electrical department under principal ettc/bza lr. no-scr

Model Question Bank for the Ex-Cadre Post of instructor/TRS in Level-7 of VII CPC Pay Matrix,

Electrical Department under Principal ETTC/BZA

Lr. No-SCR/P-HQ/210(a)/EL/TRS/ETTC/BZA Dt.03/08/2021

S.No List of Subjects No. of Questions

1 General 10

2 General Electrical & Electronics 20

3 TRD- Power Supply systems 10

4 Electric locomotives & Trouble Shooting

(conventional and 3-Phase) 130

5 Power and Control circuits of Electric locos/EMU/MEMU&

Analysis of Failures 74

6 Pneumatic Circuits 15

7 Bogies 5

8 Material Management 3

9 Disaster Management(DM) 15

10 Energy Conservation 5

11 Basic Material Engineering 5

12 Vocabulary and Abilities 3

13 Character 2

14 RajBhasha 3

Total 300

1. General

1. Ministerial staff allowed for _______________ days on casual leave.

(a) 10

(b) 8 & 2 RH

(c) 12

(d) 14

2. PH staff allowed for _______________ days casual leave.

(a) 10

(b) 8 & 2 RH

(c) 12

(d) 14

3. The Nodal Officer for each Railway is

a) GM

b) CPO

c) Dy. GM

d) FA&CAO

4. Permanent Pension Account Number will consist of

a) 12 digits

b) 14 digits

c) 16 digits

d) 20 digits

5. A teacher of Railway School can combine with vacation

a) Only LAP

b) Only LHAP

c) Only CL

d) Any kind of leave

6.To manage the functioning of the school GM can engage

a) Part-time teacher

b) Substitute teacher

c) A & B both

d) None

7. In very special circumstances, which authority can revert an officiating

employee in relaxation of the time of 18months.

a) PHOD

b) DRM

c) GM

d) Rly.Board

8. Black board can be included in which group/category of teaching-aids

a) Audio-aids

b) Video-aids

c) Audio-Video aids

d) None

9. An authoritarian level teaching is

a) Teacher-centered

b) Trainee-centered

c) Experience based

d) None

10. Emotional adjustment of trainee’s is effective in

a) Personality formation

b) Class teaching

c) Discipline

d) All of the above

2. General Electrical & Electronics

1. The material used for the laminations of armature core of a D.C.Machine

a. Copper

b. Iron

c. Aluminium

d. SiliconSteel

2. Commutator is used

a. To collect current from armature

b. To rectify the armature AC into DC

c. For both purpose of (a) and (b)

d. None of these

3. In a D.C. Generator the emf is induced in the

a. Field Coils

b. Armature Coils

c. Commentator Segments

d. Brushes

4. The emf generated in a D.C. Generator is

a. Dynamically induced e.m.f.

b. Statically induced e.m.f.

c. Electro statically induced e.m.f.

d. Magnetically induced e.m.f.

5. The e.m.f. of a Generator can be controlled by varying

a. Flux

b. Speed of the Generator

c. No. ofPoles

d. Speed and Flux both

6. The commutator of a D.C. Machine is for

a. Changing AC to DC

b. Regulation

c. Improving commutation

d. Changing Alternating Voltage to Direct Voltage

7. A D.C. Generator works on the

a. Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction

b. Lenz’s Law

c. Ohm’s Law

d. None of the above

8. The electric motor which works on both AC and DC supply system is

a. DC Compound Motor

b. DC Shunt Motor

c. DC Series Motor

d. Universal Motor

9. The function of the starter is

a. To limit the armature current

b. To protect the motor from overloading

c. To protect the motor from overvoltage

d. All of the above

10. The back e.m.f. of DC Motor is zero when

a. The motor is running at its rated speed

b. The motor is running at 80% of its rated speed

c. The motor is about tostart

d. The motor is running at 20% of its rated speed

11. If the flux of DC Motor approaches zero, its speed will be

a. Zero

b. Infinity

c. Between zero and Infinity

d. No change in Speed

12. Series Motor must have some mechanical load in the beginning otherwise

a. It will develop excessive speed and damages itself

b. It will not run at no load

c. The load will act as a starter to the motor

d. All of the above

13. An insulator should have

a. High resistance

b. High Conductance

c. High Conductivity

d. All of the above

14. For a transformer the condition for maximum efficiency is

a. Hysteresis losses = Eddy current losses

b. Copper losses = Hysteresis losses

c. Copper losses = Iron losses

d. Total losses = 2/3 Copper losses

15. Open circuit test on a transformer is carried out to ascertain

a. Copper loss

b. Iron Loss

c. Insulation resistance


16. Distribution transformer have core losses

a. > Copper losses

(b) = Copper losses

(c) < Copper losses

(d) =½ of Copper losses

17. The transformation ratio of a transformer

a. N1/N2

b. I1/I2

c. V1/V2

d. All of the above

18. The leakage flux in a transformer depends upon

a. Applied Voltage

b. Frequency

c. Load Current

d. Mutual Flux

19. The structure of the IGBT is a

a) P-N-P structure connected by a MOS gate

b) N-N-P-P structure connected by a MOS gate

c) P-N-P-N structure connected by a MOS gate

d) N-P-N-P structure connected by a MOS gate

20. The three terminals of the IGBT are

a) base, emitter & collector

b) gate, source & drain

c) gate, emitter & collector

d) base, source & drain

3. TRD- Power Supply systems

1. A neutral section is provided in OHE between two 25 kV, single phase,

50 Hz. traction sub stations due to------

(a) To separate the zones, which fed by the adjacent substation of different phase

(b) To increases the current carrying capacity of the OHE

(c) To minimize the voltage drop in OHE conductors

(d) All of the above

2. Normally, two adjacent 25 kV AC traction sub stations works as in----

(a) Parallel

(b)Series

(c) Independent

(d) Cannot say

3. The distance of OHE section between FP & SSP or SSP & SSP or SSP & SP is called.

(a) Feeding length

(b)Feeding zone

(c)Sector

(d) Subsector

4. The distance of OHE section between FP & SP is called----

(a) Feeding length

(b) Feeding zone

(c)Sector

(d) Sub sector

5. The shortest section of OHE, which can be isolated manually is called------

(a) Elementary section

(b) Feeding zone

(c)Sector

(d) Sub sector

6. Permit To Work (PTW) is essential for working on 25 kV AC OHE or near OHE with in---

(a)1 m

(b)2 m

(c) 3 m

(d) 4m

7. Protection of cross over as per Station Working Rules(SWR),ensure------

(a) Longitudinal protection

(b) Lateral protection

(c) Longitudinal & Lateral protection both

(d) none of the above

8. Expand SCADA?

(a) Supervisory Control & Data Acquisition

(b) Supervisor y Computer & Data Acquisition

(c) Supervisory Control & Discipline Act

(d) Super Computer & Data Acquisition

9. Main line isolator switch is denoted byS.M. i.e.

(a) State Main

(b)Switch Main

(c)Sectioning Main

(d) Siding Main

10. Expand SSP?

a) Sub-Sectioning and Paralleling Post

b) Sub-Sectioning Post

c)Sub-Section Post

d) Sub-Sector Post

4. Electric locomotives (conventional and 3-Phase)

1. Hotel load facility is available in ………………………. loco(s).

a. WAP 5 b. WAP 7

c. All WAP 5 and modified WAP 7 d. All three phase locos

2. In 3Ø MU locos, ……………. panto of leading loco and ………………. panto of

trailing loco will raise.

