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SCORE CARD TIME MANAGEMENT QUESTIONS REPORT SOLUTION

COMPARE YOUR SELF DIFFICULTY LEVEL TOPIC REPORT

Solution Report For APPG 2014 MOCK TEST SERIES 08Represent whole test solution with correct and incorrect answers.

View Your Test Analysis Print

Q.No

Question Status

Q.1

Not Attempt Correct Ans. a bookmarkSolution

androgens are converted into estradiol by

a. granulosa cellsb. theca interna cellsc. Adrenal medullad. All of above

Q.2

Not Attempt Correct Ans. c bookmarkSolution

All the following structures are at common anatomical level of T4 Except

a. Sternal angleb. junction of superior and inferior mediastinum

c. Pulmonary hilumd. bifurcation of tracheaa

Q.3 What are the other major excitatory input fibers into the cerebellum?

a. Mossy fibersb. Climbing fibresc. Parallel fibres

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d. None of above

Q.4

Not Attempt Correct Ans. d bookmarkSolution

False among the following

a. rostral interstitial nucleus of the medial longitudinal fasciculus controlsvertical gaze control

b. Parinaud syndrome causes upward gaze palsy by compressing the dorsalmidbrain

c. Frontal eye fields (FEF) control saccadic eye movements to thecontralateral side

d. Unilateral FEF lesions cause deviation of the eyes to contralateral side

Q.5


Epithelial cells of superior parathyroid glands are derived from

a. Pharyngeal pouch 1b. Pharyngeal pouch 2c. Pharyngeal pouch 3

d. Pharyngeal pouch 4

Q.6


In humans, the most abundant adrenocortical hormone is:

a. cortisolb. corticosteronec. deoxycorticosterone

d. DHEA sulfate

Q.7

Not Attempt Correct Ans. b bookmarkSolution

Which of the following statements about control of micturition is incorrect?

a. The micturition center is located in the pons.

b. In adults, the first urge to void is felt at a bladder volume of about 400 ml.c. Decentralization of bladder function results in urinary retention.d. In chronic paraplegics, the voiding reflex returns and it may be hyperactive

Q.8 Arrange the following substances in the descending order of theirconcentrations in intracellular fluid.




a. K+ > Ca2+ > Na+ > H+b. H+ > K+ > Na+ > Ca2+

c. K+ > Na+ > Ca2+ > H+d. K+ > Ca2+ > H+ > Na+

Q.9


Which of the following is not a feature of tabes dorsalis?

a. Bladder wall hypertrophyb. Distended bladderc. Urinary retentiond. Incontinence

Q.10


The biologically most active androgen is:

a. testosteroneb. dehydroepiandrosteronec. androstenedione

d. dihydrotestosterone

Q.11


Manifestations of aldolase B deficiency include

a. Distal renal tubule disorder

b. Fructosuriac. Cataractd. All of above

Q.12



a. RNA polymerase has a proof reading functionb. RNA polymerase II opens DNA at promoter site which is AT rich upstream

sequence TATA and CAATc. 7 methyl G Capping occurs on 5' endd. Polyadenylation occurs on 3' end

Q.13 What does the AUG mRNA sequence code for in eukaryotes




a. Stop codon

b. methionine, which may be removed before translation is completed.c. formylmethionin (fmet)d. Serine

Q.14


Which is the most abundant type of RNA?

a. rRNAb. tRNAc. mRNAd. All are present equally

Q.15


Absence of Galactosylceramide Beta galactosidase is called as

a. Krabbe's diseaseb. TaySachs diseasec. Hunter diseased. Hurler disease

Q.16


Campylobacter infections are associated most commonly with which of thefollowing foods?

a. Apple pie

b. Chickenc. Hamburgersd. Rice

Q.17


An attenuated vaccine is used to prevent infections caused by whichvirus?

a. HAVb. Hepatitis B virus (HBV)c. Influenza virus

d. Varicella – zoster virus (VZV)

Q.18 Which agent is used to treat infections with Trichophyton mentagrophyte?




a. Amphotericin Bb. Caspofungin

c. Miconazoled. Potassium iodide

Q.19


Toxoplasma gondii is able to avoid the host immune response by whichmechanism?

a. Acquisition of host antigensb. Encystment is musclec. Formation of thick extracellular cuticle

d. Inhibition of phagosome/lysosome fusion

Q.20


Which antibiotic can be used to treat infections caused by Mycoplasmapneumoniae?

a. Ampicillin sulbactamb. Ceftazidime

c. Erythromycind. Imipenem

Q.21


Which organism is associated with exogenous infections?

a. Actinomyces

b. Clostridiumc. Eubacteriumd. Peptostreptococcus

Q.22


The analgesic properties of the opioids are primarily mediated by the

a. μ receptors.b. κ receptorsc. δ receptorsd. All of above

Q.23 Treatment of choice antiepileptic in Elderly patients for partial seizures




a. Lamotrigineb. carbamazepinec. Divalproexd. phenytoin

Q.24


Absence seizures are treated as first choice by which of the antiepilepticamong following drugs

a. Lamotrigineb. carbamazepinec. Topiramated. phenytoin

Q.25


Drugs of first choice for Benign rolandic epilepsy

a. Gabapentinb. Levetiracetamc. carbamazepined. Topiramate

Q.26


Renal elimination of the active moiety is important for most ACE inhibitors,an exception being

a. Enalapril

b. Fosinoprilc. Captoprild. Benzapril

Q.27


All of the following precipitates Digoxin toxicity except

a. Quinidineb. Verapamil

c. Enalaprild. amiodarone



Q.28


Which of the following is correct regarding granulomatous inflammation?

