Employee Testing and SelectionMultiple Choice

1. Hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards is considered _____.a. improper hiringb. negligent hiringc. appropriate depending upon the jobd. negligent intente. unwise, but not illegal(b; moderate; p. 194)

2. Which of the following is an example of a reliable test?a. one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate

forms of the test b. one that yields one score on a test and a different, but better score on

the same test taken on a different occasionc. one that yields the same score from two different people taking the test

on the same occasiond. one that yields different scores from two different people taking the

test on different occasionse. one that includes questions that are not repetitive in any way(a; difficult; p. 195)

3. If a person scores a 90 on an intelligence test on one day and scores 130 when retested on another day, you might conclude that this test is _____.a. validb. invalidc. reliabled. unreliablee. inconsistent(d; moderate; p. 195)

4. If a person scores a 78 on a test on one day and scores a 79 when retested on another day, you might conclude that this test is _____.a. validb. invalidc. reliabled. unreliablee. inconsistent(c; moderate; p. 195)

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5. _____ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers the same test to the same people at two different points in time and then compares the test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1. a. Equivalent form estimateb. Retest estimatec. Internal consistencyd. Internal comparison estimatee. Criterion validity(b; moderate; p. 195)

6. Which of the following describes using a retest estimate to assess reliability?a. administer the same test to the same people at two different points in

time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1b. administer a test with x number of item designed to assess a topic; then

statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together

c. administer different tests to different people and compare test scores of the different people

d. administer the same test to different people and compare test scores of the different people

e. administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to do the job in question well

(a; difficult; p. 195)

7. _____ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers two tests deemed to be equivalent by experts and then compares the test scores from the two tests. a. Equivalent form estimateb. Retest estimatec. Internal consistencyd. Internal comparison estimatee. Criterion validity(a; moderate; p. 195)

8. _____ is used as an estimate of reliability when one administers a test with x number of item designed to assess a topic; then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together. a. Equivalent form estimateb. Retest estimatec. Internal consistencyd. Internal comparison estimatee. Criterion validity(c; moderate; p. 195)

9. Which of the following describes using an internal consistency as an assessment of reliability?

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a. administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1

b. administer a test with x number of item designed to assess a topic; then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together

c. administer different tests to different people and compare test scores of the different people

d. administer the same test to different people and compare test scores of the different people

e. administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to do the job in question well

(b; difficult; p. 195)

10. When repetitive questions appear on a questionnaire, which form of reliability is likely being measured?a. retest estimateb. internal consistencyc. equivalent formd. test validitye. criterion validity(b; moderate; p. 195)

11. Which of the following describes using an equivalent form estimate to assess reliability?a. administer the same test to the same people at two different points in

time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1b. administer a test with x number of item designed to assess a topic; then

statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together

c. administer two tests deemed the same by experts and then compare participants’ test scores for test one and test two

d. different tests to different people and compare test scores of the different people

e. administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to do the job in question well

(c; difficult; p. 195)

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12. Which of the following describes using an internal comparison estimate to assess reliability?a. administer the same test to the same people at two different points in

time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1b. administer a test with x number of item designed to assess a topic; then

statistically analyze the degree to which responses to the items vary together

c. administer different tests to different people and compare test scores of the different people

d. administer the same test to different people and compare test scores of the different people

e. administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to do the job in question well

(b; difficult; p. 195)

13. Which of the following is not a reason that a test might be unreliable?a. questions may not represent materialb. tests used to estimate equivalence may not have been equivalentc. testing conditions could varyd. the test may not predict actual performancee. all are reasons for unreliable tests(d; difficult; p. 195)

14. The first step in the validation process is to _____.a. choose the tests to measure attributes of jobb. analyze the jobc. administer testsd. relate test scores and job criteriae. cross-validate (b; easy; p. 197)

15. The second step in the validation process is to _____.a. choose the tests to measure attributes of jobb. analyze the jobc. administer testsd. relate test scores and job criteriae. cross-validate (a; easy; p. 197)

16. The final step in the validation process is to _____.a. choose the tests to measure attributes of jobb. analyze the jobc. administer testsd. relate test scores and job criteriae. cross-validate (e; easy; p. 197)

