e-prac-cat # 09 test

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PTpnrpc09 1 8)78 *361 291&)6 L O P E N A L O N G T H I S E D G E L Corp. Office: Delhi Regd. Office: Indore PT centres spread across India ~ Established 1993 Our motto “Kar Ke Dikhayenge” is delivered through our unique Technology Driven Process Engine (TDpro engine). Email: [email protected] Web: www.PTeducation.com ePracCAT # 09 (Part of the 268 All-India Mock Tests provided by PT) INSTRUCTIONS 1. This is the pdf version of the ePracCAT # 09 which you may have attempted in PT’s APCL. This pdf file is available to you for reference and further practice. 2. While solving this test keep only the pencil, eraser and sharpener with you. DO NOT KEEP with you books, rulers, slide rules, drawing instruments, calculators (including watch calculators), pagers, cellular phones, stop watches or any other device or loose paper. 3. This test contains two sections which examine various abilities. There are 30 questions in Section I and 30 questions in Section II. You will be given one hours and ten minutes to complete each section. In distributing the time over the three sections, please bear in mind that you need to demonstrate your competence in all the three sections. 4. Directions for answering the questions are given before each group of questions. Read these directions carefully and answer the questions by darkening the appropriate circles on the Answer Sheet. There is only one correct answer to each question. 5. Each question carry three marks each. Each wrong answer attract a penalty of one mark. 6. Revising and analysing your performance is critical to your improved performance in the next test(s). A positive attitude to revise, analyse and learn from mistakes will be a great plus. . 8)78 &33/0)8 76 23 444 8IWX 'SHI '8 The CTs (Comprehensive Tests) and ePracCATs provided by PT represent a simulation of the CAT observed over last few years. These tests are an attempt at preparing aspirants for the actual Test. The complete test series comprises 264 All India Tests, with All India Rankings (AIR) being generated for most of them. The AIRs generated for these tests provide a classic benchmarking tool.

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PTpnrpc09 1

TEST FORM NUMBER

èO P E N

A L O N G

T H I S

E D G E è

Corp. Office: Delhi Regd. Office: Indore PT centres spread across India ~ Established 1993

Our motto “Kar Ke Dikhayenge” is delivered through our unique Technology Driven Process Engine (TDpro engine). Email: [email protected] Web: www.PTeducation.com

e­Prac­CAT # 09 (Part of the 268 All-India Mock Tests provided by PT)

INSTRUCTIONS 1. This is the pdf version of the ePracCAT # 09 which you may have attempted in PT’s APCL. This pdf file is

available to you for reference and further practice.

2. While solving this test keep only the pencil, eraser and sharpener with you. DO NOT KEEP with you books, rulers, slide rules, drawing instruments, calculators (including watch calculators), pagers, cellular phones, stop watches or any other device or loose paper.

3. This test contains two sections which examine various abilities. There are 30 questions in Section I and 30 questions in Section II. You will be given one hours and ten minutes to complete each section. In distributing the time over the three sections, please bear in mind that you need to demonstrate your competence in all the three sections.

4. Directions for answering the questions are given before each group of questions. Read these directions carefully and answer the questions by darkening the appropriate circles on the Answer Sheet. There is only one correct answer to each question.

5. Each question carry three marks each. Each wrong answer attract a penalty of one mark.

6. Revising and analysing your performance is critical to your improved performance in the next test(s). A positive attitude to revise, analyse and learn from mistakes will be a great plus.

.

TEST BOOKLET SR. NO.