a. Leading; Leading b. Leading; Trailing

c. Trailing; Leading d. Trailing; Trailing

3. While clearing 3Ø loco (provided with Knorr brake) as dead, mode switch position in

both cabs is ………...

a. HLPR b. Trail

c. Test d. Trail

4. In 3Ø loco, Pressing of BPVG continuously for more than 60 seconds is called

…………….mode.

a. VCD isolation b. Dead man

c. VCD acknowledgement d. None of the above

5. Total oil points in WAG 9 or WAP 7 locos are ……………

a. 7 b. 6

c. 13 d. 11

6. Electrical brake in three phase loco is called as………………

a. Independent loco brake b. Parking brake

c. Re-generative brake d. Automatic train brake

7. WAP 5 loco is having ………… number of drain cocks.

a. 2 b. 3

c. 4 d. 5

8. In three Ø locos, VCD is required to acknowledge once in every ……… seconds.

a. 08 b. 60

c. 68 d. 160 in WAG9 or WAP7 & 120 in WAP5

9. In 3Ø loco, SS 13 belongs to ………………… sub system.

a. Cab 1 b. Cab 2

c. Fire detection d. Auxiliaries in HB 2

10. In 3Ø loco, Auxiliary converter No. 1 feeds to ………………………….motors.

a. Traction Motor Blower 1 & 2 b. Oil cooling Blower 1 & 2

c. Four oil pumps and two MCPS d. All the above

11. In 3 phase locos, auto brake valve handle (A9 in E70 brake system) having

……………….... number of positions.

a. 4 b. 5

c. 6 d. 2

12. In 3Ø loco, Auto brake handle ( A9) can be inserted or taken out in …………..

position.

a. Emergency b. Release

c. Neutral d. Any position

13. Direct brake handle (SA9) is having …………… number of positions in 3 phase locos.

a. 3 b. 2

c. 4 d. 6

14. In 3Ø loco, after raising panto and touches to contact wire …………… transformer

gets supply.

a. Potential b. Main

c. Harmonic filter d. None of the above

15. In 3Ø loco, MCPA works up to ………. Kg/cm2 of RS pressure.

a. 5.2 Kg/cm2 b. 6.0 Kg/cm2

c. 6.4 Kg/cm2 d. 10 Kg/cm2

16. In 3Ø loco, during general check up, …………………………..…… to be checked

which is connected between bogie transom and loco body.

a. Traction frame b. Vertical dampers

c. Helical springs d. Traction link

17. In 3Ø loco, AFL actions are ……………………………………………..……….

…………………………………………………

a. TE/BE drops to ‘O’ b. Flasher Light works

c. BZ-V-O-F sounds d. All the above

18. …………………… type of fire extinguishers are provided in three phase locos.

a. BC b. DCP

c. CO2(Carbon dioxide) d. Fixed DCP & Portable CO2

19. In 3Ø loco, constant speed control will de-activate automatically if BC pressure

increased above ………….. kg/cm2.

a. 1 b. 1.5

c. 0.25 d. 0.6

20. During WAP 5 loco brake testing, loco should not to move up to ………….. KN.

a. 100 b. 150

c. 300 d. 125

21. In 3Ø loco, SS 11 belongs to ………… sub system.

a. Cab 1 b. Cab 2

c. Auxiliaries HB1 d. Auxiliaries HB2

22. In modified three phase loco, flasher light works when BL key is in position(s)……

…………………………………………………....

a. Driving mode b. Cooling mode

c. Driving mode or cooling mode d. Driving mode or cooling mode or in non

working cab

23. In 3Ø loco, on run glowing of BPFA alone indicates ……………… fault

a. Priority 1 b. One of the sub system is isolated

c. Priority 2 d. Priority 1 fault or Priority 2 fault

24. In 3Ø loco, before energising three Ø loco put on battery MCB No. ……….and BA

charger MCB……….

a. 100 ; 110 b. 112.1 ; 110

c. 110 ; 112.1 d. 100 ; 112

25. In 3Ø loco, if any fault occurs, it will be displayed in ……………

a. Memotel b. Display screen

c. a & b of above d. None of the above

26. In three phase locos ………….… number of sub systems are provided.

a. 18 b. 19

c. 17 d. 5

27. If BP is not charging beyond 3 kg/cm2 in In 3Ø Knorr brake loco, keep auto brake

valve(A9) in ……………… position for 10 seconds and bring back to Run.

a. Release b. Full Service

c. Emergency d. Minimum reduction

28. Location of Harmonic filter resistances in 3Ø loco is ………………

a. Loco roof b. Inside FB

c. Machine room No 2 d. By the side of pneumatic panel

29. BL key positions in three Ø loco are………………….…….

a. “OFF” b. “D”

c. “C” d. “OFF” , “D” & “C”

30. In 3Ø locos, LSCE lamp glows when CE temperature is increased more than…...…0C,.

a. 100 b. 92

c. 84 d. 70

31. In 3Ø loco, purpose of ‘Hotel load’ is ……………

a. For working of MU b. For pneumatic supply to coaches

c. For working of coaches d. For electrical supply to complete formation

AC coaches


a. Cab 1 b. Cab 2

c. Auxiliaries HB1 d. Auxiliaries HB2

33. To apply parking brakes in 3Ø dead loco, press. …..… side plunger of solenoid valve.

a. Left b. Right

c. Any plunger d. None of the above

34. In 3Ø loco, UBA meter needle deviates when BL key is in ……………… mode of BL

key.

a. Driving b. Cooling

c. Driving or Cooling d. None of the above

35. In WAP 5 loco, at a time ………….. No. of traction motors can be isolated.

a. 1 b. 2

c. 3 d. None of the above

36. WAG 9 or WAP 7 locos are having …… number of drain cocks.

a. 2 b. 3

c. 4 d. 5

37. In 3Ø loco, to bring isolated sub system into service (system isolated sub system)

procedure is ……………………………..