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17. Which of the following tasks is not part of demonstrating content validity?a. demonstrating that the tasks a person performs on the test are represent

the tasks performed on the jobb. demonstrating that the tasks on the test are a random sample of tasks

performed on the jobc. demonstrating the conditions under which the person takes the test

resemble the work situationd. demonstrating that the scores on the test are a good predictor of

criterion like job performancee. all of the above are part of demonstrating content validity(d; difficult; p. 197)

18. A(n) _____ aims to measure an array of possible predictors for job performance.a. test validityb. test criterionc. test batteryd. job analysise. assessment rating(c; moderate; p. 197)

19. To use _____, one administers a test to employees presently on the job and then compares their test scores with current performance.a. concurrent validationb. predictive validationc. correlation analysisd. expectancy assessmente. test batteries(a; moderate; p. 198)

20. To use _____, one administers the test to applicants before they are hired. The applicants are then hired using existing selection techniques but not the new tests in development. Later, job performance measures are compared to the test scores under development. a. concurrent validationb. predictive validationc. correlation analysisd. expectancy assessmente. test batteries(b; moderate; p. 198)

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21. Which method of test validation is considered more dependable?a. content validationb. criterion validationc. predictive validationd. concurrent validatione. face validation(c; difficult; p. 198)

22. Which statistical tool is used to determine if a significant relationship exists between the predictor scores and the performance criterion? a. regression analysisb. discriminant analysisc. correlation analysisd. canonical correlational analysise. confirmatory factor analysis(c; moderate; p. 199)

23. The process of cross-validating a test involves all of the following except _____.a. using a new sample of employeesb. administering more testsc. evaluating the relationship between scores and performanced. assessing predictive validatione. analyzing a scatter plot of scores versus performance(e; moderate; p. 199)

24. Which form of validation emphasizes the use of judgment as a validation tool?a. criterion validationb. predictive validationc. content validationd. concurrent validatione. all of the above(c; moderate; p. 199)

25. _____ means there is a significant discrepancy between rates of members of the protected groups and others.a. Discriminationb. Disparate impactc. Criterion validityd. Negligent hiringe. Discrimination discrepancy(b; moderate; p. 200)

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26. Psychologists qualified to develop, validate, and use selection standards such as selection tests are _____.a. licensed by their respective stateb. familiar with federal equal rights lawsc. familiar with state equal rights lawsd. usually holders of a Ph.D. degreee. all of the above(e; moderate; p. 201)

27. A rejected minority job candidate has shown that the selection rate for the applicant’s racial group was less than four-fifths that for the group with the highest selection rate. The candidate has shown _____.a. discriminationb. disparate impactc. adverse impactd. negligent hiringe. affirmative action(c; moderate; p. 201)

28. If an employer is shown to use selection procedures resulting in adverse impact, the employer could then use all of the alternatives listed below except _____.a. institute another valid selection procedure that does not have an

adverse impactb. show that the test is valid by conducting a validation studyc. monitor the selection test to see if it has disparate impactd. revise the selection test to eliminate the probleme. all are possible alternatives(d; difficult; p. 201)

29. All of the following are considered “pink collar” jobs excepta. waitressb. secretaryc. nursingd. teachinge. psychologist(e; easy; p. 201)

30. Traditionally female professions are referred to as _____ jobs.a. purple collarb. white collarc. pink collard. blue collare. none of the above(c; easy; p. 201)

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31. Which of the following rights do test takers have under the American Psychological Association’s standard for educational and psychological tests?a. the right to confidentiality of test resultsb. the right to informed consentc. the right to expect that only qualified people will have access to the

scoresd. the right to expect that the test is faire. all of the above(e; moderate; p. 201)

32. _____ tests include tests of general reasoning ability and tests of specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning.a. Motor abilityb. Personality c. Achievementd. Cognitivee. Physical ability(d; easy; p. 205)

33. Tests that measure a range of abilities including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability are called _____.a. aptitude testsb. intelligence testsc. achievement testsd. personality testse. comprehensive tests(b; easy; p. 205)

34. Jack is being tested on static strength, dynamic strength, body coordination and stamina during the selection period at UPS. UPS is using _____ tests.a. aptitude b. personalityc. motor and physical abilitiesd. achievemente. comprehensive(c; moderate; p. 205)

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35. _____ tests include tests like finger dexterity, manual dexterity, and reaction time.a. Motor abilityb. Personality c. Achievementd. Cognitivee. Interest(a; easy; p. 205)