444 Test Code: CT 19

Th e C Ts ( C omp r ehen si v e Te s t s) a nd e ­ Pr a c­ CAT s p ro v id e d b y PT r e p re s en t a s i m ul a ti o n o f th e CA T o b s e r ved o ve r l a s t f ew ye ar s . T he se te s ts a r e a n a t t e mp t a t pr e pa r i n g a sp i r a n ts f or th e a c tu a l Te s t . T he c o mpl e te te s t s er i e s c om pr i se s 2 6 4 A l l I n d ia Te s ts , w i t h A l l I n d i a Ra nk in gs ( A IR) be i ng ge ner at e d f o r mo s t o f t h em . Th e A IRs ge ne r a te d f or t h e s e t es ts p ro v id e a c l a s s i c b enc hma rk in g to o l .

e­Prac­CAT # 09 Section I

Quantitative Ability and Data Interpretation Total number of questions : 30

Time allowed: 70 minutes

1. In mini­Olympics this year, there will be 100 individual events and 18 countries will be participating. If it is certain that no country will win more than 6 events, then identify the least number of countries that will win at least one event. (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 17 (4) 18

2. Amit has to repay a loan of Rs. 3,000 over a period of two months. The interest charged is 5% monthly. How much would he have to pay every month (approx. amount) to pay off the loan? (1) Rs. 1704 (2) Rs. 1504 (3) Rs. 1604 (4) Rs. 1613

There are 365 rooms in a hostel with one bulb in each room. Every day, the warden puts on a certain number of bulbs depending on the number of days passed in the year. For example, on the first day of the year, he puts on all the bulbs in the 365 rooms. On the second, he allows only the bulbs in rooms 2, 4, 6 and so on to stay on, on the third, only rooms 3, 6, 9 and so on till the 365 th day, when he allows only the last room to have the bulb on.

3. If the life of a bulb is only 15 days in the on state, then the bulbs in which of the following rooms will not function anymore after a year? (1) 350 th (2) 300 th (3) 250 th (4) 200 th

4. How many bulbs were on only for 2 days? (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 72 (4) 83

5. How many bulbs were on only for 3 days? (1) 19 (2) 20 (3) 21 (4) 22

6. After the tsunami, the municipal records of Hoshnagar city were all messed up. Actually, 60.1% of the total population was wiped off due to the calamity. But, the records showed that 30% of the people written off as dead were actually alive. Also, 25% of the people who were supposed to be alive were actually dead. What is the percentage of people who were rightly written off as being dead? (1) 5,460 (2) 4,650 (3) 6,000 (4) 5,640

7. The Police department bought 10 units each of badges, first­aid kits and firearms. Out of these, there was a discount of 12% on the purchase of firearms, 10% on first­ aid kits and 8% discount on the purchase of badges. Which of the following would help in knowing whether there was an overall discount of 10% on the purchases made? (1) The discounted prices of any two of the items (2) The discounted prices of the two most expensive items (3) The selling price of any two of the items (4) None of these

Directions for Question 8: The following question is followed by two statements (I) and (II). Mark your answer as (1) If the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone but not

by using the other statement alone (2) If the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone (3) If the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not

by either statement (4) If the question cannot be answered even by using both statements together or

alone and more information is required

8. What is the value of (abc) 3 + (def) 3 ? (I) (a 2 b 2 c 2 + d 2 e 2 f 2 – abcdef) = 163 (II) (abc + def) = 0

Directions for Question 9: The following question is followed by two statements (I) and (II). Mark your answer as (1) If the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone but not

by using the other statement alone (2) If the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone (3) If the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not

by either statement (4) If the question cannot be answered even by using both statements together or

alone and more information is required

9. What was the average attendance of the class for the first quarter of 2011? (I) The class was scheduled for 25 days in January, and in February, there were

20% less working days than January. In March, there were again 20% less working days than in February

(II) The average attendance of the class for January was 65, for February, it was 60 and for March, it was 66

Directions for Question 10: The following question is followed by two statements (I) and (II). Mark your answer as (1) If the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone but not

by using the other statement alone (2) If the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone (3) If the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not

by either statement (4) If the question cannot be answered even by using both statements together or

alone and more information is required

10. Shailesh and Nitin started working in the PNB together on the same date. They were both brilliant and went on to achieve great results for the company. By what percentage does Nitin earn more now than Shailesh does? (I) Nitin’s earnings have skyrocketed and he earns now 35% more than what he

earned at the start (II) Shailesh has gotten to an increase of 22% more than his initial earnings