a. It is defined by the presence of granulomas.b. Epithelioid histiocytes are socalled because they begin to express

epithelial proteins such as cytokeratins.c. It is a characteristic feature of a pyogenic granuloma.

d. It is a characteristic feature of tuberculosis.

Q.29


Which of the following is correct regarding human immunodeficiency virus(HIV) infection?

a. Inoculation of the virus through contaminated needles is the dominantmode of transmission.

b. Gastrointestinal infection by Mycobacterium avium intracellulare is acommon cause of persistent diarrhoea.

c. Meningitis caused by Cryptosporidium is a well recognized infection.d. Kaposi's sarcoma is related to human papillomavirus infection.

Q.30


Which of the following is correct regarding a patient with a malignantneoplasm?

a. Hypercalcaemia due to bony metastases is an example of a paraneoplasticsyndrome.

b. The tumour marker alphafetoprotein is usually raised in patients withhepatocellular carcinoma

c. The grade of a neoplasm refers to how far it has spread.d. Venous thrombosis is particularly associated with squamous cell

carcinomas.

Q.31


Which of the following is correct regarding valvular heart disease?

a. Mitral stenosis presents with symptoms related to left ventricular failure.

b. Aortic stenosis is the commonest valve disease.c. The commonest cause of mitral regurgitation is mitral valve prolapse.d. Mitral valve prolapse usually requires surgical intervention.

Q.32 Which of the following is correct regarding asthma?

a. Hyperreactive bronchioles are characteristic.




b. Most children with asthma are also atopic, meaning they produce largequantities of IgA in response to environmental allergens.

c. The late inflammatory response in asthmatic airway is thought to beimportant in the development of hyperreactive airways.

d. Peak flow in asthma is usually best in the morning with worsening duringthe day.

Q.33


Which of the following is correct regarding Helicobacter pylori infection ofthe stomach?

a. Following infection, the organisms localize to the body of the stomach.b. Most patients develop a symptomatic gastritis.c. Patients with corpus predominant gastritis are at increased risk of duodenal

ulceration.

d. A small percentage of patients develop marginal zone B cell lymphomaof the stomach.

Q.34


Magnan Symptom is seen with

a. Cocaineb. Organophosphorus Poisoningc. Snake Bited. Hanging

Q.35


Post mortem lividity is useful to access

a. Time since deathb. To know the weapon used

c. Position of the body after deathd. None of the above

Q.36


In case of drowning in Sea water

a. Hb increasesb. Hb Decreasesc. NO changed. Either



Q.37


All are the characteristic features of Superficial burns except

a. Damage no deeper than papillary dermisb. Blisters seenc. Loss of Epidermis

d. Pinprick is painful

Q.38


The cephalic index of Indian population is between:

a. 70 to 75

b. 75 to 80c. 80 to 85d. 85 to 90

Q.39


Who among the following introduced the concept of relationship ofenvironment with human health?

a. Avicennab. Charaka

c. Hippocratesd. Paracelsus

Q.40


An ideal health indicator should be:

a. Sensitiveb. Specificc. Relevant

d. All of the above

Q.41 In a given population, prevalence of a disease can be rapidly determinedby:

a. Case control studyb. Cross over study

c. Cross sectional studyd. Double blind study




Q.42


Which is the best measure for evaluating standards of therapy?

a. Specific death rateb. Case fatality rate

c. Survival rated. Crude death rate

Q.43


After administration of live vaccine, immunoglobulins can be given after:

a. 1 weeks

b. 2 weeksc. 8 weeksd. 12 weeks

Q.44


The time interval between diagnosis by early detection and diagnosis byother means is:

a. Serial interval

b. Lead timec. Time lagd. Latent period

Q.45


Carriers are important in maintaining the chain of transmission in all of thefollowing except:

a. Poliob. Typhoid

c. Measlesd. Diphtheria

Q.46 Dietary changes advocated by WHO for prevention of heart diseaseinclude al of the following except:

a. Reduction in fat intake to 2030% of caloric intake

b. A decrease in complex carbohydrate consumptionc. Reduction of cholesterol to below 100 mg per 1000 kcal per dayd. Reduction of salt intake to 5 g/day or less




Q.47


All are true about an ‘ideal contraceptive except

a. Safe and inexpensive

b. Irreversiblec. Independent of coitusd. Does not require frequent administration

Q.48


All of the following statements about developmental milestones of a childare correct except

a. Holds head in midline at 4 months of ageb. Sits without support at 6 months of agec. Walks backwards at 15 months of aged. Walk up and down steps without help at 24 months of age

Q.49


Which of the following is not an essential fatty acid (EFA)?