36. _____ tests measure a person’s level of introversion, stability, and motivation.a. Motor abilityb. Personality c. Achievementd. Cognitivee. Physical ability(b; easy; p. 206)

37. Most people are fired due to _____.a. lack of qualificationsb. lack of aptitudec. nonperformanced. lack of necessary motor abilitiese. cognitive abilities(c; moderate; p. 206)

38. Because nonperformance is usually the result of _____, it is important to measure motivation and interpersonal skills as well as cognitive and physical abilities during the selection process.a. attitudeb. motivationc. temperamentd. all of the abovee. none of the above(d; moderate; p. 206)

39. Which of the following is not a type of projective technique for measuring aspects of an applicant’s personality?a. Make a Picture Storyb. House-Tree-Personc. Thematic Apperception Testd. Forer Structured Sentence Completion Teste. All of the above are projective(c; moderate; p. 206)

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40. The Big Five personality dimensions include all of the following except a. neuroticismb. optimismc. extraversiond. conscientiousnesse. agreeableness(b; moderate; p. 207)

41. _____ represents a tendency to exhibit poor emotional adjustment and experience negative effects such as anxiety, insecurity, and hostility. a. Neuroticismb. Extraversionc. Conscientiousnessd. Agreeablenesse. Openness to experience(a; easy; p. 207)

42. _____ represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, active, and to experience positive effects such as energy and zeal. a. Neuroticismb. Extraversionc. Conscientiousnessd. Agreeablenesse. Openness to experience(b; easy; p. 207)

43. Mike Simmons has recently applied for a position in pharmaceutical sales. Which personality characteristic is most predictive of Mike’s likelihood of success in a sales position?a. neuroticismb. extraversionc. conscientiousnessd. agreeablenesse. openness to experience(b; moderate; p. 207)

44. Which personality characteristic refers to the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, and unconventional?a. neuroticismb. extraversionc. conscientiousnessd. agreeablenesse. openness to experience(e; moderate; p. 207)

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45. Which personality characteristic refers to the tendency for one to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle?a. neuroticismb. extraversionc. conscientiousnessd. agreeablenesse. openness to experience(d; moderate; p. 207)

46. Which personality characteristic captures a combination of achievement and dependability?a. neuroticismb. extraversionc. conscientiousnessd. agreeablenesse. openness to experience(c; moderate; p. 207)

47. While some personality characteristics are associated with success in different types of jobs, which one characteristic tends to be associated with job performance across types?a. neuroticismb. extraversionc. conscientiousnessd. agreeablenesse. openness to experience(c; moderate; p. 207)

48. Which of the following best describes how the work sampling technique is executed?a. applicants submit work samples from previous jobsb. applicants are tested on their ability to perform several tasks crucial to

performing the job of interestc. applicants are tested on their ability to perform a range of tasks related

to several positions in a companyd. applicants are asked to respond to questions about how they would

perform various taskse. applicants are given video-based situational interviews(b; moderate; p. 208)

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49. A _____ is a two or three-day simulation in which 10 to 12 candidates perform realistic management tasks under the observation of experts who appraise each candidate’s potential.a. work sampling eventb. video-based situational testingc. management assessment centerd. personality teste. retreat(c; moderate; p. 209)

50. Typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers include all of the following except _____.a. the in basketb. leaderless group discussionc. tests of motor abilitiesd. interviewse. management games(c; moderate; p. 209)

51. Which of the following is an advantage of using management assessment centers in the selection process?a. cost of developmentb. time required to administer and assess resultsc. use of managers as assessorsd. peer evaluations of candidatese. use psychologists as performance assessors(d; difficult; p. 209)

52. Which of the following is an indirect method for predicting job performance during the selection process?a. intelligence testsb. miniature job training and evaluationc. management assessment centerd. work sampling techniquee. video-based simulation technique(a; moderate; p. 205)

53. Which of the following is a direct method for predicting job performance during the selection process?a. intelligence testsb. motor abilities testsc. personality testsd. work sampling techniquee. interests inventories(d; moderate; p. 208)

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54. An employer’s selection process is likely to include any of the following methods excepta. testingb. reference checksc. honesty testingd. substance abuse screeninge. all of the above may be included in an employer’s selection process(e; easy; p. 208)

55. Employers may conduct background investigations and reference checks to verify a candidate’s _____.a. ageb. marital statusc. identificationd. ethnic backgrounde. all of the above(c; moderate; p. 209)