Directions for Question 11: The following question is followed by two statements (I) and (II). Mark your answer as (1) If the question can be answered by using one of the statements alone but not

by using the other statement alone (2) If the question can be answered by using either of the statements alone (3) If the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not

by either statement (4) If the question cannot be answered even by using both statements together or

alone and more information is required

11. 64% of the fruits in the market are ripe. 12% of the unripe fruits are export­quality. How many ripe fruits in the market are export­quality (expressed in percentage of the total number of fruits in the market)? (I) Number of unripe export­quality fruits is 8% more than those of ripe export­

quality fruits (II) 25% of the fruits in the market are export­quality

The circumference of a circle is 1100 meters. Two ants start from point A and travel on the circumference. Ant 1 can travel at the speed of 2 meters in a minute and then rest for 2 minutes, or it can cover 3 meters in 2 minutes and then rest for 1 minute. Ant 2, on the other hand, can travel at the speed of 2 meters in 2 minutes and rest for 1 minute or it can cover 2 meters in three minutes without any rest.

12. If each ant wants to reach back to the starting point A in the least possible time, then how long will it take Ant 1 to complete a full circle? (1) 18 hours and 18 minutes (2) 18 hours and 19 minutes (3) 18 hours and 20 minutes (4) 18 hours and 21 minutes

13. If each ant wants to reach back to the starting point A in the least possible time, then by what distance can Ant 1 beat Ant 2? (1) 366 meters (2) 367 meters (3) 368 meters (4) 369 meters

14. What is the maximum amount of break­time that the two ants can take, if they have to travel a combined distance of 100 meters? (Both start moving at the same time) (1) 73 minutes (2) 72 minutes (3) 38 minutes (4) 88 minutes

15. In how many ways can 8 laptops be arranged on a shelf, if two particular laptops must never be together? (1) 2 × 7! (2) 8! (3) 2 × 7 × 8! (4) 6 × 7!

16. (1 1 + 2 1 + 3 1 + 4 1 ) + (1 2 + 2 2 + 3 2 + 4 2 ) + (1 3 + 2 3 + 3 3 + 4 3 ) +…(1 12 + 2 12 + 3 12 + 4 12 ) is to be divided by 5. What is the remainder? (1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 2

17. Convicts in a penitentiary were numbered from 1 to 500. One day, when a riot broke up, some of the convicts in a particular area of the prison were killed. To determine the number of casualties, the prison­numbers of the dead were collected and their sum was calculated as 3945. Since, they were from the same area, their numbers were all consecutive. How many prisoners died? (1) 10 (2) 15 (3) 30 (4) Cannot be uniquely determined

18. What is the value of (0.25) (– log 4 (0.125 + 0.0625 + 0.03125 + …)) ?

(1) 4 (2) 2 (3) ¼ (4) ½

19. If we know that n is a positive integer, then what is the unit digit of (11) n (12) 2n + (13) 2n (14) n + (17) 4n (19) 2n ? (1) Either 1 or 3 (2) Either 2 or 4 (3) Either 5 or 9 (4) 6

20. Which of the following is the largest value of (a 2 – b 2 – c 2 ), when a, b and c are consecutive odd integers with c > b > a? (1) 7 (2) 15 (3) 35 (4) – 9

The graph below shows the nutrient content of the soil in Vijaygarh for a period of six months:

1800 1900 1650 1700 1500

1000

2200 1900 2000

2400 2200 1800

5000 4800 5200 5400

4100 4000

1200

2400 2500 2700

1800 2200

January February March April May June

Nutrient Content of the soil (in mg) Calcium Phosphorous Nitrogen Potassium

Richness of the soil in a particular nutrient is defined as the change in nutrient content over a period of time divided by the average nutrient content for that time period.

Inconsistency of a particular nutrient in the soil is defined as the Highest nutrient content in any month (for that nutrient) – Lowest nutrient content in any month (for that nutrient) and the result divided by the average nutrient content for that time period.

21. Over the six months, Richness of the soil was the least in which of the nutrients? (1) Potassium (2) Nitrogen (3) Calcium (4) Phosphorous

22. Over the six months, Inconsistency of the soil was the highest in which of the nutrients? (1) Potassium (2) Nitrogen (3) Calcium (4) Phosphorous

23. Which nutrient shows the highest percentage decrease in its content over the previous month? (1) Potassium (2) Nitrogen (3) Calcium (4) Phosphorous

Additional information for Question 24: For every 100 mg of Calcium in the soil, a farmer can make Rs. 100 in profits on the sale of the produce, and similarly for every 100 mg of Potassium, Phosphorous and Nitrogen, the farmer can make Rs. 150, 200 and 300 respectively.

24. What is the difference in the profits of the months of January and February? (1) Rs. 500 (2) Rs. 600 (3) Rs. 700 (4) Rs. 800

25. Two friends A and B have a habit of saying “He is correct” and “He is incorrect” respectively. If they were asked about each other and they replied with their usual answers, it would constitute (1) That A is incorrect (2) That either of them is correct (3) That both of them are incorrect (4) A paradox

In an elementary table (imaginary), there are 12 elements arranged in three rows of four elements each. The arrangement is done on the basis of their reactivity. Reactivity increases when we go towards right from left or top from bottom in the elementary table. The known facts are:

1) Sc, Wr, and Bd are all in the row below the row occupied by Jp. 2) Vy is directly to the right of Kl. 3) Nb is directly above Nw, and directly to the right of Dp. 4) Cp is directly above As, and As is placed directly to the right of Jp. 5) Bd is directly below Dp and directly to the right of Wr. 6) K, Kl and Vy are all in the same row above the row in which As and Dp are placed.

26. Which is the most reactive substance? (1) K (2) Cp (3) Vy (4) Cannot be determined

27. Which is the least reactive substance? (1) Sc (2) Wr (3) Dp (4) Cannot be determined

28. From among the following, which is the most reactive? (1) K (2) As (3) Bd (4) Cannot be determined

There are four men with strange names: Mr. Kill, Mr. Steal, Mr. Rob and Mr. Loot. These men committed four different crimes of killing, looting, robbing and stealing. None of them committed a crime which was their namesake. Neither Mr. Kill, nor Mr. Loot, rob anyone. The looting was not done by Mr. Kill.

29. What crime did Mr. Loot commit? (1) Kill (2) Steal (3) Rob (4) Cannot be determined

30. Who committed the robbing? (1) Mr. Kill (2) Mr. Steal (3) Mr. Loot (4) Cannot be determined

Section II Verbal Ability and Logical Reasoning

Total number of questions: 30 Time allowed: 70 minutes

Directions for Q. 31 to 33: Each of the following questions has a paragraph from which the last sentence has been deleted. From the given options, choose the one that completes the paragraph in the most appropriate way.

31. Pulling off the subterfuge required a false mailing address, signatures obtained under false pretenses, backdated investment documents, and phony doctor’s bills. Yet Kumar initially believed that he was going to pass information to Rajaratnam legally. He soon realized that Rajaratnam wanted tips that he could convert into profitable stock trades. Once the flow of money created an obligation, Rajaratnam began asking for financial details about companies that Kumar advised. (1) Despite his conscience beckoning him every day, Kumar never made any

apparent effort at going back. (2) At one point of time, Kumar was even telling him his family secrets. (3) Soon, Kumar was breaking both McKinsey’s confidentiality rules and the

securities laws that forbid such exchanges. (4) This happened right under the SEC’s nose.