a. Linoleic acidb. Linolenic acid

c. Stearic acidd. Arachidonic acid

Q.50


What differentiates an agricultural society from an inductrial society?

a. Mode of occupationb. The environmentc. Social mobility

d. All of the above

Q.51 Chronic toxicity of which of the following vitamins causes bone pain,hyperostosis, hair loss, dryness and fissures of the lips, and weight loss

a. Vitamin D

b. Vitamin A




c. Vitamin Cd. Vitamin B1

Q.52


Which of the following porphyrias is inherited in autosomal recessivefashion

a. Acute intermittent porphyriab. erythropoietic porphyria

c. 5ALA dehydratasedeficient porphyriad. variegate porphyria

Q.53


The best initial test for the diagnosis of GBS is

a. EEGb. Electromyogram

c. Lumbar Punctured. MRI with gadolinum

Q.54


Popcorn appearance (scattered areas) of calcification within Solitarypulmonary nodule suggest

a. Tuberculosisb. Malignancy

c. Hamartomad. Cannon ball metastases

Q.55


Type II Renal Tubular Acidosis is caused by all except

a. Fanconi syndrome

b. lithium,c. myelomad. vitamin D deficiency

Q.56 A patient with low positive rheumatoid factor (RF) and arthralgia with lowgrade synovitis and cryoglobulins should be checked for




a. hepatitis B

b. hepatitis Cc. Anti Smith antibodiesd. Anti dSDNA antibodies

Q.57


Always check for which of the following antibodies in a young woman withlupus before conception

a. SSA/SSB and phospholipid antibodiesb. ANA and AntidsDNA antibodiesc. Anti Smith and Scl Antibodiesd. Antimitochondrial antibody and phospholipid antibodies

Q.58


The most common cause of dizziness is

a. Vertbrobasilar Insufficiency

b. benign paroxysmal positional vertigoc. Meniere’s diseased. Drug toxicity

Q.59


A 28yo man comes post motor vehicle accident. You perform a thoroughneurological exam, finding (motor) lower extremity weakness 4/5 bilaterallywith some hyperreflexia, (CN) cranial nerves intact, (sensory)pain/temperature lost on lower extremities, vibration/position intact, andlight touch intact. Most likely diagnosis is

a. Jeffersons fracture

b. syringomyeliac. Clay shovellers fractured. Atlanto axial dislocation

Q.60


False regarding subacute combined degeneration of the cord

a. loss of proprioception and vibration

b. loss of pain/temperaturec. ataxiad. hyperreflexia



Q.61


sudden onset of diplopia, blurry vision, dysphagia, focal cranial nervepalsies. with ataxia and vertigo.is suggestive of stroke from

a. ACAb. MCAc. Internal carotid

d. Basilar artery

Q.62


If a 70 year old Parkinsonism patient is functional and just has a tremor,treatment of choice is

a. amantadineb. trihexyphenidylc. pramipexoled. ropinirole

Q.63


What is the most sensitive/accurate test for diagnosis of Multiple sclerosis

a. MRI of brain and spineb. visual evoked potentialsc. CSF for oligoclonal bandingd. CT scan

Q.64


False regarding Treatment of Multiple sclerosis

a. Treatment for spasticity in MS is baclofen.b. Treatment for fatigue in MS is amantadine.c. Treatment for urinary incontinence in MS is oxybutynin.

d. Treatment for urinary retention in MS is glatiramer acetate.

Q.65 Drugs that increase ADH secretion include all the following except

a. fluoxetineb. carbamazepine,c. vincristine,

d. demeclocycline




Q.66


False regarding Type 2 RTA

a. bicarbonate lost in urine in the face of acidic bloodb. occurs in the proximal tubules of the kidney

c. Diagnosed by giving acid load/challenge test and still can’t acidify urine.d. Treatment is volume restriction.

Q.67


causes of calcium oxalate/phosphate stones include all except

a. hyperoxaluriab. vitamin C excessc. vitamin D intoxication

d. vitamin A intoxication

Q.68


35years old male has sudden onset of severe flank pain radiating to groin,with nausea and vomiting. What is the best first test to support thediagnosis of kidney stone

a. urinalysis for hematuria.b. Non contrast Spiral CTc. Contrast Spiral CTd. Intravenous pyelography

Q.69


Lithotripsy (ESWL) can be used for renal stone < cm and ureteralstone < cm

a. 5,2.5

b. 2.5 ,1.5c. 4,3.5d. 6,4

Q.70 Causes of Drug induced lupus include all except

a. hydralazineb. procainamide

c. Amiodarone




d. alpha methyldopa.