a. Switch OFF and switch ON CE b. Reset concerned MCB

c. Close concerned COC d. Operate concerned rotating switch

38. In 3Ø loco, in failure mode operation, …………….…….. positions of throttle only will

be in service.

a. 33% b. 67%

c. 100% d. All the above

39. In 3Ø loco, Status code ‘00’ means ………………………………………………

a. Major fault in loco b. No sub system isolated

c. Minor fault in loco d. No fault and No sub system isolated

40. In 3Ø loco, during loco brake test, ensure BC gauge shows ………… kg/cm2, BP

gauge shows ………… kg/cm2 and PB gauge shows ………… kg/cm2.

a. 3.5 , 5 & 0 b. 3.5 , 5 & 6

c. 0, 5 & 6 d. None of the above

41. If speed of the train is increased more than ……… % than loco MPS, emergency

brakes will apply in 3Ø loco.

a. 0.5% b. 5%

c. 10% d. 50%

42. In 3Ø loco, Auxiliary converter No. 3 feeds …………………… motors( write any

two).

a. Three Ø scavenging blower 1&2 b. MCP 1 & 2

c. Battery charger d. All the above

43. In 3Ø loco, Constant speed control (CSC) will be de-activated automatically if BP

pressure drops (with or without A9) more than ……….. kg/cm2 .

a. 1 b. 1.5

c. 0.25 d. 0.6

44. In 3Ø loco, to isolate truck No. 2 (traction converter-2), keep…………..switch

in….…....position.

a. 154 , I b. 154 , II

c. 154 , Norm d. 154 , I & II


a. Battery b. Brake system

c. Auxiliaries HB1 d. Auxiliary converter No. 3

46. In 3Ø loco, Constant speed control (CSC) will be de-activated automatically if throttle

disturbed above ……….. % in TE side or BE side.

a. 33% b. 66%

c. 3% d. No such limit, on moving throttle

47. In 3Ø loco, location of Bogie blower No. 1 is ……………………………………

a. Machine room No. 1( near cab-2) b. Machine room No. 2( near cab-1)

c. Under machine room No. 1 d. Under machine room No. 2

48. In …………. gradient area and terminal goods yards Constant speed control (CSC) of 3

phase loco should not be used.

a. Up b. Down

c. Undulating d. Steep down

49. In 3Ø loco, acknowledge the fault message by pressing ……..……button.

a. ‘Ack’ key in panel C b. BPFA

c. BPCS d. BPVR

50. While working three Ø loco as banker, close ………… COC in pneumatic panel.

a. 70 b. 74

c. 136 d. All the above

51. In 3Ø loco, to reset the Fire detection unit (FDU) press the ……..……button.

a. BPFA b. reset button on FDU

c. Rotate Emergency stop button d. BPVR

52. In 3Ø loco,………………………………………………………………………auxiliary

motors works only in cooling mode(write their names).

a. All three Ø and single Ø motors b. All single Ø motors and MCP 1 & 2

c. Only single Ø motors & MCPA d. None of the above

53. In three Ø loco, if ‘Catenary voltage out of limit’ appears on screen, change

………………….. Fuse after lowering panto and try.

a. FL b. CCBA

c. No need to Change d. Potential Transformer

54. In three Ø loco, SS 09 belongs to ………………… sub system.

a. Battery system b. Brake system

c. Auxiliaries HB1 d. Auxiliary converter No. 3

55. In 3 phase knorr brake loco, rear cab mode switch position is ………………….

a. HLPR b. Lead

c. Trail d. Test

56. To reset VCD in WAP 5 loco, wait for ………… Seconds

a. 0 b. 160

c. 240 d. 120

57. In 3 phase loco cab changing is to be done with in ……… minutes otherwise CE will

switch OFF.

a. 10 b. 0

c. 15 d. 20

58. In 3 phase locos, Harmonic filter resistances are cooled by …………………..

a. Atmospheric air b. Blower

c. Pneumatic pressure d. None of the above

59. In 3 phase locos, in cooling mode, for panto and DJ ……………. Creates pressure.

a. MCPs b. MCPA

c. Both a and b d. None of the above

60. In three Ø loco potential transformer is connected to …………… roof bar.

a. Middle b. Panto 1

c. Panto d. None of the above

61. How many times operates the operating handle to apply hand brake:-

a) 20 Times b) 25 times c) 12 to 16 Times d) 10 Times

62. What will be the position of hand brake to release hand brake:-

a) Upwards b) Downwards c) On mid position d) none

63. On what position of HCP will MPV-1 or MPV-2 work:-

a) 1.2 b) 1.2.3 c) 1 or 2 or 3 d) 1.3

64. Supply goes to ATFEX through closing of C-145 from:-

a) TF-P-2 b) TFP-1 c) TFP-1 & 2 d) None.

65. The position of line contactor during rehostatic braking should be:-

a) L1 to L6 close b) L1 to L6 open

c) L1 to L3 close & L4 to L 6 open d) L 1 to L 3 open & L 4 to L 6 close.

66. When DJ trips on manual control of GR. How can be GR brought to:-

a) By keeping MP on ‘0’ b) By keeping MP on ‘N’

c) By manual operation of GR d) None.

67. In modified loco A1 shows the current of:-

a) TM-1 b) TM-2 c) TM-3 d) TM-4

68. In modified loco, U1 shows:-

a) Voltage of TM-1 b) Voltage of TM-2

c) Voltage of TM-3 d) Voltage of TM-4.

69. In modified loco U2 shows:-


c) Voltage of TM-3 d) Voltage of TM-4.

70. In modified WAG-5 loco A2 shows:-

a) Current of TM-3 b) Current of TM-4

c) Current of TM-5 d) Current of TM-6.

71. In modified WAG-5 loco U3 shows:-


c) Voltage of TM-5 d) None.

72. In modified WAG-5 loco U4 shows:-


c) Voltage of TM-6 d) None.

73. Rehostatic braking will be restricted if:-

a) Relay Q 50 wedge b) Any block made isolate

c) Line contactors are wedged d) All above.

74. How many position of A9:-

a) Two b) Three c) Four d) Five.

75. When A9 moved from release position to minimum reduction the BP pressure reduces up to:-

a) 4.5 – 4.8 kg/cm2 b) 3.5 -3.8 kg/ cm2

c) 2.5-2.8 kg/cm2 d) None.

76. When A9 moved from release position to full service the BP pressure reduces up to:-

a) 4.5- 4.8 kg/cm2 b) 3.5- 3.8 kg/cm2

c) 2.5-2.2kg/cm2 d) None.