32. The Damascus Spring of 2001 was so called because Syrian democrats hoped that President Bashar al­Assad, a mild­mannered doctor trained in London, who had been installed as the successor to his ruthless father, Hafez, might forswear tyranny. That Spring ended, and some of the hopeful landed in torture rooms. Four years later, activists issued the Damascus Declaration for Democratic National Change, which called on Assad to hold free parliamentary elections, “launch public freedoms,” and “abolish all forms of exclusion in public life.” (1) And Assad did oblige by loosening up a chord in the tight­strung Syrian life (2) Instead, he imprisoned the document’s leading signatories (3) Not only that, they requested him to release all political prisoners too (4) Tyranny knows no bounds

33. "David is a diesel­powered freight train, pure and simple," Sullivan said while proffering a class photo in which Bailey towers over his classmates like he's from a different species altogether. "I'm just glad he's such a sweet kid. I've never had any behavior problems with him, and he never seems to quarrel with his classmates, thank God. Can you imagine that human jumbo jet slamming into a normal kid his age? (1) According to sources, the recent interest in the colossal Bailey kid has

renewed discussion surrounding that Anderson boy, who is only 12 and really puny but somehow practically has a full beard.”

(2) The Bailey kid is like a boulder." (3) There'd be nothing left." (4) God help Bailey!”

It’s rich that Standard & Poor’s would lower the boom on the United States government. There are many people in the financial industry and elsewhere who were surprised that the government didn’t put S. & P. and the other ratings agencies out of business after the meltdown of 2008, for their infamous role in polishing all those mortgage­backed turds. Whether because of incompetence or some kind of subornation (we’ll sign off on your turkeys if you give us more turkeys to sign off on), the ratings agencies bestowed AAA ratings on bundles of securities that, as time would show, were rotten to the core. S. & P. and its competitors constituted a crucial cog in the wheel of corruption, greed, and magical thinking that eventually brought the financial system and the economy to their interlocking knees. You can’t pin all the blame on the ratings agencies, not even close.

But the ratings fiasco deserves its place near the top of it. You’d almost think that the free pass, the rating agencies got from the government would require their recusal in matters pertaining to its debt. What thanks did the government get for its leniency? A sudden spasm of honesty and accuracy (give or take $2 trillion). S. & P. chose a curious moment to kick the grade­inflation habit.

As for the downgrade itself, it may just be an expression of the obvious, not unlike the shellacking the stock market took. The underlying logic—of both downgrade and downturn—has been plain to see for a while. The US economy is a mess—in the long term because we’ve spent too much, and in the short term, perhaps, because we won’t spend enough. The political and ideological arguments that arise out of this contradiction make for a dismal spectacle.

We’re a little like a gambler deep in the hole. The only way out of the hole is to bet more. The problem is, the guys around the table aren’t as keen as they used to be to stake us the cash to stay in. Do we walk away broke, or sell our snakeskin boots for a shot at another hand? Either way, we’re facing ruin. But it’s the doing nothing—the dithering—that might just get us shot.

34. What would ‘recusal’ mean, as specified in the passage? (1) To abstain from participation in a decision on grounds such as prejudice or

personal involvement. (2) Incapable of being bought back directly or paid off (3) Not subject to challenge or objection (4) Having or showing or expressing reverence for the Government

35. What does the author mean by the line, “It’s rich that Standard & Poor’s would lower the boom on the United States government.”? (1) It is a satirical situation in which S&P, which had got the free pass from the

US Government, hit back instead of helping (2) It is a strange situation in which a company which was held to be out of line,

came out of a ditch to aid the Government itself (3) It is a beautiful case of a symbiotic relationship between two entities, where

one feeds on the other’s leftovers (4) None of these

36. What is the main idea of the passage? (1) Standard & Poor’s has shown the true state of the economy in an untimely

fashion and the US economic situation is spiraling out of control (2) The US has got nothing to protect itself from the economic upheaval that is

sure to follow (3) The world is disillusioned of the US charm and there is the place for some

other country to fill its shoes (4) Standard & Poor’s is a lost case and US Government should focus on

economic betterment instead of bailout packages

Since its peak of close to twenty­three thousand adoptions, in 2004, the international adoption rate has plummeted by almost half in the U.S., to 12,753 in 2009. In 2010, the number is likely to be fewer than ten thousand, and by 2013 below seven thousand. In addition to the closing of several prominent sending nations, like Guatemala and Vietnam, others have cut back. In 2009, China sent less than half the number of children to the U.S. than it sent in 2004, and has introduced a welter of new restrictions on who may adopt (including the weight of the adoptive parents); the average wait time for a child from China can now be six years.