Q.71


Treatment for scleroderma include all except

a. steroidsb. ACE Inhibitorsc. Penicillamined. Nifedipine

Q.72


Antibody specific for mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD).

a. antiRNPb. SS Ac. Anti Rod. Anti Scl

Q.73


True regarding medication used to treat Gout

a. Probenecid is given to overproducers of uric acid

b. Colchicine inhibits neutrophil chemotaxisc. Colchicine decrease uric acid levelsd. NSAIDs decrease uric acid levels

Q.74


Young person with nonproductive cough, wheezing, normal chest xray.Serum blood counts show eosinophil counts of 32%, sputum shows manyeosinophils. What diagnosis is this

a. Loefflers syndrome

b. ChurgStrauss syndrome.c. Wegeners granulomatosisd. Filariasis

Q.75 Features of polymyalgia rheumatica




a. stiffness of proximal muscleb. EMG would be abnormalc. elevated CPKd. All of above

Q.76


Which of the following drugs is shown to lower mortality in CHF

a. Diureticsb. Digoxin

c. ACEId. All of above

Q.77


Which of the following is the most likely valvular disease to havehemoptysis and dysphagia

a. Mitral stenosisb. Mitral regurgitationc. Aortic stenosisd. Aortic regurgitation

Q.78


Most common symptom of aortic stenosis is

a. syncope

b. anginac. dyspnead. Palpitation

Q.79


Which of the following is not used to treat asystole

a. atropineb. epinephrine

c. DC Shockd. All of above

Q.80 The most common arrhythmia seen in digoxin toxicity is




a. Mobitz type 1 Heart blockb. Mobitz type 2 Heart block

c. SVT with variable blockd. AV nodal reentrant tachycardia

Q.81


Peeling of the palms of the hand and the soles of the feet is a characteristicfeature of all except:

a. Chickenpox.b. Scarlet fever.c. Kawasaki disease.d. Tinea infection.

Q.82


A term newborn infant is noticed to be hypotonic. The following are possiblecauses:

a. Turner's syndrome.b. KugelbergWelander disease.c. Cephalhaematoma.

d. PraderWilli syndrome.

Q.83


Respiration is stimulated by the following except:

a. Hypercarbia.b. Hypoxia.c. Acidosis.

d. Carbon monoxide inhalation.

Q.84


Which of the following features supports a diagnosis of carditis in a childsuspected of having rheumatic fever?

a. Pansystolic murmur in the mitral area.b. Elevated sleeping pulse.c. Sinus arrhythmia.d. Ejection systolic murmur at the left sternal border.



Q.85


Early cardiac failure during the neonatal period is often associated with allexcept:

a. Peripheral oedemab. Failure to thrivec. Feeding difficultiesd. Episodes of apnoea

Q.86


A normal 4 year old would be expected to be able to do all except:

a. Learns to skip using alternative feet.b. Draw a circle.c. Count to 10.d. Tell you his/her name and address.

Q.87


The following may cause deafness in children except

a. Maternal rubellab. Congenital syphilis

c. Conenital toxoplasmiosisd. Pendred’s syndrome

Q.88


A 6weekold male infant is admitted to hospital with 1015% dehydration.The serum sodium is 160 mmol/l and the serum potassium is 3.3 mmol/l .Which of the following is true:

a. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a likely diagnosis.b. Loss of skin turgor is likely to be present.c. The dehydration should be corrected over the next 24 hours.

d. Initial fluid replacement should be with 0.45% saline.

Q.89 The following are associated with neonatal hypoglycaemia except:

a. Reye syndrome.b. Nesidioblastosis.c. Galactosaemia.d. Polycythaemia.




Q.90


The following statements regarding an atrioventricular septal defect(AVSD) is incorrect

a. Congestive heart failure usually occurs by 48 weeks of age.b. Without surgical treatment most infants will die between the ages of 2 and 3

years

c. An ECG rarely shows right ventricular hypertrophy (RVH) or right bundlebranch block (RBBB).

d. A loud 34/6 pan systolic murmur is audible along the left sternal edge(LSE).

Q.91


False regarding Atopic Dermatitis

a. ↑ secretion of TH2 cytokines

b. popliteal fossae show lesions in Infantsc. wheat can exacerbate ADd. Triad of atopy: AD, allergic rhinitis, asthma

Q.92


Skincolored, soft or rubbery papulonodule with positive “buttonhole” sign(easily invaginated) is a feature of

a. Neurofibromab. Lipomac. Angiofibromad. Basal Cell Carcinoma

Q.93


Typical triad of Hand–Schuller–Christian Disease does not include

a. diabetes insipidusb. Osteolytic bone lesionsc. exophthalmos

d. Small, pink papules, pustules, vesicles in seborrheic distribution

Q.94 False regarding Hemangioma of Infancy

a. More common in premature infantsb. GLUT1 is endothelial marker, useful in differentiating it from vascular

malformation




c. strawberry hemangioma is deep hemangiomad. cavernous hemangioma undergo involution in 90% by age 9

Q.95


False regarding Xeroderma Pigmentosum

a. mutation in RNA polymeraseb. Autosomal recessive inheritancec. solar lentigines by age of 2d. develop progressive deafness

Q.96


In hepatic failure , muscle relaxants that are avoided include all except

a. Vecuroniumb. Rocuronium

c. Metocurined. pipecuronium

Q.97


All the following are characteristics of a phase II block

a. TOF ration of < 0.3.b. Antagonization of neuromuscular blockade after administration of an

anticholinesterase drug.

c. No Fade of the muscle response with repetitive stimulationd. Decreased contraction in response to a single twitch stimulation.