77. When A9 moved from release position to over reduction the BP pressure reduces up to:-

a) 4.5 – 4.8 kg/cm2 b) 3.5-3.8 kg/cm2

c) 2.5-2.8 kg/cm2 d) None.

78. What to do when locomotive stops within the PTFE neutral section?

a) Close the DJ and resume traction

b) Lower the rear panto and raise front panto

c) Ask for relief

d) None.

79. There is facility of opening DJ of front loco from rear loco in multiple units:-

a) Yes b) No c) Through BP-1 DJ only d) None.

80. In case of EEC working in multiple unit, ZSMS should be kept on ‘0’ is:_

a) Leading loco b) Trailing loco c) Both locos d) None.

81. If HQCVAR of front loco is on ‘0’ during multiple unit operation than:-

a) Never close DJ separately b) Close DJ separately

c) Close DJ of leading loco d) Close DJ of trailing loco.

82. What is the voltage of a cell of battery?

a) 2.2 V b) 5 V c) 2 V d) None.

83. To whom battery charger connected with:-

a) U & V phase of Arno b) U&W phase of Arno

c) V& W phase of Arno d) W&O phase of Arno.

84. What is the value of resistance RHOBA?

a) 100 ohm b) 180 ohm c) 200 ohm d) 1800 ohm

85. Why LTBA provided on Loco?

a) To protect the power CKT from heavy over voltage

b) To protect the control circuit from heavy over voltage.

c) To protect the control and power circuit from heavy over voltage.

d) None.

86. What is the required amount of pressure to raise the pantograph?

a) More than 8 kg/cm2 b) More than 9 kg/cm2

c) More than 7.5 kg/cm2 d) More than 6.5 kg/cm2

87. What is the requirement to raise the pantograph?

a) Fuse CCBA provided in proper condition

b) CCPT intact in proper condition

c) RS pressure more than 6.5 kg/cm2

d) All above.

88. What we check if MCPA not working?

a) Fuse CCBA b) ZCPA on position ‘1’

c) Wire connection of ZCPA d) All above.

89. What is the value of spark over voltage of ET-1?

a) 67.5 KV b) 125 KV c) 100 KV d) 67 KV.

90. What is the value of spark over voltage of ET-2?

a) 67. 5 KV b) 125 KV c) 67. 5 Volts d) 125 Volts.

91. What is the standard gap of ET-2?

a) 70 mm b) 210 mm c) 70 cm d) 210 cm.

92. What is the setting of relay QLM?

a) 300 volts b) 300 Amp c) 450 Amp d) 125 Amp.

93. How many turns on main winding of TFWR?

a) 32 b) 1040 c) 24 d) 288.

94. How many turns on TFP?

a) 32 b) 1040 c) 24 d) 288.

95. What is the value of RGR?

a) 1.61 ohm b) 1.61 Kilo ohm c) 1 lac. Ohm d) None.

96. How much the maximum axle load of WAG-7 loco?

a) 20 T b) 20.5 T c) 18.8 T d) None.

97. What is the gear ratio of gear in WAG-7 loco?

a) 16:65 b) 18:65 c) 21:65 d) None

98. The maximum starting current for 2 min (in WAG-7 loco) is:-

a) 1300 Amp b) 1150 Amp c) 900 Amp d) 750 Amp.

99. In WAG-7 loco, what is the maximum starting current for 10 min.?

a. a) 1250 Amp b) 1150 Amp c) 900 Amps d) 750 Amp.

100. In WAG-7 loco, what is the maximum continuous current rating?

a) 1250 Amp b) 1150Amp c) 900Amp d) 750 Amp.

101. What is the setting of relay QLM in WAG-7 loco?

a) 450 Amp b) 300 Amp c) 3600 Amp d) None.

102. What is the setting of QRSI-1/2 in WAG-7 loco?

a) 3600 Amp b) 4000 Amp c) 300 Amp d) None.

103. IN between CP and NR valve, un-loader valve is operated by:-

a) Q119 b) Q118 c) Q47 d) Q51.

104. In cab-1, U 2 indicates in WAG-7 loco?


c) Voltage of TM-3 d) Current of TM-2.

105. Why in fifth notch LSDBR not extinguishes in WAG-7 loco?

a) Thermal relay trip b) MVRF not working

c) IP magnet valve is de-energized d) C-145 in opened

106. What is the location of R-1 cock in modular WAG-7?

a) PC-1 b) Near wheel no. 7

c) Near wheel no.4 d) Near wheel no. 6.

107. Which pressure applied to touch panto with OHE contact wire?

a) RS pressure b) Lowering spring c) Raising spring d) MR pressure.

108. In modified WAG-7, arrangements of meters in cab-2 are:-

a) A 1/1 A1/2 U1 b) A 2/1 A 2/2 U2

a) c) A1 U1 U2 d) A4 U5 U6.

109. Which line contactor will not pick up when HMCS-2 is placed on position ‘3’.

a) L3 b) L4 c) L5 d) L6.

110. Relay QD pick up in WAG-7 loco on:-

a) 125 Amp current difference b) 150 Amp current difference

c) 125 Volts difference d) 80 Amp current difference.

111. The following relay protects the GR when struck up on full notches?

a) Q52 b) Q44 c) Q 46 d) Q47.

112. Head light glowing dim even BLPRF is close Why?

a) Bright filament melted b) Fuse of DC-DC converter melted

c) BLPRF of rear cab is closed d) BLPRD of rear cab is closed.

113. On which part locos weight is applied first:-

a) Primary spring b) Secondary spring

c) Pivot d) Wheel.

114. What indication will come if L1 not closing in WAG-7 loco?

a) U1 not deviates b) Auto regress will appear

c) A1 not deviates d) Total loss of tractive efforts.

115. Which circuit will work on keeping ZSMS on position ‘1’ (in WAG-7)?

a) MP circuit b) EEC circuit c) MP & EEC circuit d) None.

116. What type of bogie in WAG-7?

a) Flexi coil b) Cast steel c) Fabricated d) None.

