166. Read the following statements having two blanks
(A) and (B) : "Function of.......(A)......... is to move
particles in a specific direction over the
epithelium. They are present in the inner surface
of hollow organs like.......(B).......
To select the one option which is correct for the
two blanks ?
Blank-A Blank-B
(1) Cilia Fallopian tube
(2) Microvilli Pharynx
(3) Steriocilia Epididymis
(4) Microvilli PCT
167. Match the following :-
(i)
Column-I Column-II
Glandular columnarepithelium
(a)
Blood capillary
(ii) Urothelium (b)
(iii) Simple squamousepithelium
(c)Renalpelvis
(iv) Brush borderedcubaidal epithelium
(d)
Stomach
PCT
(1) i-(d) ii-(c) iii-(a) iv-(b)
(2) i-(d) ii-(c) iii-(b) iv-(a)
(3) i-(c) ii-(d) iii-(a) iv-(b)
(4) i-(c) ii-(d) iii-(b) iv-(a)
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168. The following information refers to organelle P
• Produces lipid
• Transport of proteins to be used in the cell
membrane
Identify organelle P :-
(1) Mitochondria
(2) Nucleus
(3) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
(4) Golgi apparatus
169. Which disaccharide generally is not found in
plants ?
(1) Maltose (2) Sucrose
(3) Lactose (4) Cellulose
170. On translation, m–RNA produces a polypeptide
chain, which contains 50 amino acids. If 26th
codon of m. RNA UUU mutated and changed to
UUC, then polypeptide chain
(1) Completely changed
(2) Partially changed
(3) Not changed
(4) Only one amino acid changed
171. List some of the plants are given below:-
Sphagnum, Marchanita, Cucumber, Cycas, Pinus,
Chara
How many are monoecious :-
(1) Three (2) Four
(3) Five (4) Two
172. Which is incorrect statement ?
(1) The spring wood is lighter in colour and
exhibits low density wereas the autumn wood
is darker and has higher density
(2) The heart wood is more durable and resistant
to the attack of the microorganisms and insects
as compared to the sap wood
(3) Complementary cells are parenchymatous
(4) Enucleated condition is found in phloem
parenchyma
168. P
•
•
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
169.
?
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
170. m–RNA 50
m–RNA 26 UUU UUC
:-
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
171.
(1) (2)
(3) (4)
172. ?
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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MAJOR TEST
173. A graph is given below exhibiting evolution of
gametophyte of different plant groups at
No.1 to 6. Identifiy the number '4' representing
which group of plant :-
Geneology of plant kingdom
Com
ple
xit
y o
f gam
etophyte
5
6
1
2
3
4
(1) Moss (2) Pteriodphyta
(3) Angiosperm (4) Liver worts
174. Labelled structures P, Q, R and S are respectively
in the given figures A to D :-
(A)
(P)
(Q)
(B)
(C)
(R)
(D)
(S)
P Q R S
(1) Contractile Conidium Rhizoids Sporocarps
vacuole
(2) Eye spot Sterigmata Gemma Floating
cup leaves
(3) Pyrenoid Sterigmata Gemma Sub-merged
cup leaves
(4) Chloroplast Conidio– Antheridia Submerged
phore leaves
173. 1 6 '4'
:-
Geneology
5
6
1
2
3
4
(1) (2) (3) (4)
174. A D P, Q, R S :-
(A)
(P)
(Q)
(B)
(C)
(R)
(D)
(S)
P Q R S
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)
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175. (i) Buccal cavity
(ii) Pharynx
(iii) Pancreas
(iv) Pancreatic duct
(v) Fallopian tube
(vi) Oesophagus
(vii) Gall bladder
(viii) Anal canal
Out of above location where you can not found
compound epithelium ?
(1) (iii), (v) and (vi)
(2) (iii), (v) and (viii)
(3) (iii), (v) and (vii)
(4) (iii), (iv) and (viii)
176. Given below the example of few chemicals like:-
Sodium oxalate, sodium chloride, sodium citrate,
EDTA, sodium hydroxide etc.
Out of these how many chemicals having
capability to prevent the blood clotting ?
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) Five (4) Four
177. In given figure, choose the correct match :-
A
B
CD
Structure Function
(1) (A) Testes Sperm formation
(2) (B) Oviduct Egg formation
(3) (C) Colleterialgland
Secretion help information of Ootheca
(4) (D) Oothecalchamber
Site of fertilization
175. (i) (ii)
(iii)
(iv)
(v)
(vi)
(vii)
(viii)
?
(1) (iii), (v) (vi) (2) (iii), (v) (viii) (3) (iii), (v) (vii) (4) (iii), (iv) (viii)
176. :-,
?
(1) (2)
(3) (4) 177. :-
A
B
CD
(1) (A)
(2) (B)
(3) (C)
(4) (D)
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MAJOR TEST
178. The plasma membrane is the boundary between
a cell's internal and eternal environments. Both
environment are aqueous:-
X
Y
To allow this separation of aqueous environments
the regions of the plasma membrane indicated in
the diagram have the following properties :-
(1) (X) hydrophilic layers on the outside and (Y)
hydrophobic layers on the inside of the
membrane
(2) X and Y are both hydrophobic layers
(3) (X) hydrophobic layers on the outside and (Y)
hydrophilic layers on the inside of the
membrane
(4) X and Y are both hydrophilic layers.
179. Sweetest sugar in nature is :-
(1) Fructose (2) Sucrose
(3) Maltose (4) Galactose
180. Which statement is true about wobbling
concept ?
(1) Wobbling takes place at 5' position of codon
(2) Wobbling reduces the number of t–RNAs
required for polypeptide synthesis
(3) Wobbling increases the number of t–RNA
required for polypeptide synthesis
(4) Wobbling takes place at second position of
codon
178.
:-
X
Y
(1) (X) (Y)
(2) X Y
(3) (X) (Y)
(4) X Y 179. :-
(1) (2) (3) (4)
180. :-
(1) 5'
(2)
t–RNAs
(3)
t–RNA
(4)
Your moral duty
is to prove that is
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SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK /