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IBPS CWE Practice Paper / Sample Paper

Subject: – Reasoning

Direction: Complete the following series with the alternatives provided in each question.

1. E P Y E J ? ?

(a) U, V (b) B, M (c) W, X (d) J, M (e) None of these

2. b a _ b a _ _ b b a a a _ b b b _ _ a a

(a) b a a b a b (b) b a b b a b (c) b b b a a a (d) b a b b a a (e) b a b a b a

Direction: Complete the following number series with the alternatives provided in each question.

3. 8, 1, 9, 10, 19, 29, ?, 27

(a) 38 (b) 48 (c) 40 (d) 52 (e) 32

4. 55, 54, 52, 49, ?, ?

(a) 48, 46 (b) 45, 40 (c) 45, 39 (d) 45, 38 (e) 46, 35

Direction: Study the following alpha-numeric arrangement and answer the question given below.

B 8 4 C R M 9 N P D K W F A 2 E J 7 X U Q H L T Y 6 G S

5. Complete the following sequence with reference to the above arrangement. BRC, 8MR, 49M, ?

(a) CNP (b) 4PN (c) 4N9 (d) None of these (e) 7XU

Direction: Answer the question with reference to the symbol-letter-number sequence given below.

2 P J @ 8 $ L B 1 V # Q 6 & G W 9 K C D 3 = f 5 F R 7 A Y 4

6. How many symbol and number is there in the sequence which are either immediately preceded or followed by the letter from the first half of the English alphabet?

(a) 7 (b) 5 (c) 8 (d) 10 (e) 9

Direction: Answer the following one is similar in relation to their position right symbol/letter/number. Now, how many letters are there in the sequence which are immediately followed by a number and immediately preceded by a symbol?

E K M 3 P 5 R T V Z 9 D I F Q X 4 6 G H J 2 8 W

7. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way as regard to their position in the above sequence. Which is unlike the other four?

(a) 3E (b) 73 (c) F9 (d) 4A (e) 4H

8. ACDE : OGHI : : ESTU : ?

(a) ABCD (b) EPQU (c) XYZE (d) HKGO (e) PQAB

9. ‘Coal’ is related to ‘heat’ in the same ways as ‘wax’ is related to

(a) Honey (b) Bee (c) Light (d) Energy (e) Candle

10. Clay is to pottery, as gold is to

(a) Women (b) Goldsmith (c) Ornaments (d) Metal (e) Diamond

Direction: Find the odd one among the following.

11. (a) H G F E (b) P O N M (c) D C B A (d) M S T U (e) None of these

Direction: Find the odd one out.

12. (a) 2397 (b) 3729 (c) 4578 (d) 9732 (e) 8327

Direction: Find the odd one out.

13. (a) Lung (b) Kidney (c) Liver (d) Eyes (e) None of these

14. (a) Maize (b) Wheat (c) Rice (d) Sugarcane (e) None of these

Direction: Study the codes given below and based on the same code, solve the question that follows.

15. If 135*604 = 43056 and 27*698 = 82976, then 32*864 = ?

(a) 43682 (b) 43628 (c) 82643 (d) 82634 (e) 82682

Direction: Study the code given below for ‘CIRULATED’ and based on the same coede, draw up codes for the following words.

Word: CIRCULATED

Code: ektwncx

16. HATED/HATEDLY

(a) icufemz (b) jcxna (c) jcvgfna (d) icuxmz (e) ijfezm

Direction: Given below are combinations of an operation and an operand.

(A) means ‘÷ 3’ (B) means ‘× 3’;

(C) means ‘- 3’; (D) means ‘+ 3’;

(E) means ‘÷ 2’; (F) means ‘× 2’;

(G) means ‘- 1’; (H) means ‘+ 2’;

Select the appropriate choice to replace the question mark in the equations.

17. 18 × 3 ÷ 2 + 3 < 27 (?)

(a) (D) followed by (A) (b) (A) followed by (G)

(c) (D) followed by (G) (d) (D) followed by (H)

(e) None of these

Direction: In a certain code, the symbol for 0 (zero) is ‘&’ and for 1 (one) is ‘$’. There is no other number than one. The numbers greater than 1 are to be written only by using the two symbols given above. The value of the symbols for 1 doubles itself every time it shifts one place to the left. Study the following example.

0 is written as &; 1 is written as #; 2 is written as #&;

3 is written as ##; and 4 is written as #&& and so on.

18. Which of the following numbers will be represented by ##&#?

(a) 8 (b) 11 (c) 13 (d) 12 (e) None of these

Direction: In each question below, there is a word written in capital letters, with one letter underlined. For each underlined letter in that word there is a code written in small letters. Find

the code for the underlined letter. Please note that the same letter appearing in other word(s) may be coded differently.

19. PRISM

(a) r (b) o (c) h (d) q (e) i

20. A is the father of X. B is the mother of Y. The sister of X and Z is Y. Which of the following statements is definitely not true?

(a) B is the wife of A (b) B has one daughter

(c) Y is the son of A (d) X is the sister of Z

(e) B is the mother of Z

Direction: Study the following information and answer the questions given below.

(i) There are six people in a family (A, B, C, D, E, F).

(ii) C is the wife of B and the mother of F.

(iii) F is the granddaughter of E.

(iv) D is the grandmother of A and the mother of B.

(v) There are two married couples in the family.

21. Which of the following is true?

(a) A is the sister of F (b) A is the brother of F

(c) B has two daughters (d) none of these

(e) F is father of A

Direction: Study the following information and answer the questions given below.

(i) A, B, C, D, E, and F are six members of a family

(ii) One is a student, one housewife, one doctor, one teacher, one lawyer, and one engineer.

(iii) There are two married couples in the family.

(iv) B is a teacher and the mother of C.

(v) D is the grandmother of C and is a housewife.

(vi) F is a lawyer and is the father of A.

(vii) C is the brother of A. E is the father of F and is a doctor.

(viii) E is the father of F and is a doctor.

22. Which of the following statements is definitely true?

(a) A is an engineer (b) E is the father of the teacher

(c) D is the mother of the teacher (d) F is the father of the engineer

(e) C is the father of the engineer

Direction: Using the following information, answer the questions given below.

(i) In a family of six (1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6), there are two married couples.

(ii) 4 is the grandmother of 1 and the mother of 2.

(iii) 3 is the wife of 2 and the mother of 6.

(iv) 6 is the granddaughter of 5.

23. Which of the following is true?

(a) 1 is the sister of 6 (b) 1 is the brother of 6

(c) 2 has two daughters (d) 4 has two grandchildren

(e) 3 is sister of 6

24. Vandana starts walking towards the east and, after covering a distance of 20 m, she turns left and runs for 15 m. She then turns to her right and moves 25 m. From here, she again turns right and walks for 15 m. How far is she from the starting point?

(a) 40 m (b) 45 m (c) 50 m (d) 60 m (e) 20 m

25. Rohit is as much younger to Neelu as he is older to Prince. If the sum of the ages of Neelu and Prince is 48 years, how old is Rohit?

(a) 20 (b) 24 (c) 28 (d) 32 (e) 22

Direction: There are 125 cubes of similar size arranged in the form of a bigger cube (5 cubes on each side, that is, 5*5*5). From one corner of the top layer of this cube, four smaller cubes (2*2*1) are removed. From the column on the opposite side, two cubes (1*1*2) are removed. From the third corner too, three cubes (1*1*3) are removed, and from the fourth column four cubes (1*1*4) are removed. All exposed faces of the block thus formed are coloured red.

26. A cube is painted green on all sides. It is then cut into 64 cubes of equal size. How many of these smaller cubes are painted on one side only?

(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 24 (e) 12

Direction: Answer the following questions based on the letter-number sequence given gelow.

E K M 3 P 5 7 R T V Z 9 D 1 F Q X 4 6 G H J 2 8 W

27. Which of the following is exactly in the middle between the seventh letter/number from the left end and the ninth letter/number from the right end of the above sequence?

(a) D (b) 9

(c) 1 (d) there is no such letter/number

(e) None of these

28. If only the consonants in the word MEAT are changed in such a way that each of them becomes the next letter in the English alphabet and the remaining letters are kept unchanged, then how many meaningful words can be formed with the new set of letters using each letter only once in a word?

(a) None (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 1 (e) None of these

Direction: Answer the following questions based on the symbol-letter-number sequence given below.

2 P J @ 8 $ L B 1 V # Q 6 d G W 9 K C D 3 . D £ 5 F R 7 A Y 4

29. How many symbols and numbers are there in the sequence which are ei-there immediately preceded or immediately followed by the letter which is from the first half of the English alphabet?


30. In the word CONTRACTUAL, the positions of the first and the eleventh letters and interchanged. Similarly the positions of the second and tenth letters are interchanged and so on upto the positions of fifth and seventh letters are interchanged keeping the position of sixth letter unchanged. Which letter will be the third to the right of the sixth letter from the left end?

(a) T (b) N (c) U (d) A (e) None of these

Direction: Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements marked I and II given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both are statements and give answer (i) if the data in statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (ii) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (iii) if the data either in statement I or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.

Give answer (iv) if the data in both the statement together is not sufficient to answer the question.

Given answer (v) if the data in both statements I and II together and needed to answer the question.

31. Who among Satish, Vilas, Jayant and Naresh is the tallest?

I. Satish is taller than Jayant who is not as tall as Vilas but is taller than Naresh.

II. Vilas is not taller than Satish.

(a) (i) (b) (ii) (c) (iii) (d) (iv) (e) (v)

Direction: In an office there are eight sections named I, II, III, IV, VI, VII, and VIII. No visitor is allowed to visit one section for more than an hour. If a visitor has to visit more than one section he has to come back to the security officer to get a fresh visitor’s pass by surrendering the earlier section’s pass.

Every hour the security officer generates seven passwords for all sections by choosing a set of seven words, which is used for Section I which is the reception-cum-visitors hall. Following is an illustration of the generation of seven passwords for each section:

Section I : sri am cue way meat fro le

II : le cue am way meat fro sri

III : cue le way am meat sri cue

IV : fro way le am meat sri cue

V : way fro am le meat cue sri and so on till Section VIII.

32. A visitor wanted to visit Section VI but he was wrongly given the password for Section IV ‘ear two it rye sit he wu’. What would be his correct password for Section VI, if hourly password remains the same?

(a) he rye ear it sit wu two (b) two ear rye it sit wu he

(c) wu it two rye siot he ear (d) rye he it ear sit two wu

(e) None of these

33. From a point, Rajneesh started walking towards east and walked 35 m. He then turned towards his right and walked 20m and he again turned right and walked 35 m. Finally he turned to his left and walked 20 m and he reached his destination. Now, how far is he from his starting point?

(a) 50 m (b) 55 m (c) 20 m (d) 40 m (e) None of these

34. Manish remembers that his father had called him after the 16th but before the 21st of the month, while Suresh remembers that father had called after the 19th but before the 22nd. On which date had father called?

(a) 10th (b) 17th (c) 20th (d) 19th (e) None of these

35. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group?

(a)Kanpur (b) Chennai (c) Dispur (d) Kolkata (e) Jaipur

36. A man walks 30 m towards south, then turning to his right, he walks 30 m. Then turning to his left, he walks 20 m. Again he turns to his left and walks 30 m. How far is he from his initial position?

(a) 80 m (b) 60 m (c) 30 m (d) 20 m (e) None of these

Direction: Study the statements (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) and answer the following question:

(A) 1, 5, 9 means ‘You better go.’

(B) 1, 6, 7 means ‘Better come here.’

(C) 5, 6, 7 means ‘You come here.’

(D) 1, 5, 6 means ‘Better you here.’

(E) 3, 7, 9 means ‘Come and go.’

37. Which of the following group of minimum statements are necessary to find the code number for ‘better’?

(a) A and B (b) D and E (c) C and D (d) B and E (e) None of these

38. Ram walks 10 m south from his house, turns left and walks 25, again turns left and walks 40 m, then turns right and walks 5 m to reach his school. In which direction is the school from his house?

(a) South-west (b) North-east (c) East (d) North (e) South-east

Direction: Read the following and answer the questions given below it.

In a certain code language: (i) ‘481’ means ‘Sky is blue’; (ii) ‘246’ means ‘Sea is deep’; and (iii) ‘698’ means ‘Sea looks blue’.

39. What number is the code for ‘looks’?

(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 6 (d) 9 (e) 2

40. Shivani’s mother was three times older than Shivani 5 years ago. After 5 years, she will be twice as old as Shivani. How old is Shivani today?

(a) 10 years (b) 5 years (c) 15 years (d) 12 years (e) 18 years

41. A directional post is erected on a crossing. In an accident, it was turned in such a way that the arrow which was first showing east is now showing sough. A passerby went in a wrong direction thinking it is west. In which direction is he actually traveling now?

(a) South (b) North (c) East (d) West (e) South-east

Direction: Select the pair in which the words bear the same relationship to each other as the words in the given pair.

42. Cells: Cytology

(a) Worm: Ornithology (b) Insect: Entomology

(c) Disease: Anatomy (d) Tissue: Physiognomy

(e) None of these

Direction: In the following questions, three similar words have been given. Choose a suitable description for these words from the options provided.

43. Sandy rock, Lime rock, Coal

(a) These are made of metamorphic rocks

(b) These are chemical minerals

(c) These are situated on the banks of rivers

(d) These are made of sedimentary rocks

(e) None of these

Direction: Find the odd man out.

44. (a) Earth (b) Moon (c) Venus (d) Mars (e) Uranus

Direction: Find the missing number in each of the following question.

45. 0, 2, 8, 14, 24, 34, … ?

(a) 48 (b) 42 (c) 40 (d) 36 (e) 38

Direction: Choose the alternative which has the same relationship as the first two pairs.

46. Chromate : Chromium : : Ilmenite : ?

(a) Lime (b) Cobalt (c) Manganese (d) Titanium (e) Alluminium

47. Ram’s age was square of a number last year and it will be cube of a number next year. How long must he wait before his age is again the cube of a number?


48. Arrange the following in a meaningful order:

Doctor, Fever, Medicine, Medical Shop

(a) Medical Shop, Medicine, Fever, Doctor

(b) Fever, Doctor, Medical Shop, Medicine

(c) Doctor, Medical Shop, Medicine, Fever

(d) Medicine, Doctor, Medical Shop, Fever

(e) Medical Shop, Medicine, Doctor, Fever

49. TLRIA is related to Would in the same way as YBVLKA is related to

(a) Matter (b) Before (c) Beyond (d)Normal (e) After

50. I am facing the North East-direction. I turn 90o clockwise, then 180o anticlockwise, and then another 90o in the same direction. Which direction am I facing now?

(a) West (b) South (c) South-west (d) South-east (e) East

Answer of these Questions:-

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10D D B B C C E B C C11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20D C C D B B D C A C21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30D D A B B D D E C C31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40E A D C A E A B D C41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50A B D B A D C B C C

IBPS Clerk Practice Paper / Sample Paper

Subject: – Mathematics

1. The difference between the place values of 7 in the numeral 574873 is


2. (387*387+114*114+2*387*114) = (?)


3. A trader has three types of oils: 400 litres and 465 litres, respectively. If he wants to fill them separately in tins of equal capacity, what is the least number so tins required?


4. The length and breadth of a room are 13m and 7.5m, respectively. The floor of the room is to be paved with square tiles of uniform size. Determine the length of the largest possible size of the tile.

(a) 1.0 m (b) 0.5 m (c) 1.5 m (d) 5.0 (e) 6.0

5. If the unit digit in the product (459*46*28?*484) is 2, the digit in place of ?is


6. Which one of the following numbers is not a square of any natural number?


7. A third of Vinod’s marks in mathematics exceeds a half of his marks in social studies by 30. If he got 240 marks in the two subjects together, how many marks did he get in social studies?


8. A class starts at 10 a.m. and lasts till 1.27 p.m. Four periods are held during this interval. After every period, 5 minutes are given free to the students. The exact duration of each period is

(a) 42 minutes (b) 48 minutes (c) 51 minutes (d) 53 minutes (e) None of these

9. If (64)2-(36)2= 20z, the value of z is


10. What number should replace both the asterisks in (?/21*?/189) = 1?

(a) 21 (b) 63 (c) 147 (d) 3969 (e) 4968

11. Which one of the following fractions is the smallest?

(a) 13/16 (b) 15/19 (c) 17/21 (d) 7/8 (e) None of these

12. If the difference between the 4/5th part and 1/3rd part of a number is 4 what is the number?


13. If x and y are +ive integers such that (3x+7y) is a multiple of 11, then which of the following will also be divisible by 11?

(a0 4x+6y (b) x+y+4 (c) 9x+4y (d) 4x-9y (e) None of these

14. If x and y are the two digits of the number 653 xy such that this number is divisible by so, then x+y is equal to


15. What is the smallest number by which 3600 be divided to make it a perfect cube?

(a) 9 (b) 50 (c) 300 (d) 450 (e) 500

16. What may be substracted from 39468 to make it perfect square?

(a) 192 (b) 264 (dc) 246 (d) 280 (e) None of these

17. 1399*1399=?


18. The product of two numbers is y/x. IF one of the numbers is x/y2, then the other one is

(a) y3/x2 (b) y2/x3 (c) x2/y (d) x/y2 (e) x2/y2

19. Mukesh has twice as much money as Sohan and Sohan has 50% more money than what Pankaj has. If the average money with them is Rs 110, then Mukesh has

(a) Rs 55 (b) Rs 60 (c) Rs 90 (d) Rs 180 (e) Rs 200

20. A cricketer has a certain average for 9 innings. In the tenth inning, he scores 100 runs, thereby increasing his average by 8 runs. His new average is

(a) 20 runs (b) 24 runs (c) 28 runs (d) 32 runs (e) None of these

21. A number when divided by 296 gives a remainder 75. What will be the remainder when the same number is divided by 37?

(a) 3 (b) 5 (c) 1 (d) 6 (e) 8

22. What will be the sum of all odd numbers between 30 and 50?

(a) 625 (b) 400 (c) 225 (d) 500 (e) 600

23. In an election between two candidates, a candidate who gets 40 percent of total votes is defeated by 15000 votes. The number of votes polled by the winning candidate is

(a) 6000 (b) 10000 (c) 22500 (d) 45000 (e) 10% increase

24. The population of a town increases by 15 percent annually. If its population was 8000 in 1995, what would it be in 1997?


25. What will be the sum of all the even numbers between 1 and 60?


26. Find the largest number of five digits which is divisible by 17.

(a) 99999 (b) 99960 (c) 99994 (d) 10013 (e) 10014

27. A sum of money was divided between A, B and C, such that when A gets Re 1 then B gets 65 paise and C gets 40 paise. If C’s share be Rs 40 then what is that sum of money?

(a) Rs 82 (b) Rs 126.15 (c) Rs 105 (d) Rs 205 (e) Rs 305

28. Marks obtained by Komal in English are equal to 1/3rd of marks obtained by her in Music. Total marks obtained by her in both the subjects is 160. How many marks did she secure in Music?

(a) 120 (b) 60 (c) 30 (d) 90 (e) 100

29. How many numbers up to three digits are divisible by 19?

(a) 48 (b) 47 (c) 25 (d) 52 (e) 54

30. What is the largest prime number by which 871 is exactly divisible?


31. Vivek purchased 120 tables at a price of Rs 110 per table. He sold 30 tables at a profit of Rs 12 per table and 75 tables at a profit of Rs 14 per table. The remaining tables were sold at a loss of Rs 7 per table. What is the average profit per table?

(a) Rs 12.875 (b) Rs 10.04 (c) 10.875 (d) Rs 12.80 (e) Rs 13.80

32. A book dealer allows 16 per cent discount to a retailer and the retailer allows 10 per cent discount to a customer. These both discounts are given on the printed price of the book. If the customer pays Rs 270 for a book and the dealer makes a profit of 5 per cent what is the cost price of the book for the dealer?


33. The difference between the greatest and the least numbers of eight digits which begin with 8 and end with 6 is


34. If a*b=a2+b2 then 3*5 is equal to

(a) 16 (b) 34 (c) 8 (d) 15 (e) 18

35. The Simple interest on a sum of money at 8 per cent per annum for 6 years is half the sum. The sum is

(a) Rs 4800 (b) Rs 6000 (c) Rs 8000 (d) Rs 7000 (e) Data inadequate

36. How long will it take a sum of money invested at 5 per cent per annum simple interest to increase its value by 40 per cent?


37. A number, when successively divided by 3 and 5, leaves remainder of 2 and 1, when the same number is divided by 15, the remainder is

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 7 (e) 10

38. The numbers 1, 3, 5, ………., 25 are multiplied together. The numbers of zeros at the right end of the product is

(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) 2 (d) 3 (e) 8

39. What will be the compound interest on Rs 240 for 2 years at 4 per cent per annum?

(a) Rs 19.20 (b) Rs 9.60 (c) Rs 19.18 (d) Rs 19.58 (e) Rs 20.58

40. Find the compound interest on Rs 15000 at 8 per cent per annum payable half-yearly for 1 year.


41. A is twice as good a workman as B and together they finish a piece of work in 14 days. The number of days taken by A alone to finish the work, is

(a) 11 (b) 21 (c) 28 (d) 42 (e) 50

42. A and B can do a work in 10 days. B and C in 12 days while C and A in 15 days. How long would they take if all the three work together?

(a) 5days (b) 4 days (c) 7 days (d) 8 days (e) 10 days

43. A is twice as fast as B and B is thrice as fast as C is. The journey covered by C in 54 minutes will be covered by B in

(a) 18 min (b) 27 min (c) 38 min (d) 9 min (e) 10 min

44. In how many seconds a cyclist will pass a distance of 100 metres at the speed of 10 km/hr.

(a) 25 sec (b) 36 sec (c) 40 sec (d) 42 sec (e) 50 sec

45. At 3.40, the hour hand and the minute hand of a clock form an angle of

(a) 120o (b) 125o (c) 130o (d) 135o (e) 140o

46. How many times are the hands of a clock at right angles in a day?

(a) 22 (b) 24 (c) 44 (d) 48 (e) 50

47. Today is Tuesday. After 62 days it will be

(a) Wednesday (b) Monday (c) Thursday (d) Sunday (e) Tuesday

48. The day on March of 5 of a year is the same day on what date of the same year?

(a) 5th August (b) 5th October (c) 5 November (d) 5 December (e) None of these

49. A garden is 70 m long and 30 m wide. It is surrounded by a footpath 5 m wide outside. What is the area of the path?

(a) 2200 m2 (b) 1100 m2 (c) 550 m2 (d) 625 m2 (e) 700 m2

50. If the volume of a sphere is divided by its surface area, the result is 27 cm. The radius of the sphere is

(a) 81 cm (b) 9 cm (c) 54 cm (d) 36 cm (e) 40 cm

Answer of these Questions:-

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10A B A B C D D B D B11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20B D B D D B D A D C21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30C B D D A C D A D C31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40C C D B D D C B D D41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50B D A B C C B C B A

Bank Clerk Sample Paper / Practice Paper

Directions (Q. 1 to 5): Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one underlined part. The alphabet of that part is answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’ (Ignore the error of punctuation, if any).

1. Hardly he reached/A) to his seat /B) than he /C) was called back by his boss/D). No error/E)

2. Baba Saheb Ambedakar rose/A) more highly than /B) his comtemporary political leaders/C) by sheer dint of merit/D). No error/E)

3. Politicians always are/A) indulged in/B) controversies/C) of sorts/D). No error/E)

4. It’s only later/A) that she’s been/B) well enough /C) to go out/D). No error/E)

5. She usually learns/A) language very quickly/B) but she did not seem/C) able to learn Sanskrit/D). No error/E)

Directions (Q. 6 to 10): Each question below consists of a word printed in capital leters. Choose the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capitalized letters.

6. FIASCO

(a)empathy (b) animosity

(c) Swindle (d) success

(e) Petulance

7. ALTRUISM

(a) Surrogate (b) discord

(c) Selfishness (d) anarchy

(e) Savagery

8. PERFUNCTORY

(a) Prohibited (b) mean

(c) Thorough (d) petty

(e) Brazen

9. DEFINTE

(a) Indirect (b) vague

(c) Separate (d) acute

(e) Perfect

10. PLACID

(a) Depressed (b) feign

(c) Trifling (d) swayed

(e) Ruffled

Directions (Q. 11 to 15): Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is nay error in it. Each sentence has four words or phrases underlined. The error, if any, will be is one underlined part. The alphabet of that part is answer, if there is no error, the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the error of punctuation, if any).

11. He will be/A) released from/b) the/C) prison after/D) a week. No error/E)

12. Finally/A), the government has succeeded to bring/B) about/C) consensus over/D) economic reforms. No error/E)

13. She knew/A) that/B) what her mother was/C) saying is/D) correct. No error/E)

14. Prof. Narayanan’s/A) command/B) both of his subject and his language/C) is/D) perfect. No error/E)

15. There was/A) violent protests against/B) Religious places bill both in/C)Delhiand/D) inlucknow. No error/E)

Directions (Q. 16 to 20): Read each of the following sentences, some part or all the sentence is underlined. Below each sentence is given five ways of phrasing. Select the answer from among the five options which produces the most effective sentence, one that is clear and exact.

16. When the Mughal empire was on the decline, among the casualties it claimed, was hundreds of Nawabs.

(a) Among the casualties it claimed, was hundreds of Nawabs.

(b) Among the casualties, it claimed, were hundreds of Nawabs.

(c) Among the casualties it claimed, was the hundreds of Nawab.

(d) Among the casualties it claimed, were the hundreds of Nawab.

(e) Among the casualties it had claimed, was the hundreds of Nawabs.

17. Promod Mahajan is more vocal but not as competent as his senior party leaders.

(a) Is more vocal but not as competent as

(b) Is more vocal but not competent as

(c) Is more vocal than not competent as

(d) Is more vocal than but not as competent as

(e) More vocal but least competent than

18. Khushwant Singh was never come out from his sex obsession, his new novel. ‘In company of women’ is nothing than a fiction on cheap sex.

(a) Is nothing than a fiction on cheap sex?

(b) Has nothing than a fiction about cheap sex?

(c) Is nothing of a fiction on cheap sex?

(d) Is nothing but a fiction on cheap sex?

(e) Is about noting than a fiction on cheap sex.

19. Whether Suzuki will make a bid to the government stake will have to be weighed.

(a) A bid to the government stake will have to be weighed.

(b) A bid for the government stake will have to be weighed.

(c) A bid to the government stake will be weighed.

(d) A bid for the government stake will have weighed.

(e) A bid on the government stake will be weighed.

20. For some reason, women’s contribution to science, technology and literature are considerably lower than man.

(a) Are considerably lower than men.

(b) Are considerably lower to men.

(c) Is considerably lower than men.

(d) Is considerably lower than that of men.

(e) Are considerably lower to that of men.

Directions (Q. 21 to 25): Each of the questions below has a phrase/clause underlined. From the given options choose the word that is similar in meaning to the underlined part.

21. Please leave the door slighty open.

(a) Lewd (b) inclinatory

(c) Astray (d) ajar

(e) Chasm

22. The swindler used a series of false names.

(a) Delinquencies (b) aliases

(c) Masons (d) mates

(e) Alibi

23. Ill tempered bus conductor had brief noisy argument with a passenger.

(a) Transgression (b) burlesque

(c) Anodyne (d) parachronism

(e) (An) altercation

24. This situation is in every way different from the earlier situation.

(a) Enviably (b) altogether

(c) Specially (d) eternally.

(e) Banefully

25. Creation of rural character and atmosphere in drawing room is in vogue today.

(a) Amalgamation (b) muddle

(c) Ambience (d) modesty

(e) Arrangement

Directions (Q. 26 to 30): Arrange the following b, c, d and e sentences between (a) and (f) in a logical sequence in order to construct a logical coherent paragraph.

26. a. There is one but truly serious problem and that is suicide.

b. Judging whether life is worth living or not amounts to answering the fundamental problem of our existence.

c. As for me, I have come to believe that to die well requires greater moral stamina than to live well.

d. Heroism consists in facing death with equanimity.

e. Since in the beginning people have debated whether it is natural or perverse to escape from life’s difficulties.

f. And this reflects the highest qualities of a well resolved life.