117. What is necessary condition to work ACP circuit in WAP-4 Loco:-

a) CCLSA should be intact b) MPJ should be on ‘F’ or ‘R’

c) A & B d) None of these

118. Which type of traction Motors are used in WAP-4:-

a) TAU 659 b) Hitachi c) MG d) HEE

119. How do you work the train when MPH made isolated in WAP-4:-

a) Current restriction of 450 Amp.( Max) b) If load and road permits

c) Ensure the working of MVRH d) All above

120. The relay QRS de-energizes through in WAP-4:-

a) H5 and RGEB b) HB and RGEB

c) RGAF d) RGEB

121. LSB lamps glow continuous on wedging line contractors through in WAP-4:-

a) Q 48 b) Q 50 c) Q 51 d) Q52

122. How do you work train when MVRH made isolated in WAP-4:-

a) Ensure working of MPH b) Q 118 should be wedge

c) Current restriction of 450 Amp. d) All above

123. How do you MVMT made isolate in WAP-4:-

a) By keeping HVMT, HVSL, HVSI on ‘0’

b) By keeping HVMT, HMCS, HVSI on ‘0’

c) By keeping HMCS, HVMT on ‘0’

d) By keeping HVMT on ‘0’

124. What will happened when Q 20 energize in WAP-4:-

a) DJ trip b) Sound the buzzer and auto regression

c) Sound the buzzer d) LSP glows

125. What is the setting of Q 20 in WAP-4:-

a) 900 Volts b) 850 Volts c) 700 volts d) 750 Volts

126. What is the rating of transformer in WAP-4:-

a) 3900 KVA b) 3460 KVA c) 5400 KVA d) 3150 KVA

127. What is the setting of QRSI in WAP-4:-

a) 3600 Amp b) 4000 Amp c) 3000 Amp d) None

128. What is the current rating to energize and de-energize the QD in WAP-4:-

a) 125 / 80 Amps. b) 150 / 125 Amps.

c) 150 / 80 Amps. d) 180 / 125 Amps.

129. What is the setting of QLA in WAP-4:-

a) 3000 Amp b) 4000 Amp c) 2000 Amp d) None

130. Which relay de-energize during train parting in WAP-4:-

a) QRS b) Q 120 c) Q 118 d) None

5. Power and Control circuits of Electric locos/EMU/MEMU

a. Feeding Power Circuit And Auxiliary Power Circuit:

1. ……………………. Equipment collects OHE supply to loco.

a) DJ b) Roof bars

c) Pantograph: d) HPT

2. In conventional locos, panto-1 electro valve is ……………

a) VEPT-1 b) VEPT-2

c) ZPT-1 d) ZPT-2

3. In conventional locos, panto-2 electro valve is ……………

a) VEPT-1 b) VEPT-2

c) ZPT-1 d) ZPT-2

4. When cab-1 ZPT is on ‘1’ position, ……………panto raises.

a) Both pantos b) PT-1

c) PT-2 d) None



c) PT-2 d) None



c) PT-2 d) None


a) PT-2 b) PT-1

c) Both pantos d) None

8. To isolate panto-1 electrically (HT side) …………… to be disconnected from roof

bars.

a) VEPT-1 b) HPT-2

c) HPT-1 d) VEPT-2

9. To isolate panto-2 electrically (HT side) ……………to be disconnected from roof

bars.

a) VEPT-1 b) HPT-2

c) HPT-1 d) VEPT-2

10. ZPT is having ………………………. Positions.

a) 0 , 1 , 2 & 3 b) 0 , 1 & 2

c) 0 , 1 & 1/2 d) 0 , 1 & 2/3

11. Total no. of roof bars provided in WAG 5 loco are ……………

a) 6 b) 6+2

c) 4 d) 4+2

12. Total no.of roof bars provided in WAP 4 loco are …………….

a) 6 b) 6+2

c) 4 d) 4+2

13. ……………… equipment connects the roof bars and Main Transformer.

a) DJ b) Roof bushing bar or HT cable

c) Pantograph d) All of the above

14. In conventional locos, to close DJ ………………………….. BL switches are to be

operated.

a) BLDJ b) BLRDJ

c) BLDJ, BLRDJ d) BLSN

15. In VCB type (DI) DJ, to close & maintain DJ……………………. Electrovalve(s)

is to be energized.

a) MTDJ b) MTDJ & EFDJ

c) C118 d) EFDJ

16. To close DJ, ……………… push button switch(es) can be operated in place of

BLRDJ.

a) BP1DJ b) BP2DJ

c) BPT d) BP1DJ and BP2DJ

17. QLM is ………………….. type of safety relay.

a) Earth fault b) Over voltage

c) over current d) Special purpose

18. QLM is provided in ………………….. circuit.

a) Auxiliary power b) Feeding power

c) TFP-1 d) TFP-2

19. In WAG5 or WAM4 locos QLM is set at ………………. Amps of current.

a) 325 b) 450

c) 300 d) 400

20. In WAG7/WAP4 locos QLM is set at ………………. Amps of feeding power

circuit.

a) 325 b) 450

c) 300 d) 400

21. In few locos in place of roof bushing bar ……………………. is provided.

a) LT cable b) LT & HT cables

c) HT cable d) None

22. In conventional locos, HOM can be operated by ……………… key.

a) BL b) ZPT

c) MPJ d) Separate

23. When panto is raised and DJ is in open position ………… protects roof equipment

against surge voltage.

a) ET TFP 1 b) ET 2

c) ET 1 d) ET TFP 2

24. After closing DJ, ………… protects main transformer against surge voltage.

a) ET TFP 1 b) ET 2

c) ET 1 d) ET TFP 2

b. Tap Changer And Auxiliary Control Circuit

1. Controlling fuse for SMGR control circuit is .................. .

a) CCPT b) CCA

c) CCBA d) CCDJ

2. On run when GR is on notches and CCPT is melted,...................................

happens in the loco.

a) Panto lowers b) GR comes to zero

c) DJ trips d) Both a &c

3. Earth fault in QTD105 relay coil causes melting of..................fuse.

a) CCA b) CCPT

c) CCBA d) None

4. When notches are not progressing & regressing by MP, try with .............

a) EEC operation b) GR manual operation

c) Ask for relief loco d) None of the above

5. The capacity of CCPT is........ Amps.

a) 16 b) 6

c) 10 d) 35

6. When Pacco switch is in pressed condition, crew experiences

.............................................................................. Traction failure.

a) TLTE with LSB b) TLTE without LSB

c) Auto regression with LSP d) None of the above

7. The SMGR pressure should be between......................... to ..............kg/cm2.

a) 2.5 to 3.5 b) 3.0 to 3.5

c) 3.5 to 4.0 d) Any one of the above

8. If Q52 is permanently energised, crew experiences

............................................................... Traction failure.



9. ......................relay is as called auto regression relay.

a) Q52 b) Q51

c) Q50 d) Q48

10. Q52 is as called as ................................................................................. relay.

a) Auto regression b) Notch by notch progression or

regression

c) GR full notch protection d) GR half notch protection

11. Before taking notches, if Q51 is in energised condition crew experiences

...........................................................Traction failure.