56. Which of the following is not usually verified by an employer prior to hiring a job candidate?a. legal eligibility for employmentb. educationc. aged. credit e. motor vehicle record(c; moderate; p. 209)

57. Which of the following is not a possible motivation for a current employer to give an in correct reference to an employee who is applying for a different position with another company?a. fear of legal consequencesb. desire to improve employee’s chances for a new jobc. desire to remove employee from companyd. respect for employee privacye. all are possible motivations(d; moderate; p. 213)

58. Which selection tool is considered the least useful by HR managers?a. interviewb. reference lettersc. application formd. academic recorde. psychological tests(b; moderate; p. 213)

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59. One of the most useful features of an applicant tracking system is its ability to report metrics including _____.a. applicant EEO datab. applicant source statisticsc. time to filld. cost to hiree. all of the above(e; easy; p. 217)

60. Which law prohibits employers from making pre-employment inquiries into the existence, nature, or severity of a disability? a. Freedom of Information Actb. Privacy Act of 1974c. Fair Credit Reporting Act of 1970d. Americans with Disabilities Acte. Buckley Amendment(d; easy; p. 217)

61. Which law at the federal level governs how employers acquire and use applicants’ and employees’ background information?a. Freedom of Information Actb. Privacy Act of 1974c. Fair Credit Reporting Act of 1970d. Americans with Disabilities Acte. Buckley Amendment(c; moderate; p. 217)

62. Which of the following actions is not required by the Fair Credit Reporting Act of employers who check background information on applicants?a. disclosure to applicant that a credit report will be requestedb. written consent from the applicantc. provision of report copies to the applicant d. provision of a detailed rationale for any adverse action decisione. all are required(d; difficult; p. 217)

63. Which of the following businesses are not permitted to use polygraph tests during the selection process?a. businesses with national defense contractsb. retail businessesc. pharmaciesd. consultants with access to highly classified informatione. all businesses may use polygraph tests(b; moderate; p. 220)

64. Which of the following is not restricted or prohibited by federal laws?

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a. polygraph exams b. psychological stress evaluatorsc. voice stress analyzersd. paper-and-pencil honesty testse. all are restricted(d; moderate; p. 220)

65. What type of screening device is designed to measure attitudes regarding tolerance of others who steal and acceptance of rationalizations for theft?a. personality testsb. interest inventoriesc. paper-and-pencil honesty testsd. graphologye. handwriting analysis(c; moderate; p. 220)

66. For a private employer to administer a polygraph exam during an ongoing investigation of alleged economic loss or employee theft, an employer must do all of the following except _____.a. demonstrate economic lossb. prove that the accused had access to the propertyc. document a reasonable suspicion prior to requesting a polygraphd. explain the details of the investigation and the questions to be asked

during the polygraphe. subject all employees with access to the property in question to the

same polygraph examination as the accused employee(e; moderate; p. 220)

67. Employers can and should use all the tools listed below to attempt to detect dishonest job applicants except _____.a. polygraph testsb. credit checksc. background checksd. paper-and-pencil honesty testse. drug tests(a; easy; p. 220)

68. Graphology, a tool for assessing basic personality traits, is also called _____.a. numerologyb. astrologyc. handwriting analysisd. reasoning analysise. polygraph output assessment(c; moderate; p. 222)

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69. What type of screening is used to reduce absenteeism and establish a baseline for future insurance claims?a. physical examinationsb. personality testsc. polygraph testsd. substance abuse screeninge. all of the above(a; easy; p. 223)

70. Which of the following is true regarding the use of drug testing?a. some drug tests cannot distinguish between legal and illegal

substancesb. drug tests measure degree of impairmentc. drug tests can assess level of drug addictiond. drug tests can assess frequency of drug usee. all of the above(a; difficult; p. 223)

True/ False

71. EEO laws require nondiscriminatory selection procedures for protected groups. (T; easy; p. 194)

72. Effective selection depends to a large degree on the concept of validity but not reliability. (F; moderate; p. 195)

73. A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions. (T; easy; p. 195)

74. An internal comparison estimate measures internal consistency. (T; easy; p. 195)

75. Equivalent form estimates compare test scores from the same test administered at two points in time to determine test equivalence. (F; moderate; p. 195)

76. Test validity answers the question, “Does this test measure what it’s supposed to measure?” (T; easy; p. 195)

77. Reliability confirms that one is measuring what one intends to measure. (F; moderate; p. 195)

78. Validity confirms that one is measuring something consistently. (F; moderate; p. 195)

79. There are six steps in the validation process beginning with analyze the job and concluding with revalidation. (F; easy; p. 197)

80. A test battery is based on a combination of several tests that can then measure an array of predictors. (T; easy; p. 197)

81. Some selection tests are validated, published, and sold to qualified buyers by companies like Psychological Assessment Resources. (T; easy; p. 197)

82. Concurrent validation is the most dependable way to validate a selection test. (F; moderate; p. 198)

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83. To use predictive validation, one administers the test to applicants before they are hired. The applicants are then hired using existing selection techniques but not the new tests in development. Later, job performance measures are compared to the test scores under development. (T; moderate; p. 198)

84. If there is a correlation between test and job performance, one can develop an expectancy chart to illustrate the relationship between test scores and job performance graphically. (T; moderate; p. 199)

85. Criterion validity emphasizes judgment. (F; moderate; p. 199)86. Developing, validating, and using selection standards including selection tests

generally require a qualified psychologist. (T; easy; p. 200)87. Selection tests must be validated in the organization that uses them regardless

of the validity shown in other similar organizations. (F; moderate; p. 200)88. Selection tests are used as supplements to other tools like interviews and

background checks. (T; moderate; p. 200)89. EEO guidelines and laws apply to application forms and selection tests but

not to interviews or reference checks. (F; easy; p. 200)90. A selection test can be found to have an adverse impact but still be

permissible for use as long as it does not have a disparate impact. (T; difficult; p. 200)

91. The American Psychological Association’s standards for educational and psychological tests are legally enforceable. (F; easy; p. 201)

92. Cognitive tests are the most difficult tests to evaluate and use. (F; moderate; p. 204)

93. Interest inventories are useful for career planning because they compare the interests of the test taker to the interests of those people in various occupations. (T; moderate; p. 206)

94. Rejected applicants who receive bad references could sue the source of a reference for defamation of character. (T; easy; p. 213)

95. Most employers report favoring written references to telephone references because written letters provide a permanent record for the employer’s files. (F; moderate; p. 213)

96. Hair follicle testing can provide a history of drug use for six months prior to testing. (T; moderate; p. 223)

97. Hair follicle testing utilizes a method called radio-immunoassay of hair or RIAH. (T; moderate; p. 223)

98. Most prospective employees prove their eligibility for employment in the United States by showing a U.S. passport. (F; moderate; p. 224)

99. Applicant tracking systems (ATS) compile resumes, track applicants during the hiring process, and screen out applicants who do not meet minimum job requirements. (T; easy; p. 218)

100. The Privacy Act is the main directive at the federal level that governs how employers acquire and use applicants’ and employees’ background information. (F; difficult; p. 202)

Essay/ Short Answer

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101. Why is it important to select the right employees for a position? (easy; p. 194)

Answer: First, a manager’s own performance depends in part on his or her subordinates. Second, it is costly to recruit, hire, and train employees. Third, there are legal implications to incompetent hiring. EEO laws and court decisions require nondiscriminatory selection procedures for protected groups. Courts will find employees liable when employees with criminal records or other problems take advantage of access to customers’ property to commit crimes. Hiring workers with such backgrounds without proper safeguards is called negligent hiring.

102. How can employers protect themselves against claims of negligent hiring? (moderate; p. 194)

Answer: Employers can take the following steps to protect themselves against claims of negligent hiring.

Carefully scrutinize all information supplied by the applicant on the employment application.

Get the applicant’s written authorization for reference checks and check those references carefully.

Save all records and information you obtain about the applicant. Reject applicants who make false statements of material facts or

who have conviction records for offenses directly related and important to the job in question.

Keep in mind the need to balance the applicant’s privacy rights with others’ “need to know” when damaging information is discovered.

Take immediate disciplinary action if problems develop.

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103. Describe the two main ways to demonstrate a test’s validity in employment testing. What third method is rarely used? (moderate; p. 196)

Answer: The three ways to demonstrate a test’s validity are criterion validity, content validity, and construct validity. Criterion validity means demonstrating that those who do well on the test also do well on the job and those that do poorly on the test do poorly on the job. Employers can demonstrate content validity of a test by showing that the test constitutes a fair sample of the content of the job. If the content on the test is representative of what the person needs to know for the job, then the test is probably content valid. Construct validity is not used as often.