(a) abcdef (b) acbdef

(c) adbcef (d) abecdf

(e) aebdcf

27. a, One such faith which seems well developed and has many oral texts that are beautiful is the faith of the tribals of Arunachal Pradesh.

b. Only the name is new.

c. They have in them the magic that lends itself graciously to piety.

d. Today the tribes have given it a name Donyipoloism.

e. Their sacred texts called’ a ‘abhangs’ are as old as the hills.

f. It has served them well in the difficult conditions on the eastern Himalayas where the life is hard and cold.


(c) adbecf (d) aebdcf

(e) abedcf

28. a. Blame it on the cow or on the sun.

b. Australian scientists doing an inventory of green house gasses came up recently with methane emission.

c. Belching and flatulence in cows and sheep produce an estimated 90 percent ofAustralia’s methane emission in agricultural sector.

d. To every one’s astonishment they traced the source to Australia’s cattles which produce a six and half billion of methane annually, emitted largely through burps.

e. Never before has a hot environmental issue like global warning generated 50 many studies that seem intent on placing onus for our heated planet on sources ranging from the cattle to the cosmos.

f. Methane is said to be 25 percent more potent than carbon dioxide (CO2) in contributing to global warming.


(c) adbcef (d) aebdcf

(e) acdebf

29. a. understandably, high profile business barons have begun lobbying for a change in SEBI’s takeover code.

b. This flies in the face of the logic.

c. Promoters are not required to hold 100 percent equity in a company to control it.

d. One of the suggestions is that raiders should be asked to make an open offer for 100 percent of the target’s equity, not just 20 percent.

e. Why should raiders be asked to do so?

f. Besides, it would become prohibitively expensive for potential predators to dislodge managements, regardless of their performance, and be a body blow to shareholders democracy.


(c) acdebf (d) adbcef

(e) adecbf

30. a. The Indian hand-knoted carpet industry is a traditionally rural based cottage industry.

b. It is highly labour intensive and almost entirely export oriented.

c. It is when the migration of skilled craftsomer from Persia and Afghanistan took place.

d. The present dominant tradition of pile carpet goes back to 16th centery.

e. The patronage extended by Mughal rulers enabled the craft to take its root and flourish in India.

f. The newly revived carpet industy in India had to follow the traditional oriental style to compete in the market.


(c) abdecf (d) adbcef

(e) abdcef

Directions (Q. 31 to 35): In each of the following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence there are five pairs of words/ phrases. Choose a pair of words /phrases that fits into the blanks to give a meaningful sentence.

31. India was up for grabs and the only ———block was the English-who also——-imperial ambitions.

(a) Impeding; promoted (b) solid; encouraged

(c) Stumbling; fostered (d) limping; nurtured

(e) Mature; having

32. A———of guides surrounded me, all offering their services to ———me around the temple.

(a) Flock; tour (b) gaggle; escort

(c) Bundle; guide (d) multitude; chase

(e) Huddle; follow

33. Much love and —–had gone into ——–one of the most undignified diseases known to man.

(a) Devotion; submerging (b) care; enduring

(c) Sympathy; overpowering (d) discipline; defeating

34. And it was Clive who was given the job of ——-the ——–that was to become known as the black hole of Calcutta.

(a) Avenging; tragedy (b) revenging; incidence

(c) Placating; nawab (d) punishing; hooligans

(e) Managing; comedy

35. Then he ———–my hand and kissed it repeatedly found it all immensely —————.

(a) Held; quavering (b) grabbed; embarrassing

(c) Caught; inspiring (d) gobbled; sophisticated

(e) Swayed; annoying.

Directions (Q. 36 to 40): Each of the sentences below has one or more blank spaces. Each blank indicating that a word has been omitted. Beneath each sentence five words or set of words are given. Which, when inserted in the sentence, best fit in the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

36. We admired the triumphant but we did not ———–what we knew we could not ———-.

(a) Visualize; attain (b) envy; emulate

(c) Estimate; examine (d) aggrandize; suppress

(e) Follow; target

37. They are making the new ball ————a lot this morning.

(a) Elevate (b) transcend

(c) turn-away (d) swerve

(e) Raise

38. One likes to have an ———-of books on their self.

(a) Illustration (b) array

(c) Outline (d) extension

(e) Abode

39. We turn again to him in the expectation that some thing profoundly ———will be said to us.

(a) Agrarian (b) illuminating

(c) Belligerent (d) pliable

(e) Palatable

40. The falling water plashed with a ———-sound as soft as a sleep.

(a) Devilish (b) shallow

(c) Murmurous (d) appreciative

(e) Mute

Directions (Q. 41 to 50): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

With the economy experiencing lower real growth than anticipated by some, higher inflation, incomplete adjustment to external (oil) price shocks and sluggish reforms, there is renewed pressure on the rupee. The RBI has often proclaimed that it is not interested in pegging the value of the rupee with respect to the dollar at any particular level but only in minimizing volatility. Thus, a policy of leaning against the wind’: if rupee value moves ‘too fast’, various policy measures are unleashed.

These range from ‘talking to dealers’, implicitly taxing locked in export earnings, intervening in the foreign exchange market and changing the bank rate. Surely, the current point blank refusal of the RBI alter the bank rate is part of the set of policies to soften the pressures on the rupee. At the same time, the sluggish growth of the economy has prompted calls for loosening monetary policy. It is important to understand the implications of this against the background of the chosen exchange rate regime and other instruments of policy, especially fiscal policy. The word over, being part of an internationally integrated financial system has made the variable-peg exchange rate regime difficult to practice, particularly for developing countries. Countries are moving either in the direction of an immutable fix (currency boards, dollarisation) or managed floating. The RBI appears to have moved decisively in the direction of managed float. However, its professed objective of minimizing volatility has often been understood as pegging, especially because the exchange value of the rupee against the dollar has a definite downward trend. A move toward either a variable peg or managed float vis-à-vis a dominant currency like the dollar in the context of highly integrated capital markets has serious implications for the conduct of monetary policy. These go beyond the simple dictums of the Mundell-Flemming model: with a fixed exchange rate you give up independent monetary policy whereas with a managed float, the efficacy of fiscal policy is compromised.

With a managed float both the interest rate and the exchange rate become part of the monetary transmission mechanism. Thus, a pure interest rate shock (say a fall) will have complex effects.

In addition to the standard income effect (a fall in the rate implies lower income from savings thus lowering current consumption) and substitution effect (a fall in the interest rate decreases the attractiveness of postponing consumption) there will be effects on asset prices and value of debt stocks of different term structures and associated risks. The inclusion of exchange rate in the transmission mechanism adds another layer of uncertainty. An expansionary monetary policy would lead to a weaker rupee.

This would shift consumption away from imports (the substitution effect) and should have direct pass-through effects on the prices of exports, imports and substitutes for imports and exports. However, a weaker rupee would turn the terms of trade against us, which would reduce spending. Increase in the domestic resource cost of financing external debt repayments, consequent upon a weaker rupee, will have a wealth effect and also discourage spending. These effects would tend to reduce the expansionary impact of the postulated loose monetary policy.

With complementary exchange and interest rate movements, interest rates will have to fall less to effect any desired level of monetary expansion. Consequently, domestic bond prices do not rise by enough in response to monetary expansion. If such bonds then become the basis for further domestic credit expansion then the expansionary expectations from monetary profligacy would have been belied. Also, the smaller fall in interest rates will not lower the cost of servicing the internal debt as much as expected and would not be able to stimulate private investment by as much.

However, the lower value for the rupee would make domestic producers more competitive so that the trade deficit might narrow. As a consequence the foreign debt may not go up at least on this count.

A fiscal policy that arrests the fall in the value of the rupee and permits sufficient drop in the interest rate would be the obvious antidote in this situation. A natural corollary would be that if monetary policy is directed primarily toward price stabilization, then fiscal policy should be used for correcting the external imbalance. But such a fiscal policy becomes difficult to pursue if exchange rate expectations are volatile. Volatile expectations are rational if exchange rates overshot equilibrium values in response to a monetary shock.

In addition, financial markets (domestic and international) are subject to ‘bubble like behaviour’. Each such bubble would correspond to markets reacting to ‘news’ that could not be justified as ‘rational’ by subsequent events. Examples would include the recent overvaluation of technology stocks as well as the strength of the yen in early 1995. Such sharp changes in asset values would reverberate in currency markets. Even if interest rate movements offset the implied changes in currency values, there would be an effect on anticipated inflation (through prices of imports and exports) in an economy that is getting increasingly integrated with the world economy. This would again impact on the monetary transmission mechanism.

For these reasons countries look for capital controls as a way to ease the pressure on monetary and fiscal policy when international capital markets are highly integrated. Thus, China, Malaysia, Russia and others have opted for some forms of capital controls. Chile experimented with a much-studied form of capital controls and India shelved its plans for capital account

convertibility. However, the danger with capital controls is that they tend to become porous over time. Further, they may, like most controls, be misused. All these tend to make the choice of fixed exchange rate regime, which can be changed when needed (a variable peg), look attractive.

41. Exchange rate mechanism adopted by RBI for rupee is

(a) Immutable fixed exchange rate.

(b) Managed-floating exchange rate.

(c) Free-floating exchange rate.

(d) Any of the above, depending upon the prevailing over-all economic situation.

(e) None of the above

42. What is related to Mundell-Flemming model?

(a) A country has to give up its independent monetary policy in fixed exchange rate mechanism.

(b) With a managed float exchange rate mechanism effectiveness of the fiscal policy is at stakes.

(c) Managed float exchange rate mechanism is most appropriate

(d) Both A and B


43. What possible effect might depreciating rupee have on foreign debt?

(a) Foreign debt is likely to increase.

(b) Foreign debt is likely to remain unaffected

(c) Foreign debt is likely to decrease.

(d) The foreign-trade deficit might increase


44. Which of the following trend might be considered as not healthy for Indian economy?

(a) A relatively stable rupee

(b) A low interest rate.

(c) A volatile rupee in foreign exchange market

(d) A monetary policy directed towards domestic price stablilsation.

(e) Only C and D

45. What is implied by ‘leaning against the wind’ mentioned in the first paragraph?

(a) That RBI is interested in maintaining a fixed price of rupee with respect to dollar.

(b) That monetary policy is dependent upon fiscal policy

(c) That RBI will intervene in currency market if slide in value of rupee is ‘too fast’

(d) That Government of India (Gol) will only regulate policies to minimize untoward fluctuations in foreign currency market.

(e) None of the above.

46. Which policy measures is not adopted by RBI to control the value of rupee in the currency exchange market?

(a) Regulation of bank rate.

(b) Fixation of value of rupee at a desired level with respect to dollar.

(c) Taxing locked in export earnings.

(d) By directly intervening in the foreign exchange market.


47. If the bank rates are decreased substantially what effect it would have on rupee in foreign currency exchange market?

(a) The value of rupee will appreciate.

(b) The value of rupee will depreciate.

(c) Indian rupee will remain unaffected.

(d) Value of rupee depends upon multiple of other factors and its effects would be difficult to predict.

(e) Only A and D

48. What is meant by ‘bubble like behaviour’?

(a) Reverberations in currency market because of sharp changes in asset value.

(b) Over valuation of technology stocks.

(c) Irrational behavior of financial market leading to occasional boom-bust cycle.

(d) Unjustified strength of yen in mid 1990s.

(e) All of the above

49. Why do some countries opt for some form of capital controls to regulate the value of their currency in foreign exchange?

(a) To ease the pressure on monetary and fiscal policy in globalised capital market.

(b) To control capital account convertibility of currency

(c) To make capital control more porous.

(d) Only A and C

(e) All the above

50. What is the suggestion of the author regarding monetary transmission mechanism for India?

(a) Rupee should be made fully convertible on capital account.

(b) Fixed exchange rate regime is best suited for India

(c) India’s managed float mechanism is best in present circumstance

(d) Rupees value should be fixed to a basket of international currency.

(e) All of the above

Answer these Questions:-

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10C B A A C D C C B E11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20D B D C A B D D B D21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30D B E B C D C D D E

31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40C B E D B B D B B C41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50B D A C C B D C A C

Bank Clerk Sample Paper / Practice Paper

Directions (Q. 1 to 5): Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is any error in it. The error, if any, will be in one underlined part of the sentence. The alphabet of that part is answer. If there is no error the answer is ‘E’. (Ignore the error of punctuation, if any).

1. A planning of the hospital/A) and its surroundings/B) is drawn on the hoarding/C) outside the hospital-site/D). No error/E)

2. He asked me/A) when and where/B) had I planned/C) to spend my holidays? / D) No error / E)

3. The NATO had miserably/A) failed in anticipating/B) the out come of /C) airstrikes on Yugoslavia/D). No error/E)

4. The fleeing refuges/A) are at risk to get/B) caught in/C) heavy cross fire/D). No error/E)

5. I have been/A) really/B) looking forward to/C) visit you again/D). No error/E)

Directions (Q. 6 to 10): In each of following sentences there are two blank spaces. Below each sentence, there are five pairs of word/phrases. Choose a pair of words/phrases that fits into the blanks to give a meaningful sentence.

6. Star TV makes a last ditch attempt to revive its ——–even as the over all TV scenario remains in the ——-

(a) Capital; difficulty (b) chance; fraction

(c) Luck; lurch (d) fortunes; doldrums

(e) Luck; store

7. In west Bengal, the public health system has ———away and ———-government hospitals are run by party –sponsored unions.

(a) Withered; imitating (b) plundered; robust

(c) Plucked; absurb (d) pondered; rapacious

(e) Burnished; dilapidated

8. The editor claims they have only removed mistakes that ———in while ———–but other accuse them of changing meaning.

(a) Blurred; imitating (b) bombarded; shooting

(c) Braced; writing (d) brooded; copying

(e) Crept; transcribing

9. A former chief minister, ———pariah by his party boss has a word of ——–to supporters who might wish to dive with him, “Don’t”.

(a) Renounced; advice (b) rendered; advice

(c) Disowned; caution (d) abjured; promise

(e) Ceded; help

10. He was ———-with the ———-task of putting up a defence for Jeans, the country’ official submission for the Best Foreign Film Oscar.

(a) Saddled; unenviable (b) burdened; impartial

(c) Mustered; absurd (d) pestered; unsuitable

(e) referred; uncanny

Directions (Q. 10 to 15): Read each of the following sentences to find out whether there is any error in it. Each sentence has four underlined parts. The error, if any, will be in one underlined part. The alphabet of that part is answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘E’ (Ignore the error of punctuation, if any).

11. We all/A) had some/B) of the cakes/C), she probably ate most/D). No error/E)

12. The/A) fire doesn’t/B) seem to be giving out/C) much/D) heat. No error/E)

13. Nobody /A) but/B) she /C) could be so/D) selfish. No error/E)

14. My father is in/A) the /B) CBI team which/C) is investigating the/D) security scam. No error/E)

15. No sooner did/A) the news of his murder flash/B) when/C) the violence erupted/D). No error/E)

Directions (Q. 16 to 20): Read each of the following sentences, some part or all the sentence is underlined. Below each sentence is given five ways of phrasing the underlined part. Select the answer which produces most effective sentence, one that is clear and exact.

16. The government may soon have no alternative except to increase the prices of petroleum.

(a) No alternative except to increase the prices of petroleum.

(b) No alternative but to increase the prices of petroleum.

(c) No alternative for the increase of the prices of petroleum.

(d) No alternative for increasing the prices of petroleum.

(e) No alternative other than to increase the prices of petroleum.

17. Even the choice of a Deputy CM may prove to be a problematic because it is likely to set about intense factionalism in the party.

(a) Because it is likely to set about intense factionalism

(b) Because it like to set forth intense factionalism.

(c) That it is likely to set an intense factionalism.

(d) Because it is likely to set off intense factionalism.

(e) But it would like to set about an intense factionalism.

18. It was obviously Mr. Basu’s stature which enabled him to get out with this act of indiscipline for which a junior member would have had to pay a heavy price.

(a) Which enabled him to get out with this act of indiscipline?

(b) Which enabled him to get away with this act of indiscipline?

(c) That allowed him to get away with this act of indiscipline.

(d) That allowed him to get out with this act of indiscipline.

(e) Which enabled him to get off with this act of indiscipline?

19. While Mahatma has suffered many martayrdoms at our hands when he was slain by Godse.

(a) When he was slain by Godse. (b) Than he was slain by Godse.

(c) Since he was slain by Godse. (d) When he had been slain by Godse.

(e) Because he was slain by Godse.

20. Monarchy, democray and communism have all failed, so go the argument.

(a) Have all failed, so go to the argument. (b) Have all failed, so goes to the argument.

(c) Are all failed so go the argument. (d) Has all been failed, so goes the argument?

(e) All have failed, so is the argument.

Directions (Q. 21 to 25): Each of sentences below has one or more blank spaces. Each blank indicating that a word has been omitted. Beneath each sentence five words or set of words are given. Choose one word or set of words, which when inserted in the sentence best fits in the meaning of the sentence, as a whole.

21. We paced the pavement for a time in ———on friends and books.

(a) Adventure (b) appraisement (c) discourse (d) exaggeration (e) collusion

22. She shook the money box so as to make it ——–.

(a) Hallow (b) surge (c) secure (d) rattle (e) corrupt

23. The only money box ——–with virtue is a box out of which one can get money when one wants it.

(a) Consonant (b) obsolete (c) dozy (d) whimsical (e) impious

24. There is a vast ———-of birds of the crow family.

(a) Consignment (b) grime (c) dump (d) eddy (e) concourse

25. Exercise is a ——–with many writers on health and longevity.

(a) Contest (b) freak (c) fetish (d) terror (e) stupor

Directions (Q. 26 to 32): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.

It has been a long hot summer and almost everyone seems to be having fun criticising the economic reforms. The congress party has taken leave of its lenses and wants to undo all the good work of its worthiest member, Manmohan Singh. The RSS continues to make noises against globalization. The left parties want to protect the labour aristocracy in the public sector

against the interests of the labouring masses. Sharad Yadav has shamelessly given away free telephones to all telephone company employees. That leaves only the Prime Minister to fight for India’s future all alone, with only a handful of reformers to depend upon.

The reforms are anti-poor this is the constant refrain of the critics. Talk of the poor, I am convinced, confuses the debate on reforms. In the short term, the reforms will have no impact on the poor. In the longer run, the reforms will pull up the poor into the middle class.

In any society, the top 15 per cent of the people will do well and look after themselves. The bottom 15 per cent will fail and will need to be looked after. In between is the 70 per cent or the vast majority or the people, which in successful economies becomes the middle class. Our real tragedy in the last 50 years is not our poverty but that we did not create the middle class. Our socialist policies suppressed initiative, jobs, economic growth and middle class opportunities. Hence, our middle class was barely eight per cent of the population in 1980.

After the economy started seriously growing from the 1980s, the middle class has tripled, according to the National Council of Applied Economic Research, and is now 18 per cent of a much larger population. Given the right incentive system, the middle class invariably pulls itself up through hard work, self-help and education in a competitive society and the task of the economic reforms is precisely to create such an incentive system. If the reforms are successful, they will succeed in making a majority of India’s population middle class within a generation. And then, it will also be easier to look after the poor when they are 15 per cent of the population rather then forty.

Who have the reforms hurt so far? Scrapping licensing has only hurt the corrupt bureaucrat and businessman. It does not immediately affect the poor. Similarly, opening the economy to trade and investment has only hurt the inefficient Indian producer and his labour. Neither of them are the wretchedly poor. Reducing controls on the economy has only brought efficiency, removed monopolies, and liberated new entrepreneurs. It is true that the second phase of reforms will cause job losses and pain. But these jobs belong to our pampered organized labour, primarily in inefficient public sector companies. This labour has amongst the lowest productivity in the world, is insensitive to consumers, and gives Indian industry a bad name. By no stretch of the imagination can we call it poor.

Nor will cutting subsidies significantly hurt the poor. Experts are unanimously agreed that over 75 per cent of the subsidies do not reach the poor. Fertiliser and power subsidies are enjoyed by the rich and the middle class farmers –the rural poor are mainly landless labour. Similarly, the food subsidy through the PDS does not reach the poor, especially in Bihar and UP. Food subsidy has largely been enjoyed by the urban middle class. Economists around the world have been arguing that subsidies are the worst way to help the poor because they distort the price mechanism for the whole economy and misallocate society’s scarce resource. Instead of subsidies it is beter to give money to the poor (which, of course, has its own problems, for all Indians, including millionaires, will stand in a queue to be counted among the poor).

The reforms, thus, do not hurt the poor. Unlike our past policies, the reforms focus on prosperity and not on poverty. They assume that the poor do not want handouts; they want viable jobs so

that they can pull themselves up into the middle class. By making the economy efficient and productive the reforms will create jobs, growth, and the middle class. Our politicians need to understand this, and proclaim from the rooftops: “The reforms are not anti-poor!”

Meanwhile, the experts in the academia, the NGOs, and the development institutions need to dig deeper into the explosive growth in our middle class to gauge the success of the reforms (and not be mesmerized by our controversial poverty figures). Finally, let us remember what Aristotle said: “The most perfect political community is one in which the middle class is in control and outnumbers both of the other classes.”

26. Since 50 years of independence, we failed to

(a) Bring-up poor above poverty line.

(b) Accelerate economic growth.

(c) Create a middle class.

(d) To bridge the gap between rich and poor.


27. In any society, a middle class grows when

(a) The policy of economic reform is successfully pursued.

(b) Proper opportunities are provided.

(c) Socialistic pattern of economy is withdrawn.

(d) Fifteen percent well to do looks after the rest.