12. GR travelling time (0 to 32 notches) for progression is......................seconds.

a) 11 to 13 b) 10 to 12

c) 32 d) 15

13. When rear cab BL is not locked properly, crew experiences

........................................................... Traction failure.

a) TLTE with LSB b) TLTE with out LSB

c) Auto regression with LSP d) 1st notch auto regression with out

LSP

14. While operating GR manually .................. equipment to be observed.

a) PHGR b) RPGR

c. Traction Power Circuits 1 & 2

1. Traction motor meter connections in cab-1are .......................................................

and in cab2 are .......................................................

a) U1-TM1, U2-TM2, A3-TM3, A4-

TM4, U5-TM5, U6-TM6,

b) A1-TM1, U2-TM2, U3-TM3,

A4-TM4, U5-TM5, U6-TM6,

c) A1-TM3, A2-TM4, U1-TM1, A4-

TM4, U5-TM5, U6-TM6,

d) None of the above

2. Starting current rating up to 2 minutes for WAG-7 loco TMs is…………… Amps.

a) 1200 b) 1250

c) 1300 d) 1350

3. Continuous current rating of WAG-7 loco TMs is…………… Amps.

a) 960 b) 750

c) 1150 d) 900

4. Continuous current rating of TMs in WAP-4 loco is…………… Amps.

a) 870 b) 960

c) 750 d) 900

5. QRSI-1 setting in WAG-5 is…………… Amps and in WAG-7 loco is……………

Amps.

a) 3300 , 3600 b) 3000 , 4000

c) 4000 , 4500 d) 3600 , 4000

c) CGR arc-chutes d) RGR

15. For operating GR manually take out ZSMGR handle from................ position .

a) 6O’ clock b) 7 O’ clock

c) 3 O’ clock d) 5 O’clock

16. While operating GR manually GR shall be rotated within........ seconds.

a) 0.5 b) 0.6

c) 5 d) None of above

17. While operating GR manually rotate GR in clock wise direction for...................

a) Regression b) Quick progression

c) Quick regression d) Progression

18. In EEC operation ....................................... switches are to be used for

progression and regression.

a) BPP & BPR b) BPP & BPT

c) BPR & BPT d) BPSW

19. Whenever DJ is tripped on notches GR comes to zero by .................... relay.

a) Q52 b) Q51

c) Q46 d) Q50

20. While operating GR manually MP should be placed in .............. position.

a) O b) +

c) - d) N

6. During RB, MVRF motor gets feed from ………….. TM.

a) TM-1 b) TM-2

c) TM-4 d) TM-6

7. Q20 relay is connected across ……………. circuit

a) Across TPC-1 b) Across TPC-2

c) Across both TPC-1 & TPC-2 d) Across Aux power circuit

8. QD actions are …………………………………………………………………

a) Auto regression of few notches b) Auto sanding

c) LSP glows d) All the above

9. To isolate the TM-1 in WAG-5 loco, keep HMCS-1 in ........ position and

pack.................... bit on –ve side of TM.

a) 2 , J1-6th b) 2 , J1-8th

c) 2 , J2-8th d) 3 , J1-8th

10. To isolate the TM-5 in WAG-7 loco, keep HMCS-2 in ........ position and

pack.................... bit on –ve side of TM..

a) 3 , J1-10th b) 3 , J1-8th

c) 3 , J2-10th d) 3 , J2-8th

11. To isolate the TM-3 in WAP-4 loco (without RB), keep HMCS-1 in ........ position

and pack.................... bit on –ve side of TM..

a) 4 , J1-12th b) 4 , J1-12th

c) 4 , J2-6th d) 4 , J1-6th

12. To isolate the TM-4 in WAP-4 loco (with RB), keep HMCS-2 in ........ position and

pack.................... bit on –ve side of TM..

a) 2 , J2-6th b) 2 , J2-8th

c) 1 , J2-6th d) 2 , J1-8th

13. …………….. signalling lamp glows in both cabs when any one of RSI block tell

tale fuse projects.

a) LSCHBA b) LSP

c) LSB d) LSRSI

14. QD-1 is connected between.............. and .................traction motors.

a) TM2 & TM3 b) TM1 & TM-3

c) TM1 & T M2 d) None of the above

d. J1, J2, Ctfs, Line And Shunting Contactors Control Circuits

1. The controlling fuse for reversers control circuit is………………….

a) CCA b) CCDJ

c) CCPT d) CCLS

2. When MPJ is put to forward in cab1, the J1 & J2 handles position is

………..……

a) J1 up, J2 down b) J1 down, J2 up

c) both J1,J2 down d) both J1,J2 up

3. When MPJ is put to forward in cab2, the J1 & J2 handles position are

………..……

a) both J1,J2 down b) both J1,J2 up

c) J1 up,J2 down d) J1 down,J2 up

4. When TLTE with LSB is experienced, it indicates .................... relay is not

energized.

a) Q50 b) Q51

c) Q52 d) Q48

5. When MP is in traction side, the CTF1, CTF2 & CTF3 handles position is

……………………………..

a) CTF1, CTF2 up & CTF3 down b) CTF1, CTF2 down & CTF3 up

c) CTF1, CTF2, CTF3 down d) CTF1, CTF2 & CTF3 up

6. When MP is in braking side, the CTF1, CTF2 & CTF3 handles position is

……………………………..

a) CTF1, CTF2, CTF3 up b) CTF1, CTF2 & CTF3 down

c) CTF1, CTF2 down & CTF3 up d) CTF1, CTF2 up & CTF3 down

7. The correct preparation for traction as well as braking is supervised by

................ relay.

a) Q52 b) Q51

c) Q50 d) Q49

8. The C145 contactor position is.................... when MP is in traction side.

a) open b) close

c) either close or open d) neither close nor open

e. Lt Test , Sanders Control Circuit & Loco Checking

1. During LT test .......................... interlock closes parallel to Q44 N/O IL on

the MTDJ branch.

a) ZPT b) BV

c) BL d) None

2. During LT test while closing DJ .........................................branches

energizes (write the names).

a) Q118,Q44 b) MTDJ, C118

c) Q118,Q45,MTDJ d) ALL

3. During LT test while closing the DJ, close BLDJ , Press BLRDJ and release

BLRDJ after ...............................

a) Extinguishing of LSDJ b) Deviation of UA Meter

c) Extinguishing of LSCHBA d) None

f. static converter & Micro processor

1. Time delay of QTD 101 relay is ...................... seconds.

a) 2 b) 5

c) 0.6 d) 60

2. When SIV is working ……………. relay energises.

a) QSIT b) QCON

c) QCVAR d) None of these

3. .................. & ...............Safety relays are removed in static converter locos.

a) QLM & QLA b) QOP1 & 2

c) QRSI 1 & 2 d) QOA & QLA

4. ............ & .......... time delay relays are removed in static converter locos.

a) QTD 105 & 106 b) QTD 100

c) QTD 107 & 108 d) None of these

5. ............ & .......... bushings of TFWA are newly provided in static converter

locos.

a) A0 & A1 b) a7 & a8

c) a0 & a1 d) None of these

6. Pneumatic Circuits

1) In each cab A9 feed valve is having ..................... No. of cut out cocks

a) 1 b) 2

c) 3 d) 4

2) A9 positions are,........................................................................................