“International adoption should be an option for some orphans, but, sadly, those options seem to be going away,” Dr. Jane Aronson, the founder of the Worldwide Orphans Foundation, said recently. This isn’t because the number of orphans is declining: according to UNICEF, there are a hundred and sixty­three million, worldwide. Nor is it because of any compelling data showing that international adoption doesn’t work. Most studies have found that adopted children, even when they’re from different countries and races, do just as well in life as biological children, provided that they are adopted early enough, while children who spend years in orphanages have much less chance of normal development. International adoption is dwindling because no one can agree on what constitutes an ethical adoption. As Karen Dubinsky, a professor of history at Queens University in Ontario, who is the adoptive mother of a Guatemalan child, and the author of “Babies Without Borders,” put it to me, “Adoption, of whatever sort, works better in miniature than on the big screen. In the abstract it is hideous, but individually it can sometimes—even often—make sense.”

37. Which of the following can be a reason for the smaller number of international adoptions every year? (1) The number of orphans worldwide cannot be determined because of lack of

proper measures (2) The legal barriers are increasing every day (3) No one can justify the morality behind international adoption (4) Not a single parent has ever expressed discontent over the adoption

companies’ workings

38. Which of the following is incorrect according to the passage? (1) The number of Chinese adopted children in the US as a percentage of the

international adoptions in US has stayed almost the same from 2004 to 2009 (2) The number of children sending countries has been going down (3) Orphans have a better chance of having a good life in families than in

orphanages (4) According to the UNICEF, there are a hundred and sixty three million orphan

families in this world.

39. Which of the following is a correct inference drawn based on the information given in the passage above? (1) Since no one knows whether international adoptions are ethical, hence they

should be avoided (2) Internationally, the idea is picking up that inter racial relationships can survive

the test of time (3) A child adopted from China by US parents might have to wait more than six

years to meet his family (4) By normal development, it is meant that the person would have as much a

chance to encounter genocide as anyone else

40. Despite skepticism over the station's Saudi funding and a (_____) of censorship of anti­Saudi content, Al Arabiya has successfully (_____) Al Jazeera, garnered a significant audience share, and has also gotten similarly involved in controversy. (1) perception, emulated (2) plethora, downgraded (3) string, championed (4) list, challenged

41. (_____) of the labor rights movement claim that regulation (_____) by labor rights activists may limit opportunities for work. (1) champions, upheld (2) critics, promoted (3) promoters, endorsed (4) detractors, withdrawn

42. Free riding is usually considered to be an (_____) problem only when it leads to the non­production or under­production of a public good (and thus to Pareto inefficiency), or when it leads to the (_____) use of a common property resource. (1) exogenous, massive (2) endogenous, minimal (3) avaricious, incremental (4) economic, excessive

43. The Croix de guerre may either be (_____) as a unit award or to individuals who (_____) themselves by acts of heroism involving combat with enemy forces. (1) bestowed, distinguish (2) provided, outshine (3) lavished, shame (4) given, degrade

44. (A) The Soviet Union needed a strong, independent and assertive India as a

balancing force in the region. (B) Massive Soviet defence supplies turned India into the dominant military

power in the region. (C) The Soviet support stemmed from the congruence of national interests, rather

than ideology­driven hopes of getting India to embrace the Soviet­style socialist path someday, asserts Prof. Volodin.

(D) Even today, the Soviet and Russian made weapon platforms constitute 60­80 per cent of the Indian armoury.