Q.98


the ideal agent to use in patients with endstage liver or kidney disease.

a. Cisatracuriumb. Pancuroniumc. Vecuroniumd. mivacurium.

Q.99 All the following antibiotics potentiate nondepolarizing muscle relaxants ,except

a. gentamicinb. Clindamycin




c. erythromycind. lincomycin

Q.100


During general anesthesia, how do you treat a hypercyanotic spell in apatient with tetralogy of Fallot?

a. Morphine

b. infusion of phenylephrinec. infusion of Sodium nitroprussided. infusion of Dobutamine

Q.101


Inaccurate perception of existing sensory stimuli are called as

a. Delusionsb. Hallucinations

c. Illusionsd. All of the above

Q.102


A 24years old man is brought to the ED by his parents after they found himcovering the windows with aluminum foil because “they” were after hisideas. When asked who “they” are, he looks up at the sky and points to afaraway planet. What is diagnosis

a. schizophrenia, paranoid typeb. schizophrenia, disorganized type.c. schizophrenia, catatonic typed. Delusional disrder

Q.103


Most common type of delusional disorder is

a. erotomania

b. persecutoryc. jealousd. grandiose

Q.104 irregular bald spots with short broken hairs along with long hairs is afeature of

a. Alopecia areata




b. Trichotillomaniac. Tinea capitisd. Any of above

Q.105


False regarding Narcolepsy

a. characterized by excessive daytime sleepiness

b. abnormality of NREM sleepc. most common symptom is the “sleep attacksd. Patients feel refreshed upon awakening

Q.106


Why are hydrogen (protons) molecules the ideal isotope for MRI?

a. High spin densityb. High tissue densityc. High NMR sensitivity

d. All of the above

Q.107


What symptoms would a patient have with far lateral disc herniation at L45?

a. L4 radiculopathyb. L5 radiculopathyc. S1 radiculopathyd. No radiculopathy

Q.108


In neurofibromatosis, what is the cause of pulsatile exophthalmos?

a. Sphenoid wing dysplasiab. Enlargement of the optic canalc. Carotid cavernous fistulad. Buphthalmos

Q.109 What is the etiology of subclavian steal syndrome?




a. Subclavian stenosis proximal to the origin of the vertebral arteryb. Subclavian stenosis distal to the origin of the vertebral arteryc. Stenosis of the ipsilateral vertebral arteryd. Stenosis of the contralateral vertebral artery

Q.110


What arterial layer(s) compose(s) the wall of saccular aneurysms?

a. Mediab. Media and adventitiac. Media, intima and adventitia

d. Intima and adventitia

Q.111


What is the treatment of choice for an intraperitoneal bladder injury?

a. Conservative management with catheter drainage.

b. A twolayer closure with suprapubic drainage for several weeks.c. Radical cystectomyd. Partial cystectomy

Q.112


High or low classification of imperforate anus is based on relationship offistula compared to what?

a. Obturator internus muscle

b. Levator ani musclec. Pectinate lined. Puborectalis muscle

Q.113


What test will confirm the presence of biliary atresia?

a. ERCP

b. Diisopropyl iminoacetic acid (DISIDA) nuclear medicine scanc. MRCPd. PTC

Q.114 Most common site for peripheral vascular disease?




a. Superficial femoral arteryb. Iliac arteryc. Tibial arteryd. popliteal artery

Q.115


Mismatch regarding features of Arterial and Venous ulcers

a. Ulcers associated with pressure points (dorsum foot/toe) Arterialb. Hairlessness Arterialc. Moist granulating base, often large Venous

d. Oozes blood when manipulated – Arterial

Q.116


False regarding Her2 (erb2) positivity of a breast tumor

a. Associated with Increased tumor aggressiveness

b. Her2 is a tyrosine kinase for Vascular endothelial growth factorc. trastuzumab is monoclonal antibody to Her2 receptord. trastuzumab is effective in Her2 tumors with advanced stage/metastasis

Q.117


Van Nuys Scoring System is used for grading

a. DCIS of Breastb. LCIS of Breastc. Pagets disease of Breastd. Fibroadenoma of Breast

Q.118


All the following are used in treatment for a 0.9 cm invasive breast CA(T1b) except

a. Wide excisionb. Antiestrogens if ER+.c. XRT

d. chemotherapy

Q.119 What is the margin of resection recommendations for malignant melanoma>1 mm depth

a. 1 cm

b. 2 cm




c. 5 cmd. 8 cm

Q.120


What is the acceptable level of preoperative factor VIII in patients withhemophilia A?

a. 50% of normal

b. 100% of normalc. 75% of normald. 150% of normal

Q.121


A patient has an asymptomatic 90% right ICA stenosis and a symptomaticleft 55% ICA stenosis. What is the management?

a. Left Carotid End arterectomy firstb. Right Carotid End arterectomy firstc. Bilateral Carotid End arterectomy same timed. Conservative nonoperative follow up

Q.122


What should be the test of choice in cases of suspected acute mesentericischemia in a hemodynamically stable patient

a. CT angiogramb. MR angiogramc. Abdominal Doppler ultrasoundd. Technetium pertechnate scan

