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Quest
STRUCTURE OF ATOM
1. α - particle is identical witha) Protium nucleus b) Deuterium nucleusc) Positron d) Helium nucleus
2. Rutherford’s scattering experiment is related to the size of thea) Nucleus b) Atom c) Electron d) Neutron
3. If an electron has spin quantum number +1/2 and a magnetic quantum number -1, it can not be presentina) ‘d’ orbital b) ‘f’ orbital c) ‘p’ orbital d) ‘s’ orbital
4. If uncertainty in position of an electron is zero, the uncertainty in its momentum would be
a) Zero b) π2/h> c) π2/h> d) Infinite
5. Which of the following statement does not form part of Bohr’s Model of the hydrogen atoma) Energy of the electrons in the orbit is quantizedb) The electron in the orbit nearest to the nucleus has the lowest energyc) Electrons revolve in different orbits around the nucleusd) The position and velocity of the electrons in the orbit can not be determined simultaneously
6. The ratio of the energy of a photon of 2000Å wavelength radiation to that of 4000Å radiation is
a) 4/1 b) 4 c) 2/1 d) 2
7. Which of the following sets of quantum number represents an impossible arrangementsn l m S
a) 3 2 -2 1/2b) 4 0 0 1/2c) 3 2 -3 1/2d) 5 3 0 -1/2
8. Rutherford’s alpha particle scattering experiment eventually led to the conclusion thata) Mass and energy are relatedb) Electrons occupy space around the nucleusc) Neutrons are buried deep in the nucleusd) The point of impact with matter can be precisely determined
9. Bohr model can explaina) The spectrum of hydrogen atom onlyb) Spectrum of an atom or ion containing one electron onlyc) The spectrum of hydrogen moleculed) The solar spectrum
10. When beryllium is bombarded with alpha particles (Chadwick’s experiment) extremely penetratingradiations, which cannot be deflected by electrical or magnetic field are given out. These area) A beam of protons b) Alpha raysc) A beam of neutrons d) A beam of neutrons and protons
11. A filled or half filled set of p or d orbitals is spherically symmetric. Point out the species which hasspherical symmetry
a) Na b) C c) −Cl d) Fe
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12. A helium molecule is moving with a velocity of 12ms1040.2
−× at 300K. The deBroglie wave length is
abouta) 0.416 nm b) 0.83 nm c) 803Å d) 8000Å
13. In the hydrogen atom electrons are excited to the 5th quantum level. How many different lines mayappear in the spectruma) 4 b) 12 c) 8 d) 10
14. The wavelength of a spectral line for an electronic transition is inversely related toa) The number of electrons undergoing transitionb) The nuclear charge of the atomc) The difference in the energy of energy levels involved in the transitiond) Velocity of electron undergoing transition
15. An element has the following ionization energy values : ,3001 kJE = ,6202 kJE = ,43003 kJE =
kJE 60004 = . The element that most probably could be will have the following electronic configura-
tion in its outermost shell
a) 22npns b) 2
ns c) 12npns d) ( ) 110
1 nsdn −
16. The speed of an electron in the ground state in terms of velocity of light C will bea) C b) C/2 c) C/10 d) C/137
17. Of the following transitions in hydrogen atom, the one which gives an absorption line of highest fre-quency is
a) 2to1 == nn b) 5to3 == nn c) 1to2 == nn d) 3to8 == nn
18. The orbital diagram, in which the Aufbau principle is violated is
s2 px2 py2 pz2
a) ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑
b) ↑ ↑↓ ↑ ↑
c) ↑↓ ↑ ↑ ↑
d) ↑↓ ↑↓ ↑ ↑
19. A partical of mass, ‘m’ when annihilated completely gives an energy E equal to
a) 2mc b) 2
c
mc) mc d)
m
c2
20. Zeeman effect refers to thea) Splitting up of the lines in an emission spectrum in a magnetic fieldb) Splitting up of the lines in an emission spectrum in the presence of an external electrostatic fieldc) Emission of electrons form metals when light falls upon themd) Random scattering of light by colloidal particles.
21. Atoms may be regarded as comprising of protons, neutrons and electrons. If the mass attributed to a
neutron were halved and that attributed to the electron were doubled, the atomic mass of 126C would
a) Remain approximately the same b) Be approximately doubledc) Be approximately halved d) Be reduced approximately by 25%
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22. For the energy levels in an atom, which one of the following statements is correcta) There is seven principal electron energy levelsb) The second principal energy level can have four sub-energy levels and contains a maximum ofeight electronsc) The M-energy level can have maximum of 32 electrons
d) The s4 sub-energy level is at a higher energy than the 3d sub-energy level
23. The maximum probability of finding an electron in the xyd orbital is
a) Along the x-axis b) Along the y-axisc) At an angle of 45° form the x and y axisd) At an angle of 90° from the x and y axis
24. Which of the following does not characterize X-raysa) The radiation can ionize gasesb) It causes ZnS to fluorescec) Deflected by electric and magnetic fieldd) Have wave length shorter than ultra violet rays
25. Which of the following relates to photons both as wave motion and as a stream of particles
a) Interference b) 2mcE = c) Diffraction d) hvE =
26. The wave number of first line of Balmer series of hydrogen is 15200cm-1. The wave number of first
Balmer line of +2Li ion isa) 15200cm-1 b) 60800cm-1 c) 76000cm-1 d) 136800cm-1
27. Which combinations of quantum numbers, n, l, m, s for the electron in an atom does not provide apermissible solution of the wave equation
a)2
1,2,2,3 − b)
2
1,1,3,3 − c)
2
1,1,2,3 d)
2
1,1,1,3 −
28. A certain transition in the hydrogen spectrum from an excited state to the ground state in one or moresteps gives rise to a total of ten lines. Number of lines lying in the visible spectrum isa) 5 b) 3 c) 6 d) 4
29. What is the ratio of the de Broglie wave lengths for electrons accelerated through 200 volts and 50 voltsa) 1 : 2 b) 2 : 1 c) 3 : 10 d) 10 : 3
30. The first Lyman transition in the hydrogen spectrum has eVE 2.10=∆ . The same energy change isobserved in the second Balmer transition of
a) +2Li b) +
Li c) +He d) +3
Be
31. The wave number ratio for two transitions in the spectrum of atomic hydrogen is 108 : 7. The transi-tions area) first Lyman and first Paschen transitionsb) First Lyman and first Brackett transitionc) First and second Balmer transitionsd) First Lyman and second Balmer transitions
32. Radius of hydrogen atom in its ground state is 0.53Å. In the same state, the radius of ++Li (Atomicnumber = 3) will bea) 1.06Å b) 0.265Å c) 0.17Å d) 0.53Å
33. Which of the following quantum numbers is not obtained by the solution of Schrodinger wave equationa) Magnetic quantum number b) Principal quantum numberc) Spin quantum number d) Azimuthal quantum number
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34. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom in the ground state is xkJ. The energy required for an electron tojump from 2nd orbit to 3rd orbit is
a) 36/5x b) 5x c) 7.2x d) 6/x
35. The optical transition in the +He spectrum from n = 4 to n = 2 corresponds to which transition in the
hydrogen spectrum
a) 1 to2 == nn b) 1 to3 == nn c) 2 to3 == nn d) 2 to4 == nn
36. What is false to say about anode raysa) Their e/m ratio depends upon the nature of residual gasb) They are deflected by electrical and magnetic fieldc) Their e/m ratio is constantd) These are produced by ionization of molecules of the noble gas
37. In an atom having 2K, 8L, 8M and 2N electrons, the number of electrons with 2
1;0 +== sm are
a) 6 b) 2 c) 8 d) 16
38. In an excited H-atom, when electron drops from n = 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 ......... to n = 1, their is emission ofa) IR radiations b) Visible radiations c) Micro waves d) U.V. rays
39. The angular momentum of an electron in an atomic orbital is governed by thea) Principal quantum number b) Azimuthal quantum numberc) Magnetic quantum number d) Spin quantum number
40. Orbital angular momentum of a 3d-electron is
a)π2
.2. h
b)π2
.6h
c)π2
hd)
π4
h
41. The wave function of electrons in atoms and molecules are calleda) Subshells b) Quantum c) Orbitals d) All
42. The first use of quantum theory to explain the structure of atom was made bya) Heisenberg b) Bohr c) Planck d) Einstein
43. The number of waves made by a Bohr electron in an orbit of maximum magnetic quantum number +2 isa) 3 b) 0 c) 2 d) 1
44. An electron beam accelerated through 18.6kV has a de Broglie wave length of m12
109−× . What
accelerating potential would be needed for a de Broglie wave length twice as mucha) 9.3 kV b) 4.65 kV c) 39.2 kV d) 13.95 kV
Directions: The questions consist of two statements each printed as Assertion and Reason. Whileanswering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses toencircle (A, B, C, D) as per instructions given belowThe questions below (45 to 59) consist of an "Assertion" in column 1 and the 'Reason' in column 2.Use the following key to choose the appropriate answer.a)If both assertion and reason are CORRECT, and reason is the CORRECT explanationof the assertion.b)If both assertion and reason are CORRECT, but reason is NOT the CORRECT explanation of theassertion.c) If assertion is CORRECT, but reason is INCORRECT.
d) If both assertion and reason are false.
45. Assertion : Cathode rays are deflected towards positive plate in an electric field.Reason : These consist of negatively charged particles.a) A b) B c) C d) D
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Quest
46. Assertion: Penetration power of proton is greater that of an α -particle.Reason: The e/m of proton is double of that of α -particle.a) A b) B c) C d) D
47. Assertion: Bohr theory is not applicable to ionized hydrogen atom.
Reason: +H is devoid of electron.
a) A b) B c) C d) D
48. Assertion: An atom is electrically neutral.Reason: Atom contains equal number of protons and neutrons.a) A b) B c) C d) D
49. Assertion: A beam of electrons deflects more than a beam of α -particles in an electric field.Reason: Electrons carry -ve charge while α -particles are positively charged.a) A b) B c) C d) D
50. Assertion: Atomic weights of elements are non-integral.Reason: Elements contain isotopes of different masses.a) A b) B c) C d) D
512. Assertion: The de Broglie wavelength of electron increases as the accelerating potential differencedecreases.Reason: The magnitude of charge on electron decreases with decreasing accelerating potential differ-ence.a) A b) B c) C d) D
52 Assertion: The orbital angular momentum of an electron in any ‘s’ atomic orbital is zero.
Reason: For any s-electron, 0=l .a) A b) B c) C d) D
53. Assertion: Macroscopic bodies in motion do not have matter wavelength.Reason: The momentum of the moving macroscopic body is large.a) A b) B c) C d) D
54. Assertion: Line spectrum of +2Li and +
He are identical.Reason: Isoelectronic species produce identical spectrum.a) A b) B c) C d) D
55. Assertion: Energy of 3d -subshell is lower than 4p-subshell.
Reason: Value of ( )ln + is 5 for both of these subshells.
a) A b) B c) C d) D
56. Assertion: There are three nodal points in the 4s-subshell.Reason: At nodal point, the electron density is maximum.a) A b) B c) C d) D
57. Assertion: Among 12C , 13
C and 14C , only 14
C is radioactive.
Reason: The N/P ratio in 14C is higher..
a) A b) B c) C d) D
58. Assertion: The energy of an electron is largely determined by its principal quantum number.Reason: The principal quantum number is a measure of the energy of the electrons around the nucleus.a) A b) B c) C d) D
59. Assertion: The 19th electron of potassium atom is present into the 4s-orbitals and not in the 3d-orbital.
Reason: ( )ln + rule is followed for determining the orbitals of the lowest energy state.
a) A b) B c) C d) D
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Answers
1. d 2. a 3. d. 4. d 5. d 6. d7. c 8. b 9. b 10. c 11. c 12. a13. a 14. c 15. b 16. d 17. a 18. b19. a 20. a 21. d 22. b 23. c 24. c25. d 26. d 27. b 28. b 29. a 30. c31. a 32. c 33. c 34. a 35. a 36. c37. a 38. d 39. b 40. b 41. c 42. b43. a 44. b 45. a 46. b 47. a 48. c49. b 50. a 51. c 52. a 53. a 54. a55. b 56. c 57. a 58. a 59. a
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PERIODIC PROPERTIES
1. The ‘Law of triads’ was enunciated bya) Mendeleeff b) Newlands c) Victor Meyer d) Dobereiner
2. Diagonal relationship is not shown bya) Li and Mg b) C and P c) B and Si d) Be and Al
3. The transition elements have a characteristic electronic configuration which can be represented as
a) 26210162)1()2( nspsndpsn −−
− b) 1216210162)1()2( nsdpsndpsn
or−−
−
c) 101621062)1(
−− ndnpnsdpsn d) 2110162
)1(or
nsdpsn−
−
4. Which one of the following ions is paramagnetic ?
a) +Ag b)
+2Fe c) +
K d) +2Mg
5. The statement that is not true for the long form of the periodic table isa) It reflects the sequence of filling the electrons in the order of the subenergy shells s,p,d and fb) It helps to predict the stable valency states of the elementsc) It reflects trends in physical and chemical properties of the elementsd) it helps to predict the relative ionicity of the bond between any two elements
6. The element with the highest ionisation potential isa) oxygen b) nitrogen c) carbon d) boron
7. The first ionisation potential of AlMgNa ,, and Si are in the order of
a) SiAlMgNa <>< b) SiAlMgNa >>>
c) SiAlMgNa ><< d) SiAlMgNa <>>
8. Atomic radii of fluorine and neon in angstroms units are respectivelya) 1.60 and 1.60 b) 0.72 and 1.60 c) 0.72 and 0.72 d) none of these
9. The electronegativity of the following elements increases in the order of
a) PSiNC ,,, b) PCSiN ,,, c) NCPSi ,,, d) CNSiP ,,,
10. The order in which the following oxides are arranged according to decreasing basic nature is
a) 322 ,,, OAlMgOONaCuO b) ONaCuOMgOOAl 232 ,,,
c) ONaCuOOAlMgO 232 ,,, d) CuOOAlMgOONa ,,, 322
11. The difference between ions and atoms is ofa) relative size b) configurationc) presence of charge d) all of the above
12.+
Na is smaller than Na atom because
a) nucleus in each case contains different nucleonsb) sodium atom has an electron lesser than sodium ionc) sodium atom has 11 electrons and sodium ion has 10 electrons
d) the force of attractions is less in +
Na than in Na atom
13. The highest valency of halogens with respect to oxygen isa) 1 b) -1 c) 2 d) 7
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Quest
14. The first ionisation potentials in electron volts of nitrogen and oxygen atoms are respectively given bya) 14.6, 13.6 b) 13.6, 14.6 c) 13.6, 13.6 d) 14.6, 14.6
15. The electronic configuration of element A is 26223,22,1 spss while of the element B is 522
22,1 pss .
The formula of the compound containing A and B will be
a) Ab b) BA2 c) 2AB d) 62BA
16. Which one of the following has the highest melting point ?
a) Na b) Mg c) K d) Al
17. Which one of the following is most acidic ?
a) 32OAl b) ONa2 c) MgO d) CaO
18. Which of the following is an amphoteric oxide ?
a) MgO b) 32OAl c) 2SiO d) 52OP
19. Which of the following is the correct statement ?
a) 2SO is anhydride of sulphuric acid b) 2NO is anhydride of nitric acid
c) 72OCl is anhydride of perchloric acid d) 52OP is anhydride of orthophosphorus acid
20. Which is most acidic oxide ?
a) OCl2 b) 32OCl c) 52OCl d) 72OCl
21. Which of the following halides is not oxidized by 2MnO ?
a) −F b)
−Cl c)
−Br d)
−I
22. Which of the following order is correct for the relative strength of the acids ?
a) HClSOHHNOHClO >>> 4234 b) 4234 SOHNHOHClHClO >>>
c) 3424 HNOHClSOHHClO >>> d) HClSOHHNOHClO >>> 4234
23. Ionisation energy of nitrogen is more than oxygen becausea) Oxygen nucleus has more attraction for electronsb) half filled ‘p’ orbitals are more stable c) nitrogen atom is smalld) more penetration effect
24. The outermost electronic configuration of the most electronegative element is
a) 32npns b) 42
npns c) 52npns d) 62
npns
25. Amongst the following elements (whose electronic configurations are given below) the one havinghighest ionisation energy is
a) 1233][ psNe b) 32
33][ psNe c) 2233][ psNe d) 3210
44,3 psd
26. The statement that is not correct for the periodic classification of elements isa) the properties of elements are periodic functions of their atomic numbersb) non-metallic elements are lesser in number than metallic elementsc) the first ionisation energies of the elements along the period do not vary in a regular manner withthe increases in atomic numberd) for transition elements the d-subshells are filled with electrons monotonically with increase in atomicnumber
27. Which one of the following is smallest in size ?
a) +Na b)
−2O c)
−3N d) −
F
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Quest
28. Which of the following is the smallest cation ?
a) +Na b) +2
Mg c) +2Ca d)
+3Al
29. Which of the following ions has the lowest magnetic moment ?
a) +Cu b)
+2Ni c)
+3Co d) +2
Fe
30. In the isoelectronic species, the ionic radii (A) of −− 23,ON and −
F are respectively given by
a) 1.36, 1.40, 1.71 b) 1.36, 1.71, 1.40 c) 1.71, 1.40, 1.36 d) 1.71, 1.36, 1.40
31. Which of the following transitions involves maximum energy ?
a) )()( gMgM →− b) )()(
32gMgM
++→
c) )()(2
gMgM++
→ d) )()( gMgM+
→
32. The process requiring the absorption of energy is
a) −→ FF b) −
→ ClCl c) −→
2OO d) −
→ HH
33. Of cobalt and zinc salts, which are attracted in magnetic field ?a) Cobalt salts b) Zinc salts c) Both d) None
34. Which one of these is basic ?
a) 2CO b) 2SnO c) 2NO d) 2SO
35. The incorrect statement among the following isa) the first ionisation potential of Al is less than the first ionisation potential of Mgb) the second ionisation potential of Mg is greater than the second ionisation potential of Nac) the first ionisation potential of Na is less then the first ionisation potential of Mgd) the third ionisation potential of Mg is greater than the third ionisation potential of Al
36. The correct order of decreasing ionic size is
a) −+−+>>> FNaOMg
22 b) ++−−>>>
22MgNaOF
c) ++−−>>>
22MgNaFO d) ++−−
>>> NaMgFO22
37. The correct order of decreasing acidity property is
a) MgOOPONaZnO >>> 5222 b) 2252 ONaOPZnOMgO >>>
c) 2252 ONaMgOZnOOP >>> d) MgOZnOONaOP >>> 2252
38. The correct order of decreasing first ionisation potential is
a) NaSiAlMg >>> b) SiAlMgNa >>>
c) NaAlMgSi >>> d) MgAlSiNa >>>
39. The correct order of decreasing bond length is
a) 2222 NOFCl >>> b) 2222 ClFON >>>
c) 2222 NOClF >>> d) 2222 ClONF >>>
40. The correct order of decreasing size is
a)+−−
>>>22
CaArClS b)+−−
>>>22
CaClSAr
c) ArCaSCl >>>+−− 22 d) ArSClCa >>>
−−+2 2
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Quest
41. The correct order of decreasing acid strength is
a) 432 HClOHClOHClOHClO >>> b) HClOHClOHClOHClO >>> 243
c) HClOHClOHClOHClO >>> 324 d) HClOHClOHClOHClO >>> 234
42. The correct order of decreasing bond strength is
a) HIHBrHClHF >>> b) HFHBrHClHI >>>
c) HFHBrHIHCl >>> d) HBrHIHClHF >>>
43. The correct order increasing thermal stability is
a) 32 HOClOHOClOHOClOHOCl <<< b) HOClHOClOHOClOHOClO <<< 23
c) 23 HOClOHOClOHOClOHOCl <<< d) HOClHOClOHOClOHOClO <<< 23
44. The correct order of decreasing bond enthalpy is
a) 2222 ClFON >>> b) 2222 FClON >>>
c) 2222 ONClF >>> d) 2222 ONFCl >>>
45. The correct order of decreasing acidic character is
a) 32522 SOSiOONCO >>> b) 22523 SiOCOONSO >>>
c) 22523 COSiOONSo >>> d) 22352 SiOCOSOON >>>
46. The correct order of decreasing basic character is
a) OCSOKSrOMgO 22 >>> b) MgODCSSrOOK >>> 22
c) MgOSrOOKOCS >>> 22 d) MgOOKOCSSrO >>> 22
47. The correct order of increasing extent of hydrolysis is
a) 5432 PClSiClAlClMgCl <<< b) 2345 MgClAlClSiClPCl <<<
c) 4325 SiClAlClMgClPCl <<< d) 3245 AlClMgClSiClPCl <<<
48. The correct order of increasing Ionic character is
a) 2222 BaClCaClMgClSrCl <<< b) 2222 SrClBaClCaClMgCl <<<
c) 2222 SrClCaClMgClBaCl <<< d) 2222 MgClSrClCaClBaCl <<<
49. The correct order of increasing solubility in water is
a) 2222 BaFCaFMgFBeF <<< b) 2222 BeFMgFCaFBaF <<<
c) 2222 BeFBaFCaFMgF <<< d) 2222 CaFBaFMgFBeF <<<
Answers
1. d 2. b 3. d 4. b 5. b 6. b7. a 8. b 9. c 10. d 11. d 12. c13. d 14. a 15. c 16. d 17. a 18. b19. c 20. d 21. a 22. c 23. b 24. c25. b 26. d 27. a 28. d 29. a 30. c31. b 32. c 33. a 34. b 35. b 36. c37. c 38. c 39. a 40. b 41. d 42. a43. a 44. b 45. b 46. c 47. a 48. b49. a
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CHEMICAL BONDING
1. The types of bonds present in OHCuSO 24 5. are only
a) Electrovalent and covalentb) Electrovalent, and co-ordinate covalentc) Electrovalent, covalent and co-ordinate covalent d) Covalent and co-ordinate covalent
2. On hybridization of one s-and one p-orbitals we geta) Two mutually perpendicular orbitals b) Two orbitals at 180°c) Four orbitals directed tetrahedrally d) Three orbitals in plane
3. The pair of molecules forming strongest intermolecular hydrogen bonds are
a) 4SiH and 4SiF b) 333 CHClandCOCHCH
c) OHCH
O
−−||
and OHCCH
O
−−||
3 d) OH2 and 22OH
4. Hydrogen bonding is minimum ina) Ethanol b) Diethyl ether c) Ethyl chloride d) Triethyl amine
5. The molecule which has pyramidal shape is
a) 3PCl b) 3SO c) 3CO d) −3NH
6. Which of the following species has the highest bond order
a) 2O b) +2O c) −
2O d) −22O
7. The bonds present in 22ON are
a) Only ionic b) Covalent and co-ordinatec) Only covalent d) Covalent and ionic
8. At ordinary temperature and pressure, among halogens, chlorine is a gas, bromine is a liquid andiodine is a solid. This is because
a) The specific heat is in the order 222 IBrCl >>
b) Intermolecular forces among molecules of chlorine are the weakest and those in iodine are thestrongest
c) The order of density is 222 ClBrI >>
d) The order of stability is 222 ClBrI >>
9. Bond angle between two hybrid orbitals is 105°, % s-orbital character of hybrid orbital isa) Between 20-21% b) Between 19-20% c) Between 21-22% d) Between 22-23%
10. The bond that exists between 3NH and 3BF is called
a) Electrovalent b) Covalent c) Co-ordinate d) Hydrogen
11. Phosphate of metal M has the formula ( )243 POM . The formula for its sulphate would be
a) 4MSO b) ( )24SOM c) ( )
342 SOM d) ( )243 SOM
12. In 4XeF , hybridization of ‘Xe’ atom is
a) dsp3 b) 23
dsp c) 2sp d) 2
dsp
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13. Polarization is the distortion of the shape of an anion by an adjacently placed cation. Which of thefollowing statements is correcta) Maximum polarization is brought about by a cation of high chargeb) Minimum polarization is brought about by a cation of low radiusc) A large cation is likely to bring about a large degree of polarizationd) A small anion is likely to undergo a large degree of polarization
14. When two ice cubes are pressed over each other, they unite to form one cube. Which of the followingforces is responsible for holding them togethera) Vander Waal’s forces b) Covalent attractionc) Hydrogen bond formation d) Dipole-dipole interaction
15. Which of the following statements is wronga) Hybridization is the mixing of atomic orbitals prior to their combining into molecular orbitals
b)2
sp hybrid orbitals are formed from two p atomic orbitals and one s atomic orbital
c)2
dsp hybrid orbitals are all at 90° to one another
d)22
spd hybrid orbitals are directed towards the corners of a regular tetrahedron
16. Which bond angle, θ would result in the maximum dipole moment of the triatomic molecule XY2
shown below
θ
Y
YX
a) °= 90θ b) °=120θ c) °=150θ d) °=180θ
17. The enhanced force of cohesion in metals is due toa) The covalent linkages between atomsb) The electrovalent linkages between atomsc) The lack of exchange of valency electronsd) The exchange energy of mobile electrons
18. It is thought that atoms combine with each other such that the outermost orbit acquires a stableconfiguration of 8 electrons. If stability were attained with 6 electrons rather than with 8, what would bethe formula of the stable fluoride ion?
a)+3
F b) +F c) −
F d) −2F
19. The hybridization of carbon atoms in C-C single bond of 2CHCHCCH =−≡− is
a)33
spsp − b)32
spsp − c)2
spsp − d) spsp −3
20. The correct order of increasing polarisable ion is
a) −−−−FIBrCl ,,, b) −−−−
ClBrIF ,,,
c) −−−−IBrClF ,,, d) −−−−
FClBrI ,,,
21. The type of hybrid orbitals used by chlorine atom in −2CIO is
a) 3sp b) 2
sp c) sp d) None of these
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22. Which of the following have identical bond order
I.
+
3CH II. +
OH3 III. 3NH IV. −3CH
a) I and II b) III and IV c) I and III d) II, III and IV
23. The pair having similar geometry is
a) −33BO and −3
4PO b) −−3SO and −−
3CO
c) −3NO and −−
4SO d) −34PO and −
4ClO
24. A σ bonded molecule AB3 has T-shaped geometry. The number of lone pairs of electrons on the
central atom A isa) 2 b) 1 c) Zero d) 3
25. Among +NO , −−
2O , 2B and +2F , diamagnetic species are
a) −−2O and 2B b) +
2F and −−2O c) +
NO and −−2O d) 2B and +
2F
26. Among the following molecules, the one which is polar and has the central atom with 2
sp hybrid state
is
a) 32COH b) 4SiF c) 3BF d) 2HClO
27. Which contains both polar and non-polar bonds
a) ClNH4 b) HCN c) 22OH d) 4CH
28. Among the species 33333 ,,,, HNOHBFNONF +−, identify the iso structural pairs
a) ],[ 33−
NONF and ],[ 33+
OHBF b) [ ]33, HNNF and ],[ 33 BFNO−
c) ],[ 33+
OHNF and ],[ 33 BFNO− d) ],[ 33
+OHNF and [ ]33, BFHN
Directions: The questions consist of two statements each printed as Assertion and Reason. Whileanswering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses toencircle (A, B, C, D) as per instructions given belowThe questions below (29 to 40) consist of an "Assertion" in column 1 and the 'Reason' in column 2.Use the following key to choose the appropriate answer.a) If both assertion and reason are CORRECT, and reason is the CORRECT explanationof the assertion.b) If both assertion and reason are CORRECT, but reason is NOT the CORRECT explanation of theassertion.c) If assertion is CORRECT, but reason is INCORRECT.
d) If both assertion and reason are false.
29. Assertion: Although ,5PF 5PCl and 5PBr are known, the pentahalides of nitrogen have not been
observed.Reason: Phosphorus has lower electronegativity than nitrogen .a) A b) B c) C d) D
30. Assertion: yP and zP cannot combine to give molecular orbital.
Reason: Both yP and zP are dumb-bell shaped.
a) A b) B c) C d) D
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31. Assertion: In H-atom, the energy of 3d-level is lower than 4s level.
Reason: An orbital with lower value of ( )ln + has energy lower than the orbital having higher value of
( )ln + .
a) A b) B c) C d) D
32. Assertion: s-orbital cannot accommodate more than two electrons.Reason: s-orbitals are extremely poor shielders.a) A b) B c) C d) D
33. Assertion: +CO is more stable than CO while
+NO is less stable than NO.
Reason: Both CO and NO are colourless gases.a) A b) B c) C d) D
34. Assertion: When a magnet is dipped in liquid oxygen, some of it sticks to the magnet.Reason: Oxygen is paramagnetic in nature.a) A b) B c) C d) D
35. Assertion: +2N has shorter bond length than 2N .
Reason: +2N has one unpaired electron.
a) A b) B c) C d) D
36. Assertion: −−2O and 2F have identical bond order..
Reason: These are iso-electronic species.a) A b) B c) C d) D
37. Assertion: −33BO and −2
3CO possess plane triangular shape.
Reason: The central atoms in these species are in 2
sp state of hybridization.
a) A b) B c) C d) D
38. Assertion: Out of +Cu and
+2Ni ions, +
Cu is attracted by a magnetic field.
Reason: +
Cu ion does not have any unpaired electron.
a) A b) B c) C d) D
39. Assertion: +2
Zn ion is diamagnetic.
Reason: The electrons are lost from s4 orbital to form +2
Zn .
a) A b) B c) C d) D
40. Assertion: The electronic structure of 3O is
O
OO
⊕
Θ
Reason:
O
OO structure is not allowed because octet around ‘O’cannot be expanded.
a) A b) B c) C d) D
Answers
1. c 2. b 3. c 4. a 5. a 6. b7. b 8. b 9. d 10. c 11. a 12. b13. a 14. c 15. d 16. a 17. d 18. b19. c 20. c 21. a 22. d 23. d 24. a25. c 26. a 27. c 28. c 29. b 30. b31. b 32. c 33. d 34. a 35. d 36. a37. a 38. d 39. b 40. a
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Quest
GASEOUS STATE
1. vander Waal’s equation explains the behaviour ofa) Gaseous substances b) Ideal gas c) Real gas d) None
2. Equal weights of methane and hydrogen are mixed in an empty container at 25°C. The fraction of the
total pressure exerted by 2H is
a) 2/1 b) 9/8 c) 9/1 d) 17/16
3. When an ideal gas undergoes unrestrained expansion, no cooling occurs because the moleculesa) Are above the inversion temperature b) Exert no attractive force on each otherc) Do work equal to loss in kinetic energy d) Collide with less of energy
4. In Vander Waal’s equation of state for non-ideal gas, the term that accounts for inter-molecular forcesis
a) ( )bV − b)
+
2V
aP c) RT d) ( ) 1−
RT
5. The values of vander Waal’s constant ‘a’ for the gases 2O , 2N , 3NH and 4CH are 1.360, 1.390,
4.170 and 2.2532L atm mol-2 respectively. The gas which can most easily be liquefied is
a) 2O b) 2N c) 3NH d) 4CH
6. Helium atom is two times heavier than a hydrogen molecule at 298°K. The average kinetic energy ofhelium isa) Two times that the of hydrogen molecule b) Same as that of a hydrogen moleculec) Four times that of a hydrogen molecule d) Half that of a hydrogen molecule
7. The average velocity of an ideal gas molecule at 27°C is 0.3ms-1. The average velocity at 927° C willbea) 0.6 ms-1 b) 0.3 ms-1 c) 0.9 ms-1 d) 3.0 ms-1
8. The rate of diffusion of methane at a given temperature is twice that of a gas X. The molecular massof X isa) 64.0 b) 32.0 c) 4.0 d) 8.0
9. According to kinetic theory of gases, for a diatomic molecule,a) The pressure exerted by the gas is proportional to the mean velocity of the moleculeb) The pressure exerted by the gas is proportional to the root mean square velocity ofthe moleculec) The root mean square velocity of the molecule is inversely proportional to the temperatured) The mean translational kinetic energy of the molecule is proportional to the absolutetemperature
10. At constant volume for a fixed number of mole of a gas, the pressure of the gas increases with rise oftemperature due toa) Increase in average molecular speedb) Increase rate of collisions amongst moleculesc) Increase in molecular attractiond) Decrease in mean free path
11. A container contains certain gas of mass ‘m’ at high pressure. Some of the gas has been allowed toescape from the container and after some time, the pressure of the gas becomes half and its absolute
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Quest
temperature becomes rd3
2. The amount of gas escaped is
a) m3
2b) m
3
1c) m
4
1d) m
6
1
12. Which set of conditions represents the easiest way to liquefy a gasa) Low temperature and high pressure b) Low temperature and low pressurec) High temperature and low pressure d) High temperature and high pressure
13. A gas approaches an ideal behaviour whena) Compressed to a smaller volume at constant temperatureb) Temperature is raised keeping the volume constantc) More gas is introduced into the same temperatured) Volume is increased keeping the temperature constant
14. A balloon filled with methane ( )4CH is pricked with a sharp point and quickly plunged into a tank of
hydrogen at the same pressure. After sometime, the balloon will bea) Enlarged b) Collapsed
c) Remained unchanged in size d) Methane ( )4CH inside it
15. A closed vessel contains equal number of nitrogen and oxygen molecules at a pressure P mm. Ifnitrogen is removed from the system, then the pressure will be
a) P b) 2P c) P/2 d) 2P
16. The rates of diffusion of 2SO , 2CO , 3PCl and 3SO are in the following order
a) 2323 COSOSOPCl >>> b) 3322 SOPClSOCO >>>
c) 2332 COPClSOSO >>> d) 3322 PClSOSOCO >>>
17. The molecular weights of hydrogen and helium are 2 and 4 respectively. If 1 litre of hydrogen at 250°Cand 750 mm pressure contains N molecules, litres of helium under similar conditions of temp. andpressure will bea) 4 N b) N c) 2 N d) N/2
18. At what temperature, will the average speed of 4CH molecules have the same value as 2D at 300 K
a) 1200K b) 900K c) 600K d) 300K
19. A 50 litre closed vessel contains equal number of 2O and 2H molecules at a total pressure of 760
mm of Hg. When 2O is removed from the system,
a) The pressure increases to 1520 mm of Hg b) The pressure drops to 380 mmc) The pressure does not change d) The volume is decreased
20. Molecular attraction and size of the molecules in a gas can be neglected ata) High temperature and low pressure b) High pressure and low temperaturec) Ciritcal point d) High pressure
21. Two separate bulbs contain ideal gases A and B. The density of gas A is twice that of gas B. Themolecular weight of A is half that of gas B. The two gases are at the same temperature. The ratio of thepressure of A to that of gas B isa) 2 b) 1/2 c) 4 d) 1/4
22. The density of Argon will be lowest ata) STP b) 0°C, 2 atm c) 273°C, 1 atm d) 273°C, 2 atm
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23. The ratio between the root mean square speed of 2H at 50K and that of 2O at 800K is
a) 4 b) 2 c) 1 d) 1/4
24. One mole of 42ON (g) at 300K is kept in a closed container under one atmosphere pressure. It is
heated to 600K with 20% by mass of 42ON (g). The resultant pressure is
a) 1.2 atm b) 2.4 atm c) 2.0 atm d) 1.0 atm
25. Which one of the following statements is true according to Maxwell’s distribution of velocities in aclosed systema) Velocities of all gaseous molecules are the same at constant temperatureb) Fraction of molecules with higher velocities increases with rise in temperaturec) Fraction of molecules with higher velocities decreases with increase in temperatured) There will be no change in the distribution of velocities on changing the temperature.
26. Consider the following statementsi) Molecules of different gases have the same kinetic energy at a given temperatureii) The total kinetic energy for two moles of an ideal gas is equal to 3 RTiii) The ratio of specific heat at constant pressure and the specific heat at constant volumefor noble gases is 1.33
iv) The gas with a larger value of ratio of critical temperature to critical pressure ( )cc PT /
will have larger value of excluded volume (d). Of these statementsa) i, ii, and iii are correct b) ii, iii and iv are correctc) i, iii and iv are correct d) i, ii and iv are correct
27. Inversion temperature of a gas is the temperaturea) Above which no amount of pressure can liquefy a gasb) Below which a gas has to be cooled before it can show Joule-Thomson coolingc) At which on the application of pressure, a gas is completely converted into a liquid without havingto be in equilibriumd) At which the distinction between a liquid and a gas disappears.
28. A 0.5 litre flask contains gas ‘A’ and a one litre flask contains gas ‘B’ at the same temperature. Thedensity of gas ‘A’ is 3.0 gm/litre and that of a gas ‘B’ is 1.5 gm/litre. The molar mass of gass ‘A’ is one
half of that of molar mass of gas ‘B’. The ratio of pressures BA PP / exerted by the two gases is
a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1
29. The behaviour of a real gas is usually depicted by potting a graph between compressibility factor
( )idealrealm VVRTPVZ // == and pressure P at a constant temperature. At low temperature and
low pressure, Z is usually less than one. This fact can be explained by vander Waal’s equation whena) Constants ‘a’ and ‘b’ are negligible b) Constants ‘a’ is negligible and not ‘b’c) Constants ‘b’ is negligible and not ‘a’d) Constants ‘a’ and ‘b’ both are not negligible
30. Which of the following curves does not represent Boyle’s Law
a) P
V
b) Log P
Vlog
c)
V/1
P
d)
P
V
31. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas is mixed with one mole of an ideal diatomic gas. The molarspecific heat of the mixture at constant volume isa) 3 cal b) 4 cal c) 8 cal d) 5 cal
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32. The compressibility factor for an ideal gas isa) 1.5 b) 1.0 c) 2.0 d) ∞
33. ‘X’ ml of 2H gas effuses through a hole in a container in 5 seconds. The time taken for the effusion of
the same volume of the gas specified below under identical conditions is
a) 10 seconds; He b) 20 seconds; 2O c) 25 seconds; CO d) 55 seconds; 2CO
34. According to Graham’s Law, at a given temperature, the ratio of diffusion rA/r
B of gases A and B is
given by
a) ( ) ( )2
1// BABA MMPP b) ( ) ( )
2
1// BABA PPMM
c) ( ) ( )2
1// ABBA MMPP d) ( ) ( )
2
1// ABBA PPMM
35. Partial pressure of hydrogen in a flask containing 2gm hydrogen, 16gm oxygen and 14gm nitrogen is
a) Equal to total pressure b) th8
1 of the total pressure
c) Half of the total pressure d) th8
1 of the total pressure
36. The rms velocity of hydrogen is 7 times of rms velocity of nitrogen. If T is the temperature of the gas
a) ( ) ( )22 NTHT = b) ( ) ( )22 NTHT >
c) ( ) ( )22 NTHT < d) ( ) ( )22 7 NTHT =
37. The compressibility of a gas is less than unity at STP. Therefore
a) 4.22>mV litres b) 4.22<mV litres c) 4.22=mV litres d) 4.22≡mV litres
In following questions from 38 to 50, there are two statements given labelled as Assertion ‘A’ andReason R. Examine both the statements and mark the correct choice according to instructions givenbelowA) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.B) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not a correct explanation of Assertion
C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.D) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
38. Assertion (A): A mixture of ideal gases on liquefaction gives an ideal solution.Reason (R): An ideal gas can not at all be liquefied.a) A b) B c) C d) D
39. Assertion (A): At high pressure and low temperature, real gases deviate from ideal behaviour.Reason (R): Attractive forces among gas molecules increase under these condition.a) A b) B c) C d) D
40. Assertion (A): Pressure exerted by gas in a container increases with increasing temperature of thegas.Reason (R): With rise in temperature, the average speed of gas molecules increases.a) A b) B c) C d) D
41. Assertion (A): At inversion temperature of a gas Joule-Thomson effect is zero.Reason (R): At inversion temperature, a real gas obeys Boyle’s Law at a wide range of pressurea) A b) B c) C d) D
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42. Assertion (A): At Boyle temperature, a real gas obeys Boyle’s Law at a wide range of pressure.Reason (R): Boyle’s temperature of a gas is half of its inversion temperature.a) A b) B c) C d) D
43. Assertion (A): At 30°C, the kinetic energy of molecules of He(g) and UF6(g) is equal.
Reason (R): Kinetic energy of molecules of gases is independent of molar mass of the gas.a) A b) B c) C d) D
44. Assertion (A): At critical temperature, the meniscus of a liquid disappears.Reason (R): Above critical temperature, a substance can exist as a gas only.a) A b) B c) C d) D
45. Assertion (A): Under ordinary conditions, helium shows negative Joule-Thomson effect.Reason (R): Inversion temperature of helium is very low.a) A b) B c) C d) D
46. Assertion (A): The heat capacity of a polyatomic gas is higher than mono atomic gas.
Reason (R): The value of poisson ratio ( )vp CC / for gases decreases with increase in their atomic-
ity.a) A b) B c) C d) D
47. Assertion (A): Real gases obey Vander Waal’s equation of state.Reason (R): There are no forces of attraction acting between real gas molecules.a) A b) B c) C d) D
48. Assertion (A): The pressure exerted by a gas on the walls of the container increases on decreasingthe volume of the gas.Reason (R): It is due to increase in molecular speed of gas molecules.a) A b) B c) C d) D
49. Assertion (A): Compressibility factor for real gases may be higher or lower than one.Reason (R): It depends upon the temperature and pressure conditions of the real gases.a) A b) B c) C d) D
50. Assertion (A): Kinetic energy of gas molecules is zero at zero kelvin.Reason (R): At absolute zero, all types of molecular motion cease.a) A b) B c) C d) D
Answers
1. c 2. b 3. b 4. b 5. c 6. b7. a 8. a 9. d 10. a 11. c 12. a13. d 14. a 15. c 16. d 17. c 18. a19. b 20. a 21. c 22. c 23. c 24. b25. b 26. d 27. b 28. a 29. c 30. d31. b 32. b 33. b 34. c 35. c 36. c37. b 38. d 39. a 40. a 41. c 42. b43. a 44. b 45. b 46. b 47. c 48. c49. a 50. a
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Quest
STOICHIOMETRY
1. The haemoglobin from red corpuscles of most mammals contain approximately 0.33 % of iron bymass. The molecular mass of haemoglobin is 67200. The number of iron atoms in each molecule ofhaemoglobin isa) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
2. 10 mL of a solution of 22OH liberated 0.5 g of 2I from KI solution. The percentage of 22OH in the
solution isa) 0.27 b) 0.67 c) 0.47 d) 0.87
3. The quantity of ammonium sulphate necessary for the production of ammonia gas sufficient to neutralisea solution containing 292 g of HCl isa) 272 g b) 408 g c) 528 g d) 1056 g
4. The volume of oxygen required for complete oxidation of 2.0 litre of methane at N.T.P isa) 4 litre b) 12.25 litre c) 1 litre d) 3 litre
5. 100 mL of 3PH when decomposed produces phosphorus and hydrogen. The change in volume is
a) 100 mL decrease b) 100 mL increase c) 50 mL increase d) 50 mL decrease
6. 7.46 g of KCl is heated in excess of 42SOH and 2MnO . The gas evolved is passed through KI
solution. The amount of iodine set free will bea) 12.7 g b) 3.2 g c) 6.4 g d) 18.9 g
7. If 0.5 mole of 2BaCl is mixed with 0.20 mole of 43PONa . The maximum number of moles 243 )(POBa
that can be formed isa) 0.10 b) 0.20 c) 0.50 d) 0.70
8. 12 g of magnesium (At. mass = 24) will react with an acid to give
a) one mole of 2H b) one mole of 2O c) half mole of 2H d) half mole of 2O
9. A metal oxide is reduced by heating it in a stream of hydrogen. It is found that after complete reduction,3.15 g of the oxide have yielded 1.05 g of the metal. We may deduce thata) the atomic mass of the metal is 8 b) the atomic mass of the metal is 4c) the equivalent mass of the metal is 8 d) the equivalent mass of the metal is 4
10. At NTP, 10 litre of hydrogen sulphide gas reacted with 10 litre of sulphur dioxide gas. The volume ofgas, after the reaction is complete, would bea) 5 litre b) 10 litre c)15 litre d) 20 litre
11. 2.0 g mixture of sodium carbonate and sodium bicarbonate on heating to constant weight gave 224
mL of 2CO at NTP. The % weight of sodium bicarbonate in the mixture is
a) 50 b) 54 c) 80 d) 84
12. Assuming that petrol is octane )( 188HC and has a density of 0.8 g 1−
mL , 1.425 litre of petrol on
combustion will consumea) 100 moles of oxygen b) 124 moles of oxygenc) 150 moles of oxygen d) 175 moles of oxygen
13. Volume of oxygen needed for complete combustion of 20 mL of hydrocarbon yxHC will be
a) mLyx )4/( + b) mLyx )4/(20 + c) mLyx )4/(20/1 + d) none
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14. Hydrogen evolved at N.T.P on complete reaction of 27 g of aluminium with excess of aqueous
NaOH would be
a) 22.4 litre b) 44.8 litre c) 67.2 litre d) 33.6 litre
15. The volume of 2Cl obtained when 4.35 g 2MnO react completely with concentrated HCl (at. mass
Mn = 55)a) 4.48 litre b) 2.24 litre c) 1.12 litre d) 0.56 litre
16. Cyclohexanol is dehydrated to cyclohexane on heating with conc. 42SOH . If the yield of the reaction
is 75%, how much cyclohexane will be obtained from 100 g of cyclohexanol ?a) 16.5 g b) 75.0 g c) 20.0 g d) 14.0 g
17. When 1 g of zinc is treated separately with excess of 42SOH and excess of NaOH , the ratio of
volume of 2H evolved is
a) 1 : 1 b) 1 : 2 c) 2 : 1 d) 3 : 2
18. The minimum quantity of SH2 in grams needed to precipitate 63.5 g of copper ions will be nearly
a) 63.5 g b) 34.0 g c) 31.75 g d) 20.0 g
19. If 2 moles of OHHC 52 completely burn to 2CO and water, the mass of carbon dioxide formed is
abouta) 88 g b) 176 g c) 44 g d) 132 g
20. The amount of ammonium nitrate that should be decomposed for getting 22.4 litre nitrous oxide isa) 20 g b) 24 g c) 60 g d) 80 g
21. The volume of oxygen at N.T.P obtained by electrolysis of 18g of water will bea) 22.4 litre b) 5.6 litre c) 11.2 litre d) 44.8 litre
22. One mole of calcium phosphide on reaction with excess water givesa) 1 mole of phosphine b) 2 moles of phosphinec) 2 moles of phosphoric acid d) 1 mole of phosphorus pentoxide
23. Amount of oxalic acid required to prepare 250 mL of N/10 solution (mol. mass of oxalic acid = 126) isa) 1.5759 g b) 3.15 g c) 15.75 g d) 63.0 g
24. When 4KMnO is reduced with oxalic acid in acidic medium, the oxidation number of Mn changes
froma) 7 to 4 b) 6 to 4 c) 7 to 2 d) 4 to 2
25. For the half cell reaction OHBreHBrO 223 610122 +→+++− , the equivalent mass of sodium bro-
mate isa) equal to its mol. mass b) 1/3 of its mol. massc) 1/6 of its mol. mass d) 1/5 of its mol. mass
26. In the reaction −−−
+→+264
2322 22 OSIOSI , equivalent mass of iodine is
a) equal to its molecular mass b) 1/2 of the molecular massc) 1/4 of the molecular mass d) twice of the molecular mass
27. A molal solution is one that contains one mole of the solute ina) 1000 g of the solvent b) One litre of the solvent
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c) One litre of the solution d) 22.4 litre of the solvent
28. In alkaline conditions, 4KMnO reacts as follows ][222 2424 OOHMnOKKOHKMnO ++→+ .
Therefore, its equivalent mass will bea) 31.6 b) 52.7 c) 72.0 d) 158.0
29. 0.1 N solution of 32CONa is being titrated with 0.1 N HCl , the best indicator to be used is
a) potassium ferricyanide b) phenolphthaleinc) methyl orange d) litmus
30. A solution containing +2Fe ions is titrated with 4KMnO solution. Indicator used will be
a) Phenolphthalein b) methyl orange c) litmus d) none of the above
31. If 200 mL of N/10 HCl were added to 1g calcium carbonate, what would remain after the reaction ?
a) 3CaCO b) HCl
c) Neither of the two d) Part of both
32. 200mL of 3N HCl were mixed with 200mL of 6N 42SOH solution. The final normality of 42SOH in the
resultant solution will bea) 9 N b) 3 N c) 6 N d) 2 N
33. 100 mL of 0.3 N HCl were mixed with 200 mL of 0.6 N 42SOH solution. The final normality of acid was
a) 0.4 N b) 0.5 N c) 0.6 N d) 0.9 N
34. Weight of iodine required to oxidise 500 mL N 322 OSNa solution, is
a) 6.35 g b) 63.5 g c) 127 g d) 254 g
35. In an experiment, 20 mL of a decinormal HCl solution was added to 15 mL of a decinormal 3AgNO
solution. AgCl was precipitated out and excess of acid was titrated with N/20 NaOH solution. The
volume of NaOH required wasa) 10 mL b) 20 mL c) 30 mL d) 5 mL
36. When 10 mL of 10 M solution of 42SOH and 100 mL of 1M solution of NaOH are mixed, the
resulting solution will bea) acidic b) neutral c) alkaline d) cannot be predicted
37. The normality of a 26% mass/vol solution of ammonia (density 0.885 g/mL) is approximatelya) 1.5 b) 4.0 c) 0.4 d) 15.3
38. Which one of these solutions has the highest normality ?
a) 8 g KOH per 100mL b) 0.5 M 42SOH
c) 6 g of NaOH per 100 mL d) N 43POH
39. 1 g of a metal required 50 mL of 0.5 N HCl to dissolve it. The equivalent mass of the metal isa) 25 b) 50 c) 20 d) 40
40. What volume of 2CO at N.T.P will be liberated by the action of 100 mL of 0.2 N HCl on 3CaCO ?
a) 112 mL b) 224 mL c) 448 mL d) 120 mL
41. The normality of 10% (mass/volume) acetic acid isa) 1 N b) 10 N c) 1.7 N d) 0.83 N
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42. 0.16 g of dibasic acid required 25 mL of decinormal NaOH solution for complete neutralisation. Themolecular mass of the acid isa) 32 b) 64 c) 128 d) 256
43. 5 mL of N HCl, 20 mL of N/2 42SOH and 30 mL of N/3 3HNO are mixed together and volume made
to one litre. The normality of the resulting solution isa) N/5 b) N/10 c) N/20 d) N/40
44. The equivalent mass of 4MnSO is half of its molecular mass when it is converted to
a) 32OMn b) 2MnO c) −
4MnO d) −24MnO
45. For the redox reaction, OHCOMnHOCMnO 2222
424 ++→++++−− the correct coefficients of the
reactants for the balanced reaction are
−
4MnO−2
42OC +H
a) 2 5 16b) 16 5 2c) 5 16 2d) 2 16 5
46. What volume of N/2 and N/10 HCl should be taken in order to make a 2 litre solution of N/5 strength ?a) 0.5 litre N/2 HCl and 1.5 litre of N/10 HCl b) 1 litre N/2 HCl and 1 litre N/10 HCl c)1.5 litre N/2 HCl and 0.5 litre N/10 HCl d) 0.7 litre N/2 HCl and 1.3 litre N/10 HCl
47. The molar concentration of the chloride ion in the solution obtained by mixing 300 mL of 3.0 M NaCl
and 200 mL of 4.0 M solution of 2BaCl is
a) 1.6 M b) 1.8 M c) 5.0 M d) 0.5 M
48. The normality of 0.3 M phosphorus acid )( 33POH is
a) 0.1 b) 0.9 c) 0.3 d) 0.6
Answers
1. d 2. c 3. c 4. a 5. c 6. a7. a 8. c 9. d 10. a 11. d 12. a13. b 14. d 15. c 16. a 17. a 18. b19. b 20. d 21. c 22. b 23. a 24. c25. d 26. b 27. a 28. d 29. c 30. d31. c 32. b 33. b 34. b 35. a 36. a37. d 38. c 39. d 40. b 41. c 42. c43. d 44. b 45. a 46. a 47. c 48. d
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Quest
CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM
1. The rate of chemical reaction
(a) Increases as the reaction proceeds (b) Decreases as the reaction proceeds
(c) May increase or decrease during the reaction
(d) Remains constant as the reaction proceeds
2. For the equilibrium reaction 2NO2 ,kj61)g(ON 42 + increase of temperature would
(a) favour the formation of 42ON (b) favour the decomposition of 42ON
(c) no effect on equilibrium (d) stop the reaction
3. HI was heated in a sealed tube at 400°C till the equilibrium was reached. HI was found to be
22% decomposed. The equilibrium constant for the dissociation is
(a) 1.99 (b) 0.282 (c) 0.0199 (d) 0.0796
4. When 3NaNO is heated in a closed vessel, 2O is liberated and 2NaNO is left behind.At
equilibrium
(a) Addition of 3NaNO favours the forward reaction
(b) Addition of 3NaNO favours reverse reaction
(c) Increasing temperature favours forward reaction (d) all of the above
5. At equilibrium, which of the following reactions is not affected by pressure ?
(a) )g(O2
1)g(N
2
122 + NO(g) (b) )g(PCl5 )g(Cl)g(PCl 23 +
(c) )g(NO2 2 )g(ON 42 (d) )g(ClSO 22 )g(Cl)g(SO 22 +
6. The equilibrium constant of a reversible reaction at a given temperature
(a) depends on initial concentration of the reactants
(b) depends on the concentration of the products at equilibrium
(c) does not depend on the initial concentration
(d) it is not a characteristic of the reaction
7. An example of reversible reaction is
(a) )g(H)aq(NaOH2)l(OH2)s(Na2 22 +→+
(b) )aq(NaNO)s(AgCl)aq(NaCl)aq(AgNO 33 +→+
(c) )aq(NaNO)aq(KCl)aq(NaCl)aq(KNO 33 +→+
(d) )aq(NaNO2)s(PbI)aq(NaI2)aq()NO(Pb 3223 +→+
8. For a reversible reaction if the concentration of the reactants are doubled then equilibrium
constant will
(a) also be doubled (b) be halved (c) becomes one third (d) remains same
9. If the pressure in the reversible reaction 22 ON + 2NO + heat, is increased then equilib-
rium constant would
(a) increase (b) decrease (c) remains same (d) none
10. If the volumes of the reactants and products are same, the equilibrium state is not affected by
(a) temperature (b) pressure (c) concentration (d) none
25 Quest Tutorials
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Quest
11. In which of the following cases, does the reaction go farthest to completion ?
(a) 210K = (b) K = 1 (c) K = 10 (d) 210K −=
12. For the reaction 42ON 2NO, degree of dissociation is α . The number of moles at equilib-
rium will be
(a) 2)1( α− (b) )1( α+ (c) 3 (d) 1
13. In case of reaction 5PCl ,ClPCl 23 + the degree of dissociation x is related to the initial
pressure of )p(PCl5 as,
(a)p
1xα (b)
p
1xα (c) 2p/1xα (d) 2pxα
14. Pure 3NH is placed in a vessel at temperature where its dissociation constant is appreciable.
At equilibrium
(a) Kp does not change significantly with pressure
(b) Concentration of 2H is less than that of 2N
(c) Concentration of 3NH does not change with pressure
(d) Kp is dependent of pressure
15. The Kc for the reaction 2HI(g) )g(I)g(H 22 + at room temperature is 2.85 and that at
698K is .104.1 2−× This indicates that
(a) HI is an exothermic compound (b) HI is resonance stabilised
(c) HI is very stable at room temperature
(d) HI is relatively less stable than 2H and 2I
16. A large increase in the rate of reaction for an increase in temperature is due to
(a) increase in the number of collisions
(b) increase in the number of activated molecules
(c) lowering of activation energy (d) shortening of the mean free path
17. At equilibrium the vapour pressure of a liquid in a closed vessel depends only on
(a) temperature (b) concentration (c) pressure (d) volume
18. For the gas phase reaction 2NO ;ON 22 + Kcals5.43H −=∆ . Which one of the following
is true for ?)g(NO2)g(O)g(N 22 =+
(a) K increase as T decrease (b) K decreases as T decreases
(c) K is independent of T (d) K varies with the addition of NO
19. For the reaction 5PCl ,ClPCl 23 + if the degree of dissociation of 5PCl is α at equilib-
rium pressure P, then Kp for the reaction is
(a) p1/K 22p α+α= (b) 222
p 1/pK α−α=
(c) 22p 1/PK α−α= (d) 22
p 1/PK α−α=
Quest Tutorials 26
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Quest
20. 4 moles of 2CO were heated in 3dm1 . It dissociates into CO by 25% and into 2O . The number
of moles of CO produced are
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.0 (d) 4.0
21. 1 mole of 2N is mixed with 3 moles of 2H in a litre flask. If 50% 2N is converted into 3NH
then the total number of moles of the gas at eq. are
(a) 1.5 (b) 4.5 (c) 3.0 (d) 6.0
22. At equilibrium, the addition of −CN (aq.) in the reversible reaction HCN(aq) =
)aq(CN)aq(H −++ would
(a) increase equilibrium constant (b) decrease eq. constant
(c) decrease +H ion concentration (d) decrease HCN(aq) concentration
23. At 27°C and 1 atm., 42ON is 20% dissociated into 2NO . What is the value of pK under
these conditions ?
(a) 17 atm. (b) 0.17 atm. (c) 1.7 atm. (d) 0.07 atm.
24. When a reversible reaction is at equilibrium, one of the product’s concentration is decreased.
The eq. state
(a) Shifts in the direction of forward reaction
(b) shifts in the direction of backward reaction
(c) Moves in the direction of both reactions (d) is not affected
25. On adding 3NH to pure water, the concentration of already present species decreases. The
species is
(a) +OH3 (b) −2O (c) −OH (d) OH2
26. The normal vapour density of 5PCl is 104.25. Its V.D. at 25°C when it is 80% dissociated will
be
(a) 120 (b) 52 (c) 57.9 (d) 86
27. At 490°C the equilibrium constant for the synthesis of HI is 50. The value of K for dissocia-
tion of HI will be
(a) 0.2 (b) 0.02 (c) 20.0 (d) 2.0
28. The volume of the reaction vessel containing an equilibrium mixture in the reaction
22ClSO 2SO (g) + )g(Cl2 is increased. When the equilibrium is re-established, the amount
of
(a) )g(SO2 will have decreased (b) )g(ClSO 22 will have increased
(c) 2Cl (g) will have increased (d) 2Cl (g) will have remain unchanged
27 Quest Tutorials
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Quest
29. The equilibrium constant K for a reaction BA + C+D is 2101 −× at 298K and is 2 at 373K.
The chemical process resulting in the formation of C and D is
(a) exothermic (b) endothermic (c) unpredictable
(d) there is no relationship between K and H∆ .
30. The equilibrium constant is 7108.3 −× and 6pH
= for the reaction OH2CO 22 + −3HCO +
.OH3+ The ratio of −]HCO[ 3 / ]CO[ 2 is
(a) 0.38 (b) 3.8 (c) 18108.3 −× (d) 13.4
31. A certain weak acid has a dissociation constant of 4100.1 −× . The equilibrium constant for its
reaction with a strong base is
(a) 10100.1 −× (b) 4101 −
× (c) 10101× (d) 14101 −×
32. At 300K, the most stable reaction is
(a) 2NO(g) );g(O)g(N 22 + 30c 102.2K ×= moles 1
L−
(b) )g(ON2 2-133
c22 L moles105.3K);g(O)g(N2 ×=+
(c) )g(NO2 2-116
c22 L moles1071.6K);g(O2)g(N ×=+
(d) )g(ON2 52-134
c22 L moles102.1K);g(O5)g(N2 ×=+
33. The equilibrium )g(ClSO 22 )g(Cl)g(SO 22 + is attained at 25°C in a closed container
and helium is introduced. Which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) concentration of 2SO is reduced (b) more 2Cl is formed
(c) concentrations of 2SO , 2Cl and 2SO 2Cl changes
(d) none of these
34. The vapour density of 5PCl is 104.16 but when heated to 230°C, its V.D. is reduced to 62. The
degree of dissociation of 5PCl at this temperature will be
(a) 6.8% (b) 68% (c) 46% (d) 64%
35. At 200°C ammonium carbamate )NH COO NH( 42 gives a mixture of vapours of NH3 and
2CO with density 13.0. The degree of dissociation of ammonium carbamate will be
(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 0.25 (d) 0.5
36. The reaction )g(H)g(HC 242 + k7.32H);g(HC 62 −=∆ cals is carried out in a vessel. The
equilibrium concentration of 42HC can be raised by
(a) adding some 62HC (b) increasing the temperature
(c) decreasing the pressure (d) all of these
Quest Tutorials 28
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Quest
37. In the reaction 2X(g) + Y(g) = Z(g) + 80 cals, which of the following combination of pressure and
temperature gives the highest yield of Z at equilibrium ?
(a) 100 atms and 100°C (b) 500 atms and 100°C
(c) 500 atms and 500°C (d) 100 atms and 500°C
38. The reaction 22 OSO2 + 3SO2 is exothermic. The yield of 3SO will be maximum if
(a) temperature is reduced and pressure is increased
(b) temperature is increased and pressure is kept constant
(c) both temp and pressure are increased (d) both temp. and pressure are decreased
39. When calcium acetate is dissolved in water, heat is evolved. If the temperature is raised, the
solubility of calcium acetate
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains same (d) none
40. In the system Liquid vapour, the increase in pressure will favour the
(a) condensation (b) evaporation (c) sublimation (d) none
41. When pressure is applied to equilibrium : ice = water, which of the following will occur?
(a) equilibrium will not be disturbed (b) more water will be formed
(c) more water will be formed (d) more ice will be formed
42. For the following equilibrium 42ON 2NO2 in gaseous phase, 2NO is 50% of the total
volume when equilibrium is set up. Hence percent dissociation of 42ON is :
(a) 50% (b) 25% (c) 66.66% (d) 33.33%
43. Equilibrium constant for the reaction
++ HOHNH4 OHNH 24 +
+
is .108.1 9× Hence equilibrium constant for OH)aq(NH 23 + −+
+ OHNH4 is :
(a) 5108.1 −× (b) 5108.1 × (c) 9108.1 −
× (d) 101055.5 −×
44. 22 OSO2 + 3SO2 . Starting with 2 mol 2SO and 1 mol 2O in 1 L flask, mixture required
0.4 mol −4MnO in acidic medium. Hence cK is :
(a) 2 (b) 0.4 (c) 1.6 (d) 2.6
45. For )s(HSNH4 ),g(SH)g(NH 23 + if ,atm64K 2P = equilibrium pressure of mixture is:
(a) 8 atm (b) 16 atm (c) 64 atm (d) 4 atm
46. In a system )s(A .CB2 )g()g( + If the concentration of C at equilibrium is increased by a
factor of 2, it will cause the equilibrium concentration of B to change to
(a) two times the original value (b) one half of its original value
(c) 22 times its original value (d)22
1 times
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Quest
47. For 42ON 22 NO,NO2 is 50% of the total volume at equilibrium in 1 litre flask. Hence starting
with 1 mole of 42ON at constant temperature, equilibrium constant cK is
(a) 2.66 (b) 0.33 (c) 1.00 (d) 166
48. Which can be explained as applications of Le-Chatlier’s Principle:
(a) transport of oxygen by hemoglobin in blood (b) removal of 2CO from tissues by blood
(c) tooth decay due to use of sweet substances (d) all
49. Two systems )g(PCl5 )g(PCl3 + )g(Cl2 and )g(COCl2 CO(g) + )g(Cl2 are simulta-
neously in equilibrium in a vessel at constant volume. If some CO is introduced into the
vessel, then at the new equilibrium, the concentration of
(a) 5PCl is greater (b) 3PCl remains unchanged
(c) 5PCl is less (d) 2Cl is greater
50. Under what pressure conditions will 4CuSO . OH5 2 be efflorescent at 25°C. pK value of the
reaction 4CuSO . OH5 2 (s) 4CuSO . )g(OH2)s(OH3 22 + is 24atm10086.1
−× at 25°C.
(a) less than 23.8 mm(Hg) (b) less than 7.92 mm Hg
(c) at 23.8mm Hg (d) at 7.92 mm Hg
51. A(solid) A(liquid) – X Kcals Volume of A(solid)> volume of A(liquid).
If pressure is increased to the system then
(a) melting point of sulphur is increased
(b) melting point of sulphur is decreased
(c) melting point of sulphur remains unchanged
(d) melting point at first decreased then it increases
52. If at constant pressure argon is introduced in the system 22 H3N + 3NH2 it would
(a) reduce equilibrium constant value of the reaction
(b) increase equilibrium constant value of the reaction
(c) reduce the amount of 3NH formed
(d) increase the amount of 3NH formed
53. Two moles of an equimolar mixture of two alcohols 1R OH & OHR 2 are esterified with one
mole of acetic acid. If 80% of the acid is consumed and the quantities of ester formed under
equilibrium are in the ratio of 3:2, what is the value of equilibrium constant for the esterifica-
tion of OHR1 − ?
(a) ~ 3.7 (b) ~ 2.9 (c) ~3.2 (d) ~3.0
54. If xK be the equilibrium constant when active mass of the reactants and products are ex-
pressed in mole fraction then the relation between xK & cK is
(a) ncx )P(KK
∆= (b) n
cx )P(KK ∆−=
Quest Tutorials 30
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Quest
(c)
n
cxP
RTKK
∆
= (d) ( ) n
cx RTKK∆
=
55. The pressure necessary for obtaining 50% dissociation of 5PCl at 250°C is
(a) three times of pK (b) two times of pK (c) half of pK (d) four times of pK
56. −+ II2
−3I . This reaction is set up in aqueous medium. We start with one mole of 2I and
0.5 mole of −I in 1 litre flask. After equilibrium is reached, excess of 3AgNO gave 0.25 mole
of yellow precipitate. Equilibrium constant of the reaction is
(a) 1.33 (b) 2.66 (c) 2.00 (d) 3.00
57. For the reaction : 2HI(g) );g(I)g(H 22 + the degree of dissociation )(α of HI(g) is related
to equilibrium constant PK by the expression
(a)2
K21 P+(b)
2
K21 P+(c)
P
P
K21
K2
+(d)
P
P
K21
K2
+
58. The equilibrium constant CK for the following reaction at 700K is 8105×
)g(Br)g(H 22 + 2HBr
If a mixture of 0.8 mol of 3.0,H2 mol of 2Br and 0.1 mol of HBr are heated to 700K, the
amount of HBr at equilibrium is
(a) 0.1 mol (b) 0.2 mol (c) 0.3 mol (d) 0.4 mol
Answers
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (c)
7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (b)
13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (b)
19. (c) 20. (b) 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a)
25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (a)
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (d)
37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (a) 41. (d) 42. (c)
43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (a) 48. (d)
49. (c) 50. (b) 51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (a) 54. (c)
55. (a) 56. (a) 57. (d) 58. (d)
31 Quest Tutorials
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Quest
CHEMICAL KINETICS
1. For a certain first order gas phase reaction )g()g()g( CBA +→ , the time required for half
the initial amount to be decomposed is 10.4 minutes. If the initial pressures of A is 400mm of
Hg, the time required to reduce the partial pressure of A to 50mm of Hg is
(a) 15.6 min (b) 20.8 min (c) 31.2 min (d) 41.6 min
2. The rate of reaction FA → increase by a factor of 5.18 when the concentration of A is tripled.
What is the order of the reaction ?
(a)4
3(b)
3
2(c)
2
3(d) 2.5
3. For reaction BA → 80% A is decomposed in 1 hr. 96% is decomposed in 2 hrs. 99.2% is
decomposed in 3 hrs. 99.84% is decomposed in 4 hours. What is the order of the reaction ?
(a) zero (b) 1st
(c) 2nd (d) can not be predicted
4. For the following reaction the rate expression is “rate ]B[]A[ 2∝ rate constant is
1222secmolL103
−−−×
BCBACB2A2 2 +→++
Relation between the initial concentration of the reactants are 3.0C 2/1BA 000 === moles/
lit. The rate of reaction after 25% ‘C’ converted into products is
(a) 1228 secmolL1025.11 −−−× (b) 1222 secmoleL102.3 −−−
×
(c) 0 (d) none of these
5. An endothermic reaction BA → have an activation energy 15 kcal/mol and the heat of the
reaction is 5kcal/mol. The activation energy of the reaction AB → is
(a) 20 kcal/mol (b) 15 kcal/mol (c) 10 kcal/mol (d) zero
6.C
B
A
1K
2KFor this reaction k = total rate constant = 410− 1sec− % of B = 20
What is the value of 1K
(a) 14 sec108 −−× (b) 13 sec108 −−
× (c) 13 sec102 −−× (d) 15 sec102 −−
×
7. By what factor would the rate of a reaction for which the activation energy is 35 cal 1mol− be
increased by a temperature rise of 10° from 25° to 35°C.
(a) 5.81 (b) 6.81 (c) 7.2 (d) 1.01
8. RT/Eae− indicates
(a) no. of collision (b) no. of effective collision
(c) fraction of the reaction happened
(d) fraction of the molecule having energy higher that aE .
Quest Tutorials 32
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Quest
9. A complex reaction ZYX2 →+ takes place in two steps
.ZW2X,W2YX 21 kk→+→+
If ,KK 21 << order of reaction will be
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) can’t say
10. t21
of a 3/2 order reaction is represented by t21 .
a
1
mα What is the value of m
(a) 1/2 (b) 1 (c) 3/2 (d) –3/2
11. A reaction takes place in three steps, the rate constants are 321 K&K,K . The over all rate
constant
2
31
K
KKK = . If energy of activations are 40,30 & 20 kJ, the over all energy of activa-
tion is
(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 30 (d) 60
12. Rate constant of a reaction with virus is .s103.3 14 −−× Time required for the virus to become
75% inactivated is:
(a) 35 min (b) 70 min (c) 105 min (d) 17.5 min
13. If the fermentation of sugar in an enzymatic solution that is 0.12M, the concentration of the
sugar is reduced to 0.06 M in 10 h and to 0.03M in 20h, what is the order of the reaction:
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 0
14. The decomposition of ON2 into 2N and 2O in the presence of gaseous argon follows second
order kinetics with T/290001111 e)sLmol100.5(k −−−×=
Hence aE (energy of activation) is:
(a) kcal100.5 11× (b) 29000 kcal (c) 58 kcal (d) –29000cal
15. When rate constant is equal to rate of the reaction, order is :
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 0
16. For the reaction ,NOBr2BrNO2 2 →+ the following mechanism has been given
2slow
2 NOBrBrNO →+ NOBr2NONOBrslow
2 →+
Hence rate law is :
(a) ]Br[]NO[k 22 (b) ]Br][NO[k 2 (c) ]NO][NOBr[k 2 (d) 2
2 ]Br][NO[k
17. 1a
1kJmol50E,kJmol10H,BA
−−=−=∆→ then aE of AB → will be:
(a) 40 kJ 1mol
− (b) 50 kJ 1mol
− (c) –50kJ 1mol
− (d) 60kJ 1mol
−
33 Quest Tutorials
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Quest
18. BA → , T/200015A e10k −
=
,DC →T/100014
C e10k −=
Temperature T/K at which )kk( CA = is:
(a) 1000K (b) 2000K (c) K303.2
2000(d) K
303.2
1000
19. In presence of catalyst aE is lowered by 2 kcal at 27°C. Hence rate will be increased by
(a) 20 times (b) 14 times (c) 28 times (d) 2 times
20.
(A) →
∆ Cu2ClN 2NCl +
Half-life is independent of concentration of A. After 10 minutes volume 2N gas is 10L and
after complete reaction 50L. Hence rate constant is:
(a)1min5log
10
303.2 −(b)
1min25.1log10
303.2 −
(c)1min2log
10
303.2 −(d)
1min4log10
303.2 −
21. In which of the following case, aE of the backward reaction is greater than that of the forward
reaction ?
(a) kcal50E,Bkcal10A a =→+ (b) kcal40E,Bkcal20A a =→+
(c) kcal10E,Bkcal40A a =→+ (d) kcal20E,Bkcal40A a =→−
22. The reaction )g(D)g(C)g(B2)g(A +→+
Initial pressure of A and B are respectively ,atm60.0pA = .atm80.0pB = When ,atm20.0pC =
the rate of the reaction, relative to the initial rate, is:
(a)48
1(b)
24
1(c)
6
1(d)
4
1
23. For a reaction for which the activation energies of the forward and reverse directions are equal
in value:
(a) the stoichiometry is the mechanism (b) 0H =∆
(c) 0S =∆ (d) the order is zero
24. For hypothetical reaction BA → takes place according to
A1k
C , A + C D2k→ (slow) Rate law will be
(a) 2K (A)(C) (b) 21KK (A) (c) 221 )A(KK (d) )C)(A(KK 21
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Quest
ANSWERS
1. (c) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (d)
7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (b)
13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (d)
19. (c) 20. (b) 21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (c)
25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (d) 30. (c)
25. For a reaction 2A + 3 B C2→ , initial concentration of A & B are 40 moles/lit. each. When
concentration of C becomes 2 moles/lit, the rate of reaction, relative to the initial rate is
(a) 1/4 (b) 24/1 (c) 34/1 (d) 44/1
26. For 223 OSO2SO2 +→ energy of activation is ,E1 then what is the value of aE for the
reaction 223 O2
1SOSO +→ will be
(a)2
E1(b) 1E2 (c) 1E (d) none of these
27. A drop of solution (volume 0.05ml) contains 6103 −× mole .H+ If the rate constant of disap-
pearance of +H is 710 mol/lit/sec. How long would it take for +H in drop to disappear
(a) .sec106 8−× (b) .sec106 9−
× (c) .sec106 10−× (d) .sec106 12−
×
28. The chemical reaction 23 O3O2 → proceeds
3O OO2 + (fast), 23 O2OO →+ (slow). The rate law expression will be
(a) rate = K[O][ 3O ] (b) rate = k 23]O[
(c) rate = K 23]O[ 1
2 ]O[ − (d) can’t be determined
29. A zero order reaction .BA → At the end of 1 hr. A is 75% reacted. How much of it will be
left unreacted at the end of 2 hrs.
(a) 12.5% (b) 6.25% (c) 3.12% (d) 0%
30. ZW,e10K YX T50010→=→
− ,e10K T100012 −= at what T both the K are same
(a) 500K (b) 1500K (c) K500
606.4(d) K
5000
303.2
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Quest
IONIC EQUILIBRIA
1. The degree of ionisation of an electrolyte does not depend on
(a) the temperature (b) the nature of the solute and solvent
(c) size of the solvent molecules (d) concentration of the solution
2. When 0.1N solution of an acid at room temperature has a degree of ionisation of 10%, the
concentration of hydroxyl ions in g ion per litre would be
(a) 1110− (b) 1210− (c) 910− (d) 510−
3. Given a 0.01M solution of each of the following, which solution will contain the largest con-
centration of +OH3 ion
(a) HCl (b) 3NH (c) ClNH4 (d) 3NaHCO
4. A pair of compounds which can not exist together in solution is
(a) 32CONa and 3NaHCO (b) 3NaHCO and NaCl
(c) 3NaHCO and NaOH (d) 32CONa and NaOH
5. If aK of a weak acid HA is 510− , the bpK of the conjugate base −A is
(a) 5 (b) 6 (c) 7 (d) 9
6. ,XH2 a dibasic acid, completely dissociate in water . Which one of the following molar
solution of XH2 acid has pH value of 1 ?
(a) 0.05 (b) 0.1 (c) 0.2 (d) 1.0
7. Pure water has +OH3 ion concentration of 610− mole 1L− at 90°C. The value of wK at
90°C is
(a) 1210− (b) 1410− (c) 610− (d) 810−
8. The ionic product of water will increase if
(a) +H ions are added (b) −OH ions are added
(c) pressure is decreased (d) temperature is increased
9. Assuming 2214w Lmol101K −−
×= when 0.0005 mole of strong electrolyte 2)OH(Ca is dis-
solved to form 100 ml of a saturated solution, the pH will be
(a) 11 (b) 12 (c) 9.8 (d) 3.3
10. The dissociation constant of a weak acid and a weak base constituting the salt are equal. The
pH of this solution is
(a) 7 (b) <7 (c) >7 (d) 0
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11. The apK values of barbituric acid, benzoic acid, boric acid and carbonic acid are 3.98, 4.20, 9.24,
6.37 respectively. The strongest acid is
(a) Boric acid (b) Barbituric acid (c) Carbonic acid (d) Benzoic acid
12. Addition of solid KCN to water would cause
(a) increase in pH (b) decrease in pH (c) pH remains same (d) none of these
13. The compound whose 0.1M solution is basic is
(a) COONaCH3 (b) 43COONHCH (c) ClNH4 (d) 424 SO)NH(
14. The pH of a solution containing 10ml of 0.1N NaOH and 10ml of 0.05N 42SOH is
(a) 7 (b) >7 (c) <7 (d) 0
15. The pH of a solution formed by mixing 40ml of 0.10 M HCl and 10M of 0.45 M NaOH is
(a) 10 (b) 12 (c) 6 (d) 8
16. The +H ion concentration of acetic acid is decreased by the addition of
(a) 3AgNO (b) ClNH4 (c) NaCN (d) 342 )SO(Al
17. If pH value of 0.1 mole 1
L−
HCl is nearly 1, then pH value of 0.05 mole 1L−
42SOH is
(a) 0.5 (b) 1 (c) 0.05 (d) 2
18. If NaOH is added to a solution of COOHCH3 then
(a) pH of the solution decreases (b)+H ion concentration increases
(c) −]COOCH[ 3 conc. increases (d) ]COOHCH[ 3 conc. increases
19. A buffer solution of sodium acetate and acetic acid is diluted with water. Its pH will
(a) increase (b) decrease (c) remains same (d) becomes
20. pH of which of the following buffer will slightly alter on addition of small amount of strong
base ?
(a) COONaCHCOOHCH 33 + (b) ClNHOHNH 44 +
(c) Boric acid + Borax (d) None
21. A certain buffer solution contains equal concentration of −X and HX. The bK for −X is
10101
−× . The pH of the buffer is
(a) 4 (b) 7 (c) 10 (d) 14
22. In a solution of COOHCH3 and COONaCH3 the ratio of salt to acid concentration is in-
creased by 10 times, pH of the solution will increase by
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) 10
23. In which of the following solvents will AgBr have the highest solubility ?
(a) 310
− M NaBr (b) 310− OHMNH4 (c) 310− M HBr (d) Pure water
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24. The solubility of AgCl in 0.10M NaCl solution is )10 1.20 AgClfor K(-10
sp ×=
(a) 0.1 M (b) 6102.1 −× (c) 9102.1 −
× (d) 10102.1 −×
25. Let the solubility of AgCl in water, in 0.02 M ,CaCl2 in 0.01 M NaCl, 0.05 M 3AgNO be
4321 s,s,s,s respectively. Which relationship between following quantities is correct ?
(a) 4231 ssss >>> (b) 4321 ssss >=>
(c) 1324 ssss >>> (d) 1234 ssss >>>
26. When equal volumes of the following solutions are mixed, precipitation of AgCl
)108.1K( 10sp
−×= will occur only when
(a) )Cl(M10and)Ag(M10 44 −−+− (b) )Cl(M10and)Ag(M10 55 −−+−
(c) )Cl(M10and)Ag(M10 66 −−+− (d) )Cl(M10and)Ag(M10 610 −−+−
27. 10ml of a strong acid solution of pH = 2 are mixed with 990 ml of a buffer solution of pH = 4.
The pH of the resulting solution will be
(a) 4.002 (b) 4.000 (c) 4.200 (d) 3.800
28. Solid 42SOK is added to 100ml of 0.1M 3AgNO solution. What will be the concentration of
42SOK so that precipitation starts ? ]M104.6SOAg for K[ 542sp
−×=
(a) 0.1M (b) M104.6 7−×
(c) M104.6 3−×
(d) M104.6 5−×
29. A solution having 0.01 M +2Zn and 0.01M +2Cu is saturated by passing SH2 gas. The −2S
ion concentration is .M101.8 21−× spK for ZnS and CuS are 22103 −
× and 36108 −× . Which
of the following will occur in solution ?
(a) CuS will precipitate (b) ZnS will precipitate
(c) both CuS and Zns will precipitate
(d) Both +2Cu and +2Zn ions will remain in the solution
30. Buffer action of a mixture of OOHCH3 and COONaCH3 is maximum when the ratio of salt
to acid is equal to
(a) 1.0 (b) 100.0 (c) 10.0 (d) 0.1
31. The addition of COONaCH3 crystal to one litre of 0.1M acetic acid will produce
(a) increase in the value of aK (b) decrease in the value of aK
(c) increase in the pH value (d) increase in sodium ion concentration
32. If each of the following substances were made up in 0.1N solutions, which solution have a pH
with the smallest numerical value
(a) 32CONa (b) 33BOH (c) NaOH (d) 742 OBNa
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Quest
33. What is the pH of a solution made by mixing 20ml of 0.3 M HCl and 50ml of 0.1 M NaOH and
diluting to a final volume of one litre ?
(a) 3.0 (b) 2.2 (c) 2.6 (d) 3.8
34. Which one of the following doesn’t undergo hydrolysis
(a) 2SnCl (b) 4SnCl (c) 2FeCl (d) 2CaCl
35. No. of −OH in 1 ml solution of pH = 13 is
(a) 13101 −× (b) 7106 × (c) 13106× (d) 19
106×
36. The degree of dissociation of 0.05 M 3NH solution at 25°C and pH = 11 is
(a) 2103 −× (b) 2102 −
× (c) 2104 −×
(d) 2103.0 −×
37. A precipitate of )107.1K(CaF 10sp2
−×= will be obtained when equal volume of the follow-
ing are mixed
(a)24
MCa10+−
and −− F M10 4 (b)22
MCa10+−
and −−F M10
3
(c) 25MCa10
+− and−−
F M103
(d)23
MCa10+−
and −−
F M105
38. Value of wpK
(a) increases with increase of temperature (b) decreases with increase of temperature
(c) remains constant with temperature (d) can’t be predicted
39. The pH value of the aqueous solution of the following is maximum
(a) 4CuSO (b) COONaCH3 (c) 324 CO)NH( (d) NaCl
40. What is the effect of addition of KCl on solubility of 3AgNO solution ?
(a) its solubility decreases (b) its solubility increases
(c) its solubility remains unchanged
(d) its solubility at first increases then it decreases
41. Solubility of AgCN will be minimum in
(a) pure water (b) acidic buffer
(c) basic buffer (d) it will remain same for all the cases
42. The pH of the solution produced when an aqueous solution of strong acid of pH = 5 is mixed
with equal volume of an aqueous solution of strong acid of pH = 3 is
(a) 3.3 (b) 3.5 (c) 4.5 (d) 4.0
43. Solution of acid having .M10]H[ 10−+= The pOH of this solution will be
(a) between 7 and 8 (b) 10 (c) 4 (d) between 6 and 7
44. 1 Meq of 2)OH(Ca is present in 100ml solution. pH of the solution will be
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 12
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Quest
45. How much water must be added to 300ml of 0.2 M solution of COOHCH3 for the degree of
dissociation of the acid to double )108.1K( 5a
−×=
(a) 600ml (b) 300ml (c) 900 ml (d) 1200ml
46. spK of 4CaSO is 12104 −×
. 4CaSO is precipitated on mixing equal volumes of the follow-
ing solutions.
(a)2
6 MCaCl103 −× and
446 SO)NH(M103 −
×
(b)2
6 MCaCl104 −× and
4246 SO)NH(M103 −
×
(c)2
6 MCaCl106 −× and
4246 SO)NH(M103 −
×
(d) in all cases
47. What will be the +H ion concentration in a solution prepared by mixing 50ml of 0.20M NaCl.
25ml of 0.10M NaOH and 25ml of 0.30 M HCl ?
(a) 0.5M (b) 0.05 M (c) 0.02 M (d) 0.10M
48. The buffer capacity of a solution containing weak acid and its salt is maximum when (acid is
monobasic).
(a) [Salt] = [acid] (b) [salt] > [acid]
(c) [salt] < [acid] (d) [salt] + [acid] is minimum
49. What is the pH value of 0.01(M) NaHS solution. 21 K&K of SH2 are 710− & 13103.1 −×
respectively.
(a) 6.587 (b) 7.824 (c) 8.016 (d) 9.943
50. Which has lower value pKa
(a) COMe2 (b) 2MeCONH (c) CO)NH( 22 (d) CNH)NH( 2
51. Amongst the following anions the strongest Bronsted base is
(a) −Cl (b) −COOCH3 (c) −
4ClO (d) −
4HSO
52. The solubility of lead iodide in water will be given as
(a) spkS = (b)4
kS
sp= (c)
21sp
4
kS
= (d)
31sp
4
kS
=
53. wK value of pure water at 60°C is 62.910 14×
− . The solution for which pH = 6.7 is
(a) basic (b) acidic (c) neutral (d) amphoteric
54. The dissociation of water at 25°C is 7109.1 −
× percent and the density of water is 3cm/g0.1 ,
the ionization constant of water (approximately) is
(a) 61042.3 −×
(b) 81042.3
−×
(c) 141000.1 −×
(d) 161000.2 −×
Quest Tutorials 40
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Quest
55. Which of the following will not function as a buffer ?
(a) NaCl + NaOH (b) 33742 BOHOBNa +
(c) 442 NaHPOPONaH + (d) OHNHClNH 44 +
56. A certain ion −B has an Arrhenius constant for basic character (equilibrium constant
).108.2 7−× The equilibrium constant for Lowry-Bronsted basic character is
(a) 7108.2 −× (b) 81057.3 −
× (c) 81057.3 × (d) 7108.2 ×
57. The weakest base among the following is
(a) −H (b) −
3CH (c) −OCH3
(d) −Cl
58. The solubility of −+ClNHHC 356 would be highest, among the following solvents in
(a) acidic buffer of pH=3 (b) basic buffer of pH = 10
(c) neutral buffer of pH = 7 (d) pure water
59. If ClNH4 is added to a dilute solution of ,OHNH4 the pH of the solution will
(a) increase (b) decrease (c) be unaffected
(d) first increase and then decrease
60. The pH of blood is maintained by the balance between 32COH and 3NaHCO . If the amount
of 2CO in the blood is increased, how will it affect the pH of blood ?
(a) pH will increase (b) pH will decrease
(c) pH will be 7 (d) pH will remain same
61. A certain buffer contains equal concentration of −X and HX. The bK for −
X is 910
− . the
pH of the buffer is
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 9
62. Which 0.2 mole of HCl is added to 1 litre of a buffer solution containing 0.1 mole each of
COOHCH3 and COONaCH3 the pH of the solution is )108.1COOHCH of K( 53a
−×=
(a) 4.7447 (b) 2.72
(c) 1 (d) cannot be predicted
63. 500ml of 0.2 M BOH (a weak base) is mixed with 500 ml of 0.1 M HCl. pH of the resulting
buffer solution is 9. What is the pH of a 0.1 M BCl solution ?
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 9
64. Which of the following acts as a Bronsted acid as well as Bronsted base
(a) 32CONa (b) −OH (c) 3NH (d) −
3HCO
65. The pH of 0.1M solution of the following salts increases in the order
(a) HClNaCNClNHNaCl 4 <<< (b) NaCNNaClClNHHCl 4 <<<
(c) HClNaClClNHNaCN 4 <<< (d) ClNHNaCNNaClHCl 4<<<
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Quest
Answers
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (a)
7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (a)
13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (c)
19. (c) 20. (d) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (c)
25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (a) 30. (a)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (b)
37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (b) 40. (b) 41. (c) 42. (a)
43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (a)
49. (d) 50. (a) 51. (b) 52. (d) 53. (a) 54. (d)
55. (a) 56. (d) 57. (d) 58. (b) 59. (b) 60. (d)
61. (b) 62. (c) 63. (c) 64. (d) 65. (b)
Quest Tutorials 42
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Quest
RADIOACTIVITY
1. Correct order of kinetic energy of ,,βα and γ rays is
(a) γ>β>α (b) α>β>γ (c) β≅α>γ (d) β>γ>α
2. How many α and β particle are emitted when 23290Th undergoes disintegration to form
20882Th
(a) βα 6,4 (b) βα 4,6 (c) βα 6,6 (d) βα 4,4
3. How many α and β particles should be eliminated from a radio active nuclide so that an
isobar is formed
(a) βα 1 ,1 (b) βα 2 ,1 (c) βα 2 ,2 (d) βn
4. If No is the number of nuclei at t = 0, no. of nuclei remaining undecayed at the end of thn half
life is
(a) Non2− (b) Non
2 (c) No2n (d) No2
n−
5. Last stable element formed when a radio active nuclide 241X disintegrate is
(a) 206Pb (b) 207Pb (c) 208Pb (d) 209Bi
6. Cyclotron and synchotron are used as particle accelerator. Which particle can’t be accelerated
by them
(a) positron (b) proton (c) α -particle (d) neutron
7. Which of the following is used as control rods in nuclear reactor
(a) cadmium rods (b) graphite rods (c) steel rods (d) all of these
8. In a chain reaction ,CBA →→ the equilibrium is reached when
(a) rate of disintegration of A = rate of formation of B
(b) rate of disintegration of B = rate of formation of C
(c) rate of disintegration of B = rate of formation of B
(d) rate of formation of C = rate of disintegration of A
9. In a radio active decay, the electron comes from
(a) the atomic nucleus (b) the orbit having principal quantum no. = 1
(c) the extra orbit of the atom (d) the ultimate orbit of the atom
10. →→+ 23692
10
23592 UnU Products + J102.3n 111
0−×+ . The energy released when 1 gm of
23592 U finally undergoes fission is
(a) kJ1075.128× (b) kJ104.16
7× (c) kJ102.87× (d) kJ105.6
6×
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Quest
11. No. of −β particle emitted during the change dc
ba XX → is
(a)4
da −(b) b
2
dac +
−+ (c) b
2
dbc −
−+ (d) b
2
dac −
−+
12. For two atoms 22
11
AZ
AZ X&X & ,Z2AZ2A,AA 221121 −=−≠ the species would be called
(a) isotonic (b) isodiphers (c) isosters (d) none
13. For the following reaction 11
00
11
01
11
11 H2CB2;XBHA,eAHH +→+→++→+ .
Identify A, B & C.
(a) 10
42
21 n,He,H (b) 4
23
22
2 He,He,He (c) 42
32
21 He,He,H (d) 4
24
22
1 He,He,H
14. Correct order of radioactivity is
(a) 31
21
11 HHH >> (b) 1
12
13
1 HHH >> (c) 21
11
31 HHH >> (d) 2
11
13
1 HHH =>
15. At radioactive equilibrium the ratio between two atoms of radio active elements A & B are
.1:1039× If t
21
of A is 1010 years what is t
21
of B.
(a) 30 yrs (b) 0.3 yrs (c) 3.3 yrs (d) none
16. In the sequence of following nuclear reactions
21884
n23892 MLZYX →→→→
α−β−β−α− the value of n is
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
17. Co-60 has t21
= 5.3 yrs, the time taken for 7/8 of the original sample to disintegrate will be
(a) 4.6 yrs (b) 9.2 yrs (c) 10.6 yrs (d) 15.9 yrs
18. A radioactive element X decays by the sequence, and with half lives, given below
ZYXdays30
2
min30→→βα
Which of the following is correct
(a) after 2 hours, less than 10% of the initial X is left behind.
(b) after 60 days, more than 30% of y is left behind.
(c) Atomic number of X and Z are not same (d) the mass no. of Y is greater than X
19. If one starts with 1 curie(Ci) of radioactive substance( )hrs15t 21 = the activity left after a
period of two weeks will be about
(a) 1.82 Ciµ (b) 0.182 Ciµ (c) 182 milli Ci (d) 1.82 milli Ci
20. A sample of rock form moon contains equal number of atoms of uranium and lead
).years104.5 Ufor t( 921 ×= The age of the rock would be
(a) years104.5 9× (b) years109 9× (c) years105.31 9× (d) years1025.2 9×
Quest Tutorials 44
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Quest
21. In the chain reaction
E Energyn3KrBaU 10
23892 +++→
Neutrons and energy produced at the thn step will be
(a) 3n, n (b) n,3n (c) 1nn 3,3 − (d) none of these
22. Amz
(half life 10 days) → B8m4z
−−
Starting with one mol of A in a closed vessel at N.T.P., helium gas collected after 20 days is:
(a) 11.2L (b) 22.4 L (c) 33.6L (d) 44.8 L
23. A radioactive element, X, decays by the sequence and with half lives, given below:
X [half life = 30 min] α+→ Y1k
Y [half life = 2 days] β+→ 2Z2k
which of the following statements is correct ?
(a) disintegration constant 12 kk > (b) atomic number of X and Z are same
(c) the mass number of Y is greater than X (d) Y and Z are isotopes
24. Assuming that only particles emitted from atoms during natural radioactive decay are α and
β particles, which of the following atoms could not possibly result from the natural decay of
U23592 atoms ?
(a) Ac23189 (b) Ac227
89 (c) Ac22589 (d) Pb207
82
25. Half-life period of the radioactive element A is 10 days. Amount of A left on 11th day starting
with 1 mol A is
(a)
2
1(b)
1112
2
1
(c)
111
2
1
(d)
1011
2
1
26. A piece of hair shows the C14 activity falling by 75% of the initial activity.. C14 has half-life of
5760 years. Age of hair is:
(a) 5760 years (b) 11520 years (c) 2880 years (d) none
27. Tritium, H31
has a half-life of 12.26 years. A 5.00mL sample of tritiated water has an activity
of .cpm1040.2 9× How many years will it take for the activity to fall to .dpm1000.3 8× ?
(a) 6.13 (b) 12.26 (c) 24.52 (d) 36.78
28. Successive emission of an α -particle and two β -particles by an atom of a radioactive element
results in the formation of its:
(a) isobar (b) isomer (c) isotone (d) isotope
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Quest
29. The decay constant of Ra226 is .sec1037.1 111 −−× A sample of Ra226 having an activity of 1.5
millicurie will contain ..... atoms.
(a) 181005.4 × (b) 17107.3 × (c) 151005.2 × (d) 10107.4 ×
30. Radium has atomic mass 226 and half life of 1600 years. The number of disintegrations per
second per gram are:
(a) 10108.4 × (b) 8107.3 × (c) 6102.9 × (d) 10107.3 ×
31. If 4
3 quantity of radioactive substance disintegrates in 2 hours, its half life period will be:
(a) 15 minutes (b) 30 minutes (c) 60 minutes (d) 90 minutes
32. A freshly prepared radioactive source of half life period 2 hours emits radiations of intensity
which is 64 times the permissible safe level. The minimum time after which it would be
possible to work with this source is
(a) 6 hours (b) 12 hours (c) 24 hours (d) 48 hours
33. A radio isotope has a half life 10 days. If today there is 125g of it left, what was it mass 40 days
earlier?
(a) 600 g (b) 1000g (c) 1250g (d) 2000g
34. Nuclear reaction accompanies with emission of neutron(s) is:
(a) PHeAl 3015
42
2713 →+ (b) NHC 13
711
126 →+
(c) eSiP 01
3014
3015 +→ (d) eBkHeAm 0
124497
42
24096 +→+
35. If the energy released by burning 1g of carbon is 11103× ergs, then the amount of energy
released by converting 1g of carbon completely to nuclear energy would be equivalent to en-
ergy produced by burning .... g of carbon:
(a) 610 (b) 810 (c) 20109× (d) 10103×
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (d)
7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (b)
13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (d) 18. (a)
19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (c)
25. (d) 26. (b) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (d)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (d)
Quest Tutorials 46
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Quest
SOLUTIONS
1. The expression relating molarity (M) and molality (m) of a solution is
a)2MM
Mm
+ρ= b)
2MM
Mm
−ρ= c)
M
MMm 2+ρ
= d)2
2
M
MMm
−ρ=
where ρ is the density of solution and 2M is the molar mass of solute.
2. The expression relating molality (m) and mole fraction of solute )( 2x in a solution is
a)1
12
1 mM
mMx
+= b)
1
12
1 Mm
Mmx
−= c)
1
12
1
Mm
Mmx
+= d)
1
12
1
Mm
Mmx
−=
where 1M is the molar mass of solvent.
3. The expression relating mole fraction of solute )( 2x and molarity (M) of the solution is
a)ρ+−
=)( 21
12
MMM
MMx b)
ρ−−=
)( 21
12
MMM
MMx
c)1
212
)(
MM
MMMx
ρ+−= d)
1
212
)(
MM
MMMx
ρ−−=
where ρ is the density of solution and 1M and 2M are the molar masses of solvent and solute,
respectively
4. For a binary ideal liquid solution, the total pressure of the solution is given as
a)BBAAtotal xpppP )(
***−+= b)
ABABtotal xpppP )(***
−+=
c)AABAtotal xpppP )(
***−+= d)
BABBtotal xpppP )(***
−+=
5. Which of the following plots does not represent the behaviour of an ideal binary liquid solution ?
a) Plot of Ap versus Ax (mole fraction of A in liquid phase) is linear
b) Plot of Bp versus Bx is linear c) Plot of totalP versus Bx is linear
d) Plot of totalp versus Ax is nonlinear
6. Which of the following plots represents the behaviour of an ideal binary liquid solution ?
a) Plot of totalp versus Ay (mole fraction of AZ in vapour phase) is linear
b) Plot of totalp versus By is linear c) Plot of totalp/1 versus Ay is linear
d) Plot of totalp/1 versus By is nonlinear
7. Which of the following plots correctly represents the behaviour of an ideal binary liquid solution ?
a) Plot of Ax (mole fraction of A in liquid phase) versus Ay (mole fraction of A in vapour phase) is
linear
b) Plot of Ax versus By is linear c) Plot Ax/1 versus Ay/1 is linear
d) Plot of Ax/1 versus By/1 linear
8. The plot of Ax/1 versus Ay/1 (where Ax and Ay are the mole fractions of A in liquid and vapour
phases, respectively) is linear with slope and intercept respectively given as
a) *****/)(,/ BBABA ppppp − b) *****
/)(,/ BABBA ppppp −
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Quest
c) *****/)(,/ BBAAB ppppp − d) *****
/)(,/ BABAB ppppp −
9. For an ideal binary liquid solution with **BA pp > , which of the following relations between Ax (mole
fraction of A in liquid phase) and Ay (mole fraction of A in vapour phase) is correctly represented ?
a) AA yx = b) AA yx >
c) AA yx <
d) Ax and Ay cannot be correlated with each other
10. For a dilute solution containing a nonvolatile solute, which of the following expressions correctly repre-sents the molar mass of solute ?
a))/( 11
22
Mm
mM = b)
)/()/(*1111
22
ppMm
mM
∆−=
c))/()/(
*1111
22
ppmM
mM
∆−= d) )/(
*11
1
122 pp
m
MmM ∆−
=
11. For a dilute solution containing a nonvolatile solute, the molar mass of solute evaluated from the eleva-tion of boiling point is given by the expression
a)
2
12
m
m
K
TM
b
b∆= b)
1
22
m
m
K
TM
b
b∆= c)
1
22
m
m
T
KM
b
b
∆= d)
2
12
m
m
T
KM
b
b
∆=
12. A binary liquid solution of n-heptane and ethyl alcohol is prepared. Which of the following statementscorrectly represents the behaviour of this liquid solution ?a) The solution formed is an ideal solutionb) The solution formed is nonideal solution with positive deviations from Raoult’s lawc) The solution formed is nonideal solution with negative deviations from Raoult’s lawd) n-Heptane exhibits positive deviation whereas ethyl alcohol exhibits negative deviation from Raoult’slaw
13. Which of the following colligative properties can provide molar mass of proteins (or polymers or col-loids) with greater precision?a) Relative lowering of vapour pressure b) Elevation of boiling pointc) Depression in freezing point d) Osmotic pressure
14. A solution contains 0.1 mol of acetamide in 1 L of glacial acetic acid. When the solution is cooled, thefirst crystals that appeared at the freezing point contain the molecules ofa) acetamide only b) acetic acid onlyc) both acetamide and acetic acidd) either acetamide or acetic acid depending upon the conditions of the experiment.
15. The degree of dissociation )(α of a weak electrolyte yxBA is related to vant’s Hoff factor (i) by the
expression
a))1(
1
−+
−=α
yx
ib)
1
1
++
−=α
yx
ic)
1
1
−
−+=α
i
yxd)
1
1
−
++=α
i
yx
16. The vapour pressure of a pure liquid A is 40 mm of Hg at 310 K. The vapour pressure of this liquid in asolution with liquid B is 32 mm of Hg. Mole fraction of A in the solution, if it obeys Raoult’s law, isa) 0.8 b) 0.5 c) 0.2 d) 0.4
17. The vapour pressure of a pure liquid A is 0.80 atm. When a non-volatile substance B is added to thesolvent, its vapour pressure drops to 0.60 atm. Mole fraction of the component B in the solution isa) 0.50 b) 0.25 c) 0.75 d) 0.40
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18. Mole fraction of toluene in the vapour phase which is in equilibrium with a solution of benzene )120( torrp =°
and toluene )80( torrp =° having 2.0 mole of each, is
a) 0.50 b) 0.25 c) 0.60 d) 0.40
19. Total vapour pressure of mixture of 1 mol A )150( torrpA =° and 2 mol B )240( torrpB =° is 200 mm.
In this casea) there is positive deviation from Raoult’s lawb) there is negative deviation from Raoult’s lawc) there is no deviation from Raoult’s lawd) molecular masses of A and B are also required
20. The vapour pressure of pure benzene, 66HC at 50°C is 268 torr. How many mol of non-volatile solute
per mol of benzene is required to prepare a solution of benzene having a vapour pressure of 167 torr at50°C ?a) 0.377 b) 0.605 c) 0.623 d) 0.395
21. 1 mol each of following solutes are taken in 5 mol water
A) NaCl B) 42SOK C) 43PONa D) glucose
Assuming 100% ionisation of the electrolyte, relative decrease in V.P will be in order
a) DCBA <<< b) ABCD <<< c) CBAD <<< d) Equal
22. OHPtCl 24 6. can exist as a hydrated complex; 1 molal aq. solution has depression in freezing point of
3.72°. Assume 100% ionisation and kgmolOHK f1
2 86.1)(−
°= , then complex is
a) 462 ])([ ClOHPt b) OHClClOHPt 22442 2.])([
c) OHClClOHPt 2332 3.])([ d) OHClOHPt 2422 4.])([
23. An azeotropic solution of two liquids has a boiling point lower than either of them when ita) shows negative deviation from Raoult’s lawb) shows positive deviation from Raoult’s lawc) show ideal behavior d) is saturated
24. Depression of freezing point of 0.01 molal aq. COOHCH3 solution is 0.02046°. 1 molal urea solution
freezes at -1.86°. Assuming molality equal to molarity, pH of COOHCH3 solution is
a) 2 b) 3 c) 3.2 d) 4.2
25. pH of a 0.1 M monobasic acid is found to be 2. Hence its osmotic pressure at a given temp. T K isa) 0.1 RT b) 0.11 RT c) 1.1 RT d) 0.01 RT
26. 2.56 gm of sulphur in 100 gm of 2CS has depression in F.P of 0.010°, 1
)(1.0−
°= molalK f . Hence
atomicity of sulphur in 2CS is
a) 2 b) 4 c) 6 d) 8
27. One chemist found van’t Hoff factor of COOHCH3 to be less than unity. He concluded that in his
experiment, the acetic acida) dissociates b) associatesc) either dissociates or associatesd) always dissociates, hence his experiment is useless
28. Which of the following azeotropic solutions has the B.P less than B.P of the constituent A and B ?
a) 333 COCHCHandCHCl b) 332 COCHCHandCS
c) 323 ClCHandOHCHHC d) 23 CSandCHOCH
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29. Which is true about ideal solutions ?a) the volume of mixing is zero b) the enthalpy of mixing is zeroc) (a) and (b) d) none of these
30. 12.2 gm of benzoic acid (M = 122 ) in 100 gm benzene has depression in freezing point 2.6°;
molkgK f /2.5 °= . If there is 100% polymerisation, no. of molecules of benzoic acid in associated
state isa) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
31. Based on the given diagram, which of the following statements regarding the solutions of two misciblevolatile liquids are correct ?
AX
BX
A
CH
G
FE B
D
10
01
1. Plots AD and BC show that Raoult’s law is obeyed for the solution in which B is a solvent and A is thesolute and as well as for that in which A is solvent and B is solute.2. Plot CD shows that Dalton’s law of partial pressures is observed by the binary solutions of compo-nents A and B.3) EF + EG = EH; and AC and BD correspond to the vapour pressures of the pure solvents A and Brespectively.Select the correct answer using the codes given belowa) 1 and 2 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) 1 ,2 and 3
32. A maxima or minima obtained in the temperature composition curve of a mixture of two liquids, indi-catesa) an azeotropic mixture b) an eutectic formationc) that the liquids are immiscible with one anotherd) that the liquids are partially miscible at the maximum or minimum
33. Which of the following solution pairs can be separated by fractional distillation?
a) Water- 3HNO b) Water-HCl
c) Benzene-toluene d) OHHC 52 - water
34. When two liquids A and B are mixed, their boiling points become greater than both of them. The mixtureisa) ideal solutionb) non-ideal solution with negative deviation from Raoult’s lawc) non-ideal solution with positive deviation from Raoult’s lawd) normal solution
35. The azeotropic mixture of water (b.pt. 100°C) and HCl (b.pt. 85°C) boils at 108.5°C. When this mixtureis distilled, it is possible to obtaina) pure HCl b) pure water
c) pure water as well as HCl d) neither HCl nor OH2 in their pure states
36. 22OH solution is used for hair bleaching and is sold as a solution of approximately 5.0g 22OH per
100mL of the solution. The molecular mass of 22OH is 34. The molarity of this solution is approxi-
matelya) 0.15M b) 1.5 M c) 3.0 M d) 3.4 M
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37. A solution of 2CaCl is 0.5 mol/litre, then the moles of chloride ion in 500mL will be
a) 0.5 b) 0.25 c) 1.0 d) 0.75
38. How many grams of 42SOH are present in 0.25g mole of 42SOH ?
a) 2.45 b) 24.5 c) 0.25 d) 0.245
39. The vapour pressure of a solution having solid as solute and liquid as solvent isa ) d i r e c t l y p r o p o r t i o n a l t o m o l e f r a c t i o n o f t h e s o l v e n t
b ) i n v e r s e l y p r o p o r t i o n a l t o m o l e f r a c t i o n o f t h e s o l v e n t
c ) d i r e c t l y p r o p o r t i o n a l t o m o l e f r a c t i o n o f t h e s o l u t e
d ) i n v e r s e l y p r o p o r t i o n a l t o m o l e f r a c t i o n o f t h e s o l u t e
4 0 . I f 0p and p are the vapour pressures of a solvent and its solution respectively and 1N and 2N are the
mole fractions of the solvent and solute respectively, then correct relation is
a) 20Npp = b) 10Npp =
c) 10 pNp = d) ( )210 / NNpp =
41. The vapour pressure of ethyl alcohol and methyl alcohol are 45mm and 90mm. An ideal solution is
formed at the same temperature by mixing 60g of OHHC 52 with 40g of OHCH3 . Total vapour
pressure of the solution is approximatelya) 70mm b) 35mm c) 105mm d) 140mm
42. The vapour pressure of a dilute aqueous solution of glucose is 750mm of mercury at 373K. The molefraction of solute is
a)10
1b)
6.7
1c)
35
1d)
76
1
43. The vapour pressure of a pure liquid ‘A’ is 70 torr at 27°C. It forms an ideal solution with another liquidB. The mole fraction of B is 0.2 and total pressure of the solution is 84 torr at 27°C. The vapour pressureof pure liquid B at 27°C isa) 14 b) 56 c) 140 d) 70
44. The vapour pressure of water at room temperature is 23.8mm Hg. The vapour pressure of an aqueoussolution of sucrose with mole fraction 0.1 is equal toa) 23.9mm Hg b) 24.2mm Hg c) 21.42mm Hg d) 31.44mm Hg
45. The osmotic pressure of a 5% solution of cane sugar (molecular mass 342) at 15°C isa) 3.46mm b) 3.46atm c) 4.0atm d) 2.45atm
46. A solution has an osmotic pressure of 0.821 atm at 300K. Its concentration would bea) 0.66M b) 0.32M c) 0.066M d) 0.033M
47. If 3g of glucose (molecular mass 180) is dissolved in 60g of water at 15°C, then the osmotic pressure ofthis solution will bea) 0.34atm b) 0.65atm c) 6.57atm d) 5.57atm
48. An electrolyte A give 3 ions and B is a non-electrolyte. If 0.1M solution of B produces an osmoticpressure P, then 0.05 M solution of A will produce an osmotic pressure (assuming that the electrolyte iscompletely ionised) ofa) 1.5P b) P c) 0.5P d) 0.75P
49. If 0.1M solution of glucose and 0.1M urea solution are placed on two sides of a semipermeable mem-brane to equal heights, then it will be correct to say thata) there will be no net movement across the membraneb) glucose will flow towards urea solutionc) urea will flow towards glucose solutiond) water will flow from urea solution towards glucose solution
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50 A solution of urea contains 8.6g per litre. This solution is isotonic with a 5% solution of a non-volatilesolute. The molecular mass of the solute will bea) 349 b) 34.9 c) 3490 d) 861
51. The hard shell of an egg was dissolved in HCl. The egg was then placed in a concentrated solution ofNaCl. What will happen?a) the egg will shrink b) the egg will swellc) the egg will become harder d) there will be hardly any visible change
52. The freezing point of 1% aqueous solution of ( )23NOCa is
a) less than 0°C b) 0°Cc) higher than 0°C d) cannot be predicted
53. A solution of 1.25g of non-electrolyte in 20g of water freezes at 271.94K. If fK is 1.86K kg mol-1, then
molecular mass of the solute will bea) 207.8 b) 179.79 c) 209.6 d) 109.5
54. The ratio of the value of colligative property of KCl solution to that of sugar solution at the same concen-tration is nearlya) 1 b) 2 c) 0.5 d) 2.5
55. The freezing point order of the solution of glucose is
a) %1%2%3%10 >>> b) %10%3%2%1 >>>
c) %2%10%3%1 >>> d) %2%3%1%10 >>>
56. Which of the following solutions will have highest boiling point?a) 1% glucose in water b) 1% sucrose in waterc) 1% NaCl in water d) 1% urea in water
57. The freezing point of 1 molal NaCl solution assuming NaCl to be 100% dissociated in water isa) -1.86°C b) -3.72°C c) +1.86°C d) +3.72°C
58. The freezing point of equimolal aqueous solution will be highest for
a) ClNHHC 356 b) ( )23NOCa
c) ( )33NOLa d) 6126 OHC (glucose)
59. Elevation in boiling point was 0.52°C when 6g of a compound X is dissolved in 1000 g of water [Kb for
water is 0.52 per 1000g of water.] What is the molecular mass of the compound?a) 120 b) 60 c) 600 d) 180
60. The molal freezing point constant for water is 1.86. If 342g of cane sugar is dissolved in 1000g of water,the solution will freeze ata) 1.86°C b) -1.86°C c) -3.92°C d) 3.92°C
61. The molal elevation constant of water is 0.51. The boiling point of 0.1 molal aqueous NaCl solution isnearlya) 100.05°C b) 100.1°C c) 100.2°C d) 101.0°C
62. The molal elevation of an unknown solution is equal to the molal elevation of 0.1M solution of urea. Theconcentration of unknown solution isa) 1 M b) 0.01 M c) 0.1 M d) none of these
63. Benzoic acid dissolved in benzene will show a molecular mass ofa) 122 b) 61 c) 244 d) 366
64. The van’t Hoff factor of a 0.005M aqueous solution of KCl is 1.95. The degree of ionisation of KCl isa) 0.95 b) 0.97 c) 0.94 d) 0.96
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65. If the observed and normal osmotic pressures of 1% NaCl solution are 5.7 and 3.0 atm, the degree ofdissociation of NaCl isa) 0.9 b) 1.0 c) 0.57 d) 0.3
66. Which one of the following salts would have the same value of the van’t Hoff factor as that of
( )63 CNFeK ?
a) ( )342 SOAl b) NaCl c) 42SONa d) ( )
332 NOAl
67. Equimolal solutions of A and B show depression in freezing point in the ratio of 2:1. A remains in normalstate in solution. B will be in ....state in solutiona) normal b) associated c) hydrolysed d) dissociated
68. The value of observed and calculated molecular mass of ( )23NOCa are 65.4 and 165 respectively..
The degree of ionisation of the salt will bea) 0.25 b) 0.50 c) 0.60 d) 0.75
69. A solution containing 3.3g of a substance in 125g of benzene (b.pt = 80°C) boils at 80.66°C. If bK for
benzene is 3.28K kg mol-1, the molecular mass of the substance will bea) 130.20 b) 129.20 c) 132.20 d) 131.20
70. The elevation in boiling point of a solution of 10g of a binary electrolyte (molecular mass 100) in 100g of
water is bT∆ . The value of bK for water is
a)M
T f∆b) MT f ×∆ c) mT f ×∆ d)
m
T f∆
71. When mercuric chloride is added to the aqueous solution of potassium iodidea) the boiling point does not change b) freezing point is raisedc) the freezing point is lowered d) freezing point does not change
72. The molecular weight of benzoic acid in benzene as determined by depression in freezing point methodcorresponds toa) ionisation of benzoic acid b) dimerization of benzoic acidc) trimerization of benzoic acid d) solvation of benzoic acid
Answers
1. b 2. a 3. a 4. b 5. d 6. c7. c 8. b 9. c 10. b 11. c 12. b13. d 14. b 15. a 16. a 17. b 18. d19. b 20. a 21. c 22. c 23. b 24. b25. a 26. d 27. b 28. c 29. c 30. b31. d 32. a 33. c 34. c 35. d 36. b 37. b 38. b 39. a 40. b 41. a 42. d43. c 44. c 45. a 46. d 47. c 48. a49. a 50. a 51. a 52. a 53. d 54. b55. b 56. c 57. b 58. d 59. b 60. b61. b 62. c 63. c 64. a 65. a 66. d67. b 68. d 69. d 70. a 71. b 72. b
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Quest
ELECTROCHEMISTRY
1. Molten sodium chloride conducts electricity due to the presence ofa) free electrons b) free ionsc) free molecules d) atoms of sodium and chlorine
2. A solution of sodium sulphate in water is electrolysed using inert electrodes. The products at the cath-ode and anode are respectively
a) 22 , OH b) 22 , HO c) NaO ,2 d) 22 , SOO
3. The density of Cu is 394.8
−cmg . The quantity of electricity needed to plate an area cmcm 1010 × to
thickness of 2
10−
cm using 4CuSO solution is
a) 13586 C b) 27172 C c) 40 758 C d) 20 348 C
4. A current of 9.65 A is passed for 3h between nickel electrodes in 0.5 L of a 2 M solution of 23 )(NONi .
The molarity of solution after electrolysis would bea) 0.46 M b) 0.625 M c) 0.92 M d) 1.25 M
5. The time required to coat a metal surface of 280cm with cm
3105
−× thick layer of silver (density 10.5
g 3−
cm ) with the passage of 3A current through a silver nitrate solution is
a) 115 s b) 125 s c) 135 s d) 145 s
6. In the electrolysis of 2CuCl solution using copper electrode, if 2.5 g of Cu is deposited at cathode, then
at anode
a) 890 mL of 2Cl at STP is liberated b) 445 mL of 2O at STP is liberated
c) 2.5 g of copper is deposited d) a decrease of 2.5 g of mass takes place
7. The reaction occurring at anode when the electrolysis of 4CuSO is done using Pt electrode, is
a) −++→ eCuCu 2
2 b) −−++→+ eOSOHOHSO 422 2422
24
c) −+++→ eHOOH 442 22
d) −++→ eCuCu 22
22
8. The reaction occurring at anode when the electrolysis of an aqueous solution containing 42SONa and
4CuSO is done using Pt electrode, is
a) −++→ eCUCu 2
2 b) −−++→+ eOSOHOHSO 422 2422
24
c) −+++→ eHOOH 442 22
d) −−+→ egClCl 2)(2 2
9. Which of the following does not evolve oxygen at anode when the electrolysis is carried out
a) dilute 42SOH with Pt electrodes b) fused sodium hydroxide with Pt electrodes
c) acidic water with Pt electrodes d) dilute sulphuric acid using Cu electrodes
10. The standard potentials at 298 K for the following half reactions are given against each
−++ eaqZn 2)(
2 VsZn 762.0)( −
−++ eaqCu 3)(
3 VsCr 740.0)( −
−++ eaqH 2)(2 000.0)(sCr
−++ eaqFe 2)(
3 VaqFe 770.0)(2+
Which is the strongest reducing agent ?
a) )(sZn b) )(sCr c) )(2 gH d) )(2
aqFe+
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11. The reaction )()()()()(2
12 sAgaqClaqHsAgClgH ++=+
−+ occurs in the galvanic cell
a) AgaqAgNOaqKClsAgClAg |)(||)(|)(| 3 b) AgaqAgNOaqHClgHPt |)(||)(|)(| 32
c) AgsAgClaqHClgHPt |)(||)(|)(| 2 d) AgsAgClaqKClgHPt |)(||)(|)(| 2
12. The standard reduction potentials, E°, for the half reactions are
ZneZn =+−+
22 VE 76.0−=°
FeeFe =+−+
22 VE 41.0−=°
The emf of the cell involving the reaction FeZnZnFe +→+++ 22 is
a) - 0.35 V b) + 1.17 V c) + 0.35 V d) - 1.17 V
13. Which of the following statements is correct ?a) Cathode is negative terminal both in galvanic and electrolytic cellsb) Anode is positive terminal both in galvanic and electrolytic cells is negative terminal in a galvanic cellc) Cathode is negative terminal in an electrolytic cell whereas anode is negative terminal in a galvaniccelld) Anode is negative terminal in an elevtrolytic cell whereas cathode is positive terminal in a galvaniccell
14. Two half cells have potentials -0.76 V and - 0.13 V respectively. A galvanic cell is made from these twohalf-cells. Which of the following statements is correct ?a) Electrode of half-cell potential - 0.76 V serves as cathodeb) Electrode of half-cell potential - 0.76 V serves as anodec) Electrode of half-cell potential -0.13 V serves as anoded) Electrode of half-cell - 0.76 V serves as positive electrode and - 0.13 V as negative electrode
15. The reduction potential of hydrogen half-cell will be negative if
a) 1)( 2 =Hp atm and MH 1][ =+ b) 1)( 2 =Hp atm and ][
+H = 1M
c) 2)( 2 =Hp atm and ][+
H = 1 M d) 2)( 2 =Hp atm and MH 2][ =+
16. By how much will the potential of half-cell CuCu |2+ change if the solution is diluted to 100 times at 298
K ?a) Increases by 59 mV b) Decreases by 59 mVc) Increases by 29.5 mV d) Decreases by 29.5 mV
17. Given that E° values of MgMgKKAgAg |,|,|2+++ and CrCr |
3 are 0.80 V, - 2.93 V, -2.37 V, and
-0.74 V respectively, which of the following orders regarding the reducing power of metals is correct ?
a) KMgCrAg >>> b) KMgCrAg <<<
c) MgKCrAg >>> d) KMgAgCr >>>
18. Given that 0|2|2=PtHOHE at 298 K. The pressure of 2H gas would be
a)7
10−
atm b)10
10−
atm c)12
10−
atm d)14
10−
atm
19. The value of PtatmHOHE |)1(2|2 at 298 K would be
a) -0.207 V b) -0.414 V c) 0.207 V d) 0.414 V
20. A current of 9.65 A is drawn from a Daniell cell for exactly 1 h. If molar masses of Cu and Zn are 63.5
g 1−
mol and 65.4 g 1−mol respectively, the loss of mass at anode and gain in mass at cathode,
respectively, are
a) 11.43 g, 11.77 g b) 11.77 g , 11.43 g c) 22.86 g, 23.54 g d) 23.54 g, 22.86 g
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Quest
21. The following facts are available.
22 22 XYYX +→+−−
reactionNoYW →+−
22
22 22 ZXXZ +→+−−
Which of the following statements is correct ?
a)o
ZZ
o
XX
o
YY
o
WWEEEE
2|2|2|2|−−−− >>> b)
o
ZZ
o
XX
o
YY
o
WWEEEE
2|2|2|2|−−−− <<<
c)o
ZZ
o
XX
o
YY
o
WWEEEE
2|2|2|2|−−−− >>< d)
o
ZZ
o
XX
o
YY
o
WWEEEE
2|2|2|2|−−−− <<>
22. Which of the following facts is not true ?
a) If )|( MMEn+
° is negative , +H will be reduced to 2H by the metal M
b) If )|( MMEn+
° is positive, +nM will be reduced to M by 2H
c) In a cell, MMn
|+ assembly is attached to hydrogen-half cell. To produce spontaneous cell reac-
tion, metal M will act as negative electrode, if the potential MMn
|+ is negative. It will serve as positive
electrode, MMn
|+ has a positive cell potential.
d) Compounds of active metals ),,( MgNaZn are reducible by 2H whereas those of noble metals
),,( AuAgCu are not reducible.
23. Adding powdered Pb and Fe to a solution containing 1.0 M in each of +2Pb and
+2Fe ions would result
into the formation of
a) more of Pb and +2
Fe ions b) more of Fe and +2
Fe ions
c) more of Fe and Pb d) more of +2
Fe and +2
Pb ions
VEandVEGiveno
PbPb
o
FeFe13.044.0(
|2
|2 −=−= ++
24. A solution containing one mole per litre each of 23232323 )(,)(,,)( NOMgNOHgAgNONOCu is being
electrolysed by using inert electrodes.
The values of stadard potentials are, VEEVEo
CuCu
o
HgHg
o
AgAg34.0,79.0,80.0
|2
|22
|=== +++
VEo
MgMg3.2
|2 −=+ . With increasing voltage, the sequence of deposition of metals on the cathode will
be
a) MgCuHgAg ,,, b) AgHgCuMg ,,, c) CuHgAg ,, d) AgHgCu ,,
25. The standard reduction potentials of CuCu |2+ and
++CuCu |
2 are 0.337 V and 0.153 V, respectively..
The standard electrode potential of CuCu |+ half cell is
a) 0.184 V b) 0.827 V c) 0.521 V d) 0.490 V
26. A standard hydrogen electroded has zero electrode potential becausea) hydrogen is easiest to oxidise b) this electrode potential is assumed to be zeroc) hydrogen atom has one electron d) hydrogen is the lightest element
27. The stadard reduction potential values of three metallic cations, X, Y, Z are 0.52, - 0.03 and -1.18 V,respectively. The order of reducing power of the corresponding metals is
a) XZY >> b) ZYX >> c) XYZ >> d) YXZ >>
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28. A gas X at 1 atm is bubbled through a solution containing a mixture of 1 M Y and 1M Z at 25°C . If the
reduction potential of XYZ >> , thena) Y will oxidise X and not Zb) Y will oxidise Z and not Xc) Y will oxidise both X and Z d) Y will reduce both X and Z
29. For the electrochemical cell, VMMEXXMM 44.0)|(,|||| =°+−+ and VXXE 33.0)|( =°
− . From
this data, one can deduce that
a)−+
+→+ XMXM is the spontaneous reaction
b) XMXM +→+−+
is the spontaneous reaction
c) VEcell 77.0= d) VEcell 77.0−=
30. Which of the following statements about the spontaneous reaction occuring in a galvanic cell is alwaystrue ?
a) KQandGEocell <<°∆> ,0,0 b) KQandGE
ocell ><°∆> ,0,0
c) KQandGEocell >>°∆> ,0,0 d) KQandGEcell <<∆> ,0,0
31. STHG ∆−∆=∆ and
∆+∆=∆
pdT
GdTHG
)( then
dT
dEcell is
a)nF
S∆b)
S
nE
∆c) cellnFE− d) cellnFE+
32. )(2
aqCuZn+
+ )(2
aqZnCu+
+ Reaction quotient is ][
][2
2
+
+
=Cu
ZnQ . Variation of cellE with log Q is
of the type as shown as fig. With cellEVOA ,10.1= will be 1.1591 V when
A
O Qlog
cellE
a) 01.0]/[][22
=++
ZnCu b) 01.0]/[][22
=++
CuZn
c) 1.0]/[][22
=++
CuZn d) 1]/[][22
=++
CuZn
33.21
22 )(|)1(|)(ppHPtMHHPt
+ (where 1p and 2p are pressures), cell reaction will be spontaneous if
a) 21 pp = b) 21 pp > c) 12 pp > d) atmp 11 =
34.
21
22 )(|)1.0(|)(pp
ClPtMHClClPt cell reaction will be spontaneous if
a) 21 pp = b) 21 pp > c) 12 pp > d) atmp 11 =
35. For OHHPt 22 |)( , electrode potential at 298 K is
a) -0.2364 V b) -0.4137 V c) 0.4137 V d) 0.00 V
36. During electrolysis of acidified water, 2O gas is formed at the anode. To produce 2O gas at the anode
at the rate of 0.224 c.c per second at STP, current passed isa) 0.224 A b) 2.24 A c) 9.65 A d) 3.86 A
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Quest
37. When a lead storage battery is discharged
a) 2SO is evolved b) lead is formed
c) lead sulphate is formed d) sulphuric acid is consumed
38. 100 mL of a buffer of 1M )(3 aqNH and 1M )(4 aqNH+ are placed in two voltaic cells separately. AA
current of 1.5 A is passes through both cells for 20 minutes. If electrolysis of water only takes place
)(442 22 RHSOHeOOH−−
→++
)(442 22 LHSeOHOH−+
++→ , then pH of the
a) LHS half-cell will increase b) RHS half-cell will increasec) both half-cells will increase d) both half-cells will decrease
39. A 0.200 M KOH solution is electrolysed for 1.5 h using a current of 8.00 A. How many mol of 2O were
produced at the anode ?
a) 0.448 b) 0.224 c) 0.112 d)2
1024.2−
×
40. Anode mud is a
a) mixture of impure metals like Fe b) 2SO gas
c) mixture of PtAuAg ,, d) none
41. On passing one faraday of electricity through a dilute solution of an acid, the volume of hydrogenobtained at N.T.P. isa) 22400 mL b) 1120 mL c) 2240 mL d) 11200 mL
42. Copper sulphate solution is electrolysed between two platinum electrodes. A current is passed until1.6g of oxygen is liberated at anode. The amount of copper deposited at the cathode during the sameperiod isa) 6.36g b) 63.6g c) 12.7g d) 3.2g
43. One faraday of charge was passed through the electrostatic cells placed in series containing solutions
of +
Ag , +2Ni and +3
Cr respectively. The amount of Ag (at. mass 108), Ni (at. mass 59) and Cr (at.
mass 52) deposited will be Ag Ni Cr
a) 108g 29.5g 17.5gb) 108g 59.0g 52.0gc) 108g 108.0g 108.0gd) 108g 117.5g 166.0g
44. A certain current liberated 0.504g of hydrogen in 2 hours. How many grams of copper can be liberated
by the same current flowing for the same time in 4CuSO solution?
a) 12.7 g b) 15.9 g c) 31.8 g d) 63.5 g
45. The equivalent conductance at infinite dilution of NaCl, HCl and COONaCH3 at 298K are 126.0,
426.0 and 91.01
ohm−
. The equivalent conductance of acetic acid at infinite dilution at the same tem-
perature will be
a) 644.0 b) 300.0 c) 517.0 d) 391.046. The standard reduction potentials at 25°C for the following half reactions are given against each
( ) −++ eaqZn 22 ( )sZn , -0.762
( ) −++ eaqCr 33 ( )sCr , -0.740
−++ eH 22 ( )gH2 , 0.00
−++ eFe
3 +2Fe , 0.77
Which is the strongest reducing agent?
a) Zn b) Cr c) ( )gH2 d) ( )aqFe+2
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Quest
47. A solution containing one mole per litre of each ( ) ;23NOCu ;3AgNO ( ) ;232 NOHg ( )23NOHg is
being electrolysed by using inert electrodes. The values of standard electrode potentials (reduction
potentials) are voltAgAg 80.0/ =+
, voltHHg 79.0/2 22 =
+,
+2/ CuCu volt24.0+= ,
voltMgMg 37.2/ 2−=
+. With increasing voltage, the sequence of deposition of metals on the cath-
ode will be
a) CuHgAg ,, b) AgHgCu ,, c) MgCuHgAg ,,, d) AgHgCuMg ,,,
48. Given standard electrode potentials;
;33 FeeFe →+−+ voltE 036.0−=°
;22FeeFe →+
−+ voltE 440.0−=°
The standard electrode potential E° for +−+→+
23 FeeFe is
a) -0.476 volt b) -0.404 volt c) 0.440 volt d) -0.772 volt
49. The potential of a hydrogen electrode at HP 10 is
a) 0.51 volt b) 0 volt c) -0.5.91 volt d) 0.059 volt50. The emf of the cell,
( ) ( ) AgMAgMNiNi 0.10.12 ++
voltNiNiforE 25.0/[2
−=°+
, ]80.0/ voltAgAgforE =°+
is given by
a) volt55.080.025.0 =+− b) ( ) volt05.180.025.0 −=+−−
c) ( ) volt05.125.080.00 +=−−+ d) ( ) volt55.025.080.0 −=−−−
51. ( ) voltNiNiE 25.0/2−=°
+, ( ) voltAuAuE 50.1/3
=°+
. The emf of the voltaic cell
( ) ( ) AuMAuMNiNi 0.10.1 32 ++ is
a) 1.25 volt b) -1.75 volt c) 1.75 volt d) 4.0 volt
52. When the electric current is passed through a cell having an electrolyte, the positive ions move towardscathode and negative ions towards the anode. If the cathode is pulled out of the solutiona) the positive and negative ions will move towards anode.b) the positive ions will start moving towards the anode while negative ions will stop moving.c) the negative ions will continue to move towards anode while positive ions will stop moving.d) the positive and negative ions will start moving randomly.
53. The oxidation potentials of Zn, Cu, Ag, 2H and Ni are 0.76, -0.34, -0.80, 0.55 volt respectively. Which
of the following reactions will provide maximum voltage?
a) +++→+
22 ZnCuCuZn b) +++→+
222 ZnAgAgZn
c) CuHCuH +→+++ 22
2d) NiHNiH +→+
++ 222
54. Which one of the following will increase the voltage of the cell?
AgSnAgSn 22 2+→+
++
a) Increase in the size of silver rod b) Increase in the concentration of +2Sn ions
c) Increase in the concentration of +
Ag ions d) None of the above
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Quest
55. A chemist wants to produce ( )gCl2 from molten NaCl. How many grams could be produced if he uses
a steady current of 2 ampere for 2.5 minutes?a) 3.55 g b) 1.775 g c) 0.110 g d) 0.1775 g
56. In the electrolysis of 2CuCl solution, the mass of cathode is increased by 6.4g. What occurred at
copper anode?
a) 0.224 litre of 2Cl was liberated b) 1.12 litre of oxygen was liberated
c) 0.05 mole +2Cu passed, to the solution d) 0.1 mole +2Cu passed to the cathode
57. Consider the reaction, ( ) ( ) ( ) 22 22 BraqClaqBrgCl +→+−− . The emf of the cel l, when
MBrBrCl 01.0][][][ 2 ===−−
and 2Cl gas is 1 atm pressure, will be (E° for the above reaction is =
0.29 volt)a) 0.54 volt b) 0.35 volt c) 0.24 volt d) -0.29 volt
58. How much silver will be obtained by that quantity of current which displaces 5.6 litre of 2H ?
a) 54 g b) 13.5 g c) 20 g d) 108 g
59. What is the number of coulombs required for the conversion of one mole of −4MnO to one mole of
+2Mn ?
a) 965005× b) 965003× c) 96500 d) 9650
60. Three faradays of electricity was passed through an aqueous solution of iron metal(at. mass 56). Themass deposited at the cathode isa) 56 g b) 84 g c) 112 g d) 168 g
61. The standard electrode potentials of Zn, Ag and Cu are -0.76, 0.80 and 0.34 volt respectively. Then
a) Ag can oxidise Zn and Cu b) Ag can reduce +2Zn and +2Cu
c) Zn can reduce +2
Ag and +2Cu d) Cu can oxidise Zn and Ag
62. The standard emf for the cell reaction CuZnCuZn +→+++ 22 is 1.10 volt at 25°C. The emf for the
cell reaction when 0.1M +2
Cu and 0.1M +2Zn solutions are used at 25°C, is
a) 1.10 volt b) 0.110 volt c) -1.10 volt d) -0.110 volt
63. Three moles of electrons are passed through three solutions in succession containing 3AgNO , 4CuSO ,
and 3AuCl respectively. The ratio of amounts of cations reduced at cathode will be
a) 3:2:1 b) 3:1:2 c) 1:2:3 d) 2:3:6
64. In the electrolysis of an aqueous solution of NaOH , 2.8 litre of oxygen gas at NTP was liberated at
anode. How much of hydrogen gas was liberated at cathode?a) 2.8 litre b) 5.6 litre c) 11.2 litre d) 22.4 litre
65. Two half-cells have potentials -0.44 and 0.799 volt respectively. These two are coupled to make agalvanic cell. Which of the following will be true?a) Electrode of half-cell potential -0.44 V will act as anodeb) Electrode of half-cell potential -0.44 V will act as cathodec) Electrode of half-cell potential 0.799 V will act as anoded) Electrode of half-cell potential -0.44 V will act as a positive terminal
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Quest
66. When a lead storage battery is charged
a) 2PbO is dissolved
b) the lead electrode becomes coated with lead sulphatec) sulfuric acid is regeneratedc) the amount of acid decreases
67. The emf of the cell involving the following reaction, +++→+ HAgHAg 222 2 is 0.80 volt. The
standard oxidation potential of silver electrode isa) -0.80 volt b) 0.80 volt c) 0.04 volt d) -0.40 volt
68. Which of the following reactions occurs at cathode during charging of storage battery?
a) PbePb →+−+ 22 b) −+
+→ ePbPb 22
c)4
24
2PbSOSOPb →+
−+
d) −−++++→+ eSOHPbOOHPbSO 242 2
2224
69. Consider the following statements
i) Unit of specific conductivity is 11cmohm
−−
ii) Specific conductivity of strong electrolytes decreases on dilution.iii) The amount of an ion discharged during electrolysis does not depend upon resistanceiv) The unit of electrochemical equivalence is g/coulomba) All are correct b) All are wrongc) Only (i), (ii), (iv) are correct d) Only (ii), (iii), (iv) are correct
Answers
1. b 2. a 3. b 4. c 5. b 6. d7. c 8. c 9. d 10. a 11. c 12. c13. c 14. b 15. c 16. b 17. b 18. d19. b 20. b 21. a 22. d 23. a 24. c25. c 26. b 27. a 28. a 29. b 30. d31. a 32. b 33. b 34. c 35. c 36. d37. c 38. b 39. c 40. c 41. d 42. a43. a 44. b 45. d 46. a 47. a 48. d49. c 50. c 51. c 52. d 53. b 54. c55. c 56. d 57. b 58. a 59. a 60. b61. c 62. a 63. d 64. b 65. a 66. c67. a 68. a 69. a
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Quest
CHEMICAL ENERGITICS
1. The difference between heats of reaction at constant pressure and constant volume for the reaction,
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )lOHgCOgOlHC 22266 612152 +→+ , at 25°C in kJ mol-1 is
a) -7.43 b) +3.72 c) -3.72 d) +7.43
2. The products of combustion of an aliphatic thiol (RSH) at 298 K are
a) ( ) ( ) ( )gSOgOHgCO 222 and , b) ( ) ( ) ( )gSOlOHgCO 222 and ,
c) ( ) ( ) ( )gSOlOHlCO 222 and , d) ( ) ( ) ( )lSOlOHgCO 222 and ,
3. The expression, °∆+°∆=°∆ HHH vapfussubl , is true at all
a) temperatures b) pressuresc) temperatures and pressures d) temperatures and 1 atm pressure condition
4. The word “standard” in standard molar enthalpy change impliesa) temperature 298 K b) pressure 1 atmc) temperature 298 K and pressure 1 atm d) all temperatures and all pressure
5. Given ( ) 12.45 −° =∆ molkJHCNHioniz
and ( ) 13 1.2 −
° =∆ molkJCOOHCHHioniz. Which
one of the following facts is true?
a) ( ) ( )COOHCHpKHCNpK aa 3= b) ( ) ( )COOHCHpKHCNpK aa 3>
c) ( ) ( )COOHCHpKHCNpK aa 3<
d) ( ) ( ) ( )COOHCHpKHCNpK aa 307.2/17.45=
6. For a monatomic gas, the value of the ratio of mpC , and mVC , is
a) 5/3 b) 7/5 c) 9/7 d) 9/11
7. For a diatomic gas, the value of the ratio of mpC , and mVC , is
a) 5/3 b) 7/5 c) 9/7 d) 9/11
8. For a linear triatomic gas, the value of the ratio of mpC , and mVC , is
a) 5/3 b) 7/5 c) 9/7 d) 15/13
9. Molar heat capacity of water in equilibrium with ice at constant pressure isa) zero b) infinity
c) 1145.40 −− molKkJ d) 1148.75 −− molKkJ
10. For a nonlinear triatomic gas, the value of the ratio mpC , and mVC , is
a) 7/5 b) 9/7 c) 7/6 d) 17/13
11. Standard molar enthalpy of formation of 2CO is equal to
a) zerob) the standard molar enthalpy of combustion of gaseous carbon
c) the sum of standard molar enthalpies of formation of CO and 2O
d) the standard molar enthalpy of combustion of carbon(graphite)
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Quest
12. The ofH∆ for ( ) ( )gCOgCO ,2 and ( )gOH2 are -393.5, -110.5 and
18.241 −− molkJ respec-
tively. The standard enthalpy change (in kJ mol -1) for the reaction
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )gOHgCOgHgCO 222 +→+ is
a) 524.1 b) 41.2 c) -262.5 d) -41.2
13. If 1.00 kcal of heat is added to 1.2L of oxygen in a cylinder at constant pressure of 1.00 atm, the
volume increases to 1.5L. E∆ for this process isa) 0.993 kcal b) 1.0073 kcal c) 0.0993 kcal d) 1.00073 kcal
14. Using only the following data:
( ) ( )gCOsOFe 332 + ( ) ( )gCOsFe 232 + kJH 8.26−=°∆
( ) ( )gCOsFe 2+ ( ) ( )gCOsFeO + kJH 5.16−=°∆
the °∆H value, in kilojoules, for the reaction ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )gCOsFeOgCOsOFe 232 2 +→+ is calcu-
lated to bea) -43.3 b) -10.3 c) +6.2 d) +10.3
15. Heat of neutralisation of CsOH with all strong acids is 13.4 kcal mol-1. The heat released on neutralisationof CsOH with HF (weak acid) is 16.4 kcal mol-1.
°∆H of ionisation of HF isa) 3.0 kcal b) -3.0 kcal c) 6.0 kcal d) 0.3 kcal
16. The C-Cl bond energy can be calculated from
a) ( )lCClH f ,4°∆ only b) ( )lCClH f ,4°∆ and ( )2ClD
c) ( ) ( )24 ,, ClDgCClH f°∆
d) ( ) ( ) ( )gCHClDlCClH ff ,,, 24 °∆°∆ and ( )4CClH vap°∆
17. Using bond enthalpies (symbolized by ε ), an estimated value of °∆H for the reaction
( ) ( ) ( )gCHCHgHgCHCH 33222 −→+== would be
a) CCHCHHCC −−−= ε−ε−ε+ε 2 b) CCHCHHCC −−−= ε−ε−ε+ε 6
c) CCHCHHCC −−−= ε−ε−ε−ε 4 d) CCHCHHCC −−−= ε−ε−ε+ε 4
18. From the given reactions
,24 242 OHSiFHFSiO +→+ kcalH 17.10−=∆
,24 242 OHSiClHClSiO +→+ kcalH 7.36=∆it may be concluded that
a) HF will attack 2SiO and HCl will not b) HCl will attack 2SiO and HF will not
c) HF and HCl both attack 2SiO d) none attacks 2SiO
19. Which is not an intensive property?a) boiling point b) refractive index c) molarity d) volume
20. 1 mol of 3NH gas at 27°C is expanded under adiabatic condition to make volume 8 times ( )33.1=γ .
Final temperature and work done respectively area) 150K, 900 cal b) 150K, 400 cal c) 250K, 1000 cal d) 200K, 800 cal
63 Quest Tutorials
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Quest
21. The standard heat of combustion of propane is -2220.1 kJ mol-1. The standard heat of vaporisation of
liquid water is 44.0 kJ mol-1. What is °∆H of
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )gOHgCOgOgHC 22283 435 +→+
a) -2220.1 kJ b) -2044.1 kJ c) -2396.1 kJ d) -2176.1 kJ
22. The gas absorbs 100J heat and is simultaneously compressed by a constant extermal pressure of
1.50 atm from 8L to 2L in volume. Hence E∆ will be
a) -812 J b) 812 J c) 1011 J d) 911 J
23. RCC vp =− . This R is
a) Change in K.E. b) change in rotational energyc) work done which system can do on expanding the gas per mol per degree increase in temperatured) all correct
24. Which is equal to the total work done?a) decrease in G b) decrease in A c) decrease in H d) decrease in E
25. Heat of neutralisation of oxalic acid is -25.4 kcal mol-1 using strong base, NaOH. Hence enthalpy
change for the process 422 OCH −++
2422 OCH , is
a) 2.0 kcal b) -11.8 kcal c) 1.0 kcal d) -1.0 kcal
26. Inversion temperature is
a)a
Rb
2b)
Rb
a2c)
a
Rbd)
Rb
a
27. Heat of combustions of 2, HC and 62HC are ,1x− 2x− and 3x− . Hence heat of formation of
62HC is
a) 321 32 xxx +−− b) 321 xxx +−− c) 213 32 xxx ++− d) 321 xxx −+
28. B.E. of N-H, H-H and NN ≡≡ bonds are 21,qq and 3q . H∆ of
322 23 NHHN →+ is
a) 123 23 qqq −+ b) 231 22 qqq −− c) 123 63 qqq −+ d) 321 qqq −+
29. Standard molar enthalpy of formation of 2CO is equal to
a) zerob) the standard molar enthalpy of combustion of gaseous carbon
c) the sum of standard molar enthalpies of CO and 2O
d) the standard molar enthalpy of combustion of carbon (s).
30. Heat of hydrogenation of ethene is 1x and that of benzene is 2x . Hence resonance energy of ben-
zene is
a) 21 xx − b) 21 xx + c) 213 xx − d) 21 3xx −
31. Heat of neutralistion of a weak dibasic acid by NaOH is -26 kcal mol-1. Hence its dissociation energy isa) 12.3 kcal mol-1 b) 1.4 kcal mol-1 c) -13.7 kcal mol-1 d) -1.4 kcal mol-1
32. ( ) ( ) ( )lOHgOgH 2222
1→+ ( ) ;.. 1xHHEB =− ( ) ;.. 2xOOEB === ( ) 3.. xHOEB =− . La-
Quest Tutorials 64
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Quest
tent heat of vaporisation for water liquid into water vapour = 4x . Then fH∆ (heat of formation of liquid
water) is
a) 432
12
xxx
x +−+ b) 42
132
2 xx
xx −−− c) 432
1 22
xxx
x −−+ d) 432
1 22
xxx
x +−+
33. If H∆ of a reaction is 100 kJ mol-1, then the activation energy must bea) greater than 100 kJ mol-1b) less than 100 kJ mol-1
c) equal to 100 kJ mol-1 d) none is correct
34. A certain mass of gas is made to undergo separately adiabatic and isothermal expansions to the samepressure, starting from the same initial conditions of temperature and pressure. Then, as compared toisothermal expansion, in the case of adiabtic expansion, the finala) volume and temperature will be higher.b) volume and temperature will be lower .c) temperature will be lower but the final volume will be higher.d) volume will be lower but the final temperature will be higher.
35. The dissolution of ClNH4 in water is endothermic even though ClNH4 dissolves in water sponta-
neously. Which one of the following best explains this behaviour?
a) The bonds in solid ClNH4 are weak
b) The entropy-driving force causes dissolutionc) Endothermic processes are energetically favourabled) The dissolving process is not related to energy
36. The work done in ergs for a reversible expansion of one mole of an ideal gas from a volume of 10 litreto 20 litre at 25°C is
a) 2log2981031.8303.2 7 ××× b) 2log2980821.0303.2 ××
c) 5.0log2980821.0303.2 ×× d) 2log2982303.2 ××
37. Which of the following is an endothermic reaction?
a) ( ) ( ) ( )lOHgOgH 222 22 →+ b) ( ) ( ) ( )gNOgOgN 222 →+
c) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )lOHaqNaClaqHClaqNaOH 2+→+
d) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )lOHgCOgOaqOHHC 22252 323 +→+
38. Which of the following reactions is endothermic?
a) ( ) ( ) ( )gCOsCaOsCaCO 23 +→ b) ( ) ( ) ( )sFeSsSsFe →+
c) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )lOHaqNaClaqHClaqNaOH 2+→+
d) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )lOHgCOgOgCH 2224 22 +→+
39. The formation of water from ( )gH2 and ( )gO2 is an exothermic process because
a) the chemical energy of ( )gH2 and ( )gO2 is more than that of water
b) the chemical energy of ( )gH2 and ( )gO2 is less than that of water
c) the temperature of ( )gH2 and ( )gO2 is higher than that of water
d) the temperature of ( )gH2 and ( )gO2 is lower than that of water
65 Quest Tutorials
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Quest
40. The difference between heats of reaction at constant pressure and constant volume for the reaction,
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )lOHgCOgOlHC 22266 612152 +→+ at 25°C in kJ is
a) +7.43 b) +3.72 c) -7.43 d) -3.72
41. For a gaseous reaction, ( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) EgDgCgBgA ∆+→+ ,333 is 17 kcal at 27°C. Assuming
R = 2 cal K-1 mol-1, the value of H∆ for the above reaction isa) 15.8 kcal b) 18.2 kcal c) 20.0 kcal d) 16.4 kcal
42. For the reactions,
(i) ( ) ( ) ( ) kJxgHClgClgH +=+ 222 (ii) ( ) ( ) ( ) kJygClgHgHCl −+= 222
which of the following statement is correct?
a) 0>− yx b) 0<− yx c) 0=− yx d) none of these
43. ( ) ( ) ( )Rfyfxf HHH ∆∆∆ ,, and ( )SfH∆ denote the enthalpies of formation of x, y, R and S
respectively. The enthalpy of the reaction, SRyx +→+ is given by
a) ( ) ( )yfxf HH ∆+∆ b) ( ) ( )SfRf HH ∆+∆
c) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )SfRfyfxf HHHH ∆−∆−∆+∆ d) ( ) ( ) ( ) ( )yfxfSfRf HHHH ∆−∆−∆+∆
44. If kcalOHOHH 7.132 +=+ −+, then heat of complete neutralisation of one gram mole of 42SOH
with strong base will bea) 13.7 kcal b) 27.4 kcal c) 6.85 kcal d) 3.425 kcal
45. From the thermochemical reactions,
;2
12 COOCgraphite →+ kJH 5.110−=∆
;2
122 COOCO →+ kJH 2.283−=∆ , the heat of reaction of ( ) 22 COOC graphite →+ is
a) +393.7 kJ b) -393.7 kJ c) -172.7 kJ d) +172.7 kJ
46. ;2
1222 OHOH →+ kcalH 09.68−=∆
( ) ;2
122 HaqKOHwaterOHK +→++ kcalH 0.48−=∆
( );aqKOHwaterKOH →+ kcalH 0.14−=∆
the heat of formation of KOH is
a) 0.144839.68 −+− b) 0.140.4839.68 +−−
c) 0.140.4839.68 +−+ d) 0.140.4839.68 −++
47. The enthalpies of combustion of ( )graphiteC and ( )diamondC are -393.5 and -395.4 kJ/mol respectively..
The enthalpy of conversion of ( )graphiteC to ( )diamondC in kJ/mol is
a) -1.9 b) -788.9 c) 1.9 d) 788.9
48. The heat of combustion of yellow phosphorus and red phosphorus are -9.91 kJ and -8.78 kJ respectvely.The heat of transition of yellow phosphorus isa) -18.69 kJ b) +1.13 kJ c) 18.69 kJ d) -1.13 kJ
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Quest
49. Given ( ) ( ) ( ) kcalgCOgOsC 2.9422 +→+
( ) ( ) ( ) kcallOHgOgH 3.682
1222 +→+
( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) kcallOHgCOgOgCH 8.21022 2224 ++→+
The heat of formation of methane in kcal will be
a) 45.9 b) 47.8 c) 20.0 d) 47.3
50. The heat of combustion of ethanol determined in a bomb calorimeter is -670.48 kcal mol-1 at 298K.
What is E∆ at 298K for the reaction?a) -760 kcal mol-1 b) -670.48 kcal mol-1 c) +760 kcal mol-1 d) +670.48 kcal mol-1
51. For an endothermic reaction where H∆ represents the enthalpy of reaction, the minimum value of theenergy of activation will be
a) less than H∆ b) zero c) equal to H∆ d) more than H∆
52. If ;22 SOOS →+ kJH 2.298−=∆
;2
1322 SOOSO →+ kJH 7.98−=∆
;4223 SOHOHSO →+ kJH 2.130−=∆
OHOH 2222
1→+ ; kJH 3.227−=∆ the heat of formation of 42 OSH will be
a) -754.4 kJ b) +320.5 kJ c) -650.3 kJ d) -433.7 kJ
53. If °∆ fH for ( )lOH 22 and ( )lOH2 are -188 kJ mol-1 and -286 kJ mol-1, what will be the enthalpy
change of the reaction ( ) ( ) ( )gOlOHlOH 2222 2 +→ ?
a) 146 kJ mol-1 b) -196 kJ mole-1 c) -494 kJ mole-1 d) -98 kJ mole-1
54. Given, ( ) ( ) ( );22 gCOgOsC →+ kJH 395−=∆
( ) ( ) ( );22 gSOgOsS →+ kJH 295−=∆
( ) ( ) ( ) ( );23 2222 gSOgCOgOlCS +→+ kJH 1110−=∆
The heat of formation of ( )lCS2 is
a) 250 kJ b) 62.5 kJ c) 31.25 kJ d) 125 kJ
55. The heat of combustion of rhombic and monoclinic sulphur are -70960 and -71030 calorie respectively.What will be the heat of conversion of rhombic sulphur to monoclinic sulphur?a) -70960 cal b) -71030 cal c) 70 cal d) -70 cal
56. The enthalpy of combustion of cyclohexane, cyclohexene and 2H are respectively -3920,
-3800 and -241 kJ mol-1. The heat of hydrogenation of cyclohexene isa) -121 kJ mole-1 b) 121 kJ mole-1 c) -242 kJ mol-1 d) 242 kJ mol-1
57. One mole of an ideal gas at 300K is expanded isothermally from an initial volume of 1 litre to 10 litre.
The E∆ for this process is (R = 2 cal K-1 mol-1)
a) 163.7 cal b) 1381.1 cal c) 9 litre-atm d) zero
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Quest
58. The latent heat of vaporisation of a liquid at 500K and 1 atm pressure is 10 kcal/mol. What will be the
change in internal energy ( )E∆ of 3 moles of liquid at the same temperature?
a) 13.0 kcal b) -13.0 kcal c) 27.0 kcal d) -27.0 kcal
59. The enthalpy change of a reaction does not depend ona) State of reactants and products b) Nature of reactants and productsc) Different intermediate reactions d) Initial and final enthalpy change of reaction
60. Which plot represents an exothermic reaction?
a)
R
PH
coordinateReaction
b) R
P
H
coordinateReaction
c)
R P
H
coordinateReaction
d)
R P
H
coordinateReaction
61. kcalxSOOS 22
332 +→+ ; kcalySOOSO +→+ 322
2
1
The heat of formation of 2SO is
a) xy 2− b) yx +2 c) ( )yx + d) yx /2
62. Given,
( ) ( )gClgNH 23 3+ ( ) ( );33 gHClgNCl + 1H∆−
( ) ( )gHgN 22 3+ ( )gHN32 ; 2H∆−
( ) ( )gClgH 22 + ( )gHCl2 ; 3H∆−
The heat of formation of ( )gNCl3 in terms of 1H∆ , 2H∆ and 3H∆ is
a) 3212
3
2
1HHHH f ∆−∆+∆−=∆ b) 321
2
3
2
1HHHH f ∆−∆−∆−=∆
c) 3212
3
2
1HHHH f ∆−∆−∆=∆ d) None
63. The value of °∆H for the reaction ( ) ( ) ( )gCuIgIgCu →+ −+ is -446 kJ mol-1. If the ionisation
energy of ( )gCu is 745 kJ mol-1 and the electron affinity of ( )gI is -295 kJ mol-1, then the value of
°∆H for the formation of one mole of ( )gCuI from ( )gCu and ( )gI is
a) -446 kJ b) 450 kJ c) 594 kJ d) 4 kJ
64. If the enthalpy change for the reaction,
( ) ( ) ( ) ( ) kcalHgHClgClCHgClgCH 25,324 −=∆+→+ , Bond energy of C-H is 20 kcal,
bond energies of H-H and H-Cl are same in magnitude, then for the reaction
( ) ( ) ( ) =∆→+ HgHClgClgH ,222
a) -22.5 kcal/mol b) -20.5 kcal/mol c) -32.5 kcal/mol d) -12.5 kcal/mol
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QuestAnswers
1. a 2. b 3. d 4. b 5. b 6. a7. c 8. d 9. b 10. c 11. d 12. b13. a 14. c 15. b 16. d 17. a 18. a19. d 20. a 21. b 22. c 23. c 24. b25. a 26. b 27. a 28. c 29. d 30. c31. b 32. c 33. a 34. b 35. b 36. a37. b 38. a 39. a 40. c 41. b 42. c43. d 44. b 45. b 46. b 47. c 48. b49. c 50. c 51. c 52. a 53. b 54. d55. c 56. a 57. d 58. c 59. c 60. a61. a 62. a 63. d 64. c 65. c 66. a
65. The standard heat of formation of sodium ions in aqueous solution from the following dataHeat of formation of NaOH (aq) at 25°C = - 470.7 kJ
Heat of formation of −OH (aq) at 25°C = - 228.8 kJ is
a) - 251.9 kJ b) 241.9 kJ c) -241.9 kJ d) 251.9 kJ
66. AB, 2A and 2B are diatomic molecules. If the bond enthalpies of 2A , AB and 2B are in the ratio
1:1:0.5 and the enthalpy of formation of AB from 2A and 2B is -100 kJ mol-1, what is the bond
enthalpy of 2A ?
a) 400 kJ mol-1 b) 200 kJ mol-1 c) 100 kJ mol-1 d) 300 kJ mol-1
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Quest
SOLIDSTATE
1. Metallic gold crystallises in fcc lattice with edge-length 4.070 Å . Closest distance between gold atomsisa) 2.035Å b) 8.140Å c) 2.878Å d) 1.357Å
2. ABCABC types of arrangement of different layers, in a closed packed structure is called
a) hcp b) bcc
c) fcc d) cubic closed packed ( )ccp
3. The hcp arrangement of ions is described by
a) ABBA....... b) ABABA...... c) ABCABC....... d) ABCCBA.......
4. The C.N. of ccp structure isa) 16 b) 12 c) 8 d) 4
5. Zinc blende structure is obtained when +2Zn occupies
a) all tetrahedral sites b) half tetrahedral sitesc) all octahedral sites d) half octahedral sites
6. Frenkel defect appears ina) AgI b) ZnS c) AgBr d) all
7. Lithium selenide can be described as a closest packed array of selenide ions with lithium ions in all ofthe tetrahedral holes. Formula of lithium selenide is
a) SeLi2 b) LiSe c) 2LiSe d) SeLi3
8. In hcp structure, the packing fraction isa) 0.68 b) 0.74 c) 0.50 d) 0.54
9. The presence of F-centres in a crystal makes ita) conducting b) colourless c) coloured d) non-conducting
10. The CsCl structure is observed in alkali halides only when the radius of the cation is sufficiently largeto keep its eight nearest-neighbour anion from touching. Minimum value of ratio of cation to anion
radii, )/( −+ rr is needed to prevent this contacta) 0.414 b) 0.225 c) 0.732 d) 0.525
11. How many octahedral sites per sphere in a cubic-closest packed ( )fcc structure are there
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
12. Of the following crystal lattices, the one that has the largest packing fraction is
a) bcc b) fcc d) simple cubic d) simple trigonal
13. A compound is formed by elements A and B arranged in a cubic structure. A atoms are at the cornersand B atoms are at the face centers. What is the formula of the compound
a) AB b) 2AB c) 3AB d) BA3
14. An electron trapped in an anion vacancy within the crystal is calleda) n-type conductor b) p-type conductorc) F-centre d) insulator
15. The n-type semiconductor is obtained when Si is doped witha) Al b) Ge c) B d) As
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Quest
16. The p-type semiconductor is obtained when Si is doped witha) Al b) Ge c) Ga d) As
17. BCC type structure is fora) NaCl b) CsCl c) both d) none
18. FCC type structure is fora) CsCl b) AgCl c) MgO d) b and c
19. 6 : 6 of NaCl coordination changes to 8 : 8 coordination ona) applying high P b) increase in temperaturec) both d) no effect on coordination
20. 8 : 8 coordination of CsCl is found to change into 6 : 6 ona) applying high P b) increase in temperaturec) both d) none
21. Antifluorite structure is for
a) 2ThO b) ONa2 c) both d) none
22. At critical temperature of liquid, surface tension isa) zero b) infinitec) different for different liquids d) can’t be measured
23. An alloy of copper, silver and gold is found to have copper constituting ccp lattice. If silver atomsoccupy the edge centres and gold is present at body centre, the formula of the alloy is a)
AuAgCu 14 b) AuAgCu 44 c) AuAgCu 34 d) CuAgAu
24. The ionic radii of +Rb and −
I are 1.46Å and 2.16Å. The most probable type of structure exhibited byit is
a) CaCl type b) NaCl type c) ZnS type d) 2CaF type
25. Copper crystallises in a structure of face centred cubic unit cell. The atomic radius of copper is 1.28Å.What is axial length of an edge of copper ?a) 2.16Å b) 3.63Å c) 3.94Å d) 4.15Å
26. The ionic radii of −−++++ 222,,,,, OBrSrMgCsK and −2
S are 133,169,66,112,196,140 and 184 pm
respectively. Which of the following does not have fcc lattice
a) KBr b) CsBr c) MgO d) SrS
27. Gold crystallises in a face centred cubic structure. It has an atomic radius of 1.44Å. What is thedimension of the unit cell ?a) 4.09Å b) 2.05Å c) 3.5Å d) 2.92Å
28. How many number of atoms are there in a cube basic unit cell having one atom on each corner andtwo atoms on each body diagonal of the cubea) 8 b) 6 c) 4 d) 9
29. In a face centred cubic arrangement of A and B atoms, A atoms are at the corner of the unit cell and Batoms at the face centre. One of the A atom is missing from one corner in unit cells. The simplestformula of the compound is
a) 37BA b) 3AB c) 247BA d) 38/7 BA
30. A binary solid )(−+
BA has a rock salt structure. If the edge length is 400 pm and radius of cation is 75
pm, the radius of anion isa) 100 pm b) 125 pm c) 250 pm d) 325 pm
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Quest
31. A binary solid )(−+
BA has a zinc blende structure with −B ions constituting the lattice and +
A ionsoccupying 25% tetrahedral holes. The formula of solid is
a) AB b) BA2 c) 2AB d) 4AB
32. A solid is made of two elements X and Z. The atoms Z are in ccp arrangement while atoms X occupyall tetrahedral sites. What is the formula of the compound
a) XZ b) 2XZ c) ZX 2 d) 32ZX
33. For a solid with the following structure, the co-ordination number of the point B is
B
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
34. The co-ordination number of a metal crystallising in a hexagonal closed packed structure isa) 12 b) 4 c) 8 d) 6
35. The total number of elements of symmetry in a cubic crystal isa) 7 b) 23 c) 14 d) 10
36. For the structrue given below, the site marked as S is
S
a) Cubic void b) Tetrahedral void c) Octahedral void d) none of these
37. Bragg’s equation has no solution whena) dn 2=λ b) dn 2>λ c) dn 2<λ d) none
38. A crystal may have one or more planes of symmetry and one or more axis of symmetry, but it hasa) Two centres of symmetry b) No centre of symmetryc) One centre of symmetry d) Four centres of symmetry
39. The number of atoms in 100 gm of an fcc crystal with density 310
−= cmgmd and cell edge as 200
pm, is equal toa) 25
103× b) 24105× c) 25
101× d) 25102×
40. A solid −+BA has −
B ions arranged as below. If +A ions occupy half of the octahedral sites in the
structrue, the formula of solid is
a) AB b) 2AB c) BA2 d) 43BA
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Quest
41. CsBr contains bcc structure. The length of its one side is 4.3Å. The minimum distance between Cs
and Br ion will bea) 0.897Å b) 3.72Å c) 1.947Å d) none
42. An element occupying a BCC structure has 231008.12 × unit cells. The total number of atoms of the
element in these cells will be
a) 231016.24 × b) 23
1018.36 × c) 231004.6 × d) 23
1008.12 ×
43. A compound formed by the elements X and Y crystallises in cubic structure in which X atoms are at thecorners of the cube and Y atoms are at the centre of the face. The formula of the compound is
a) 2XY b) 32YX c) XY d) 3XY
44. For the structure of solid given below, if the lattice points represent +A ions and the −
B ions occupyall the tetrahedral voids, then co-ordination number of A is
a) 8 b) 6 c) 4 d) 12
45. In crystals of which of the following ionic compounds, would you expect maximum distance betweencentres of cations and anionsa) CsF b) CsI c) LiI d) LiF
46. The lustre of metal is due toa) Its high density b) Its high polishingc) Its chemical inertness d) Presence of free electrons
47. A metallic element exists as a cubic lattice. Each edge of the unit cell is 2.88 Å and density of the metal
is 7.2 gm. 3cm
− . The number of unit cells in 100 gm of metal is
a) 231082.5 × b) 23
10023.6 × c) 231052.8 × d) none of these
Answers
1. c 2. d 3. b 4. b 5. b 6. d7. a 8. b 9. c 10. c 11. a 12. b13. c 14. c 15. d 16. c 17. b 18. d19. a 20. b 21. b 22. a 23. c 24. b25. b 26. b 27. a 28. d 29. c 30. b31. c 32. c 33. d 34. a 35. b 36. c37. b 38. c 39. b 40. c 41. b 42. a43. d 44. a 46. b 46. d 47. a
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Quest
HYDROCARBONS
1. When benzene is oxidised in presence of 52OV at 588K, the final product is,
(a) catechol (b) maleic anhydride (c) phenol (d) anisole
2.2CH 3CH
→hv Br2
(a)2CH2CH Br
(b)3CH
2CH
Br
(c)3CH
Br
CH(d)
3CH2CH
BrBr
Br
3. Carbon chain splits into two or more parts by ozonolysis in the following except in
(a) 1,3 cyclobuta-di-ene (b) 1,2 dimetyl-1-cyclohexene
(c) benzene (d) isobutene
4. End product of the following sequence of reactions is:
+
→ → →
OH
CNCHether/MgNBS
3
3
(a)3COCH
(b)
3COCH
(c)
CN
(d)
COOH
5.
O
CHC ≡ A424 SOHHgSO →
(a)
O
O||
CHC 3− (b)
O
CHOCH2
(c)
O
COOH (d)
OH
CHOCH2
6.OH
O
]O[
HIO4 → A,A is
(a)COOH
COOH(b)
CHO
CHO(c)
COOH
CHO(d) all of these
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Quest
7. The appropriate reagent for the following transformation is
HO
O
HO
(a) +H)Hg(Zn (b) −OH/NHNH 22(c) Ni/H2 (d) 4NaBH
8.
Cl
,CBA 4LiAIDNBSKOH.alc → → → C is
(a)
D
(b)D
Br
(c)
D
(d)D
Br
9. .BAOH
OHZn
O
2
3
∆
→→
Θ
B is
(a)
OH
OH
(b) (c)
O
(d)
O
10. .AClPhCH2KOH.alc
2 → A is
(a) PhCHPh 2 −− (b) PhCHCHPh −=−
(c) PhCHCHPh 22 −−− (d) no reaction
11.NaOH
KMnO4 → complete oxidation. The product is
(a)OH
OH(b)
OH
OH
OH
HO(c)
O O (d)
+−NaCO2+−NaCO2
12.
MeMe
OHZn)ii(
O)i(
2
3 → products are
(a)CHO| CHO
(b)CHO| CHO
+
O
H
(c)CHO| CHO
+
O
O
(d)CHO| CHO
+
O
H
O
+
O
O
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Quest
13. cis 2-butane3NH.liq
Na→ product is
(a) meso compound (b) d/l pair
(c) meso and racemic mixture both (d) none of these
14.∆
−
→
,OH
KMnO4
A, so A is
(a)
OHHO
(b)CH
HCO2 HCO2
(c)
HCO2
(d)CH
CHOCHO
15. C = CD
H
D
3CMe
Z,ZOH
MeMgCl)ii(
HPhCO)i( 33 → →
+
is
(a) C C—D
HD
3CMe
MeOH(b) C C—
D
H
D
3CMe3CMe
H (c) C C—H3CMe3CMe
HH H
(d) none
16. ;ACHOCCCHCHOHO 23
→−≡−= product A consist of
(a)HCO2
HCO |2
HCO
2
2+ (b)
CHO
HCO |2
HCO
2
2+
(c)HCO2
HCO |2CHO
2
+ (d)CHO
HCO |2CHO
2
+
17. The reaction between .CHCHCHHCC0
HF3266
°
→−=+ A is major product
(a) 356 CHCHCHHC −=− (b)
3CH
3CH
CHHC 56 −
(c) 2256 CHCHCHHC =−− (d)2CH
3CHCHC 56 −
18.
O
B,BAPClexcess
KNH5
2 →→+ is
(a) (b) (c) (d) none of these
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Quest
19. Which Xylene is most easily sulfonated ?
(a) ortho (b) meta
(c) para (d) all at the same rate
20. CBA 234
22
62 CHPPhHCrO
OH
THFHB → → →
= . C is
(a) (b) (c) (d)
21. 33 CHCCCH −=− .HCCCHCHA 23H
Hg
H
Hg 22
−≡−− ← →+
+
+
+
A is
(a) butanal (b) 2-butanone (c) acetic acid (d) formic acid
22.
Me
X,X3lClAnhydrousA
ClMe →
−
is the ultimate product at the equilibrium. So X is
(a) m-Xylene (b) o-Xylene (c) p-Xylene (d) none
23. Ozonolysis of compound A gives one mole glycol. Compound A is
(a) 66HC (b) 42HC (c) 22HC (d) 63HC
24. ;ACHCHCH22OH
HCl23 →=− A is
(a)
Cl |
CHCHCH 33 −− (b) ClCHCHCH 223 −−
(c) 23 CHCHCH| | OH OH
−− (d) none
25. How many monochloro derivatives of 2-methoxy propane are possible ?
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1
26.
3CH
→.S.B.N major product is
(a)
Me
Br
Br
(b)
Me
Br
(c)BrCH2
(d)Me Br
27. Hydroboration-oxidation and acid-catalyze hydration of which of the following will not yield
the same product ?
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Quest
(a) (b)
(c) 22 CHCH = (d) 33 CHCHCHCH −=−
28. Bromine addition to olefin is supposed to be anti attack. Which compound would you choose
to prove this ?
(a) 22 CHCH = (b) 23 CHCHCH =
(c)
3
23
CH |
CHCCH =− (d) 33 CHCHCHCH −= (cis or trans)
29. .DCBAHClCHNaNaOH.aqHBr
423
→→ → → D is
(a) butane (b) dimethyl ether
(c) propane (d) ethyl methyl ether
30. pentyne1−
424 SOHHgSO
−OH,OHTHF.BH 223
X
Y
X and Y can be distinguished by :
(a) silver-mirror test (b) iodoform test (c) both (d) none
31. CHCCHCH 23 ≡−−A
B33 CHCCCH −≡− A and B are:
(a) alcoholic KOH and 2NaNH (b) 2NaNH and alcoholic KOH
(c) 2NaNH and Lindlar (d) Lindlar and 2NaNH
32. .ACHCHCClOHCl
2322 →=
+ A is
(a)
OH |
ClCHCHCCl 23 − (b)
Cl |
OHCHCHCCl 23 −
(c)
Cl Cl | | CHCHCCl 23 − (d)
OH OH | | CHCHCCl 23 −
33. CMgCl)CH( 33 on reaction with OD2 produces:
(a) CD)CH( 33 (b) COD)CH( 33 (c) CD)CD( 33 (d) COD)CD( 33
34. The reaction of 1-bromo-3-chlorocyclobutane with metallic sodium in dioxane gives :
(a) ClCl (b) ClBr
(c) BrBr (d)
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Quest
35. AC25
HClAlCl3
°
− → A is:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
36. )A(HC 126 has chirality but on hydrogenation A is converted into )B(HC 146 in which chirality
disappears. Hence A is :
(a) 3-methyl-1-pentene (b) 2-methyl-2-pentene
(c) 2,3-dimethyl-2-butene (d) 3,3-dimethyl-1-butene
37. ClHC 115 by Wurtz reaction forms 2, 2, 5, 5-tetramethyl hexane as the main product. Hence
ClHC 115 is :
(a) 2, 2-dimethyl-1-chloropropane (b) 2-methyl-1-chlorobutane
(c) both true (d) none of these
38. 3CH
OH
A3POCl → (major) A is:
(a) 3CH (b) 3CH (c) 3CH (d) 2CH
39.
BrBr | |
CHCHCHCH 33 acetone
NaI → A. A is:
(a)IBr | |
CHCHCHCH 33(b) 33 CHCHCHCH = (c) 33 CCHCCH ≡ (d) no reaction
40. ACClCHCHRperoxide
42 →+=− . A is
(a)
Cl |
CClRCHCH 32 (b)
3
2
CCl |
ClRCHCH (c) both are correct (d) none of these
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b)
7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (b) 11. (d) 12. (d)
13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (c)
19. (b) 20. (a) 21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (a)
25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (d) 29. (d) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (c) 36. (a)
37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (b) 40. (a)
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Quest
NOMENCLATURE & ISOMERISM
1. The isomerism exhibited between methyl propyl acetylene and diethyl acetylene is
(a) positional isomerism (b) functional isomerism
(c) metamerism (d) chain isomerism
2. Which will show geometrical isomerism
(a) (b) OHNNHO −=− (c) both (d) none
3. Which of the following compounds has maximum enol percentage
(a)O
(b)
O
O
(c)O O
(d)OO
2NH
4. Which of the group is responsible for metamerism
(a) (b) −− C|| O
(c) (d) all of these
5. Which has lowest percentage of enol form ?
(a)O O
(b)O O
(c) O O (d)
O
O||
||
6. Which of the followings is/are optically active ?
(a)H
H
ClCl
(b)H
HCl Cl (c) (d)
2NH
Cl
7. How many primary amines are possible for the formula NHC 114 ?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 3
8. Which of the following substrate autoracemises
(a) lactic acid (b) 2 butyl phenyl ketone
(c) dimethyl bromo succinate (d) tartaric acid
9. Number of aromatic isomers of 129HC are
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 8 (d) 9
10. HCN and HNC are ..... isomers :
(a) functional (b) tautomers (c) both (d) can’t be predicted
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Quest
11. 3223 CHOCHCCHCCH|| ||
O O
−−−−D
+
A ( +D is catalyst). A is is
(a) 523 HOCCCHCCH|| | O OH
−−==− (b) 523 HOCCCHCCH| ||
OH O
−==−−
(c) 523 HOCCCHCCH|| | O OD
−−==− (d) formation of A is not possible
12. Functional isomers of OHCCH|| O
3 −− are :
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
13. ClHC 46 (dichlorobenzene) →+Fe
2Cl 336 ClHC (trichlorobenzene)
(X) (Y)
Only one structural isomer of Y is formed. Hence (X) is :
(a) o-isomer (b) p-isomer (c) m-isomer (d) none
14. is named as (IUPAC) :
(a) vinyl acetylene (b) 1-butene-3-yne (c) 1-butyne-3-ene (d) b,c true
15.
OO
O
IUPAC name is :
(a) 2, 4 butan-di-one (b) ethoxy ethanone
(c) ethanoic anhydride (d) acetic anhydride
16. Me
Et
OH
H
* has chiral centre (*). It is :
(a) R (b) S (c) both (d) none
17. Number of optically active isomers of tartaric acid
CH(OH)COOH|
COOH)OH(CH
is
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
18. HCCHO|| ||
O O
−−− will be named as (IUPAC) :
(a) 2-keto ethanoic acid (b) formyl methanoic acid
(c) glyoxalic acid (d) none is correct
19. Isopropyl chloride + KCN → A BOH3 →
+
. IUPAC names of A and B are :
(a) isopropyl cyanide, isobutyric acid
(b) 2-methyl-1-propanonitrile, 2-methyl propanoic acid
(c) both correct (d) none of these
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Quest
20. Most stable form of cyclohexane is :
(a) boat (b) chair (c) skew (d) eclipsed
21.
BrCCl ||
ClCCH3
−−
−− is :
(a) trans (b) Z (c) both correct (d) none of these
22.
3CH
CH3
3CH
| |H
H
H
3CH
CH3
| |
H
H
H
CH3
are :
(a) enantiomers (b) diastereomers (c) geometrical isomers(d) same structure
23. will be named as (IUPAC) :
(a) bicyclo (3, 1, 1) cycloheptane (b) bicyclo (4, 2, 2) cycloheptane
(c) bicyclo (3, 2, 1) cycloheptane (d) none is correct
24. The compound, whose stereo-chemical formula is written below, exhibits x geometrical iso-
mers and y optical isomers.
3CH
C = CH
H
H |
CHCCHCH| OH
322 −−−
The values of x and y are :
(a) 4 and 4 (b) 2 and 2 (c) 2 and 4 (d) 4 and 2
25. The number of optically active isomers possible for
OH OH OH | | |
CHCHCHCHCH 33 −−−−
is :
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8
26. The following compound can exhibit :
COOH3CH
3CH
C = C HH
C
3CH
(a) geometrical isomerism (b) geometrical and optical isomerism
(c) optical isomerism (d) tautomerism
27.
H |
CHCHCCH| CHO
323 −− chiral carbon has configuration :
(a) R (b) S (c) both true (d) none of these
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Quest
28. Number of chiral carbon atoms in
3CHCl is :
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1
29. Which will form geometrical isomers ?
(a)Cl
Cl(b) NOHCHCH3 = (c) (d) all
30. Geometrical isomerism is possible in :
(a) acetone-oxime (b) isobutene
(c) acetophenone-oxime (d) benzophenone-oxime
31. Tautomerism is not shown by :
(a) CNCOCHCH 23 (b) HCN (c) NOHCHCH3 = (d) CNCH3
32. The optically active tartaric acid is named as D-(+)-tartaric acid because it has a positive:
(a) optical rotation and is derived from D-glucose
(b) pH in organic solvent
(c) optical rotation and is derived from D-(+)-glyceral dehyde
(d) optical rotation only when substituted by deuterium
33. How many optically active stereoisomers are possible for butane-2,3-diol:
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
34. The number of possible enantiomeric pairs that can be produced during monochlorination of
2-methyl butane is:
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 1
35. During debromination of meso dibromo butane, the major compound formed is:
(a) n-butane (b) 1-butene (c) trans-2-butene (d) cis-2-butene
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (d)
7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (c) 11. (c) 12. (b)
13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (a)
19. (b) 20. (b) 21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (b)
25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (c)
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Quest
REACTION MECHANISM
1. Which of the following is not a substrate for 1SN ?
(a) ClCHCHCH 22 −= (b) ClCH3
(c) ClC)CH( 33 − (d) ClCHC)CH( 233 −
2. The most basic compound among the following is
(a) 2-phenyl ethyl amine(b) aniline (c) 2,4-dinitroaniline (d) benzamide
3. Which of the following is the strongest acid ?
(a) CHHC ≡ (b) 66HC (c) 62HC (d) OHCH3
4. Which of the following species is both nucleophilic and electrophilic ?
(a) OH2 (b) CNCH3 (c) 4CH (d) OHCH3
5. Arrange the following in the decreasing order of reactivity towards bromination
(i) p-methyl benzene sulphonic acid (ii) p-methyl aniline
(iii) phenol (iv) toluene
(a) (i),(ii),(iii),(iv) (b) (i),(iv),(iii),(ii) (c) (iv),(iii),(ii), (i) (d) (ii),(iii),(iv),(i)
6. Carbon atoms in 42 )CN(C are :
(a) sp - hybridised (b) 2sp - hybridised
(c) sp and 2sp hybridised (d) sp, 2sp and 3sp hybridised
7. List the following alkyl halides in decreasing order of 2SN reactivity
CH3 Cl
A
ClCH2
B
C
BrCH2
3CHCH3
Cl
D
3CHCH3
ClE
(a) C > B > E > D > A (b) A > B > C > E > D
(c) C > E > B > D > A (d) A > B > D > E > C
8. Which of the following is the strongest acid ?
(a)OH
2NO(b)
OH
Cl
(c)
OH
2NO
(d)
OH
2NO
9. The order of reactivity of halogens in substitution reaction in polar protic solvent is
(a) F > Cl > Br > I (b) I > Br > Cl > F (c) F > Br > Cl > I (d) F > Cl = Br > I
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Quest
10. In
3CH|N
the N-atom involves the hybridisation
(a) sp (b) 2sp (c) 3sp (d) 2dsp
11. m-nitro chloro benzene (I) 2, 4 dinitro chloro benzene (II) and p-nitro chloro benzene (III).
Shows the order of reactivity with ONaHC 52
(a) I > II > III (b) II = III > I (c) III > I > II (d) II > III > I
12. The correct order of reactivity towards nucleophilic substitution for the following compounds
RCOCI, RCOOR, 2RCONH O)RCO( 2 is
I II III IV
(a) I > IV > II > III (b) I > II > III > IV (c) III > II > IV > I (d) IV > III > II > I
13. The structure of glycine in a solution of pH = 10, is
(a) COOHCHNH 22 −− (b) −−− COOCHNH 22
(c) COOHCHNH 23 −−+ (d) −
+
−− COOCHHN 23
14. The main product of the reaction
3
3
3
CH |
ClCCH| CH
−− →
KOH.aq
(a) 33 CHCHCHCH = (b)
3
3
CH |
CHOHCCH = (c)
3
23
CH |
CHCCH = (d) COH)CH( 23
15. Which is having maximum basic character
(a)
H|N
(b) NH
(c) 2NH (d) NH
16. Leaving tendency of the following group in decreasing order
,Cl− 3CH −3SO −OH 2NO −
3SO
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(a) IV>II>I>III (b) I>II>III>IV (c) II>IV>I>III (d) I>IV>II>III
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Quest
17. OH →
+H
(a) (b) (c) (d) no reaction
18. Which of the following has the most acidic hydrogen ?
(a) 3-hexanone (b) 2,4-hexanedione
(c) 2,5-hexanedione (d) 2,3-hexanedione
19. Which of the following has the highest nucleophilicity
(a) −F (b) −OH (c) −
3CH (d) −2NH
20. Which one of the following will most readly be dehydrated in acidic condition ?
(a) ||O
|OH
(b) |OH
(c)
|OH
|OH
(d)||O
|OH
21.3CH
t-Bu →
+2NO
(a)
3CH
2NOt-Bu(b)
3CH
2NOt-Bu (c)
3CH
2NO(d) no reaction
22.
OH |
CHCHCHCHCH 3223 − HBr
H →
+
(A) major. A is
(a) BrCHCHCHCHCH 22223 (b)
Br | CHCHCHCHCH 3223
(c)
Br |
CHCHCHCHCH 3223(d) no reaction
23. The strongest nucleophile among the following is
(a) −F (b) −Cl (c)
−Br (d) −I
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Quest
24.OHCH2
AH→
+
(major). A is
(a)2CH
(b)3CH
(c)3CH
(d)3CH
25.||O
Br
Ph
→base A (major) A is
(a)O
Ph(b)
||O
Ph (c) ||O
Ph(d)
OH
Ph
Br|CH2
26. Which one of the following is a better leaving group ?
(a) −Cl (b) −
OH (c) −2NH (d) −
23COCH
27. Dichloro carbene is a (n)
(a) nucleophile (b) electrophille (c) alkene (d) alkyne
28. Which carbanion is most stable
(a) −CMe3 (b) −CPh3 (c) 3CH− (d) 2HCPh
29. O ,AOH3 →
+
A is
(a) 3CH
OH
OH
(b) 3CH
OHCH2
OH
(c)
3CH
OHCH2
(d)
3CH
OH
3CH
30. Which of the following aryl halide will undergo nucleophilic substitution faster under similar
conditions.
(a) o-nitrochlorobenzene (b) o-methoxychlorobenzene
(c) 1,2 dichlorobenzene (d) 2,4dinitrochlorobenzene
31. The enol percentage is maximum for
(a) HCCH|| O
3 −− (b)323 CHCCHCCH
|| || O O
−−−−
(c) O O (d) O O
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Quest
32. Rate of chlorination is maximum for
(a)
2CHMe
(b)
2MeCH
(c)
3CH
(d)
2CMe
33.
Me
OHCH2 − ∆
→
+H
A; A is
(a) 2CH(b) 2CH
(c)Me
(d)Me
Me
34. What are the hybridizations of the carbon atoms in the ‘alene’ system like
C = C = C1 2 3
(a) 222 spspsp −− (b) spspsp 2−− (c) 22 spspsp −− (d) none
35. Dehydrohalogenation in alcoholic KOH passes through the mechanism
(a) 1E (b) 2E (c) 1.B.CE (d) IE
36. Which of the following amines has greater ability of complex formation with 33)CH(B ?
(a) N)CH( 33 (b) NH)CH( 23 (c) 23NHCH (d) none of these
37. Guanidine, ,)NH(CHN 22= is a strong base. Which nitrogen will be protonated
(a) amino nitrogen (b) imino nitrogen (c) both nitrogen atoms(d) none of these
38. Which of the following is most stable carbocation ?
(a) isopropyl cation (b) tropylium cation
(c) secondary butyl cation (d) tertiary butyl cation
39.
3
23
CH |
AHBrCHCHCHCH →+=−− . A (predominant) is :
(a)
Br CH | |
CHCHCHCH
3
33 −−− (b)
CH |
BrCHCHCHCH
3
223 −−−
(c)
CH |
CHCHCCH| Br
3
323 −−− (d) none of these
40. Which reacts fastest with conc. HCl ?
(a) OHCHCH 22 (b)
OH|
CHCH 3−
(c)
3
3
3
CH |
OHCCH| CH
−− (d) OHCHCHCH 22 −=
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Quest
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (c)
7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (a)
13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (b)
19. (c) 20. (a) 21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (d) 24. (b)
25. (a) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (d)
31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (b)
37. (b) 38. (b) 39. (c) 40. (b) 41. (a) 42. (b)
43. (b) 44. (b) 45. (c)
41. Dehydration of the following in increasing order is
OH OH OH OH
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(a) I < II < III < IV (b) II < III < IV < I (c) I < III < IV < II (d) I < IV < II = III
42. 2 BA 242 HPtSOH.conc → → . A and B are :
(a) , (b) ,
(c) , (d) none
43. →−≡ 424 SOHHgSOCOOHCCH product . Product is :
(a)
O ||
COOHCCH3 −− (b) COOHCHOHC 2 −−
(c)
OH |
COOHCCH2 −= (d) COOHCHCHOH −=−
44. Electrophile ⊕2NO attacks the following :
3CCl 2NO ⊕3NH
ΘO
I II II IV
In which cases ⊕2NO will be at meta-position:
(a) II and IV (b) I, II and III (c) II and III only (d) I only
45. O C||O
→++
2NO
Product of this reaction by single ES (reaction):
(a)2NO
O C||O
(b)
2NO
O C||O
(c)O C
||O
NO2(d)
2NOO C||O
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Quest
ALKYL & ARYL HALIDES
1. Which one of the following compounds on treatment with 4LiAlH will give a product that
will give a positive iodoform test:
(a) CHOCHCH 23 (b) 323 COOCHCHCH
(c) 3223 CHOCHCHCH (d) 33COCHCH
2. ?SOClOHRPyridine
2alcohol 1
→+−°
(a) the reaction does not take place
(b) the reaction takes place with inversion of configuration
(c) the reaction takes place to give a racemic mixture of alkyl halides
(d) the reaction takes place with retention of configuration
3. The alcohol that responds to Iodoform test is
(a) n-propanol (b) n-butanol (c) methanol (d) ethanol
4. End product of the following sequence of reaction is
O||
CHC 3−
O
?
.3H.2
,NaOHI.1 2
∆
∆+
+
→
(a) yellow ppt. of 3CHI and
O
COOH(b) yellow ppt. of 3CHI and
O
CHO
(c) yellow ppt. of 3CHI and O
(d) yellow ppt. of 3CHI and COOHCOOH
5.
Br |
CHCHCHCHCHCH 2223 =−−−− →KOH alcoholic A (predominant). A is :
(a) 223 CHCHCHCHCHCH =−=−− (b) 223 CHCHCHCHCHCH =−−=−
(c) 2222 CHCHCHCHCHCH =−−−= (d) CHCCHCHCHCH 2223 ≡−−−−
6. ClCHCH 23 by Wurtz reaction forms:
(a) ethane, ethene, butane (b) ethene, butane (c) only butane
(d) only ethane
7. Order of hydrolysis of the following in increasing order is:
Br , Br , Br , Br.C)CH( 33
I II III IV
(a) I<II<III<IV (b) I<IV<II<III (c) IV<III<II<I (d) I<II<IV<III
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Quest
8. Which of the following can not undergo nucleophilic substitution under ordinary condition:
(a) allyl chloride (b) benzyl chloride (c) n-propyl chloride (d) vinyl chloride
9. The most suitable reagent for producing dichlorocarbene from chloroform is:
(a) sodium acetate (b) potassium-t-butoxide(c) triethyl amine (d) pyridine
10. +− 223 NHCHCH NCCHCHOHCHCl 233 −−→+− Intermediates of this reaction are:
(a) −3CCl: (b) 2CCl: (c) both (d) none
11. )gas(ABrCHOHC)CH(
ether
Mg3
33 → →−−
A is:
(a) 333 CHOC)CH( −− (b) 4CH (c) BrOC)CH( 33 −− (d) CH)CH( 33
12. BAAgCNClR.redn
→→+−
(a) 22NHRCH,RCN (b) 3RNHCH,RNC
(c) 3RNHCH,RCN (d) 22NHRCH,RNC
13. 3CHHH
BrAOH
2SN →+
− . A is
(a) 3CH
HH
HO(b)
H
H
HO3CH
(c) both (d) none
14. BrCH3 can be prepared by :
(a) →+∆
23 BrCOOAgCH (b) →+ NBSCH 4
(c) both (d) none
15. 233 CHCH.C)CH( =
2323
333II
)CH(CC)(CHCl|I
CH.CH.C)CH(
=
←
In this reaction :
(a) 1 is 1E , II is 2E (b) I is 2E , II is 1E (c) both 1E (d) both 2E
16.H
HBr
3CH
56HC
56HC
A2E
KOH.alcoholic → . A is:
(a)
H
3CH
56HC
56HC
C ||C (b)
H
3CH
56HC
56HC
C ||C (c)
H
56HC 56HC
C ||C
3CH
(d) none is correct
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Quest
17.
∆
+
→
.3OH.2
KCN.1
A263
3
ClHC
3
3
CH | CHCOOHCH − .
Hence A is :
(a) 1, 1 dichloro propane (b) 1, 2 dichloro propane
(c) 2, 2 dichloro propane (d) 1, 3 dichloro propane
18.
3
523
3
CH |
ONaHCClCCH| CH
+−− → Major product of this reaction is:
(a)
3
523
3
CH |
HOCCCH| CH
−− (b)
3
23
CH |
CHCCH =−
(c)
3
5223
CH |
HOCCHCHCH −− (d) none is correct
19. Increasing rate of dehydrohalogenation is:
(a) RF<RCl<RBr<RI (b) RI<RBr<RCl<RF
(c) RCl<RF<RBr<RI (d) RF<RI<RCl<RBr
20. ACHOH
Br2
2
2 → . A is:
(a)BrCH2
OH(b)
Br
OHCH2
(c)Br
BrCH2 (d)OHCH2
OH
21. Which of the following will give haloform test ?
(a)33 CClCCH
|| O
−− (b)
OH |
ICHCCH 23 −− (c)
O ||
ClCHCCH 23 −− (d) all
22. For the reaction,
XHCHXOHHC 52ZnX
522 →+
The decreasing order of reactivity of halogen acids is:
(a) HI>HCl>HBr (b) HI>HBr>HCl (c) HCl>HBr>HI (d) HBr>HI>HCl
23. An organic halide with formula BrHC 136 on heating with alc. KOH gives two isomeric
alkenes (A) and (B) with formula 126HC . On reductive ozonolysis of mixture (A) and (B), the
following compounds are obtained:
CHOCHCH,CHOCH,COCHCH 23333 and CHCHO)CH( 23
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Quest
The organic halide is:
(a) 2-bromohexane (b) 3-bromo-2-methylpentane
(c) 2,2-dimethyl-1-bromohexane (d) none of these
24. Which of the following alkyl halides is hydrolysed by 2NS mechanism :
(a) BrCHCHCH 22 = (b) CBr)CH( 33 (c) BrCH3 (d) none of these
25. When carbon tetrachloride is reduced with Zn and 42SOH in alcoholic solution, it forms:
(a) ClCH3 (b) 3CHCl (c) ClHC 52 (d) 2Cl
26. When pure chloroform is shaken with silver nitrate solution, we get:
(a) no precipitate (b) a yellow ppt. of AgI
(c) a white ppt. of AgCl (d) acetylene is liberated
27. When ethyl chloride is heated with AgCN, the main product is:
(a) ethyl cyanide (b) ethyl isocyanide (c) ethyl amine (d) ethyl nitrate
28. When ethyl alcohol is heated with paste of bleaching powder, we get a compound in which the
function of bleaching powder is:
(a) as an oxidising agent (b) as a chlorinating agent
(c) as a hydrolysing agent
(d) as chlorinating, oxidising and hydrolysing agent
29. When ethyl bromide is treated with dry silver oxide, we get:
(a) diethyl ether (b) ethanol (c) ethane (d) ethene
30. Which is detected by carbylamine test:
(a) 22NCONHH (b) 23CONHCH (c) 252 NHHC (d) all of these
31. Alkyl halide when with alcoholic solution of potassium sulphide, it forms
(a) thio-alcohol (b) thio-ether (c) thio-acid (d) alkane
32. The antiseptic action of 3CHI is due to:
(a) iodoform itself (b) libratio of free iodine
(c) partially due to iodine and partially due to 3CHI itself (d) none of these
33. The reaction conditions leading to the best yield of ClHC 52 are:
(a) 62HC (excess)+ →light UV
2Cl (b) →+.temp Room,Dark
262 ClHC
(c) →+light UV
262 )excess(ClHC (d) →+light UV
262 ClHC
34. 1-Bromopropane and 2-bromopropane on treatment with sodium in presence of ether gives:
(a) n-hexane (b) 2,3-dimethylbutane (c) 2-methylpentane
(d) a mixture of all these different alkanes
35. Compound 284 ClHC (A) on hydrolysis gives a compound )B(OHC 84 which reacts with hy-
droxylamine and does not give any test with tollen’s reagent. What are (A) and (B).
(a) 1,1-dichlorobutane and butanal (b) 2,2-dichlorobutane and butanal
(c) 1,1-dichlorobutane and butan-2-one (d) 2,2-dichlorobutane and butan-2-one
36. Which one of the following compounds is stable:
(a) 23 )OH(CHCH (b) 223 )OH(CH)CH( (c) 23 )OH(CHCCl (d) none of these
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Quest
37. Which of the following compounds will give a yellow precipitate with 2I and alkali:
(a) 33 CHCHOHCH −− (b) ClCCH|| O
3 −−
(c) 23 NHCCH|| O
−− (d)523 HOCCCH
|| O
−−
38. Treatment of 3HN with excess of ethyl chloride gives:
(a) diethylamine (b) ethane
(c) tetraethyl ammonium chloride (d) methylamine
39. Isobutyl magnesium bromide with dry ether and absolute alcohol gives:
(a) OHCHCH)CH( 223 and MgBrCHCH 23 (b) 3223 CHCHCH)CH( and Mg(OH)Br
(c) CH)CH( 33 and OMgBrCHCH 23
(d) 2233 CHCH,CH)CH( = and Mg(OH)Br
40. Which of the following will react with water:
(a) 3CHCl (b) CCHOCl3
(c) 4CCl (d) ClCHClCH 22 ⋅
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (a)
7. (d) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (b) 12. (b)
13. (b) 14. (a) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (c) 18. (b)
19. (a) 20. (a) 21. (d) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (c)
25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (c)
37. (a) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (b)
Quest Tutorials 94
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Quest
ALCOHOLS, PHENOLS & ETHERS
1.OH
.X42
223
SOH
OHCHCHCH → Here X is
(a)
OH
322 CHCHCH(b)
OH
322 CHCHCH
(c)322 CHCHCHO −
(d)
OH
CH3CH
3CH
2. The major product obtained when 3-phenyl-1,2-propane-diol is heated with 42SOH is
(a) 3256 COCHCHHC − (b) 2256 CHCHCHHC =−−
(c) 3256 CHCHCHHC =−− (d) 2256 CHCHCHHC −−−
O
3. Chromic anhydride in 42SOH is turned blue by
(a) 1° alcohol (b) OH (c) both (d) none
4. The gas liberated when ethanol is reacted with methyl magnesium bromide is
(a) hydrogen (b) ethane (c) bromine (d) methane
5.42SOH
Ag2 MePh)Br(C)OH(CPh →−
+
(a)
O ||
CBrPhCPh 2−− (b)
O ||
CMePhCPh 2−− (c)
O ||
MeCCPh3 −− (d) none of these
6. Which is most reactive towards aq.KOH
(a) ClCHCHPh 22− (b) Cl Me (c) ClCCHPh|| O
2 −−− (d)Me
Br
7. Conversion of methyl cyclopentene to trans 2-methyl-1-cyclopentanol can be conveniently
achieved by
(a) OHNaOH 2− (b) hydroboration-oxidation
(c) hydroboration - hydrolysis (d) oxymercuration - demercuration
8. The relative order of esterification of alcohols is
(a) 000321 << (b) 000
321 >> (c) 000231 >> (d) 000
231 <<
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Quest
9. The compound that react fastest with Lucas reagent at room temperature is
(a) 1-butanol (b) 2-butanol
(c) 2-methyl-1-propanol (d) benzyl alcohol
10. Di-n propyl ether and diallyl ether can be distinguished by
(a) acetic acid (b) Na metal (c) cold dil 4KMnO (d) 5PCl
11. On reaction with hot conc. 42SOH which one of the following compounds loses a molecule of
water:
(a) 33COCHCH (b) COOHCH3 (c) 33OCHCH (d) OHCHCH 23
12. A compound obtained by heating glycerol with conc. 42SOH or 4KHSO or 52OP is:
(a) glyceric acid (b) allyl alcohol
(c) acrolein (d) glycerol hydrogen sulphate
13. Propene, 23 CHCHCH =− can be converted into 1-propanol. Which of the reagents among
the following is ideal to affect the conversion:
(a) alkaline 4KMnO (b) 62HB and alkaline 22OH
(c) ZnO3 (d) 224 ClCHOsO
14. Which of the following can work as dehydrating agent for alcohols:
(a) 42SOH (b) 32OAl (c) 43POH (d) all
15. A compound (X) with molecular formula OHC 83 can be oxidised to (Y) with a molecular
formula )X.(OHC 263 is most likely:
(a) primary alcohol (b) secondary alcohol (c) aldehyde (d) ketone
16. Identify (Z) in the series,
)Z()Y()X(OHHCKOH.Alc
of ExcessBr
C170
SOH.Conc73
242 → → →°
(a)
22
23
NH NH | | CHCHCH −− (b)
OH OH | | CHCHCH 23 −− (c) CHCCH3 ≡− (d)
OH |
CHCCH 23 −−
17. Oxalic acid is formed when glycol is treated with:
(a) 42SOH (b) 43POH (c) HCl (d) 3HNO
18. The compound formed by reaction of ethylene glycol and periodic acid )HIO( 4 is :
(a) acetic acid (b) formic acid (c) formaldehyde (d) glyoxal
19. When 3,3-dimethyl-2-butanol is heated with conc. 42SOH the major product obtained is:
(a) 2, 3-dimethyl-1-butene (b) 3,3-dimethyl-1-butene
(c) 2,3-dimethyl-2-butene
(d) cis and trans isomers of 2,3-dimethyl-2-butene
Quest Tutorials 96
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Quest
20. In the following reaction, what is X,
→32SONa
X Glycerol + acetaldehyde + 2CO
(a) ethyl alcohol (b) glucose (c) glycol (d) allyl alcohol
21. When glycerol is treated with phosphorus tri-iodide, the main product obtained is:
(a) glyceryl tri-iodide (b) propene (c) allyl iodide (d) isopropyl iodide
22. Glycol on treatment with 3PI gives mainly:
(a) ethylene (b) ethylene iodide (c) ethyl iodide (d) ethane
23. Which of the following are the starting materials for the Grignard’s synthesis of tert. butyl
alcohol:
(a) 333 COCHCHMgICH + (b) 333 CHOHCHCHMgICH +
(c) 3323 COCHCHMgBrCHCH + (d) CHOCHMgBrCHCH 323 +
24. An alcohol on oxidation is found to give COOHCH3 and COOHCHCH 23 . The structure of
the alcohol is:
(a) OHCHCHCH 223 (b) 323 CH)OH(CHCHCH
(c) 3223 CHCHCH)OH(CHCH (d) 3223 CHCH)OH(C)CH(
25. A compound with molecular formula 3104 OHC is converted by the action of acetyl chloride
to a compound with molecular weight 190. The original compound has:
(a) one–OH group (b) two –OH groups (c) three –OH groups (d) no –OH group
26. In reaction sequence,
→ →=RHOCl
22 MCHCH
OHCH|
OHCH
2
2
molecule M and reagent R, respectively are:
(a) ClCHCH 23 and NaOH (b) OHCHCH 23 and 42SOH
(c) ClCH2 – OHCH2 and aq. 3NaHCO (d) 33 CHCH − and heat
27. 3CH
cold
4KMnO alkalineA
3CrO
AcOH B
A and B are:
(a) OH3CH
OH, OH
3CH
O(b) OH
3CH
OH,
3CH
OO
(c) OH3CH
OH,
3CH
OH(d) no formation of A and B
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Quest
28.
OH CH | |
CHCH—CCH| CH
3
33
3
−− nt)(predominaAHBr . A is:
(a) 333 CHCHC)CH(| Br
−− (b) 2323 )CH(CHC)CH(| Br
−
(c) both (d) none is correct
29. Which of the following compounds give most stable carbonium ion on dehydration ?
(a)
3
3
3
CH |
OHCCH| CH
−− (b)
3
223
CH |
OHCHCHCHCH −−
(c)
OH |
CHCHCHCH 323 −−− (d) OHCHCHCHCH 2223
30. ← 4NaBHB ACHOCHCH
PtH2 →−= . A and B are:
(a) ,CHOCHCH 22 OHCHCHCH 2−=
(b) OHCHCHCH 222 −− , OHCHCHCH 22 −=
(c) OHCHCHCH 22 −= (d) OHCHCHCH 222 in both cases
31. B ONaCH
3
3
OHCH23
3
CHCCH|CH
−−
O
AH
OH 182
+
→ A and B are:
(a)
OH OH | | CH—CCH
| CH
18
23
3
−
3
23
3
OCH OH | | CH—CCH
| CH
−
(c)
OHOH | | CH—CCH
| CH
18
23
3
−
3
23
3
OCH OH | | CH—CCH
| CH
−
(d) both are correct (d) none is correct
32. 3ether
332
HI.concCHOC)CH()mix(B −− ←
:)mix(A1
HI anhydrous →
Quest Tutorials 98
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Quest
(a) A and B are identical mixture of ICH3 and OHC)CH( 33 −
(b) A and B are identical mixture of OHCH3 and IC)CH( 33 −
(c) A is a mixture of ICH3 and OHC)CH( 33 − , B is a mixture of OHCH3 and IC)CH( 33 −
(d) none
33. Allyl alcohol is obtained when glycerol reacts with the following at 260°C:
(a) formic acid (b) oxalic acid (c) both (d) none
34. .ACO)OHC(OH
MgBrCH3252
3
3
+
→ A is:
(a) CHOH)OHC( 252 (b) COH)(CH 33 (c) COH)HC(| CH
252
3
(d) CHOH)(CH 23
35. Oxalic acid + →AOO
O
O
hence A B42SOH.conc → . B is:
(a)
O
O(b)
O
O
O (c)
OH OH| | CHOCH 22 −− (d) none
36.