104. Explain the five steps in the validation process. (moderate; p. 197)

Answer: The five steps are to analyze the job, choose tests, administer tests, relate the test scores and the criteria, and cross-validate and revalidate. The first step is to analyze the job and write job descriptions and job specifications. Next, the tests that measure the attributes important for job success are chosen. Then, the tests are administered. The next step is to determine if there is a significant relationship between scores and performance. Before putting the test into use, the test should be checked by cross-validating and/ or revalidating.

105. Several guidelines exist for managing a testing program. List these guidelines. (moderate; p. 200)

Answer: The guidelines for testing programs are as follows. 1) Use tests as supplements2) Validate the tests3) Monitor the testing and selection program4) Keep accurate records5) Use a certified psychologist6) Manage test conditions7) Revalidate periodically

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106. Industrial psychologists often emphasize the “big five” personality dimensions in personnel testing. List and explain the meaning of the big five dimensions. What do the dimensions tell us about applicants as it relates to job success? (moderate; p. 207)

Answer: The “big five” personality dimensions are neuroticism, extraversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and openness to experience. Neuroticism refers to a tendency to exhibit poor emotional adjustment and experience negative effects like anxiety and insecurity. Extraversion represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active. Openness to experience is the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, unconventional, and autonomous. Agreeableness is the tendency to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle. Conscientiousness is comprised of two related facets including achievement and dependability.

Extraversion is generally associated with success in sales. Extraversion, conscientiousness, and openness to experience are strong predictors of leadership. Neuroticism is negatively related to motivation. Conscientiousness is the most consistent and universal predictor of job performance.

107. What are the advantages of using the work sampling technique for employee selection? (moderate; p. 208)

Answer: The work sampling technique measures how a candidate actually performs some of a job’s basic tasks. It measures actual on-the-job tasks so it is difficult for applicants to fake answers. Work samples are more clearly related to the job being tested so the test is fair. Work sampling does not include assessment of an applicant’s personality or mental state so it cannot be considered an invasion of privacy. When designed well, work sampling tests also show better validity than other tests designed to predict performance.

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108. There are several methods for measuring job performance directly. List and explain three such methods. (difficult; p. 205-210)

Answer: Work samples and simulations measure job performance directly. Several types of tests fit into direct measurement methods: 1) work sampling techniques, 2) management assessment centers, 3) video-based situational testing, and 4) miniature job training and evaluation. The work sampling technique measures how a candidate actually performs some of the job’s basic tasks. A management assessment center is a 2-3 day simulation in which 10-12 candidates perform realistic management tasks under the observation of experts who appraise each candidate’s leadership potential. Video-based tests are situational tests that present the candidate with several scenarios, each followed by a multiple-choice question. The miniature job training and evaluation approach trains candidates to perform a sample of the job’s tasks and then evaluates performance.

109. What is a management assessment center? What else can managers use these centers for besides selection? Provide five examples of typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers. (easy; p. 209)

Answer: A management assessment center is a 2-3 day simulation in which 10-12 candidates perform realistic management tasks under the observation of experts who appraise each candidate’s leadership potential. Typical simulated exercises include 1) the in basket, 2) leaderless group discussion, 3) management games, 4) individual presentations, 5) objective tests, and 6) the interview. These centers can be used for promotion and development purposes as well as for selection.

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110. Various federal and state laws govern how employers acquire and use applicants’ and employees’ background information. What four steps are necessary for an employer to comply with these laws? (difficult; p. 219)

Answer: The four steps are 1) disclosure and authorization; 2) certification; 3) provision of report copies; and 4) notice after adverse action. In the first step, employers must disclose to the applicant or employee that a report will be requested and that copies may be provided to the employee/applicant, and the employer must obtain the employee/applicant’s written authorization. In the second step, the employer must certify to the reporting agency that the employer will comply with the federal and state legal requirements. In the third step, the employer must provide copies of the report to the applicant/employee if adverse action such as withdrawing an offer or dismissing the employee is contemplated. After the employer provides the employee or applicant with copies of the consumer and investigative reports and a “reasonable period” has elapsed, the employer may take adverse action. If so, the employee or applicant must receive an adverse action notice.

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