(E) The Soviet Union offered India cheap credits and technological assistance in setting up steel, machine­building, power generation, mining and pharmaceutical industries that ensured its economic independence. (1) ABCDE (2) AEBCD (3) CAEBD (4) BDCAE

45. (A) God chose Dale for the job because he was such a huge fan of Supermarket

Sweep. (B) He told Dale that he was to be God's final messenger ­ because all God's

previous attempts at contacting the human race had gone astray. (C) God himself appeared to Dale and gave him two stone tablets containing a

new message for the world. (D) Dale was on holiday in Egypt and decided to go for a walk in the desert "to

cruise for men" when the miracle happened. (E) Dale Winton has controversially announced that he is a messenger of God,

and that he has an important message for the human race. (1) ABDCE (2) EDCBA (3) AEDBC (4) EADBC

46. (A) Spokesmen for JOP explained that the problem lies with majority rule. (B) "In a democracy, the majority can out­rule a minority, and that's really unfair

on minorities." (C) One example the spokesmen like to give is that of Hitler, who was

democratically elected by a majority, but who ruthlessly oppressed minorities who presumably didn't vote for him.

(D) Left wing think tank JOP have released a report in which they say that modern democracy is not compatible with the ideals of modern democracy.

(E) "Under democracy, one can never have a minority­led government. It's an inherently unfair system which discriminates against minority groups." (1) BACED (2) BEDAC (3) DEBCA (4) DABCE

47. Unconditional support from the Indians to the Burmese revolution before the international community wakes up to it, can help the revolutionists’ cause enough to affect the outcome of the rebellion, create an India friendly environment that can aid India’s foreign policy. (1) to affect the outcome of the rebellion, create (2) that the outcome of the rebellion is affected, create (3) to affect the outcome of the rebellion, and create (4) that the outcome of the rebellion is affected, and creates

48. Irked by the recent changes in the cyber laws in recent years everywhere around the globe, the idea of One Hack For All was raised by the prominent members of the Hackers’ Association at their annual meet. (1) the idea of One Hack For All was raised by the prominent members of the

Hackers’ Association at their annual meet. (2) the ideation of One Hack For All was raised by the prominent members of the

Hackers’ Association at their annual meet. (3) the prominent members of the Hackers’ Association raised at their annual

meet the idea of One Hack For All (4) the prominent members of the Hackers’ Association, at their annual meet,

raised the idea of One Hack For All

49. In 2010, when the IA introduced the talking robots, the designers argued that they would be smarter, sharper and more talkative than the previous generation robots. (1) they would be smarter, sharper and more talkative (2) they would be smarter, they would be sharper and they would be more

talkative (3) the robots would be smarter, sharper and more talkative (4) the robots would be smarter, sharper and will be more talkative

50. The biologists are claiming that the erosion of the fertile Jaweri­Kamora peninsula is a direct result of the wasteful practices of the farmers. Which of the following, if true, would most strongly weaken the biologists’ claim? (1) Wasteful farming is considered to be one of the least dangerous practices for

the fertility of land (2) Farmers care more for the land than do the biologists (3) The fertility of the Jaweri­Kamora peninsula was at its all­time low around 200

years ago (4) The draught that hit last year took away the most important nutrients from the

top soil of the peninsula

51. There are 4 crates each packed with 10 dumbbells of 20 kg each. But a crate having 10 dumbbells of 19 kg each has been mixed with these. From among these 5 crates, you have to identify the 190 kg crate. How many minimum weighings are required? (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 4

In a company, work has to be allotted keeping in mind workers’ preferences. There are 4 projects (P1. P2, P3 and P4) to be assigned to 4 workers (W1, W2, W3 and W4). The workers have the following requirements:

• W2 will not take up P2 unless W1 gets P1 & W3 gets P3 • W1 will not take up P3 unless W4 gets P4 & W2 gets P1 • W3 will not take up P4 unless W2 gets P2 & W1 gets P1 • W2 will not take up P1 unless W4 gets P4 & W3 gets P3 • W1 will not take up P1 unless W2 gets P4 & W3 gets P3 • W2 will not take up P4 unless W1 gets P2 & W4 gets P1 • W4 will not take up P4 unless W1 gets P2 & W2 gets P3 • W2 will not take up P3 unless W1 gets P4 & W3 gets P2 • W4 will not take up P1 unless W3 gets P2

52. Which project does W1 take up? (1) P2 (2) P3 (3) P4 (4) Cannot be determined

53. Which project does W2 take up? (1) P1 (2) P2 (3) P3 (4) Cannot be determined

54. Which project does W4 take up? (1) P1 (2) P2 (3) P3 (4) Cannot be determined

55. In a particular state, all 1s are 2s. All 2s that are neither 3s nor 4s are 5s. A 3 that is not a 6, is not a 2. Which of the following is true? (1) All 2s are 6s (2) Some 2s are 6s (3) All 2s are either 3s or 4s or 5s (4) Some 2s are 4s

The Mumbai Marathon was organized and sponsored by Standard Chartered. The Kenyan runners who participated pulled out a great time and were the ones who grabbed the first four spots. The following information was known about the marathon:

(A) There were no stops in the marathon, i.e. a runner could not stop during the course of the run

(B) There were 4 refilling stations (RS1 to RS4) where the runners could grab energy drinks or water, (there was no stoppage time). They appear on the route according to their numbers.

(C) The Kenyan team was composed of Julius, Daniel, John and Kenneth (D) All the four employed similar running strategies, i.e. they ran with constant speeds

after reaching RS1, focused on the step distance and avoided the noise at all times (E) Each Kenyan used the services of exactly two Refilling Stations (F) Two of the Kenyans reached RS4 at the same time and they were the earliest

runners to reach there (G)The distance between RS1 and RS3 is three times the distance between RS1 and

RS2 (H) Julius arrived at RS1 at 7:30 am and at RS2 at 9:30 am (I) Daniel arrived at RS1 at 8:10 am and at RS3 at 12:10 pm (J) John reached RS2 at 10:00 am and RS4 at 01:00 pm (K) Kenneth arrived at RS3 at 12:15 pm and at RS4 at 12:30 pm

56. Who are the runners with the same speed? (1) Julius and Kenneth (2) Daniel and Kenneth (3) Daniel and John (4) John and Kenneth

57. When does Julius reach RS4? (1) 2:00 pm (2) 2:30 pm (3) 1:30 pm (4) Cannot be determined

58. When does Kenneth arrive at RS1? (1) 9:30 am (2) 9:15 am (3) 9:35 am (4) Cannot be determined

Additional information for Question 59: The runners kept the running at the same speeds and finished the race without any disqualifications. RS4 was not at the finish line.

59. Who won the race? (1) Daniel (2) Kenneth (3) Either of Daniel or Kenneth (4) Depends on the distance between RS4 and the finish line

Every month, there happens a reshuffle in ABC Inc. There are 6 floors (excluding the ground floor, which is not ABC Inc’s property) in the building in which ABC Inc. is housed and each floor is manned and managed by a manager. There are 6 managers – A Managing Director (MD), an Operations Manager (OM), a Key Departmental Manager (KDM), a Relationship Manager (RM), and two Management Trainees (MT1 and MT2). Last month, the allocation of the floors was: Floor 1: MD; Floor 2: OM; Floor 3: KDM; Floor 4: RM; Floor 5: MT1; Floor 6: MT2 But strangely, this month each manager got a different floor from what he had got the last month. The following information is also known:

(A) If the floor numbers that have been assigned to the RM in these two months be multiplied, then the product is going to be the same as the product of the floor numbers assigned to MT2 in the two months

(B) The difference between the floor numbers assigned to the OM in the two months, is the highest among the six managers

60. Who was in the first floor this month? (1) Management Trainee 1 (2) Relationship Manager (3) Operations Manager (4) Key Departmental Manager