……………………………………………......

a) Release and minimum reduction

b) Full service and Over

reduction

c) Emergency d) All the above

3) In conventional locos BP pressure is adjusted by keeping A9 feed valve handle in

................................ position.

a) Full service position b) Release position

c) Over reduction position d) Emergency position

4) In conventional locos rear cab A9 handle Position is ...............................

a) Full service b) Release

c) Over reduction d) Emergency

5) MU2B is having ................ No. of positions

a) 1 b) 2

c) 3 d) 4

6) MU2B positions are.................. ………………….

a) Lead b) Trail

c) Lead and Trail d) None of the above.

7) In conventional locos,...................pressure switch is provided on A9 control pipe

line (related to AFL).

a) P1 b) P2

c) RGCP d) RGAF

8) In conventional locos, ................... Pressure switch is provided on BP pipe line

(related to AFL).

a) P1 b) P2

c) RGCP d) RGAF

9) In conventional locos, ..........reservoir pressure is used for creation of BP pressure.

a) MR1 b) MR2

c) MR3 d) MR4

10) In conventional locos,....................reservoir pressure is used for FP pressure

creation.

a) MR1 b) MR2

c) MR3 d) MR4

11) In conventional locos, ..............reservoir pressure is used for creation of loco BC

pressure.

a) MR1 b) MR2

c) MR3 d) MR4

12) In conventional locos , A9 feed valve is having ……... No. of pipe lines in each cab.

a) 1 b) 2

c) 3 d) 4

13) If conventional loco moving as dead along with train, to avoid wheel

skidding………………to be isolated

a) C3W b) C2A relay valve

c) SA9 and A9 d) A8

14) In conventional locos, A8 coc Position while working with cab2 leading

is……………..

a) Partially open b) partially closed

c) Open d) Close

15) WAP-4 loco having................number of Main reservoirs

a) 3 b) 4

c) 5 d) 6

7. Bogies

1. No of Axle dampers per bogie in 3 ph locos

a) 8 b)6 c) 02 d) 4

2. No of Earth return carbon brushes provided per axle boxes in which earth return current

equipment is provided.

a) 4 b) 6 c) 3 D) 5

3. Number of Brake cylinders provided in WAP7 locos

A) 2 B) 4 C ) 6 D) 8

4. PBUS is provided in which type of locos

A) WAG-9 B) WAP7 C) WAP-4 D) WAG-7

5. PBUs are provided on which Wheel numbers

A) 2,5,6&12 B) 3,4,8&9 C) 1,5,8&11 D) 2,6,7& 11

8. Material Management

1. Track fittings are purchased by:

a. Stores Department

b. Mechanical Department

c. Engineering Department

d. Traffic Department

2. Purchase of imported WTA items is handled by

a. RWF

b. ICF

c. Zonal Railways

d. Railway Board

3. Time elapsed from the date of realization of need of recoupment to the physical receipt of

material is termed as

a. Buffer time

b. Interim period

c. Contract period

d. Lead time

9. Disaster Management (DM)

1. Hazards and Disasters are mainly classified as

a. Physical and chemical

b. Natural and Human induced

c. Physical and Human

d. Social and cultural

2. A hazard is a situation where there is

a. Threat of natural calamity

b. Threat to property and lives from calamities

c. Threat for consequences of disaster

d. All of the above

3. Disaster is an event arising out of

a. Result of hazard event

b. Causes of hazard event

c. Causes of disaster event

d. All of the above

4. The typical examples of man-made disasters are

a. Chemical explosion

b. Leakage of toxic waste

c. War and civil strife

d. All of the above

5. What are the consequences of disaster on a society?

a. Loss of life

b. Damage to property

c. Environmental Damages

d. All of the above

6. The scientific study of earthquake is called

a. Seismograph

b. Seismology

c. Both a and b


7. What is the name of instrument used for measuring earthquake intensity?

a. Modified Mercalli Scale

b. Metrological scale

c. Vernier scale

d. Barometer

8. The primary result of earthquakes is

a. Building and bridge collapsed

b. Rapture of water and gas pipelines

c. Change in course of river and creation of new islands

d. All of the above

9. What are the major consequences of Tropical cyclones?

a. Fierce wind

b. Heavy rain

c. Storm surge

d. All of the above

10. The major man made causes of floods are

a. Deforestation

b. Siltation

c. Bursting of dam

d. All of the above

11. Mass killing diseases can be referred as

a. Biological disaster

b. Industrial disaster

c. War disaster

d. Flood disaster

12. The term Influenza implies to

a. Groin

b. Flu

c. Both a and b

d. None of these

13. Which is the main cause of cholera?

a. Poor sanitation

b. Floods

c. Air pollution

d. Poor nutrition

14. The role of which agency is important in disaster prevention.

a. Media

b. Police

c. Government officials

d. Public

15. SAARC Disaster Management Centre is at?

a. Dhaka

b. Coloumbo

c. New Delhi

d. Khatmandu

10. Energy Conservation

1. The energy sources, that are either found or stored in nature are

a) Secondary Energy Sources b) Primary Energy Sources

c) both (a) and (b) d) none of the above

2. Natural Gas contains ?

a) 95-99% methane b) 95-99% Ethane c) 95-99% methane & ethane

mix

d) None

3. Inexhaustible energy sources are known as

a) commercial Energy b) renewable Energy

c) primary energy d) secondary energy

4. “The judicious and effective use of energy to maximize profits and enhance

competitive positions”. This can be the definition of:

a) Energy conservation

b) Energy management

c) Energy policy

d) Energy Audit

5. The energy management function is generally vested in –

(a) Senior Management

(b) One energy manager or co-ordinator

(c) Distributed among number of middle manager

(d) (b) & (c) together

11. Basic Material Engineering

1. Unit of Magnetic Flux is

a. Weber

b. Lines of Forces

c. Henry

d. None

2. Unit of Magnetic Flux density is

a. Weber

b. Tesla (Wb/m2)

c. Henry

d. None

3. One Weber is equals to

a. 108 Lines of Force

b. 106 Lines of Force

c. 109 Lines of Force

d. None

4. Magnetic cores are made up of laminations in order to

a. Reduce vibrations

b. Increase strength

c. Reduce iron losses


5. The energy stored in an inductor is equal to

a. LI

b. LI2

c. ½LI

d. ½LI2

12. Vocabulary and Abilities

1. The government has _________smoking in public places.

A) Prevented B) Banned C ) Avoided D ) Stopped

2. The police ______the man because he was behaving suspiciously.

a) Arrested B ) Sentenced C) Charged D) Convicted.