Q.123


Any of the following can be used as anticoagulant of choice in patients withsuspicion for heparininduced thrombocytopenia , except

a. argatrobanb. lepriludinc. fondaparinux

d. enoxaparin

Q.124 What is the most common benign tumor of the chest wall?

a. Osteochondroma.b. Hamartoma




c. Carcinoidd. Adenoma

Q.125


A patient with a history of acute pancreatitis and complaints of persistentepigastric pain, steatorrhea, and weight loss likely presents with what?

a. Pancreatic abscessb. Pancreatic Pseudocyst:c. Fistula

d. Chronic pancreatitis

Q.126


Which of the following is used for diffuse ductal dilation involves incisingpancreatic duct with sidetoside anastomosis with jejunum

a. Duval procedure

b. Puestow procedurec. Whipple procedured. Pringles precedure

Q.127


Which one has a low radioactive iodine uptake (RAIU)?

a. Graves’ diseaseb. Solitary toxic nodulec. Toxic multinodular goiter

d. de Quervain’s thyroiditis

Q.128


Hartley Dunhill procedure done for Graves disease involves

a. bilateral subtotal thyroidectomy

b. total lobectomy on one side and subtotal thyroidectomy on the otherc. Total thyroidectomyd. Near Total thyroidectomy

Q.129 Which among the following drugs used to treat Thyroid storm inhibits therelease of T4 and T3.

a. PTU

b. Lugol’s solutionc. Dexamethasone




d. Propranolol

Q.130


A patient with blunt trauma to the chest presents with hypoxia andparadoxical chest wall motion with ventilation. What is the likely diagnosis?What will develop if the dressing is taped on all four sides?

a. Tension pneumothorax

b. Flail chestc. Pericardial tamponaded. Massive pulmonary embolism

Q.131


What is the diagnostic test of choice to detect Aortic transectionassociated with deceleration injuries. ?

a. MRIb. MR Angiography

c. Chest computed tomography (CT) with contrastd. Chest computed tomography (CT) without contrast

Q.132


Which of the following is a sensitive test to detect Intraperitoneal bleedingoften used in hemodynamically unstable patients whose FAST scan wasnegative.

a. Mesentric angiography

b. Diagnostic peritoneal lavagec. Colonoscopyd. Double contrast Barium

Q.133


Which shock state is associated with an h in pulmonary capillary wedgepressure (PCWP)?

a. Hypovolemic shock

b. Cardiogenic shockc. Nuerogenic Shockd. Septic shock

Q.134 Skin structure depth involved in Deep partial thickness burns

a. Epidermis only




b. Papillary dermis

c. Reticular dermisd. Subcutaneous fat

Q.135


What is the earliest sign of airway injury?

a. Low SaO2b. High Alveolar arterial oxygen gradient

c. Low PaO2 to FiO2 ratiod. High pCO2

Q.136


What is the TBSA cutoff for resuscitation according to a burn shockprotocol?

a. 10%

b. 20%c. 30%d. 50%

Q.137


For cleft lip repair be done minimum weight of the baby is

a. 5 kgsb. 10 kgsc. 20 kgsd. 30 kgs

Q.138


All the following nerves are at risk in an axillary lymph node dissection ,except

a. Long thoracic nerveb. Thoracodorsal nerve

c. Axilary nerved. Medial pectoral nerve

Q.139 Treatment options of uncomplicated DCIS include all except

a. Simple mastectomyb. Lumpectomy and radiation.




c. Postoperative tamoxifen or raloxifene for all ER tumors

d. Modified Radical mastectomy

Q.140


Prophylactic bilateral simple mastectomy is indicated for

a. DCIS

b. LCISc. Cystosarcoma phyllodesd. All of above

Q.141


Associated injuries with Anterior Shouder dislocation include all except

a. Fracture of greater tuberosity

b. Fracture of lesser tuberosityc. rotatorcuff tear,d. chondral damage

Q.142


bones affected commonly by Giant cell tumour (GCT) include all except

a. Lowerend of the radiusb. lowerend of the femurc. upperend of the tibia.

d. Lowerend of the fibula

Q.143


commonest site of Simple bone cyst is

a. upperend of the humerusb. lowerend of the humerusc. upperend of the tibiad. lower end of the tibia

Q.144 False regarding Wedge compression fracture of the vertebral body

a. results from a flexion force

b. unstable fracture that require reductionc. Exercises of the neck are started after 812 weeksd. neck is kept immobilised with the help of skull traction /sling traction




Q.145


In congenital dislocation of Hip ,changes seen in a dislocated joint includeall except

a. Femoral neck is excessively anteverted.

b. Abductors of hip, undergo adaptive shorteningc. inverted limbusd. Acetabulum is shallow, with a steep sloping roof.

