education is not the learning of facts, but the training ... · 1. answers are to be ... xerophytic...

Pioneer Education Mock Test-5

Time: 90 Minutes Max. Marks: 100

Instructions to the Candidates

Read the following instructions carefully before you answer the questions: 1. Answers are to be given on a SEPARATE ANSWER SHEET.

2. Please write your twelve digits Roll Number very clearly on the Test-booklet and Answer Sheet as

given in your admission card.

3. Please note and follow the instructions given on the answer sheet for writing the answers.

4. Darken the CIRCLE with pen for answering the question in the appropriate space against the

number corresponding to the question you are answering.

5. There are 100 questions in the test.

6. Since all questions are compulsory, do not try to read the whole question paper before beginning

to answer it.

7. If you do not know the answer to any question, do not spend much time on it and pass on to the

next one. Time permitting, you can come back to the question, which you have left in the first

instance and try them again.

8. Since the time allotted for this question paper is very limited you should make the best use of it by not

spending too much time on any one question.

9. Rough work can be done anywhere in the Test booklet but not on the Answer sheet/loose paper.

10. Every correct answer will be awarded one mark.

11. Please return the Answer Sheet to the invigilator after the test.

Education is not the learning of facts, But the Training of the mind to think.

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1. Mycoplasma differ from bacteria in –

(a) Not having a cell wall (b) Having organised nucleus

(c) Having organised cell organelles (d) None of the above

2. Barley is ground to powder. The powder is mixed with water and some yeast. The mixture is

kept in a closed and moist container. Which of the following will be produced?

(a)Sodium bicarbonate (b)Alcohol only

(c)Carbon dioxide only (d)Ethyl alcohol and carbon dioxide

3. Of the animal groups listed below, which one evolved first?

(a) flatworms (b) sponges (c) arthropods (d) vertebrates

4. Choose the function of the pancreatic juice from the following:

(a) Trypsin digests proteins and lipase carbohydrates

(b) Trypsin digests emulsified fats and lipase proteins

(c) Trypsin and lipase digest fats

(d) Trypsin digests proteins and lipase emulsified fats

5. The correct sequence of anaerobic reactions in yeast is

(a)Glucose CytoplasmPyruvate MitochondriaEthanol + Carbon dioxide

(b)Glucose CytoplasmPyruvate CytoplasmLactic acid

(c)Glucose CytoplasmPyruvate MitochondriaLactic acid

(d)Glucose CytoplasmPyruvate CytoplasmEthanol + Carbon dioxide

6. In a synapse, chemical signal is transmitted from

(a) dendritic end of one neuron to axonal end of another neuron

(b) axon to cell body of the same neuron

(c) cell body to axonal end of the same neuron

(d) axonal end of one neuron to dendritic end of another neuron

7. The number of chromosomes in parents and off springs of a particular species remains constant

due to

(a) doubling of chromosomes after zygote formation

(b) halving of chromosomes during gamete formation

(c) doubling of chromosomes after gamete formation

(d) halving of chromosomes after gamete formation

8. The maleness of a child is determined by

(a) the X-chromosome in the zygote (b) the Y-chromosome in zygote

(c) the cytoplasm of germ cell which determines the sex (d) sex is determined by chance




9. Which structure replace centrioles in plant cell ?

(a) Polar caps (b) Dictyosomes (c) Chloroplast (d) Centrosome

10. Ovulation in mammals is caused by -

(a) FSH and TSH (b) FSH and LH (c) FSH and LTH (d) LTH and LH

11. Lichens are described as indicators of

(a) air pollution (b) water pollution

(c) xerophytic succession (d) mesophytic succession

12. In human males, the testes lie in the scrotum, because it helps in the

(a) process of mating (b) formation of sperm

(c) easy transfer of gametes (d) All of these

13. Select the statements that describe characteristics of genes

(i) genes are specific sequence of bases in a DNA molecule

(ii) a gene does not code for proteins

(iii) in individuals of a given species, a specific gene is located on a particular chromosome

(iv) each chromosome has only one gene

(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and {iii) (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (iii) and (iv)

14. Which of the following statements are true about the brain?

(i) The main thinking part of brain is hind brain,

(ii) Centres of hearing, smell, memory, sight, etc., are located in fore brain.

(iii) Involuntary actions like salivation, vomiting, blood pressure are controlled by the medulla in the

hind brain.

(iv) Cerebellum does not control posture and balance of the body.

(a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) (ii) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)

15. The hydroxyl ion concentration of a solution is 0.00001 M. Its pH is:

(a) 8 (b) 5 (c) 9 (d) 10

16. The following reaction is an example of a

3 2 24NH (g) 50 (g) 4N0(g) 6H O(g)

1. displacement reaction 2. combination reaction

3. redox reaction 4. neutralisation reaction

(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4

17. A highly reactive element X is stored under water. It readily reacts with oxygen of air to give a

compound Y, which dissolves in water. The aqueous solution of Y changes blue litmus solution

to re(d)The element X is

(a)sodium (b)sulphur (c)phosphorous (d)potassium




18. Two elements A and B on burning in air give corresponding oxides. Oxides of both A and B are soluble

in water. The aqueous solution of oxide of A is alkaline and reacts with aqueous solution of oxide of B

to give another compoun(d)Identify A and B.

(a)A and B both are metals (b)A and B both are non-metals

(c)A is metal and B is non-metal (d)A is non-metal and B is metal

19. Which of the following statements about the given reaction are correct?

3Fe(S) + 4H2O(g)Fe304(s) + 4H2(g)

1. Iron metal is getting oxidised. 2. Water is getting reduced.

2. Water is acting as reducing agent. 4. Water is acting as oxidising agent.

(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4 (c) 1,2 and 4 (d) 2 and 4

20. In the soap micelles

(a) the ionic end of soap is on the surface of the cluster while the carbon chain is in the interior of the

cluster

(b) ionic end of soap is in the interior of the cluster and the carbon chain is out of the cluster

(c) both ionic end and carbon chain are in the interior of the cluster

(d) both ionic end and carbon chain are on the exterior of the cluster

21. The molecular formula of an ester is HCOOCH3. Write the molecular formula of the alcohol and the

acid from which it might be prepared?

(a) CH3COOH + CH3OH (b) HCOOH + C2H5OH (c) HCOOH + CH3OH (d) CH3CH2COOH + CH3OH

22. The colourless gas liberated in the purification of bauxite by Hall's process is:

(a) H2 (b) NH3 (c) CO2 (d) SO2

23. Which of the following air pollutants reduces the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood?

(a)Carbon dioxide (b)Carbon monoxide (c)Sulphur dioxide (d)Nitrous oxide

24. 2 4 2 22 3 2S H SO SO H O

In the above reaction:

(a) sulphuric acid is an oxidising agent and sulphur is a reducing agent

(b) sulphuric acid is a reducing agent and sulphur is an oxidising agent

(c) both are oxidising agents

(d) both are reducing agents

25. On washing with soap, a turmeric stain on the cloth turns to red because

I. soap solution is alkaline II. soap solution is acidic

III. turmeric contains a natural indicator IV. turmeric contains litmus

Select the correct alternative.

(a)I and III (b)II and IV (c)Ill and II (d)I and IV




26. The number of hydrogen atoms that can be combined with an element is its:

(a) density (b) stability (c) reactivity (d) valency

27. Calculate the weight of carbon which contains the same number of atoms as those present in 15

grams of oxygen.

(a) 13 g (b) 12 g (c) 10 g (d) 14 g

28. A force of 1.0 N acts on a body of mass 10 kg. The body covers 100 cm in 4 seconds moving along a

straight line. The initial velocity is :

(a) 2 cm/s (b) 4 cm/s (c) 6 cm/s (d) 5 cm/s

29. A stone tied to a string is whirled in a circle. As it is revolving, the string suddenly breaks.

The stone, then

(a)flies off radially outwards (b)flies off radially inwards

(c)flies off tangentially (d)moves in a circle of larger radius

30. A person moves a certain distance in a certain time. If1

3of the distance is covered in

2

3of the time

with speed v1 and the rest of the 2

3distance in

1

3of the time speed v2, then 1

2

v

v is

(a) 1/2 (b) 1/4 (c) 4/9 (d) 2/9

31. In an experiment, it was observed that when the length of a wire in an electrical circuit is

doubled, everything else remaining same, the current becomes half. On the other hand, if the

thickness (diameter) of the wire is doubled, the current becomes 4 times. Two wires W1 and W2

of the same metal have the same current passing through them. The thickness of wire W2 is

twice that of W1, then the length of the wire W2 is

(a)sixteen times that of wire W1 (b)four times that of wire W1

(c)two times that of wire W1 (d)same as that of wire W1

32. A high resistance voltmeter is connected to a dry cell battery. The voltmeter reads 10 V. When a 20

resists is connected across the terminals of the battery the voltmeter reading becomes 8V. What is

the internal resistance of the battery?

(a) 5 (b)6 (c)7 (d)8

33. A printed page is seen through a glass slab place on it. The printed words appear raise(d)This is

due to

(a)refraction at the upper surface of the slab

(b)refraction at the lower surface of the slab

(c)partial reflection at the upper surface of the slab

(d)partial reflection at the lower surface of the slab




34. Two mirrors are placed at right angles to each other as shown in the figure. Total number of

images of an object 0 placed between them, that are seen as

(a)two (b)three (c)four (d)six

35. The bluish colour of water in deep sea is due to

(a) the presence of algae and other plants found in water

(b) reflection of sky in water

(c) scattering of light

(d) absorption of light by the sea

36. A uniform magnetic field exists in the plane of paper pointing from left to right as shown in figure. In

the field an electron and a proton move as shown. The electron and the proton experience

(a) Forces both pointing into the plane of paper

(b) Forces both pointing out of the plane of paper

(c) Forces pointing into the plane of paper and out of the plane of paper, respectively

(d) Force pointing opposite and along the direction of the uniform magnetic field respectively

37. A stone dropped from the top of a tower of height 300 m splashes into a pond of water at its base.

When will the sound of the splash be heard at the top?(Velocity of sound=340 ms–1 and g=9.8 ms–2)

(a) 5.6 s (b) 8.7 s (c) 5.4 s (d) 6.7 s

38. Quality depends on

(a)intensity (b)loudness (c)timbre (d)frequency

39. The momentum of a body is double(d)What is the percentage increase in kinetic energy?

(a) 500% (b) 300% (c) 200% (d) 600%

40. The kinetic energy of a body is increased by 21%. What is the percentage increase in the linear

momentum of the body?

(a) 20% (b) 10% (c) 30% (d) 5%




41. Two vertices of a triangle are (–2, –1) and (3, 2) and third vertex lies on the line x + y = 5. If the area of

the triangle is 4 square units, then the third vertex is

(a) (0, 5) or, (4, 1) (b) (5, 0) or, (1, 4) (c) (5, 0) or, (4, 1) (d) (0, 5) or, (1, 4)

42. Seven years ago Varun’s age was five times the square of Swati’s age. Three years hence Swati’s age

will be two fifth of Varun’s age. Find their present ages in years?

(a) 9, 27 (b) 9, 25 (c) 7, 21 (d) 9, 23

43. If 49x – 49x–1 = 16464, then which of the following is equivalent of (2x)x?

(a) (5)5/2 (b) (7)7/2 (c) (3)3/2 (d) None of these

44. A(6, 3), B(–3, 5), C(4, – 2) and D(x, 3x) are four points. If DBC: ABC = 1:2, then x is equal to

(a) 11/8 (b) 8/11 (c) 3 (d) none of these

45. A plane left 30 minutes later than the schedule time and in order to reach its destination 1500 km

away in time it has to increase its speed by 250 km/hr from its usual speed. Find its usual speed

(a) 850km/hr (b) 950km/hr (c) 750 km/hr (d) 700 km/hr

46. Find the values of a and b, so that x4 + x3 + 8x2 + ax + b is divisible by x2 + 1.

(a) b = 4 (b) b = 5 (c) b = 6 (d) b = 7

47. Find the root of the equation: 2x 2 x 2x 22 6 2 3 0.

(a) 0, 3 (b) –2 (c) –1 (d) 2

,53

48. Find the root of the equation: 2 2x 2x x 2x(15 4 14) (15 4 14) 30.

(a) 1 2, 1,1 (b) 2, – 4 (c) –1, 1 2 2 (d) 7

, 32

49. The first and last term of an A.P. are a and l respectively. If S is the sum of all the terms of the A.P. and

the common difference is given by

2 2l a,

k l a

then k =

(a) S (b) 2S (c) 3S (d) none of these

50. If a1, a2, a3, …, an are in A.P., where ia 0 for all i, then 1 2 2 3 n 1 n

1 1 1...

a a a a a a

=

(a) 1 n

n 1

a a

(b)

1 n

n 1

a a

(c)

1 n

n 1

a a

(d)

1 n

n 1

a a




51. As shown in the figure, a triangle is inscribed in a circle, then a circle is inscribed in a triangle and

finally a triangle is inscribed in a circle. If the radius of the out circle is r cm and the triangle in the

figure are equilateral triangle, what is the length of the side of the innermost triangle in terms of r?

(a) r/2 (b) 3r (c) 3

r2

(d) None of these

52. In the figure shown, AE BC, D is the mid-point of BC, then x is equal to

(a) 2 2 2 2a b c d

4

(b)

22 2 a

b d4

a

(c)

(h d)

3

(d)

(c d h)

2

53. The height of a cone is 40 cm. A small cone is cut off at the top by a plane parallel to its base. If its

volume be 1

64of the volume of the given cone, at what height above the base is the section cut?

(a) 30 cm (b) 25 cm (c) 28 cm (d) 32 cm

54. In the figure given below, crescent is formed by two circles which touch at the point A, O is the centre

of the bigger circle. If CB = 9 cm and ED = 5 cm, find the area of the shaded region. Take π = 3.14.

(a) 642.92 cm2 (b) 632.92 cm2 (c) 622.92 cm2 (d) 652.92 cm2




55. In the figure given below, ABC is a right angled triangle, A = 900, AB = 21 cm and AC = 28 cm.

Semicircles are described on AB, BC and AC as diameters. Find the area of the shaded region.

(a) 284 cm2 (b) 194 cm2 (c) 294 cm2 (d) None of the these

56. If sec θ tan θ k, cos θ

(a) 2k 1

2k

(b)

2

2k

k 1 (c)

2

k

k 1 (d)

2

k

k 1

57. If 0

2 0 00 2 0

0 2 0

tan 60 cosec30x sin 45 cos 60 ,

sec 45 cot 30 then x =

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 8 (d) 16

58. A box contains 10 good articles and 6 with defects. One item is drawn at random. The probability that

it is either good or has a defect is

(a) 64/64 (b) 49/64 (c) 40/64 (d) 24/64

59. From an aeroplane vertically above a straight horizontal road, the angles of depression of two

consecutive mile stones on opposite sides of the aeroplane are observed to be α and β . Then the

height in miles of aeroplane above the road is given by

(a) 1 tan α tan β

tan α tan β

(b)

tan α tan β

tan α tan β (c)

tan α tan β

tan α tan β (d)

1 1

tanα tanβ

60. Find the area of the pentagon whose vertices, taken in order, are: (4, 3), (–5, 60, (–7, –2), (0, - 7) and

(3, – 6).

(a) 95 sq. units (b) 87 sq. units (c) 97 sq. units (d) 93 sq. units

61. Consider the following processes

I. Mobilise the revenue resources.

II. Redefine the land rights of the people.

III. Produce the cash crops it required.

IV. Annexed the territory.

Which process did the English East India Company follow just after acquiring the Diwani rights in

Bengal from the Mughal emperor?

(a)I and III (b)I and II (c)I, II and III (d)All of these




62. Which of the following is correct sequence from North to South?

(a) Nilgiri, Aravali, Vindhyan, Satpura (b) Aravali, Nilgiri, Satpura, Vindhayan

(c) Aravali, Satpura, Vindhayan, Nilgiri Hills (d) Aravali Range, Vindhayan, Satpura, Nilgiri Hills

63. Match the following

List I List II

(A)James Mill 1. Founded Ihe Asiatic Society of Bengal

(B)William Carey 2. Criticized the orientalists

(C)William Jones 3. Surveyed the progress of education in vernacular schools

(D)William Adam 4. Established the Serampore Mission

Codes

ABCD ABCD ABCD ABCD

(a)2413 (b)3142 (c)3214 (d)3421

64. Which of the following statements regarding the Act of 1858 is incorrect?

(a)The English East India Company continued to enjoy trading monopolies in India

(b)A Secretary of State for India was appointed with an India Council to advise

(c)The British Crown became the direct ruler of India

(d)The Governor-General was given the title of the Viceroy

65. Why was the Delhi Durbar organised in 1877 with pomp and show?

(a)The Viceroy wanted to display the wealth and prosperity of India

(b)The British wanted to threaten the people by displaying their army strength

(c)The British wanted to replace the Mughal emperor from the minds of the people as their rulers

(d)The Viceroy wanted to appease Queen Victoria

66. Arrange the following social reform organisation chronologically on the basis of their foundation.

I. Arya Samaj II. Prarthana Samaj

III. Veda Samaj IV. Sree Narayan Dharma Pariplana Yogam

The correct sequence should be

(a)I, IV, III, II (b)I, II, III, IV (c)IV, Ill, II,I (d)lll, ll, I, IV

67. Why did the cotton factories in India grow during the World War I?

(a)Masses refused to wear foreign clothes because of Swadeshi appeal

(b)Textile imports from Britain declined because the demand of military supplies from Indian

factories increased

(c)The Government in England lowered the import duties on Indian cotton textiles

(d)The Indian cotton industries started producing cotton clothes at competitive prices




68. Assertion (A) William Jones and Colebrooke went about discovering the ancient texts of India.

Reason (R) Because they were orientalists.

(a)A is not correct but R is correct

(b)A is correct but R is not correct

(c)A is correct and R is the correct explanation of A

(d)Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A

69. The first Anglo-Burmese War concluded by a treaty. Which one among the following is that?

(a)Treaty of Burme (b)Treaty of Tamu (c)Treaty of Bhama (d)Treaty of Yandaboo

70. Find out the incorrect statement.

(a)The European artists brought with them new styles and new conventions of painting

(b)The European artists brought with them the idea of realism

(c)The European used oil painting which produced images that looked real

(d)The European artists learnt the technique of oil painting from the Indian artists

71. Which Five Year Plan gave the maximum thrust on the industrial growth?

(a)First Five Year Plan (b)Second Five Year Plan

(c)Third Five Year Plan (d)Fourth Five Year Plan

72. Match the following.

List Subjects

(A)Central List 1. Railways

(B)State List 2. Health

(C)Concurrent List 3. Foreign affairs

(D)Residuary List 4. Water disputes

Codes

ABCD ABCD ABCD ABCD

(a)1234 (b)1243 (c)4321 (d)3214

73. Consider the following statements

I. It is a constitutional body created by the Parliament Commission.

II. It acts as an advisory body to the Union Government.

III. The Finance Minister is the ex-officio chairman of this body.

IV. Its basic function is to formulate priorities for the Five Year Plan for integrated economic

and social development.

Which of the above statements is/are correct about the Planning Commission?

(a)I and III (b)II and IV (c)I, III and IV (d)Only IV




74. What does the 'mixed economy' in India mean?

(a)Companies of foreign countries can play an equal role in development of India's economy

(b)Special privileges are given to foreign companies by the government for investment in India

(c)Private companies of India are allowed to invest in public sector

(d)Private sectors play a complementary role along with the public sector

75. Non-alignment Movement which was the basis of Nehru's foreign policy meant that

(a)India would remain neutral in world politics

(b)India would not participate in any way, not even as mediator, to end conflicts between USA and

the Soviet Union

(c)India would not participate in power rivalries and ideological conflicts between the USA and the

Soviet Union

(d)India, along with other like minded Asian and African countries, would create an equally strong

third front in world politics in opposition to both the USA and the Soviet Union

76. Which of the following best describes 'jet streams'?

(a)Wind system with seas and reversal of direction

(b)Wind blowing from sub tropical high pressure belts towards the tropical low pressure belts

(c)Narrow meandering bands of winds which blow in mid latitude near the tropopause and encircle

the globe

(d)Winds blowing from the tropical high pressure belts towards the equatorial low pressure belts

77. Intense damage was caused in Ladakh in 2010, due to which natural calamity?

(a)Mud flow (b)Landslide (c)Earthquake (d)Drought

78. Which of the following comes under the category of'Footloose Industry'?

(a)Iron and steel (b)Cotton textile

(c)Information technology (d)Petro-chemical

79. Match the following

List I List II

(A)Mining 1. Maharashtra

(B)Deforestation 2. Jharkhand

(C)Overgrazing 3. Punjab

(D)Over irrigation 4. Madhya Pradesh

Codes

ABCD ABCD ABCD ABCD

(a)2413 (b)1234 (c)3214 (d)2314




80. 'Wheat requires moderate temperature and rainfall during growing season and bright sunshine

at the time of harvest.' Which other crop requires the same geographic conditions?

(a)Rice (b)Maize (c)Mustard (d)Jute

81. Fundamental Rights

(a)can nevers be suspended (b)can be suspended in case of criminal

(c)can be suspended durign emergency activities (d)None of these

82. Given below are some factors influencing the location of certain industries.

I. Skilled labour II. Low transportation cost

III. Clean and dust free environment IV. Availability of raw material

V. Government policy

Which among these have more strongly influenced location of IT industry in India?

(a)I, II and III (b)II, III and IV (c)Ill, IV and V (d)I, III and V

83. Consider the following industrial regions of India

I. Hooghly industrial region II. Gurgaon-Delhi-Meerut industrial region

III. Ahmedabad-Baroda industrial region IV. Mumbai-Pune industrial region

V. Bengaluru-Tamil Nadu industrial region VI. Chotanagpur industrial region

VII. Vishakhapatnam-Guntur industrial region

Which of these lies outside peninsular India?

(a)I, II, IV and VI (b)II, III, IV and VI (c)II, IV, VI and VII (d)I, II, Ill and VI

84. The following list of towns, where steel plants are located in India.

I. Bhilai II. Jamshedpur III. Durgapur IV. Bhadravati

V. Rourkela VI. Bokaro VII. Salem VIII. Vijay Nagar

Which of the following sequence is located within South India?

(a)Ill, IV and VI (b)I, IV and VIII (c)IV, VII and VIII (d)V, VII and VIII

85. Fundamental Rights are taken from

(a)UK (b)US (c)Ireland (d)Japanese

86. Assertion (A) The tropical rainforests are mostly evergreen.

Reason (R) The regions of tropical rainforests get abundant rainfall and have low temperature

through the region.

(a)Both A and R are true and R explains A

(b)Both A and R are true but R does not explain A

(c)A is true but R is false

(d)A is false but R is true





I. In India, cropland occupies 57% of total area,

II. Pastures account for 56% area in Australi(a)

III. About 2/3rd area in Japan is under forests. What should be understood from the above

statements?

(a)India has an efficient land use system while most of the land in Australia and Japan is rendered

waste

(b)India has subsistence agricultural economy, animal husbandry is the main stay of economy in

Australia and forestry is main activity in Japan

(c)Most of the cultivation; in Australia cultivation of crops is confined to small proportion and most of

the land is used for grasing. Japan has conserved its forest resources

(d)India has a faulty land used system, Australia has extensive land use and Japan has small cultivable

land


I. In the Tundra region, animals have thick fur the thick skin.

II. Most of the animals in grasslands are herbivores.

III. In tropical rainy forests, many animals live on trees. Which of the following best explains these

statements?

(a)Dependence of animals on natural vegetation

(b)Exploitation of wildlife and natural vegetation

(c)Relationship between density of vegetation and wildlife

(d)Adaptation of natural environment

89. Which one of the following is not a part of U.N.O?

(a)General Assembly (b)UNESCO (c)IMF (d)ILO

90. Mulching is associated with use of

(a)material to maintain soil moisture (b)soil to build barrier

(c)trenches to collect water (d)pilled up rocks to slow down the flow of water

91. High Court in the following cities were established at one time or the other. Identify the

sequence in which they appeared.

I. Allahabad II. Bombay (now Mumbai)

III. Delhi IV. Nainital

The sequence should be

(a)III.IV, II (b)III, IV. I. II (c)II, I. III. IV (d)IV, II, I, III




92. Fundamental Law of .he Land is called

(a)State (b)Constitution (c)Parliament Act (d)Ordinance

93. India is a

I. Socialist II. Secular

II. Sovereign IV. Democratic Republic

Identify the correct sequence as maintained in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution.

(a)III, I, II, IV (b)II, Ill, I, IV (c)Ill, I, IV, II (d)I, II, III, IV

94. Right to the enjoyment of pollution free water as interpreted by the Supreme Court in Subhash

Kumar Vs. State of Bihar (1991) falls under

(a)Right to Equality (b)Right to Liberty

(c)Right against Exploitation (d)Right to Life and Personal Liberty

95. Freedom of media is guaranteed under

(a)Liberal system (b)Rule by the proletariat

(c)Benevolent ruler (d)Religious ruler

96. Economic presence of the government in social realm is found under

(a)Fundamental Rights (b)Fundamental Duties

(c)Directive Principles of State Policy (d)Policy for determining citizenship

97. Assertion (A) The people in between the producers and the final consumers are traders.

Reason (R) The people who finally sell the commodities to the consumers are retailers.

(a)Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b)Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A

(c)A is true but R is false

(d)A is false but R is true

98. The Principle of 'Checks and Balances' is related to

(a)Rule of Law (b)Fundamental Law

(c)Fundamental Duties (d)Separation of Powers

99. Which one of the following is not an elected member of the House?

(a)Speaker of the Lok Sabha (b)Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(c)Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (d)Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha

100. India has

(a)basic democracy (b)controlled democracy

(c)guided democracy (d)liberal democracy

education is not the learning of facts, but the training ... · 1. answers are to be ... xerophytic...

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