3. My mother _________me for breaking the window.

a) Accused B) Complained C) Charged D) Blamed

13. Character

1. Which of the following is not a covert behavior?

a) Thinking

b) Feeling

c) Dreaming

d) Talking

2. Which of the following is not an overt behavior?

a) Dreaming

b) Walking

c) Laughing

d) Fighting

14. Rajbhasha

1. What is the Official Language of Union of India?

a)Hindi in Devnagari Script b) Hindi in Sanskrit Script c)Hindi d) None of the above

2. On which date Part XVII of the Constitution was passed in Parliament?

a) 19.09.1947 b) 14.09.1949 c) 14.07.1949 d) 19.07.1947

3. When was Official Language Act 1963 passed?

a)10.05.1963 b) 10.05.1967

c) 15.05.1963 d) 15.05.1967

Key

1. General:

Q.1 B

Q.2 D

Q.3 D

Q.4 C

Q.5 D

Q.6 B

Q.7 C

Q.8 B

Q.9 A

Q.10 D

2. General Electrical & Electronics:

Q.1 D Q.14 C

Q.2 C Q.15 B

Q.3 B Q.16 C

Q.4 A Q.17 B

Q.5 D Q.18 C

Q.6 D Q.19 C

Q.7 A Q.20 C

Q.8 D

Q.9 D

Q.10 C

Q.11 B

Q.12 A

Q.13 A

3. TRD- Power Supply systems

Q.1 A

Q.2 D

Q.3 D

Q.4 C

Q.5 A

Q.6 B

Q.7 B

Q.8 A

Q.9 B

Q.10 A

4. Electric locomotives (conventional and 3-Phase)

Q.1 C Q.16 D Q.31 D Q.46 C Q.61 C Q.76 B Q.91 A Q.106 B

Q.2 B Q.17 D Q.32 D Q.47 B Q.62 A Q.77 C Q.92 B Q.107 C

Q.3 D Q.18 C Q.33 A Q.48 C Q.63 C Q.78 B Q.93 B Q.108 D

Q.4 B Q.19 D Q.34 C Q.49 B Q.64 B Q.79 B Q.94 D Q.109 C

Q.5 C Q.20 A Q.35 B Q.50 A Q.65 B Q.80 C Q.95 A Q.110 B

Q.6 C Q.21 C Q.36 C Q.51 B Q.66 C Q.81 A Q.96 B Q.111 C

Q.7 D Q.22 D Q.37 A Q.52 C Q.67 C Q.82 A Q.97 A Q.112 D

Q.8 B Q.23 C Q.38 D Q.53 D Q.68 A Q.83 A Q.98 A Q.113 C

Q.9 A Q.24 B Q.39 D Q.54 A Q.69 B Q.84 B Q.99 B Q.114 A

Q.10 B Q.25 B Q.40 B Q.55 C Q.70 B Q.85 B Q.100 C Q.115 C

Q.11 C Q.26 B Q.41 C Q.56 D Q.71 C Q.86 D Q.101 A Q.116 C

Q.12 C Q.27 B Q.42 D Q.57 A Q.72 C Q.87 D Q.102 B Q.117 C

Q.13 B Q.28 A Q.43 C Q.58 A Q.73 D Q.88 D Q.103 A Q.118 B

Q.14 A Q.29 D Q.44 B Q.59 B Q.74 D Q.89 B Q.104 B Q.119 D

Q.15 B Q.30 D Q.45 B Q.60 A Q.75 A Q.90 A Q.105 B Q.120 D

5. Power and Control circuits of Electric locos/EMU/MEMU

a. Feeding Power Circuit And Auxiliary Power Circuit

Q.1 C Q.11 B Q.21 C

Q.2 A Q.12 D Q.22 B

Q.3 B Q.13 B Q.23 C

Q.4 C Q.14 C Q.24 B

Q.5 B Q.15 A

Q.6 B Q.16 B

Q.7 A Q.17 C

Q.8 C Q.18 B

Q.9 B Q.19 A

Q.10 B Q.20 B

Q.121 B

Q.122 D

Q.123 D

Q.124 B

Q.125 C

Q.126 C

Q.127 B

Q.128 A

Q.129 C

Q.130 B

b. Tap Changer And Auxiliary Control Circuit

Q.1 A Q.11 B

Q.2 D Q.12 A

Q.3 A Q.13 D

Q.4 A Q.14 D

Q.5 A Q.15 C

Q.6 B Q.16 A

Q.7 A Q.17 D

Q.8 B Q.18 A

Q.9 B Q.19 D

Q.10 B Q.20 D

c. Traction Power Circuits 1 & 2

Q.1 A Q.11 D

Q.2 C Q.12 B

Q.3 D Q.13 D

Q.4 D Q.14 A

Q.5 D

Q.6 A

Q.7 A

Q.8 D

Q.9 B

Q.10 C

d. J1, J2, Ctfs, Line And Shunting Contactors Control Circuits

Q.1 C

Q.2 D

Q.3 A

Q.4 A

Q.5 D

Q.6 B

Q.7 C

Q.8 A

e. Lt Test , Sanders Control Circuit & Loco Checking

Q.1 B

Q.2 D

Q.3 A

f. Static Converter And Micro Processor

Q.1 B

Q.2 B

Q.3 D

Q.4 A

Q.5 B

6. Pneumatic Circuits

Q.1 B

Q.2 D

Q.3 B

Q.4 B

Q.5 B

Q.6 C

Q.7 A

Q.8 B

Q.9 C

Q.10 B

Q.11 D

Q.12 C

Q.13 A

Q.14 C

Q.15 C

7.Bogies

Q.1 D

Q.2 B

Q.3 D

Q.4 A

Q.5 D

8. Material Management

Q.1 C

Q.2 D

Q.3 D

9. Disaster Management (DM)

Q.1 B

Q.2 B

Q.3 A

Q.4 D

Q.5 D

Q.6 B

Q.7 A

Q.8 D

Q.9 D

Q.10 D

Q.11 A

Q.12 B

Q.13 A

Q.14 A

Q.15 C

10. Energy Conservation

Q.1 B

Q.2 A

Q.3 B

Q.4 B

Q.5 D

11. Basic Material Engineering

Q.1 A

Q.2 B

Q.3 A

Q.4 C

Q.5 D

12. Vocabulary and Abilities

Q.1 B

Q.2 A

Q.3 D

13. Character

Q.1 D

Q.2 A

14. RajBhasha

Q.1 A

Q.2 B

Q.3 A

electrical department under principal ettc/bza lr. no-scr

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