A
)moltwo(MgBrCH3
3
3
CH|CHCOOHCH −
+OH3
+OH3
B is
(a) 323 CHCOCH)CH( (b)
OH |
)CH(CHC)CH( 2323
(c) 2323 )CH(CHCOCH)CH( (d)
OH |
)CH(CHCHCH)CH( 2323
37. Dehydration of the alcohols
OH OH OHOH
I II III IV
will be in order:
(a) III > II > IV > I (b) I > II > III > IV (c) IV > II > III > I (d) II > IV > I > III
38. Dehydration of alcohols
OH OH OH OH
I II III IV
(a) I<II<III<IV (b) I>II>III>IV (c) III<II<I<IV (d) II<III<IV<I
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Quest
39. BAHIOCH3 +→+ A and B are:
(a) I, OHCH3 (b) OH, ICH3 (c) , ICH3 (d) I, 4CH
40. OHCHCHCHABrMgR 223OH3 →+−−
+
R and A are:
(a) −23CHCH and HCHO (b) 3CH –and 2CH 2CH
O
(c) both are correct (d) none is correct
ANSWERS
1. (d) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (c)
7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (c)
13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (a) 16. (c) 17. (d) 18. (c)
19. (c) 20. (b) 21. (c) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (c)
25. (b) 26. (c) 27. (a) 28. (b) 29. (a) 30. (b)
31. (a) 32. (c) 33. (c) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (b)
37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (c)
Quest Tutorials 100
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Quest
ALDEHYDES & KETONES
1. .ACHOCHCH,NaOH
23 →∆ A is
(a) CHOCHCHCHCHCH 223 = (b) CHOCCHCHCH| CH
23
3
−=
(c)
OH |
CHOCHCHCHCHCH 2223 − (d)
OH |
CHOCHCHCHCH| CH
23
3
−−−−
2.
O OH || |
CHCCHCH 33 −−− . The compound A
(a) can be oxidised by Tollen’s Reagent (b) cannot be oxidised by Tollen’s reagent
(c) can only be oxidised by 3CrO (d) none
3. Cinnamic acid can be produced by which of the following reactions,
(a) →+ −OHCHOHC 56
(b) →+O)COCH(
35623COONaCHCHOHC
(c)agentReTollens)ii(
,OH)i(56 HCHOCHOHC →+
∆−
(d) by Cannizaro reaction
4. .ACHOCHCHCHaldol
OH3 → →−=−
∆−
A is
(a) CHO)CHCH(CH 33 = (b) CHO)CHCH(CHCHCH 2223 =
(c) CHOCHCH)CHCH(CH 2223 −= (d) none of these
5. Identify Z in the series
H OH | |
OCCHCHCH 23 =−−− ZYXCOONaCHSOCl
agentRe
s'Tollen 32 → → →
(a)
O O OH || || |
CHCOCCHCH 33 −−−−− (b)
O O O || || ||
CHCOCCCH 33 −−−−−
(c)
OH |
COOHCHCH3 −− (d)
O OH || |
OCHCCHCHCH 323 −−−
6. The product of the following reaction is O 4
3
LiAlH
OH,ether →+ ?
(a)2CH
(b)2CH OH
(c) OHH
(d)
O AlLi–
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Quest
7.O
→ 4NaBHOH
The yield of this re action will be
(a) 100% (b) 10% (c) 50% (d) 0%
8. The enol form of acetone after treatment with OD2 gives :
(a) 23 CHCCH| OD
=− (b) 23 CDCCD|| O
=−
(c)
OH |
DCHCCH 22 −= (d) 22 CDCCD| OD
−=
9. 1 mole of an organic compound requires 0.5 mol of oxygen o produce an acid. The compound is
(a) an alcohol (b) an aldehyde (c) a ketone (d) an ether
10. The conversion of acetone into diacetone alcohol is carried out in the presence of
(a) dry HCl gas (b) conc. 42SOH (c) 2)OH(Ba (d) heat
11. 33
18
CHCCH|| O
−−16
2OH A (unstable) → B, B is
(a)33
18
CHCCH|| O
−− (b) 33
16
CHCCH|| O
−−
(c)
OH
| CHCCH
| OH
18
33
16
−− (d) HOCHCCH
|| O
1823
16
−−−
12.
MgBrCH2
+→H
X OH ‘X’ is
(a) CHOCH3 (b) OCH2 (c)O
(d) 22 CHCH =
13. BAHCHO3CHOCHOCH
NaOH%50NaOH3
2
→ →+ . B is
(a)
OHCH |
OHCHCCHOH|
OHCH
2
22
2
−− (b)
OHCH |
HCOCHCH|
OHCH
2
22
2
−−
(c) +−NaCOCH 23 (d) OHCH3
Quest Tutorials 102
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Quest
14. Which of the following aldehyde will not respond to Fehling’s Test
(a) acetaldehyde (b) benzaldehyde (c) formaldehyde (d) chloral
15. The following conversation can be carried out in presence of
OO
O
(a) 22OH (b) 722 OCrK (c) HCOHC 256 (d) HCOCF 23
16. )A(HCCOCHHCOHC
523356 →−−
The compound (A) is
(a) 523 HCOOCCH (b) 352 COOCHHC (c) 5223 HCOOCCHCH (d) none
17. Acid anhydrides add to aromatic aldehydes presence of bases to yield
(a) βα, unsaturated acids (b) βα, unsaturated esters
(c) βα, unsaturated alcohols (d) βα, unsaturated aldehydes
18. Which of the following reagents would produce acetophenone on heating ?
(a) calcium acetate + calcium formate (b) calcium formate + calcium benzoate
(c) calcium acetate + calcium benzoate (d) calcium acetate
19. In the transformation
OH
O
OH
the reagent is
(a) Zn/Hg.conc.HCl (b) 4NaBH (c) PdH2 (d) −OH,NH.NH 22
20.KOH
CNCH3PhCOPh → the major product is
(a)
Ph |
PhCPh| CN
−− (b)
CNCH |
PhCPh| OH
2
−− (c) PhCHPh| OH
−− (d)
CN |
PhCPh| OCH 3
−−
21.
O
∆ →
−OH
? Product is
(a) (b)
O
(c)O
(d) O
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Quest
22.
O
O →
−OH [X]. The product & the name of this reaction is
(a)
O
OH Tischenko (b)
OH
COO– , cannizaro
(c)OH
COOH, benzilic acid rearrangement (d)
O
OH
23.Benzene
Zn52233 HCOOCBrCHCOCHCH →+ ? Product is
(a)
BrCH
C
OCHCH
3
33
(b)
5223
3
HCOOCCHCH
C
OHCH
(c)
523
3
HCOOCCH
C
OHCH
(d)
BrCH
C
HCOOCOCHCH
3
5223
24. Which would not undergo knovengel reaction with carbonyl compound ?
(a)
O
O
(b)COOR
CHCOOR
2
(c) 5223 HCOOCCOCHCH (d)CHO
CHCH
23
25. Which will give silver mirror with Tollens’ reagent ?
(a) 33COCHCH (b)
OH |
CH—COCHCH 33 (c) 3COCH φ (d) φφ CO
26. →COOOHCF
3333)CH(COCCH ? The major product is
(a) 333 )CH(COOCCH (b) 333 )CH(OCOCCH
(c) both (d) none
27. →=+ 3BF2523 CHCHHCCOClCH ? Product is
(a) 33COCHCH (b) 733 HCOCCH
(c) 523 HCHCCOCHCH = (d) 23 CHCOCHCH =
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Quest
28. Cyclo pentane →hvCl2 [X]
OHHC
KOH
52
→ [Y]OH
ZnO
2
3 → [Z]. here [Z] is
(a) pentanal (b) pentan-2-one (c) pentane-3-one (d) pentane 1,5dial
29.
O
C CH
42
2
SOH
/Hg →+
? Product is
(a)
O
3COCH(b)
COOH
O
(c)
OH
3COCH(d)
OCHOCH2
30.OHCH
| OHCH
2
2+cyclopentanone → [X] Product is
(a)C
O O
3CHH
(b)C
O O
3CHCH3
(c)O O
(d)O
O
31.3
[O]23
CH]X[OC
CHCH
→=
−
& [Y]. Identify [X] & [Y]
(a) both are COOHCH3 (b) HCOOHCOOHCHCH 23 +
(c) both are HCOOH (d) HCOOHCCCHCH|| O
33 +
32. → 2ScO323 COCHCHCH . Major product is
(a) COCHOCHCH 23 (b) 33COCOCHCH
(c) HCOOHCOOHCHCH 23 + (d) COOHCH2 3
33. CHCHCOCHCH 33 ≡+OH)ii(
NaNH)i(
2
2 → ? Product is
(a)CHC
| CHC
≡
≡(b)
3CHC CH
−
(c)
3
323
CH |
COCHCHCHCH| OH
−− (d)
CHC |
CHCCH| OH
33
≡
−−
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Quest
34. Which will reduce tollen’s reagent, Fehnling solution & Benedict solution
(a) CHOφ (b) 33CHOHCOCHCH
(c) 33COCHCH (d) 33COCOCHCH
35.
O
].X[3NH → Product is
(a)
HO 2NH
(b)
2NH
OH
(c)
OHNH2
(d)
2NH
O
36.
O
BrCH2
→−OH Product is
(a)
O
OHCH2
(b)
O
2CH
(c)
O
(d)
O
37. +
3CH
3CH]X[OC
OH
∆ →=
−
Product is
(a)3CH
CO
CH3
(b)
3CH
C
CH3
O(c)
3CH
C
CH3
(d) no reaction
38. 3CH
OH OH
φ →+H ? Product is
(a) 3CH
OH
φ
C(b)
O
+CH3
φ(c)
O3CH
φ (d)
O3CHφ
39. Which would undergo aldol condensation fastest ?
(a) CHOCH3 (b)Cl
CH3C = O (c)
NO
CH
2
3C = O (d)
3
3
CH
CH
C = O
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Quest
40.∆ →
−OH3223 COCH)CH(COCH Major product is
(a)
3CH
O
(b)
O
O
(c)
3CH
O
(d)3CH
3CH
CO
41.∆ →
−OH
332 COCH)CH(OHC Major product is
(a)
O
(b) 3CHCO (c) 3CHO (d)
3CHCO
42.
OHCH|
CHOH|
OHCH
2
2
].X[3
4
)OEt(Al)ii(
KHSO)i( → here [X] is
(a)5222 HCCOCHCHCH
|| O
−−−−= (b) 5222 HOCCCHCHCH|| O
−−−=
(c) 222 CHCHCOCHCHCH|| O
=−−−−=
(d) 2222 CHCHCHCOCHCHCH|| O
=−−−−−=
43.
O
COOEtClCH2+BuOHt
BuOKt
−
− → [X], here X is
(a)
COOEtCH2
(b)
CHCOOEt
Cl
(c)
CHCOOEt
(d)
COOEtCH2
44. Dry distillation of Ca salt of hexane 1.6 dicarboxylic acid gives
(a)O
(b)O
(c)
O
O(d)
O
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Quest
45. ].Y[]X[CHOCHCHCHOH
3 → →−=∆−
Here Y is
(a) CHO)CHCH(CH 33 = (b) CHO)CHCH(CHCHCH 2223 =
(c) CHCHOCH)CHCH(CH 2223 = (d) none of these
46. .BANCHClCHCOCH 222 +→+ What are ‘A’ & ‘B” ?
(a) −522 HCOCClCH 2
3
CH—C|CH
O
(b) 3523 CH,HCOCCH — 2
3
CH—C|CH
O
(c)
Cl |
COCHCHCH 33 —
O
2
2
CH—C|
ClCH
(d) ,HCOCClCH 522
O
33 CHCHHCCH −−−
47.
CHOCHOCHCH 22
].X[PtH
/OH
2
→∆−
Product is
(a)CHO
(b)
CHO
(c)
CHO
(d)CHO
48.
3COCH
].Y[]X[3
22
NH
NH
(ii)LAH
)eq 1(Br)i(
− → →
−
‘Y’ is
(a)
32 CHCH −
(b)
BrCHCH|OH
2−
(c)
2CHHC −
O
(d)OHCHHC
|OH
2 −−
49.
OH OH | |
CC| | CH CH 33
φ−−−φ → 42SOH ? Product is
(a)
3CH |
OC2 =−φ (b)
O || |
CHCC| CH
3
3
φ
−−−φ (c)
OHC || |
—C—C—| CH
3
3
φφ (d) none
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QuestANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (c)
7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (c)
13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (c)
19. (d) 20. (c) 21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (d)
25. (b) 26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (c)
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (d) 36. (a)
37. (c) 38. (c) 39. (c) 40. (b) 41. (a) 42. (c)
43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (c)
49. (b) 50. (c)
50. [A] ←−OH ].B[CHCOCHCHCHO
H323 →+φ
+
‘A’ & ‘B’ are respectively
(a) both are 52HCHOCCH =φ
(b) both are
3
3
CH |
COCHCCH −=φ
(c)
3
352
CH |
COCHCCH,HCHCOCCH −=φ=φ
(d)
3
523
CH |
HCOCCHCH,COCH—CCH −=φ=φ
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Quest
CARBOXYLIC ACIDS & ITS DERIVATIVES
1. An ester A with molecular formula 2109 OHC was treated with excess of MgBrCH3 and the
compound so formed was treated with (C) 42SOH to form olefin (B). Ozonolysis of B gave
ketone with formula ,OHC 88 which shows positive iodoform test. The structure of A is
(a) 5623 HCOCCHCH (b) 5256 HCOOCHC
(c) 5656 HCOOCHC (d) 3563 COCHHCOCCH
2.
O ||
)CH(CHOCH 23−−−+
→H/OH)ii(
)excess(MgClCH)i(
2
3 A BOH)ii(
NaOCl)i(
3+
→
The product B is a mixture of 3CHCl and
(a)
O ||
CHCCH 33 −− (b) COOHCH3 (c) ( ) COOHCH 23 (d) ( ) COOHCH 33
3. The acid that reduces Tollens reagent is
(a) HHCO2 (b) HCOCH 23
(c) HCOCHCH 223 (d) HCOCHCHCH 2223
4. A,ACOCHBrHCsolution
NaOH256 → is
(a) 256 )OH(COCHHC (b) COCHOHC 56
(c) )HCO(CHOHHC 256 (d) +−NaCO)OH(CHHC 256
5. The addition product of compound ‘A’ with excess of methyl magnesium iodide followed by
acidification yields t-butanol. The compound A is
(a) methanol (b) ethanol
(c) propanal (d) methyl ethanoate
6. Acrylic acid reacts with HBr to produce
(a) HBrCHBrCOCH 23 (b) HCHBrCOCH 23
(c) COBrCHCH2 −= (d) HCOBrCHCH 222
7. X(monobasic acid) →∆,NH3 Y →
∆,KBrO Z .OHC)CH( 33HNO2 − → X is
(a) COOHC)CH( 33 − (b) OHCHC)CH( 233 −
(c) 233 CONHC)CH( − (d) none is true
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Quest
8. 523 HCCCH|| O
−− BA 352356 )HOC(AlHCOHC ← → A and B are:
(a) CHOCH,HCOOCCH 3523 (b) CHOCHCH,HCOOCCH 23523
(c) CHOCHCH,COOCHCHCH 23323 (d) none is correct
9.OHCH
NaBH
3
4B ←
O
O
OA4LiAlH
→ A and B are
(a)
O
OH
O in both cases (b)
OH
OHOH
in both cases
(c)
OH
OH
OH
O
OH
O(d) formation of A and B is not possible
10. Ease of esterification of following acids with OHCH3 :
HCOOH, ,COOHCH3 ,COOHCHCH 23
I II III
(a) III<II<I (b) I<II<III (c) II<I<III (d) equal
11. Ease of esterification of following alcohols with HCOOH:
,OHCHCH 23 ,CHOH)CH( 23 COH)CH( 33
I II III
(a) I<II<III (b) III<II<I (c) II<I<III (d) equal
12.C300
MnO3 HCOOHCOOHCH
° →+ Main product of this reaction is:
(a) CHOCH3 (b) 33COCHCH (c) HCHO (d) O)COCH( 23
13. AONaCHCH
H)ii(
essurePr
,CO)i(23
+
→∆
BOHCOCHCHC400
POH222
43
° →++= A and B are:
(a) COOHCHCH 23 in both cases (b) CHOCHCH 23 in both cases
(c) CHOCH,COOHCHCH 323 (d) COOHCH,CHOCH 33
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Quest
14. →++−− 22 BrKOHNHCR|| O
Intermediates of this reaction are except:
(a) R—N=C=O (b) NCR|| O
��−− (c)
H |
BrNCR|| O
−−− (d) a, c
15.
O
OA
OHCH3 → A is:
(a)
3
22
COOCH OH| | CHCH − (b)
COOH OCH| | CHCH
3
22 − (c) both are correct (d) none is correct
16. BACHOCHONaHC)HOC(Al
352352 → → A and B are:
(a) 5223523 HCOOCCOCHCH,HCOOCCH (b) 5233 HCOOCCH,COOHCH
(c) OHHC,COOHCH 523 (d) all incorrect
17. Which will show Hofmann degradation reaction ?
(a) 22CONHNH (b) 23CONHCH
(c) 223 NHCHCCH|| O
−− (d) 2NHCH|| O
−−
18.COOCHCH
|COOCHCH
22
22ABa →
∆ A is:
(a)
O
(b)
O
(c)O
(d)
O
O
19. End product of the following sequence of reactions are
O
O|
CHC 3−∆
∆+
+ →
.3H.2
,NaOHI.1 2
(a) yellow ppt. of ,CHI3
O
COOH(b) yellow ppt. of ,CHI3
O
CHO
(c) yellow ppt. of ,CHI3
O
(d) yellow ppt. of ,CHI3COOHCOOH
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Quest
20. For the following acids
HCOCCH)CH( 2233 HCOCHN)CH( 2233
⊕COOHCH3
I II III
apK values will be in order :
(a) I > II > III (b) I < II < III (c) I > III > II (d) II > III > I
21. Strongest acid out of
,HCOCH 23 ,HCHCOCH 22 =
HCO2
(a) HCOCH 23 (b) HCHCOCH 22 = (c) HCO2 (d) equal Ka
22. End product of this conversion:
HCOCHCHCCHCH|| O
22223 + →H,OH.2
NaBH.1
2
4 is:
(a) O
3CHO
(b) O
3CH
O
(c) OO
(d)
OH |
HCOCHCHCHCHCH 22223
23. On standing in dilute aqueous acid, compound A is smoothly converted to:
A 3CH
HCOCH 22
3CH
OO
(a)3CH
O
O
OH
(b)
O
O
OHCH2
(c)3CH
3CH
OO
3CH
(d)3CH
OO
3CH
O
24. Give the structure of the expected product of the following reaction
O
3CH
O →+ 23NHCH
(a)
3CH
O
3NCH
(b)HO
3CH
O
3NCH
(c)
OH | CHCHCHNHCCHCH
|| O
3223
(d) none
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Quest
25. 2CNH|| O
DCBA.)ppt yellow(
I,)OH(Ca
OH
MgBrCHOP 22
3
3104 → → → →∆
−+. D is
(a)3CHC
|| O
− (b) COOH
(c) C|| O
(d)
26. Which reaction is not reversible:
(a) OHRRCOOHOHRRCOOH
2 ′+ →+′+
(b) OHRRCOONaNaOHRRCOO ′+→+′
(c) OHRRCOOOHRRCOOH 2+′→′+ (d) all
27.COOH
O
COOHCH2A→
∆. A is:
(a)
O
COCH2
COO (b)
COOH
3CH
O
(c)
O
COOHCH2 (d) none
28. B∆
∆ ←
,Br,KOD.2
,NH.1
2
3 COOH A,Br,KOH.2
,ND.1
2
3
∆
∆ → What are A and B ?
(a) A is ,NH2 B is 2ND (b) A is 2ND B is 2NH
(c) both 2ND (d) both 2NH
29. Major end product of the following sequence of reaction is:
2223 CONHCHCHCH → →∆
222 HNOCl,)OH(Ca
(a) 2223 NHCHCHCH (b) OHCHCHCH 223 (c)
OH | CHCHCH 33 (d) COOHCHCH 23
30. Which of the following acid undergo decarboxylation on heating ?
(a)COOHCH
| COOHCH
2
2(b) 22 )COOH(CH
(c) COOH)CH(HOOC 42 (d)
COOH
COOH
31. But-3ene-1-oic Acid can be prepared by the action of which Grignard reagent with 2CO
(a) CHMgBrCH2 = (b) MgBrCHCH 23
(c) MgBrCHCHCH 22 = (d) MgBrCHBrCH 22
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Quest
32. Which can undergo HVZ reaction
(a) HCOOH (b) COOHCH3 (c)COOH| COOH
(d) CCOOHMe3
33. Which chiral isomer of 384 OHC (an acid) on treatment with LAH gives achiral product?
(a)
3
3
OCH |
CHCOOHCH (b)
OH |
COOHCHCHCH 23 −−
(c)
OH |
COOHCHCHCH 23 (d)
OHCH |
COOHCHCH
2
3 −−
34. Correct order of reactivity of acid derivatives towards a nucleophile is
(a) 22 RCONHRCOORO)RCO(RCOCl >>>
(b) O)RCO(RCONHRCOClRCOOR 22 >>>
(c) RCOClRCOORO)RCO(RCONH 22 >>>
(d) 22 RCONHRCOORRCOClO)RCO( >>>
35.
COOH
→HBr ? Product is
(a)
COBr
(b)
COOH
Br (c)
COOHBr
(d)
COOH
36. ‘A’hydrolysis
Acid ←
3
523
CH |
HCOCHCOOCCHhydrolysis
ketonic → ‘B’. ‘A’ & ‘B’ are
(a) COOHCHCH 23 , 323 CHCOCHCH (b) COOHCH,COOHCHCH 323
(c) 333 COCHCH,COOHCH (d) 52523 HCOCHC,COOHCH
37.COOH| CHO
+ 2CHCOOR
COORHOH,
Pipridine
∆ → ? Final product & the name of the reaction is
(a)HCCOOH
|| HCCOOH
knoevengel (b)COOH
COOH
22)CH( , claisen condensation
(c) =− CHHOOCCOOR
COOR
C (d) none of these
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Quest
ANSWERS
1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (d) 6. (d)
7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (a)
13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (b)
19. (c) 20. (c) 21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (c)
25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (a) 29. (c) 30. (b)
31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (d) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (a)
37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (d)
38.COOH| COOH
].Y[]X[ 52
3
52 OP
NH2)ii(
OHHC2)i( → → What is ‘Y’
(a)CN| CN
(b)52
52
HCOOC|
HCOOC
(c)CO|CO
O (d)22
22
NHCH|
NHCH
39. What is the product in following crossed claisen condensation ?
+5252 HCOOCHC52
52
HCOOC|
HCOOC
+ →
H
52 ONaHC ?
(a) CHCH3
52HCOOC
52HCOOC
(b) CHCH3 −52HCOCOOC
52HCOCOOC
(c) CHCH3
52HCOOC
52HCOCOOC(d) CHCH3 −
52HCOCOC
52HCOC
40. + →=∆
CHCOOHCH2 Product is
(a)COOH
(b)COOH
(c)COOH
(d)COOH
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Quest
PRINCIPLE OF METTALURGY
1. Select the correct statementa) Dolomite is the ore of zinc b) Galena is the ore of mercuryc) Pyrolusite is the ore of iron d) Cassiterite is the ore of tin
2. The process of converting hydrated alumina into anhydrous alumina is calleda) roasting b) calcination c) smelting d) dressing
3. Electrometallurgical process, (electrolysis of fused salt) is employed to extracta) lead b) silver c) sodium d) none of the above
4. Poling process is used
a) for the removal of OCu2 from Cu b) for the removal of 32OAl from Al
c) for the removal of 32OFe from Fe d) in all of the above
5. Leaching is a process ofa) reduction b) concentration c) refining d) oxidation
6. Which one of the following is not a basic flux?
a) 3CaCO b) CaO c)2SiO d) MgO
7. Ore dressing for iron is done bya) froth floatation process b) magnetic separationc) hand picking d) all of the above
8. Silicon is the main constituent ofa) rocks b) alloys c) animals d) plants
9. Zone refining is a method to obtaina) very high temperature b) ultrapure Alc) Ultrapure metals d) Ultrapure oxides
10. To obtain chromium from chromic oxide ( )32OCr , the method used is
a) carbon reduction b) carbon monoxide reductionc) aluminothermic reduction d) electrolytic reduction
11. The furnace which gives the highest temperature isa) blast furnace b) reverberatory furnacec) electrical furnace c) muffle furnace
12. Which method of purification is represented by the following equations?
2
1700
4
523
2 22 ITiTiIITiKK
+ → →+
a) cupellation b) poling c) Van Arkel d) zone refining
13. Van Arkel method of purification of metals involves converting the metal to aa) volatile stable compound b) volatile unstable compoundc) non-volatile stable compound d) none of the above
14. The electrolytic reduction technique is used in the extraction ofa) highly electronegative elements b) transition metalc) metalloids d) highly electropositive elements
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Quest
15. Which method of purification is represented by the following equations?
( ) CONiCONiCONiCC
44180
4
70+ → →+
°°
a) Van Arkel b) zone refining c) Mond d) cupellation
16. The incorrect statement isa) Calamine and siderite are carbonates b) Argentite and cuprite are oxidesc) Zinc blende and iron pyrites are sulfides d) Malachite and azurite are ores of copper
17. In the electrolysis of alumina, cryolite is added toa) lower the melting point of alumina b) decrease the electrical conductivityc) minimize the anode effect d) remove impurities from alumina
18. Of the following, the metals that cannot be obtained by electrolysis of the aqueous solution of theirsalts area) Ag b) Zn c) Cu d) Al
19. In the electrolytic extraction of aluminium, the solvent is
a) molten 32
OAl b) water c) AlOFe32
+ d) molten cryolite
20. Cupellation is a process used for the refining ofa) silver b) lead c) copper d) iron
21. The anode mud in the electrolytic refining of silver containsa) Zn, Cu, Ag, Au b) Zn, Ag, Auc) Cu, Ag, Au d) Au
22. Froth floatation process is based on :a) specific gravity of the ore particles b) magnetic properties of the ore particlesc) wetting properties of the ore particles d) electrical properties of the ore particles
23. Sulphide ores are generally concentrated by:a) froth floatation b) roastingc) gravity d) reduction by carbon
24. Auto reduction process is used in the extraction of:a) Cu and Hg b) Zn and Hg c) Cu and Al d) Fe and Pb
25. Complex formation method is used for the extraction of:a) Zn b) Ag c) Hg d) Cu
26. Carbon monoxide reduction process is used for the extraction of:a) Cu b) Ag c) Fe d) Sn
27. In aluminothermic process, aluminium acts as:a) an oxidising agent b) a reducing agentc) a flux d) a solder
28. Heating of pyrites to remove sulphur is called as:a) roasting b) calcination c) smelting d) fluxing
29. Which one of the following is not a basic flux?
a) 3CaCO b) CaO c)2SiO d) MgO
30. In the manufacture of iron from hematite, limestone is added to act as:a) flux b) slag c) a reducing agent d) an oxidising agent
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Quest
31. In the froth floatation process, for the purification of ores, the ore particles float because:a) they are light b) their surface is not easily wetted by waterc) they bear electrostatic charge d) they are insoluble
32. Inner layer of blast furnace is made of:a) graphite bricks b) silica bricks c) basic bricks d) fire-clay bricks
33. Which oil is used as frother in froth floatation process ?a) mustard oil b) coconut oil c) olive oil d) pine oil
Answers
1. d 2. b 3. c 4. a 5. b 6. c7. b 8. a 9. c 10. c 11. c 12. c13. a 14. d 15. c 16. b 17. a 18. d19. d 20. a 21. d 22. c 23. a 24. a25. b 26. c 27. b 28. a 29. c 30. a31. b 32. d 33. d
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HYDROGEN AND ITS COMPOUNDS
1. Adsorbed hydrogen by palladium is knows asa) atomic b) nascent c) occluded d) heavy
2. Calgon is an industrial name given toa) normal sodium aluminium silicate b) sodium meta-aluminatec) sodium hexametaphosphate d) hydrated sodium aluminium silicate
3. Which of the following is not a water softener?
a) Calgon b) Permutit c)3CaCO d)
42SONa
4. The reaction, OHSOHSH 2222 2+→+ , manifests
a) acidic nature of 22OH b) alkaline nature of
22OH
c) oxidising action of 22OH d) reducing nature of
22OH
5. Hydrogen may be prepared by heating a solution of caustic soda witha) Mg b) Zn c) Fe d) Ag
6. The volume of ‘10 vol.’ of 22OH required to liberate 500mL
2O at N.T.P. is
a) 50 mL b) 25 mL c) 100 mL d) 125 mL
7. Hydrogen peroxide has aa) linear structure b) closed chain structurec) closed book type structure d) Half open book type structure
8. Hydrogen peroxide does nota) liberate peroxide from KI b) turn the titanium salt yellowc) give silver peroxide with moist silver oxide
d) turn the mixture of aniline, 3KClO and dil.42SOH violet
9. Hydrogen reacts with the following in the dark
a)2Br b)
2F c)2I d)
2Cl
10.22OH reduces ( )
63 CNFeK in
a) neutral solution b) acidic solutionc) alkaline medium d) non-polar medium
11. Which of the following is correct for hydrogena) It can form bonds in +1 as will as in -1 oxidation stateb) It is collected at cathode c) It has a very high ionization potentiald) All of these
12. Tritium undergoes radioactive decay giving
a) α -particles b) β -particles c) neutrons d) γ -rays
13. If HCl is added to the following oxides, which one would give 22OH ?
a)2BaO b)
2MnO c)2PbO d)
2NO
14. The oxide that gives 22OH on treatment with a dilute acid is
a)2PbO b)
2MnO c)22ONa d)
2TiO
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Quest
Answers
1. c 2. c 3. d 4. c 5. b 6. a7. d 8. c 9. b 10. c 11. d 12. b13. a 14. c 15. d 16. b 17. c 18. b19. c 20. d 21. c 22. c
15. Hydrogen gas will not reducea) heated cupric oxide b) heated ferric oxidec) heated stannic oxide d) heated aluminium oxide
16. A commercial sample of 22OH is labelled as ‘15 volume’. Its percentage strength is nearly
a) 1% b) 4.5% c) 10% d) 90%
17. Ortho and Para hydrogen differa) in the number of protons b) in the molecular massc) in the nature of spin of protons d) in the nature of spin of electrons
18. When zeolite, which is hydrated sodium aluminium silicate, is treated with hard water, the sodiumions are exchanged with
a) +H ions b)
++Ca ions c)
−−4SO ions d)
−OH ions
19. Under what conditions of temperature and pressure, the formation of atomic hydrogen from molecu-lar hydrogen will be most favoured ?a) high temperature and high pressureb) low temperature and low pressurec) high temperature and low pressured) low temperature and high pressure
20. 20mL of a sample of 22OH gives 400mL of oxygen measured at NTP. The sample should be
labelled as
a) 5 vol. 22OH b) dilute
22OH c) anhydrous 22OH d) 20 vol.