Q.146


False regarding Rickets

a. Delayed teeth eruption is noticed in infants

b. Broadening of the ends of long bones is seen at birthc. Harrison's sulcusd. Pigeon chest

Q.147


Common sites for Loosers zones are al except

a. pubic ramib. axillary border of scapulac. medial cortex of the neck of the femur

d. Anterior surface of tibia

Q.148


False regarding Injury to the axillary nerve in anterior shoulder dislocation

a. small area of anaesthesia over the lateral aspect of the shoulderb. result in inability to abduct the shoulderc. result in paralysis of the deltoid muscle

d. prognosis is bad

Q.149


most commonly injured nerve in supracondylar fracture of humerus

a. median nerveb. Radial nervec. Axillary nerved. Ulnar nerve

Q.150 Sunray appearance is seen in




a. Osteosarcomab. Ewings sarcomac. Giant cell tumord. All of above

Q.151


Most common location for Mucocele of paranasal sinuses

a. Frontal sinusb. ethmoidal sinusc. maxillary sinusd. Sphenoid sinus

Q.152


WHO has identified five major blinding eye conditions, for immediateattention to achieve the goals of Vision 2020 that include all the followingexcept

a. Cataract

b. Glaucomac. Trachomad. Refractive errors and low vision,

Q.153


SAFE strategy for prevention of Trachoma does not include

a. Surgery to correct lid deformityb. Facial hygiene

c. Vitamin A prophylaxisd. Improved access to water and sanitation

Q.154


The most sensitive period for development of amblyopia is

a. first six months of lifeb. first one year of lifec. first three years of lifed. first five years of life

Q.155 False regarding Congenital dacryocystitis




a. It is due to congenital blockage in the nasolacrimal duct.b. Common bacteria associated are staphylococci

c. Pesents with Epiphora at birthd. Regurgitation test is usually positive,

Q.156


Drugs used in Glaucoma which increase uveoscleral outflow include allexcept

a. Prostaglandinsb. Brimonidine

c. pilocarpined. Epinephrine

Q.157


Depth perception, particularly for the moving object may be impaired(Pulfrich’s phenomenon) in

a. Kerato conus

b. Optic neuritisc. Retinal detatchementd. Cystoid macular edema

Q.158


Annular or ringshaped scotoma is a typical feature of Retinitis

a. Buphthalmos

b. Retinitis pigmentosac. Vitreous hemorrhaged. Exudative Retinal detatchement

Q.159


internal hordeolum occur as infection of the meibomian gland with

a. Streptoccocci

b. Staphylococcic. Pseudomonasd. Acanthameba

Q.160 False regarding Subluxation of lens

a. Uniocular diplopiab. Anterior chamber becomes deep and irregular.




c. Iridodonesis is usually present.

d. Dark edge of the subluxated lens is seen on indirect ophthalmoscopy

Q.161


False regarding tracheostomy in infants and children

a. It is always useful to have an endotracheal tube or a bronchoscopeinserted into trachea before operation

b. Trachea is should not be incisedc. Avoid infolding of anterior tracheal wall when inserting the tracheostomy

tube.d. Tracheal lumen is small, do not insert knife too deep; it will injure posterior

tracheal wall or even oesophagus

Q.162


False regarding Laryngomalacia

a. supraglottic larynx is sucked in during inspirationb. Stridor increased on cryingc. Stridor subsides on placing the child in prone positio

d. cry is abnormal.

Q.163


False regarding Malignant otitis externa

a. caused by pseudomonas infectionb. usually in the elderly diabeticsc. Facial paralysis is common.

d. Treated with Crystalline pencillin

Q.164


False regarding Myringotomy in acute suppurative otitis media

a. circumferential incision

b. made in the anteriosuperior quadrant of tympanic membranec. incision is made midway between handle of malleus and tympanic annulusd. incision should avoid injury to incudostapedial joint

Q.165 False regarding Juvenile papillomas

a. multiple

b. They turn malignant after puberty.c. Interferon therapy is used to prevent recurrence




d. viral in origin

Q.166


Vocal Nodules appear symmetrically on the free edge of vocal cord, at thejunction of

a. anterior onethird, with the posterior twothirdsb. anterior twothirds, with the posterior onethirdc. anterior half, with the posterior halfd. anterior 10%, with the posterior 90%

Q.167


Sampter's triad consists of all except

a. nasal polypi

b. bronchiectasisc. asthmad. aspirin intolerance

Q.168


most common Part affected in tuberculosis of Larynx

a. ventricular bands,b. vocal cordsc. epiglottis

d. interarytenoid fold

Q.169


Children below years is contraindication to Myringoplasty

a. 1

b. 3c. 5d. 10

Q.170 Fungal ball most commonly involves

a. Frontal sinusb. Ethmoid sinus

c. Maxillary sinusd. Sphenoid sinus




Q.171


Which of the following fetal heart rate patterns is seen in Cordcompression

a. Early decelerationsb. Late decelerations

c. Variable decelerationsd. Prolonged decelerations

Q.172


Disruption of cervical ring between pubocervical fascia and rectovaginalfascia leads to

a. Enteroceleb. Cystourethrocelec. Rectoceled. Vaginal vault prolapse

Q.173


What is the average distance between the pelvic inlet and the ischialspines?

a. 2,5 cm

b. 5 cmc. 7.5 cmd. 10 cm

Q.174


Secondary arrest of labor is defined as lack of cervical change for hours following normal dilatation.

a. 1

b. 2c. 4d. 6

Q.175 What is the duration (halflife) of intravenous oxytocin?

a. 3 to 4 minutes.b. 15 to 30 minutes.c. 60 to 90 minutes.d. 3 to 4 hours




Q.176


Which of the following cause usually single and painless ulcer

a. syphilisb. herpesc. gonococcusd. LGV

Q.177


The most common type of chromosomal abnormality in miscarriages is

a. autosomal trisomiesb. autosomal triploidyc. monosomy X.d. autosomal monosomy

Q.178


False regarding Genital malignancies

a. Vulvar cancer is predominantly squamous cell and spreads via lymphaticsto superficial inguinal nodes.

b. Paget's disease of the vulva may be associated with underlyingadenocarcinoma; therefore, local excision is recommended.

c. Human papillomavirus (HPV) can trigger genital dysplasia and is linked toinvasive cervical cancers.

d. anovulation pretects against endometrial cancer

Q.179


Which of the following tests is used to confirm the diagnosis of gestationaldiabetes

a. nonfasting 1hour, 50gm glucose tolerance test

b. fasting 3 hour, 100gm glucose tolerance testc. HbA1c Levelsd. Glycosylated fructoseamine levels

Q.180 If a woman has a history of gestational diabetes, her lifetime risk ofdeveloping type 2 diabetes is .

a. 10%

b. 36%c. 75%d. 100%




Q.181


False regarding changes during pregnancy

a. increased renal plasma flowb. increased glomerular filtration

c. increased serum BUNd. increased cardiac output

Q.182


The most common autosomal disorders in stillbirths

a. trisomy 21

b. trisomy 18c. trisomy 16d. trisomy 13

Q.183


False regarding Cervical cancer

a. etiology is HPVb. Most common symptom is postcoital bleeding.

c. Histology is Adenocarcinomad. Mortality commonly caused by renal failure.

Q.184


HPV quadrivalent vaccine covers all the following strains except

a. 6b. 18c. 18

d. 33

Q.185



a. Pap smear screening recommendation is at age 18b. Do three yearly Pap screenings, if those are negative then you can Pap

smear every other year.c. Most cervical cancer arises from the ectocervix

d. Endocervical carcinoma is HPV related.



Q.186


Next step evaluation of Postmenopausal bleeding is

a. Pap smear

b. endometrial samplingc. Laproscopyd. Colposcopy

Q.187


Most common Ovarian tumor in Postmenopausal women

a. mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

b. serous cystadenocarcinomac. Brenner tumord. endodermal sinus tumor

Q.188


Dysgerminoma tumor marker is

a. lactate dehydrogenase (LDH).b. CA125c. alpha fetoprotein (aFP).d. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)

Q.189



a. Dysgerminoma it responds well to radiation therapyb. Most germ cell cancers present at stage Ic. Most ovarian cancer present at stage III

d. CA125, ultrasound is used for screening ovarian carcinoma in postmenopausal women

Q.190



a. The only safe depth is less than 2 mmb. Clark level is histologybasedc. Breslow levels are depthbasedd. Black vulvar lesion think melanoma.

Q.191 False among the following




a. Red vulvar lesion with icthing think Paget disease of the vulvab. Most of the time, Paget disease is intraepithelialc. Vulvar cancer can go to inguinal lymph nodes

d. initial treatment of Paget disease of the vulva is vulvectomy with lymphnode removal.

Q.192


False among the following about Vagina cancer

a. etiology is HPV.

b. Most common symptom is Post coital bleedingc. Histology is squamous cell cancer.d. Mucoid discharge with blood is more suggestive of vaginal cancer

Q.193


32years patient has moderate dysplasia of the cervix . Next step is

a. Repeat pap smear after 3 monthsb. Repeat pap smear after 6 months

c. Colposcopyd. Endocervical curettage

Q.194


Recommended Follow up of 32yo patient has moderate dysplasia of thecervix treated with LEEP

a. Paps every 6 months for 10 yearsb. Annual paps for 5 years

c. Paps every 3 months for 2 yearsd. Pap smear followup is not needed

Q.195


32years old patient with Pap showing ASCUS (atypical squamous cells ofundetermined significance). What is the next step?

a. Repeat pap smear after 3 monthsb. Serotyping of HPVc. Colposcopyd. Endocervical curettage

Q.196 Treatment of hydatidiform mole is

a. suction curettage of the uterus




b. D&C of the uterusc. Hysterectomyd. Chemotherapy

Q.197


For poor prognosis metastatic choriocarcinoma, therapy includes allexcept

a. methotrexateb. actinomycin D

c. 5 Florouracild. cyclophosphamide

Q.198


Most common type of incontinence is

a. urge incontinence

b. stress incontinencec. detrusor dyssynergiad. Overflow incontinence

Q.199


Any of the following are useful to treat Stress incontinence

a. MarshallMarchettiKrantz procedureb. Burch procedure

c. oxybutynind. Pessary

Q.200


32years old with breakthrough bleeding. Beta hCG is negative. Sonogram,pelvic exam, and endometrial sampling are negative. most common causefor her diagnosis is

a. Endometriosisb. Ovarian dysgenisis

c. stress and anxietyd. Obesity