22OH
21. An orange coloured solution acidified with 42SOH and treated with a substance ’X’ gives a blue
coloured solution of 5CrO . The substance ‘X’ is
a) OH2b) dil. HCl c)
22OH d) conc. HCl
22. Hydrolysis of one mole of peroxydisulphuric acid producesa) two mole of sulphuric acid b) two moles of peroxymonosulphuric acidc) one mole of sulphuric acid and one mole of peroxy monosulphuric acidd) one mole of sulphuric acid, one mole of peroxy monosulphuric acid and one mole of hydrogenperoxide
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ALKALI METALS
1. Sodium carbonate is prepared bya) Solvay’s process b) Kolbe’s processc) Contact process d) Nessler’s process
2. OHOSNa 2322 5. is used in photography to
a) reduce AgBr to metallic Ag b) remove reduced Agc) remove undecomposed AgBr as a soluble complexd) convert metallic Ag to silver salt
3. What are the raw materials used in Solvay process
a) 33, CaCONHNaCl b) 2, CONaOH
c) 2, CONaCl d) 423 ,,, SOHCCaCONaCl
4. When chlorine is passed through concentrated solution of KOH, the compound formed is
a) KClO b) 2KClO c) 3KClO d) 4KClO
5. Which of the following has lowest thermal stability?
a) 32COLi b) 32CONa c) 32COK d) 32CORb
6. Which salt on heating does not give brown coloured gas?
a) 3LiNO b) 3KNO c) ( )23NOPb d) 3AgNO
7. Which one of the following does not react with NaOH?a) Zn b) Si c) Al d) Fe
8. The ion which has maximum value of hydration energy is
a) +Li b) +
Na c) +K d) +
Cs
9. Sodium burns in dry air to give
a) ONa2 b) 22ONa c) 2NaO d) NNa3
10. The solubility of AgBr in hypo solution is due to the formation of
a) 322 OSAg b) 32SOAg c) ( )[ ]−322 OSAg d) ( )[ ] −3
2322 OSAg
11. Among LiCl, RbCl, 2BeCl , 2MgCl , the compounds with greatest and least ionic character are
a) LiCl, RbCl b) 2, BeClRbCl c) 2, MgClRbCl d) 22 , BeClMgCl
12. Ease with which hydrides are formed from Li to Csa) decreases b) increases c) remains the same d) none of these
13. Thermal stability of hydrides of first group elements follows the order
a) RbHKHNaHLiH >>> b) RbHNaHKHLiH >>>
c) NaHKHRbHLiH >>> d) NaHRbHKHLiH >>>
14. In certain matters, lithium differs from other alkali metals, the main reason for this is
a) small size of lithium atom and +Li b) extremely high electropositivity of Li
c) greater hardness of Li d) hydration of +Li ion
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15. Which reacts directly with nitrogen to form nitride?a) Na b) Li c) K d) Rb
16. Nitrogen dioxide cannot be obtained by heating
a) 3KNO b) ( )23NOPb c) ( )
23NOCu d) 3AgNO
17. Sodium carbonate can be manufactured by Solvay’s process but potassium carbonate cannot beprepared, because
a) 32COK is more soluble b) 32COK is less soluble
c) 3KHCO is more soluble than 3NaHCO d) 3KHCO is less soluble than 3NaHCO
18. Zinc reacts with excess of caustic soda to form
a) ( )2OHZn b) ZnO c) 22ZnONa d) ( ) 32.ZnCOOHZn
19. A solution of sodium in liquid ammonia is strongly reducing due to the presence ofa) sodium atoms b) sodium hydride c) sodium amide d) solvated electrons
20. A substance X is a compound of an element of group IA. The substance X gives a violet colour inflame test, X isa) NaCl b) LiCl c) KCl d) None of these
21. Tin dissolves in excess of sodium hydroxide solution to form
a) ( )2OHSn b) 32SnONa c) 22SnONa d) 3NaClO
22. An element having electronic configuration 62222,1 pss , 162
4,33 sps will form
a) acidic oxide b) basic oxide c) amphoteric oxide d) neutral oxide
23. One of the natural minerals of sodium is tincal. Its formula is
a) OHCONa 232 10. b) 3NaNO
c) OHOBNa 2742 10. d) NaCl
24. In the following reaction, OHSNaASNaOH 252 ++→+ , A is
a) 32SONa b) 42SONa c) 322 OSNa d) SNa2
25. 23232 COAOFeCONa +→+ . What is A in the reaction?
a) 2NaFeO b) 32FeONa c) 43OFe d) 22FeONa
26. When dry ammonia gas is passed over heated sodium (out of contact of air) the product formed isa) sodium hydride b) sodium nitridec) sodamide d) sodium cynamide
27. From a solution of zinc chloride, zinc carbonate can be obtained by adding
a) 3NaHCO b) 32CONa c) 3CaCO d) 3MgCO
28. If NaOH is added to an aqueous solution of +2Zn ions, a white precipitate appears and on adding
excess of NaOH, the precipitate dissolves. In the solution, zinc exists in thea) anionic part b) cationic partc) both in anionic and cationic part d) colloidal form
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29. A white solid reacts with dil. HCl to give colourless gas that decolourises aqueous bromine. The solid ismost likely to bea) sodium carbonate b) sodium chloridec) sodium acetate d) sodium thiosulphate
30. Sodium sulphate is soluble in water whereas barium sulphate is sparingly soluble becausea) the hydration energy of sodium sulphate is more than its lattice energyb) the lattice energy of barium sulphate is less than its hydration energyc) the lattice energy has no role to play is solubilityd) the hydration energy of sodium sulphate is less than its lattice energy
31. The metallic lustre exhibited by sodium is explained bya) diffusion of sodium ionsb) oscillation of mobile valence electronsc) existence of free protonsd) existence of body centred cubic lattice
32. Ionic mobility of +
Li is less than +Na and +
K because
a) ionisation potential of lithium is small b) charge density of +Li is high
c) of high hydration tendency of +
Li d) +Li keeps two electrons
33. Which of the following compounds on reaction with NaOH and 22OH gives yellow colour?
a) ( )2OHZn b) ( )3OHCr c) ( )3OHAl d) None
Answers
1. a 2. c 3. a 4. c 5. a 6. b7. d 8. a 9. b 10. d 11. b 12. a13. a 14. a 15. b 16. a 17. c 18. c19. d 20. c 21. b 22. b 23. c 24. c25. a 26. c 27. a 28. a 29. d 30. a31. b 32. c 33. b
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ALKALINE EARTH METAL GROUPS
1. If 2CO is passed in excess into lime water, the milkiness first formed disappears due to
a) reversal of original reactionb) formation of volatile calcium bicarbonatec) formation of soluble calcium bicarbonated) formation of soluble calcium hydroxide
2. Lithopone is a mixture ofa) barium sulphate and zinc sulphideb) barium sulphide and zinc sulphidec) calcium sulphate and zinc sulphided) calcium sulphide and zinc sulphide
3. Carnallite is
a) KCl b) ( )23SiOLiAl c) OHMgCl 22 6. d) OHMgClKCl 22 6..
4. Which of the following alkaline earth metal ions has the highest ionic mobility in aqueous solution?
a) +2Be b) +2
Mg c) +2Ba d) +2
aC
5. Magnesium wire burns in the atmosphere of 2CO because
a) magnesium acts as an oxidising agentb) magnesium has 2 electrons in the outermost orbit
c) magnesium acts as a reducing agent and removes oxygen from 2CO
d) none of the above
6. Which of the following metal does not form ionic hydride?a) Ba b) Mg c) Ca d) Sr
7. ( )2
OHBe is
a) acidic b) basic c) amphoteric d) neutral
8. Which of the following is least soluble in water?
a)2BaF b)
2SrF c)2CaF d)
2MgF
9. The hydration energy of +2
Mg ions is higher than that of
a)+3
Al b)+2
Be c) +Na d) none of these
10. Which of the following metal dissolves in KOH with the evolution of hydrogen?a) Ca b) Mg c) Sr d) Be
11. When magnesium burns in air, compounds of magnesium formed are magnesium oxide and
a) 23NMg b) 3MgCO c) ( )23NOMg d) ( )
22NOMg
12. A fire work gave bright crimson light. It probably contained a salt ofa) Ca b) Sr c) Ba d) Mg
13. Sodium is produced by electrolysis of a molten mixture of 40% NaCl and 60% 2CaCl because
a)2CaCl helps in the conduction of electricity
b) +2Ca can reduce NaCl to Na c) +2
Ca can displace Na from NaCl
d) This mixture has a lower melting point than NaCl
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14. Kiesserite is an ore ofa) Cu b) Fe c) Mg d) Al
15. The right order of the solubility of sulphates of alkaline earth metals is
a) SrBaMgCaBe >>>> b) SrCaBaBeMg >>>>
c) BaSrCaMgBe >>>> d) SrBeBaCaMg >>>>
16. A piece of magnesium ribbon was heated to redness in an atmosphere of nitrogen and on coolingwater was added, the gas evolved wasa) ammonia b) hydrogen c) nitrogen d) oxygen
17. The following compounds have been arranged in order of their increasing thermal stabilities. Identifythe correct order
( )ICOK 32 , ( )IIMgCO3 , ( )IIICaCO3 , ( )IVBeCO3
a) IVIIIIII <<< b) IIIIIIIV <<<
c) IIIIIIIV <<< d) IIIIIVII <<<
18. A substance which gives a brick red flame and breaks down on heating giving oxygen and a browngas is?a) calcium carbonate b) magnesium nitratec) magnesium carbonate d) calcium nitrate
19. A compound X on heating gives a colourless gas. The residue is dissolved in water to obtain Y.
When excess 2CO is bubbled through aqueous solution of Y, Z is formed. Z on gently heating
gives back X. The compound X is
a) 3CaCO b) 32CONa c) ( )23HCOCa d) 32COK
20.2BeF is soluble in water, whereas, the fluorides of other alkaline earth metals are insoluble be-
cause of
a) ionic nature of 2BeF
b) greater hydration energy of +2
Be ion as compared to crystal lattice
c) covalent nature of 2BeF d) none of these
21. The order of increasing lattice energy is
a) BaONaBrCaONaCl <<< b) CaOBaONaClNaBr <<<
c) CaOBaONaBrNaCl <<< d) BaOCaONaClNaBr <<<
22. Amongst the following hydroxides, the one which has the lowest value of spK at ordinary tempera-
ture is
a) ( )2
OHMg b) ( )2
OHCa c) ( )2
OHBa d) ( )2
OHBe
23. In the reaction, 22 HANaOHBe +→+ , A is
a) ( )2
OHBe b) BeO c)22BeONa d) none of these
24. A chloride dissolves appreciably in cold water. When placed on a platinum wire in Bunsen flame, nodistinctive colour is noticed. Identify the cation.
a) +2Mg b) +2
Ba c) +2Pb d) +2
Ca
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Answers
1. c 2. a 3. d 4. c 5. c 6. b7. c 8. c 9. c 10. d 11. a 12. b13. d 14. c 15. c 16. a 17. b 18. d19. a 20. b 21. b 22. d 23. c 24. a
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THE BORON FAMILY
1. Aluminium does not react with
a) NaOH b) HCl c)2N d) 3HNO
2. Which of following compounds are formed when boron trichloride is treated with water?
a) HClBOH +33 b) HClHB +62 c) HClOB +32 d) none
3. In diboranea) 4 bridged hydrogens and two terminal hydrogens are presentb) 2 bridged hydrogens and four terminal hydrogens are presentc) 3 bridged hydrogens and three terminal hydrogens are presentd) none of these
4. Thermite is a mixture ofa) 3 parts powdered aluminium and 1 part ferric oxideb) 1 part powdered aluminium and 3 parts ferric oxidec) 1 part powdered aluminium and 1 part ferric oxided) 2 parts powdered aluminium and 3 parts ferric oxide
5. Which one is not a borane?
a) 95HB b) 105HB c) 115HB d) 106HB
6. In which of the following elements +1 oxidation state is more stable than +3?a) B b) Al c) Ga d) Tl
7. Inorganic benzene is
a) 62HB d) 333 ONB c) 633 HNB e) 104HB
8. Identify the statement that is not correct as far as structure of diborane is concerneda) There are two bridging hydrogen atom in diboraneb) Each boron atom forms four bonds in diboranec) The hydrogen atom are not in the same plane in diboraned) All B-H bonds in diborane are similar
9. Which of the following processes does not involve a catalysta) Thermite process b) Ostwald’s process c) Contact process d) Haber’s process
10. When aluminium heated with carbon in nitrogen atmosphere, the products are
a) Al + CO b)2COAl + c)
2COCOAl ++ d) COAlN +
11. When alumina is electrolysed in presence of cryolite, the gas liberated at graphite anode is
a)2F b)
2O c)4CF d) OF2
12. The electrolysis of pure alumina is not feasible becausea) it is bad conductor of electricity and its fusion temperature is highb) it is volatile in nature c) it is decomposed when fusedd) it is amphoteric
13. In the extraction of aluminium, the function of cryolite is toa) lower the melting point of alumina b) increase the melting point of aluminac) remove impurities from alumina d) minimise the anodic effect
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14. On the addition of mineral acid to an aqueous solution of borax, the following compound is formeda) boron hydride b) orthoboric acid c) metaboric acid d) sodium carbonate
15. Boric acid is prepared from borax by the action ofa) hydrochloric acid b) sodium hydroxide c) carbon dioxide d) sodium carbonate
16. When a solution of sodium hydroxide is added in excess to the solution of potash alum, we obtaina) a white precipitate b) bluish white precipitatec) a clear solution d) a crystalline mass
17. The blue coloured mineral ‘Lapis Lazuli’ which is used as a semi-precious stone is a mineral of thefollowing classa) sodium alumino silicate b) zinc cobaltatec) basic copper carbonate d) prussian blue
18. Which of the following is most acidic?
a) ONa2b) MgO c) 32OAl d) CaO
19. From 62HB , all the following can be prepared except
a) 32OB b) 33BOH c) ( )632 CHB d)
4NaBH
20. The halides of group IIIA elements behave as Lewis acids. The acceptor ability is maximum for thehalides ofa) Tl b) Ga c) Al d) B
21. The power of halides of boron to act as Lewis acids decreases in the order
a) 333 BBrBClBF >> b) 333 BFBClBBr >>
c) 333 BBrBFBCl >> d) 333 BFBBrBCl >>
22. Inorganic graphite is
a) 633 HNB b) 62HB c) BN d) 3BF
23. Which one of the following statements about 33BOH is not correct?
a) It is a strong tribasic acidb) It is prepared by acidifying an aqueous solution of borax
c) It has a layer structure in which planar 3BO units are joined by hydrogen bonds
d) It does not act as proton donor as it acts as a Lewis acid by accepting hydroxyl ions
24. In the commercial electrochemical process for aluminium extraction, the electrolyte used is
a) ( )3
OHAl in NaOH solution
b) an aqueous solution of ( )342 SOAl
c) a molten mixture of 32OAl and 62 AlFNa
d) a molten mixture of AlO(OH) and ( )3
OHAl
Answers
1. d 2. a 3. b 4. b 5. b 6. d7. c 8. d 9. a 10. d 11. b 12. a13. a 14. b 15. a 16. c 17. a 18. c19. c 20. d 21. b 22. c 23. a 24. c
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THE CARBON FAMILY
1. In group IVA or 14 of the extended form of the periodic table with increase in atomic number, theoxidising power of tetravalent species increases in the order
a) SnPbGa >> b) PbSnGa >> c) SnGaPb >> d) GaSnPb >>
2. Which form of the carbon has a two dimensional sheet like structure?a) diamond b) coal c) graphite d) coke
3. When steam is passed through red hot coke
a)2CO and
2H are obtained b) CO and 2N are formed
c) CO and 2H are obtained d) petrol gas is obtained
4. The material used to give blue colouration to glass isa) CoO b) NiO c) CdS d) Fe
5. CO forms a volatile compound witha) nickel b) copper c) sodium d) aluminium
6. A colourless gas which burns with blue flame and reduces CuO to Cu is
a)2N b) CO c)
2CO d)2NO
7. The structure and hybridization of ( )43CHSi is
a) bent, sp b) trigonal, 2
sp c) octahedral, 23
dsp d) tetrahedral, 3
sp
8. Annealing is best described asa) slow and gradual cooling b) sudden and gradual coolingc) cooling by water d) very slow cooling
9. Which of the following halides is least stable and has doubtful existence?
a)4CI b)
4SnI c)4GeI d)
4PbI
10. Which of the following oxides is neutral?
a) CO b)2SnO c) ZnO d)
2SiO
11. Which of the following compounds is used as a reducing agent
a)2SnO b)
2SnS c)4SnCl d)
2SnCl
12. The butter of tin is represented by
a) OHSnCl 22 5. b)2SnCl c)
4SnCl d) OHSnCl 24 5.
13. The hydroxide of which metal ion is soluble in excess of sodium hydroxide solution
a) +3Fe b) +3Cr c) +2
Sn d) +2Cu
14. Which one of the oxides is most acidic
a) ONa2b) NiO c) CaO d) SnO
15. Which compound is called sugar of lead
a)2PbCl b) ( )
23NOPb c)4PbSO d) ( )
23COOCHPb
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16. The difference in properties of 4CH and
4SiH is due to
a) large difference in the electronegativity of carbon and siliconb) large difference in size of carbon and silicon atomsc) the inability of silicon to expand its octetd) the inability of silicon to form double bonds
17. 4CCl is inert towards hydrolysis but 4SiCl is readily hydrolysed because
a) carbon cannot expand its octet but silicon can expand its octetb) ionisation potential of carbon is higher than siliconc) carbon forms double and triple bondsd) electronegativity of carbon is higher than that of silicon
18. Which does not exist ?
a) [ ] −2
6CCl d) [ ] −2
6SiCl c) [ ] −2
6GeF d) [ ] −2
6SnCl
19. ‘Softening of lead’ means
a) conversion of lead to PbO b) conversion of lead to 43OPb
c) removal of impurities (metallic) from lead
d) washing lead with 3HNO followed by a dil. alkali solution
20. Which of the following is obtained on heating potassium ferrocyanide with 42SOH ?
a)2CO b) CO c)
22HC d) ( )2
CN
21. What is the formula of carbon suboxide ?
a) CO b)2CO c)
42OC d) 23OC
Answers
1. d 2. c. 3. c 4. a 5. a 6. b7. d 8. a 9. d 10. a 11. d 12. d13. c 14. d 15. d 16. a 17. a 18. a19. c 20. b 21. d
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THE NITROGEN FAMILY
1. Nitrous oxide is prepared in the laboratory bya) combination of nitrogen and oxygen b) reduction of NO
c) reduction of nitric acid d) thermal decomposition of 34NONH
2. Which one of the following is used for the drying of ammonia?
a) conc. 42SOH b) CaO
c) 52OP d) anhydrous 2CaCl
3. Which one of the following is not used for the manufacture of ammonia?a) Haber’s process b) Cyanamide processc) Ammonical mother liquor d) Solvay ammonia process
4. Which one of the following oxides of nitrogen is a coloured gas ?
a)22ON b)
2NO c) NO d) ON2
5. Which one of the following is not an acid salt?
a)22PONaH b) 32PONaH c)
42PONaH d)42HPONa
6. The largest bond angle is in
a) 3AsH b) 3NH c) OH2d) 3PH
7. A colourless gas X forms a brown coloured gas when mixed with air. This shows the presence of
a) 3NH b) NO c) ON2d)
2NO
8. Nirtogen dioxide cannot be obtained by heating
a) 3NHO b) ( )23NOPb c) ( )
23NOCa d) 3AgNO
9. When treated with nitric acid which of the following liberates hydrogen?a) zinc b) copper c) magnesium d) mercury
10. 5PCl is kept in well stoppered bottles because
a) it is highly volatile b) it reacts readily with moisturec) it reacts with oxygend) it is explosive
11. Which one of the following is a tetrabasic acid?a) Hypophosphorus acid b) Orthophosphoric acidc) Metaphsphoric acid d) Pyrophosphoric acid
12. Red phosphours is less reactive than yellow phosphorus becausea) its colour is red b) it is highly polymerisedc) it is tetratomic d) it is hard
13. The most stable hydride is
a) 3NH b) 3PH c) 3AsH d) 3SbH
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14. Which of the following fluorides does not exist?
a) 5NF b) 5PF c) 5AsF d) 5SbF
15. When ammonia is passed over heated CuO, it is oxidised to
a)2HNO b) ON2
c)2N d)
2NO
16. Of the following, which has three electron bond in its structure?a) Nitrous oxide b) Dinitrogen trioxidec) Nitric oxide d) Nitrogen pentoxide
17. 3PCl reacts with water to form
a) 3PH b) HClandPOH 33 c) 3POCl d) 43POH
18. Ammonia reacts with Nessler’s reagent to givea) deep blue precipitate b) white precipitatec) green precipitate d) brown precipitate
19. When OHNH4 is added to copper sulphate solution, blue colour is obtained due to formation of
a) ( ) 443 SONHCu b) ( )244SONHCu
c) ( )2
OHCu d) CuO
20. A certain element forms a solid oxide which dissolves in water to form an acidic solution. The elementisa) S b) Mg c) Na d) P
21. Ammonia reacts with excess of chlorine to form
a) ClNHandN 42b) HClandNCl3
c) 34 NClandClNH d) HClandN2
22. Amongst the trihalides of nitrogen, which one is least basic?
a) 3NF b) 3NCl c) 3NBr d) 3NI
23. Which of the following is the strongest base?
a) 3AsH b) 3SbH c) 3PH d) 3NH
24. When orthophosphoric acid is heated at 240°C, the main product formed is
a) 3HPO b) 23POH c) 33POH d) 724 OPH
25. 3PH produces smoky rings when it comes in contact with air. This is because
a) it is inflammable b) it combines with water vapour
c) it combines with nitrogen d) it contains impurity of 42HP
26. The anhydride of 43POH is
a) 32OP b)42OP c) 52OP d) 3PO
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27. Phosphate + conc. ( ) 4243 MoONHHNO + soln. → Yellow precipitate. The composition of Yellow
precipitate is
a) ( ) 3434 .MoOPONH + b) ( ) 3434 12. MoOPONH +
c) ( ) 3424 12. MoOPONH + d) 344 .MoOPONH
28. One of the acids listed below is formed from 32OP and the rest are formed from 52OP . The acid
formed from 32OP is
a) 3HPO b) 724 OPH c) 43POH d) 33POH
29. Concentrated nitric acid reacts with iodine to give
a) HI b) HOI c)2HOIO d) 3HOIO
30. Which of the following oxides of nitrogen is the anhydride of nitrous acid?
a) NO b) 32ON c)42ON d) 52ON
31. One mole of calcium phosphide on reaction with excess of water givesa) one mole of phosphine b) two moles of phosphoric acidc) two moles of phosphours pentaoxide d) two moles of phosphine
32. In 104OP , the number of oxygen atoms bonded to each phosphorus atom is
a) 2.5 b) 3 c) 4 d) 5
33. When bismuth chloride is poured into a large volume of water, the white precipitate produced is
a) ( )3
OHBi b) 32OBi c) 82ClBi d) BiOCl
34. 3NH has much higher boiling point than 3PH , because
a) 3NH has a much higher molecular mass
b) 3NH forms hydrogen bond
c) 3NH contains ionic bonds while 3PH contains covalent bonds
d) 3NH undergoes umbrella inversion
35. By the action of conc. 42SOH , phosphorus changes to
a) phosphorus acid b) metaphosphric acidc) orthophosphoric acid d) pyrophosphric acid
36. The number of hydroxyl groups in pyrophosphoric acid isa) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 7
37. Among the following oxides, the least acidic is
a) 64OP b) 104OP c) 64OAs d) 104OAs
38. The basic character of the hydrides of Vth group elements decreases in the order
a) 3333 SbHAsHPHNH >>> b) 3333 NHPHAsHSbH >>>
c) 3333 AsHPHSbHNH >>> d) 3333 NHAsHPHSbH >>>
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39. The 3BCl is a planar molecule whereas 3NCl is pyramidal, because
a) N-Cl bond is more covalent than B-Cl bondb) B-Cl bond is more polar than N-Cl bondc) nitrogen atom is smaller than boron
d) 3BCl has no lone pair but 3NCl has a lone pair on nitrogen
40. Nitrogen can be purified from the impurities of oxides of nitrogen and ammonia by passing through
a) a solution of 722 OCrK acidified with 42SOH
b) concentrated HCl c) alkaline soution of pyrogallold) a solution of KOH
41. In white phosphorus ( )4P molecule which one is not correct?
a) Six P-P single bonds are present b) Four P-P single bonds are presentc) Four lone pairs of electrons are present d) P-P-P bond angle is 60°
Answers
1. d 2. b 3. d 4. b 5. a 6. b7. d 8. a 9. c 10. b 11. d 12. b13. a 14. a 15. c 16. c 17. b 18. d19. a 20. d 21. b 22. a 23. d 24. d25. d 26. c 27. b 28. d 29. c 30. b31. d 32. c 33. d 34. b 35. c 36. b37. c 38. a 39. d 40. d 41. b
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THE OXYGEN FAMILY
1. Which one of the following is an amphoteric oxide?
a) 2MnO b) ZnO c) CaO d) 2CO
2. The maximum bond angle is in
a) OH2 b) SH2 c) SeH2 d) TeH2
3. Which of the following hydrides of the oxygen family shows the lowest boiling point?
a) OH2 b) SH2 c) SeH2 d) TeH2
4. Which of the following oxides is most basic ?
a) ONa2 b) 32OB c) ZnO d) 32OP
5. Which of the following is the most acidic oxide ?
a) 32OAl b) ONa2 c) MgO d) CaO
6. When SH2 is passed through potassium permanganate solution, we get
a) potassium sulphide b) sulphurc) potassium sulphite d) manganese sulphide
7. When 2SO is passed through cupric chloride solution
a) the solution becomes colourless and a white ppt. of 22ClCu is obtained
b) a white ppt. is obtainedc) the solution becomes colourlessd) no visible change takes place
8. Which of the following bonds has the highest energy?
a) SeSe − b) TeTe − c) SS − d) OO −
9. Which of the following molecule does not possess a permanent dipole moment?
a) SH2 b) 2SO c) 3SO d) 2CS
10. Which of the following is the most powerful oxidising agent?
a) 42SOH b) 33BOH c) 3HPO d) 43POH
11. When 2MnO is added to 3KClO in the preparation of oxygen the decomposition temperature of
3KClO is reduced from 350°C to ................
a) 300°C b) 150°C c) 250°C d) room temperature
12. On heating ozone, its volume
a) increases to 2
11 times b) decreases to half
c) remains unchanged d) becomes double
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13. A black sulphide when treated with ozone becomes white. The white compound is
a) 4ZnSO b) 4CuSO c) 4BaSO d) 4PbSO
14. In the reaction, AOKOHOOHKI ++→++ 232 22 , the compound A is
a) 3KIO b) 52OI c) 3HIO d) 2I
15. Which one of the metal sticks to glass plate on treatment with ozone?a) silver b) mercury c) copper d) lead
16. Moist iodine reacts with ozone to form
a) HI b) 52OI c) 3HIO d) 4HIO
17. In the laboratory SH2 is prepared by the action of
a) dilute 42SOH on FeS b) dilute 42SOH on 3FeSO
c) hydrogen on sulphurd) hydrogen on 32SSb
18. The catalyst used in the manufacture of 42SOH by contact process is
a) platinised asbestos b) Nic) Fe d) NO
19. When oxygen is passed through 32SONa solution, we get
a) SNa2 b) 42SONa c) 4NaHSO d) NaH
20. The gases respectively absorbed by alkaline pyrogallol and oil of cinnamon is
a) 43, CHO b) 42 , CHSO c) 32 , OO d) 32 , OON
21. Anhydride of sulphuric acid is
a) 2SO b) 3SO c) 322 OSH d) 32SOH
22. When 2SO is passed through a solution of SH2 in water
a) sulphuric acid is formed b) a clear solution is formedc) sulphur is precipitated d) no change is observed
23. Which of the following turns lead acetate paper black?
a) 2SO b) 3SO c) 42SOH d) SH2
24. When SH2 is passed through nitric acid solution, the product formed is
a) 42SOH b) colloidal sulphur c) 2SO d) plastic sulphur
25. Ozone reacts with ( )64 CNFeK to form
a) 32OFe b) ( )3OHFe c) ( )2OHFe d) ( )62 CNFeK
26. Ozone turns benzidine papera) violet b) brown c) blue d) red
27. There is no S-S bond in
a) −242OS b) −2
52OS c) −232OS d) −2
72OS
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28. SH2 is far more volatile than water because
a) sulphur atom is more electronegative than oxygen atomb) oxygen atom is more electronegative than sulphur atom
c) OH2 has bond angle of nearly 105°
d) hydrogen atom is loosely bonded with sulphur
29. Hydrolysis of one mole of peroxydisulphuric acid producesa) two moles of sulphuric acidb) two moles of peroxymonosulphuric acidc) one mole of sulphuric acid and one mole of peroxymonosulphuric acidd) one mole of sulphuric acid, one mole of peroxymonosulphuric acid and one mole of hydrogenperoxide
30. SH2 does not produce metallic sulphide with
a) 2CdCl b) 2ZnCl c) 2COCl d) 2CuCl
31. The oxidation number of sulphur in SHFSS 2228 ,, respectively, are
a) 2- and1,0 + b) 2- and1,2 ++ c) 2 and1,0 ++ d) 2 and1,2 −+−
Answers
1. b 2. a 3. b 4. c 5. a 6. b7. a 8. c 9. d 10. a 11. c 12. a13. d 14. d 15. b 16. c 17. a 18. a19. b 20. c 21. c 22. c 23. d 24. b25. d 26. b 27. d 28. b 29. c 30. c31. a
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HALOGEN FAMILY
1. Which one of the following is most volatile acid?a) HF b) HCl c) HBr d) HI
2. Which one of the following is the strongest acid?
a) HClO b)2HClO c) 3HClO d)
4HClO
3. Which one of the following is the strongest oxidising agent?
a) HClO b)2HClO c) 3HClO d)
4HClO
4. Oxidising action increases in the following order
a) FIBrCl <<< b) FBrICl <<< c) BrClFI <<< d) FClBrI <<<
5. Which of the following is not oxidised by 2MnO ?
a) −F b) −
Cl c) −Br d) −
I
6. The iodine atom in −2ICl involves
a) dsp3 -hybridization b) 23
dsp -hybridization
c) 2sp -hybridization d) 3
sp -hybridization
7. Which is formed when 722 OCrK , 2CaCl and conc.
42SOH are heated?
a) ( )342 SOCr b) 3CrCl c)
22ClCrO d)42CrOK
8. The colour of iodine solution is discharged by shaking witha) aqueous sulphur dioxideb) sodium sulphidec) sodium sulphate d) sodium chloride
9. Chlorine gas is dried over
a) CaO b) NaOH c)42SOH d) HBr
10. Iodine is liberated from KI solution when treated with
a)4ZnSO b)
4CuSO c)4NiSO d)
4FeSO
11. In a given sample of bleaching powder, the percentage of available chlorine is 49. The volume ofchlorine obtained if 10g of the sample is treated with HCl at N.T.P. isa) 1.5 litre b) 3.0 litre c) 15.0 litre d) 150 l
12. Which of the following is the strongest acid?
a) ( )2
OHSO b) ( )22 OHSO c) ( )OHClO2
d) ( )OHClO3
13. The following acids have been arranged in order of decreasing acid strength. Identify the correct order ClOH(I) BrOH(II) IOH(III)
a) IIIIII >> b) IIIIII >> c) IIIIII >> d) IIIIII >>
14. When thiosulphate ion is oxidised by iodine, the new product formed is
a) −23SO b) −2
4SO c) −264OS d) −2
62OS
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Quest
15. Which of the following is a pseudohalogen?
a) 7IF b) ( )2
CN c)2ICl d) −
3I
16. When the vapour of chromyl chloride are passed through NaOH solution, it turns yellow. This is due toformation of
a) 722 OCrNa b)42
CrONa c) 3CrO d)42CrOH
17. The structure of 3ClF is
a) pentagonal bipyramid b) trigonal bipyramidc) octahedral d) tetrahedral
18. The structure of 7IF is
a) trigonal bipyramid b) octahedralc) pentagonal bipyramid d) tetrahedral
19. Chlorine water on cooling deposits greenish-yellow crystals of
a) OHCl 22 2. b) OHCl 22. c) OHCl 22 3. d) OHCl 22 8.
20. Mark the halogen which shows electropositive character :a) F b) Cl c) Br d) I
Answers
1. b 2. d 3. a 4. d 5. a 6. a7. c 8. a 9. c 10. b 11. a 12. d13. a 14. c 15. b 16. b 17. b 18. c19. d 20. d
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Quest
THE NOBLE GASES
1. The vp CC / ratio for noble gases is
a) 1.99 b) 1.66 c) 1.33 d) 1.0
2. The gas with lowest boiling point isa) hydrogen b) helium c) nitrogen c) argon
3. The formation of 4XeF is due to ............. hydridization of excited xenon
a) 2sp b) 3
sp c) dsp3 d) 23
dsp
4. The density of neon will be highest ata) S.T.P. b) 0°C, 2 atm c) 273°C, 1 atm d) 273°C, 2 atm
5. The inert gas obtained from monazite sand isa) He b) Ne c) Ar d) Kr
6. Of the following species, one which is non-existent is
a) 6XeF b) 5XeF c)4XeF d)
2XeF
7. Xenon difluoride isa) linear b) angular c) trigonal d) pyramidal
8. The structure of 6XeF is
a) distorted octahedral b) pyramidalc) tetrahedral d) none of these
9. Noble gases are chemically inactive because ofa) mono-atomic nature b) low boiling pointsc) closed valency shell d) rare occurrence
10. The mixture which is used by sea divers for respiration is of
a)22 O and N b) helium and
2O c) argon and 2O d) neon and
2O
11. Maximum number of compounds are known in the case ofa) neon b) xenon c) krypton d) argon
12. In solid argon, the atoms are held together bya) ionic bonds b) hydrogen bondsc) van der Waals’ forces d) none of these
13. Helium is added to oxygen used by deep sea-divers becausea) It is less soluble in blood than nitrogen under high pressureb) It is lighter than nitrogenc) It is less readily miscible with oxygend) It is less poisonous than nitrogen
14. Which of the following does not react with fluorine?a) Kr b) Xe c) Ar d) all of these
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Quest
15. Claude’s apparatus is used for the isolation of ............. from liquid aira) liquid oxygen only b) liquid nitrogen onlyc) noble gases only d) all of these
16. 6XeF on complete hydrolysis gives
a) Xe b)2XeO c) 3XeO d)
4XeO
17.4XeF exists as ......... under ordinary atmospheric conditions
a) solid b) liquid c) gas d) none
18. Which one of the following fluorides does not exist?
a)4HeF b)
4XeF c)4CF d)
4SF
19. Electron affinity of noble gas element isa) very high b) high c) low d) zero
20. In Kroll and I.C.I. process of the production of titanium, the inert gas used isa) Ne b) Ar c) Kr d) Xe
21. The spectrum of helium is similar to
a) H b) Na c)+
Li d)+
He
22. Which of the following gaseous molecules is monoatomic ?a) chlorine b) helium c) oxygen d) nitrogen
23. Which of the following statements is not correct?a) Argon is used in electric bulbsb) Krypton is obtained during radioactive disintegrationc) Half life of radon is only 3.8 daysd) Helium is used in producing very low temperatures
Answers
1. b 2. b 3. d 4. b 5. a 6. b7. a 8. a 9. c 10. b 11. b 12. c13. a 14. c 15. d 16. c 17. a 18. a19. d 20. b 21. c 22. b 23. b