28. According to author, the worst hits by reforms are

(a) Middle class and new entrepreneurs.

(b) Corrupt bureaucrats and businessmen and inefficient producers and labours.

(c) The poor.

(d) Only A & B

(e) Only B & C

29. According to author, subsidies should be scrapped because

(a) Most of the fertilizer and power subsidies are enjoyed by rich and middle class farmers and the rural poor mainly constitute landless labour.

(b) The food subsidies through PDS does not reach poor but enjoyed by urban middle class.

(c) Subsidies are the worst way to help poor because they distort the price mechanism and misallocate the scarce resources of the state.

(d) Only A & B

(e) All the above

30. According to author, which one of the following is not true about reforms?

(a) Reforms are not anti-poor but focused on prosperity, not on poverty.

(b) It does not intend to help poor by hand outs but by providing better opportunity and viable jobs.

(c) Reforms are successful only when it creates vast majority of population into middle class.

(d) It does not let the 15 per cent of population to pull up into middle class.

(e) It brings efficiency, removes monopoly and creates new entrepreneurs.

31. According to author, what should be the task of economic reforms?

(a) To create job opportunities for unemployed.

(b) To pull the people into middle class.

(c) To create the right incentive system.

(d) To create such a situation so that the benefits of reforms reach the poorest of the poor.


32. According to the author, in India, the success of reforms can be gauged from the fact that

(a) The Govt. has reduced the subsidies.

(b) The Govt. has started the second phase of reforms.

(c) Since 1980, the growth in our middle class has tripled from 8 to 18 percent.

(d) A much larger population under poverty line has pulled themselves up.


Directions (Q. 33 to 37): Each question below consists of a word printed in capital letters. Choose the word that is most nearly opposite in meaning to the word in capitalized letters.

33. ALIGHT

(a) Light (b) remain (c) prevail (d) reduce (e) mount

34. ADVERSITY

(a) Adherent (b) occasion (c) fondness (d) ease (e) dimple

35. HUSBANDRY

(a) Munificence (b) consort (c) riddle (d) convocation (e) rectitude

36. APPROPRIATE

(a) Partial (b) unsuitable (c) convenient (d) conscious (e) horrible

37. METICULOUS

(a) Bourgeois (b) foolish (c) gypsy (d) careless (e) antagonistic

Directions (Q. 38 to 42): Each sentence or phrase given below is followed by five words. Pick the word which is closest in meaning to the preceeding phrase or sentence.

38. Having a strong sharp taste and smell.

(a) Gruesome (b) pungent (c) frivolous (d) opalescent (e) mortifying

39. An extremely large number

(a) Impetus (b) inconceivable (c) urge (d) myraid (e) surmise

40. A painful experience which is difficult to endure.

(a) Frustration (b) rage (c) ordeal (d) perturbation (e) idiosyncrasy

41. Love without sensual desire.

(a) Triumph (b) Devine (c) platonic (d) debauches (e) facsimile

42. To mix at random, as playing cards.

(a) puzzle (b) poach (c) synchronise (d) emulate (e) suffle

Directions (Q. 43 to 45): Arrange the sentences b, c, d, e to form a logical sequence between sentences (a) and (f).

43. a. Once the problem is diagnosed the prescription follows logically.

b. The solution must be to create a strong body of opinion among the constituents in favour of reforms.

c. And as experience, has shown once political class has brought around to your side, the bureaucracy, ever willing to sway with the wind will following suit.

d. In a democratic polity if this were to happen, the politicians would have to fall in line or face marginalization by electorate.

e. The real task before PM, therefore, is to build a conseusus in favour of reforms not just among a handful of ministers, but among the people of India whom the reforms are meant to serve. f. It is admittedly a more demanding task than campaigning to one’s own kind but it is more rewarding and more imperative.

(a) abcdef (b) abdcef (c) acbedf (d) aecbdf (e) acbdef

44. a. If the higher rate of inflation could have been explained by higher fuel costs alone, there might not have been much cause for worry.

b. In a dramatic reversal of past trend, prices of primary articles as well as manufactured articles have registered an increase during the week-in question.

c. Agreed, it is the non food category within the primary group that has recorded the sharpest increase, but that is small comfort.

d. Unfortunately, however that is not the case.

e. And while the rise in the prices of manufactured articles is quite nominal, it is difficult to be sanguine about the rise in primary article.

f. Price rises here are bound to feed through to the rest of the economy and none of this bodies well for consumer or for the government either.

(a) abcdef (b) acbdef (c) abdcef (d) adbecf (e) aecdbf

45. a. With the passing of the information technology bell, India is now poised to become one of the first few nations to have such legislation.

b. a digital signature is equivalent to a physical signature and is unique to an individual.

c. The IT bill seeks to give legal validity to digital signatures and certificates.

d. Any digital document carrying this signature has signed it and it will now hold in a court of law.

e. A digital signature not only authenticates a user but also ensures confidentiality and integrity of message.

f. The backbone of this technology is crytography.

(a) abcdef (b) acbedf (c) acbdef (d) aedbcf (e) adecbf

Directions (Q. 46 to 50): Four incomplete sentences are given below. They can be meaningfully completed by the words given below. You have to choose the word that fits maximum number of blank.

46. I. Father advised his daughter not to ———–boy friend after 7.P.M

II. It is hard to ———your explanation for being late to work.

III. Please ———the children with your stories and jokes.

IV. It was hard for Mr. Sinha to ———the notion that he would retire next Monday.

(a) Accept (b) consider (c) entertain (d) receive (e) digest

47. I. He was so hungry that he ——–everything served to him.

II. The plot in the novel was so interesting that I ———it in one siting.

III. The forest fire ——–every thing that came into its way.

IV. She was ———by intense hatered to destroy him.

(a) Exhumed (b) devoured (c) ate (d) destroyed (e) consume

48. I. An interesting———-of rural life is simplicity.

II. After the skirmish events began to take a more sinister ————

III. The worst ———-of the holocaust was that millions of people were killed.

IV. You should look at the problem from every ————

(a) Feature (b) turn (c) point of view (d) consideration (e) aspect

49. I. Three people were ——-on charges of murder.

II. Adequate preventive measures ———the spread of malaria.

III. Delicate miniature sculpture on the temple wall ——–our attention.

IV. Police ———-a thief stealing valuable from the house.

(a) Caught (b) arrested (c) stopped (d) checked (e) seized

50. I. They ——– a virulent campaign against their political opponents.

II. New model of the car will be ——–at the end of Independence Day.

III. New air craft carrier is unlikely to be ——–in next five years.

IV. He has ——–himself on a carrier in property dealing.

(a) Instituted (b) started (c) initiated (d) launched (e) made available

Answer these Questions:-

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10A C B B D D A E B A11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20C C C A C B D B C b21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30C D A E C C A B E D31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40C C E D A B D B D C41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50C E B D C C B E B D

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

1. Which country will introduce entrepreneur visa to encourage foreign nationals from India and elsewhere to catalyze the country’s economic recovery?

(a) US (b) Britain

(c) France (d) Denmark

(e) None of these

2. Name the state whose chief minister has said that the Armed Forces Special Powers Act can be withdrawn from some areas with a rider that the Army can step in again if the situation so warrants.

(a) Jammu and Kashmir (b) Manipur

(c) Assam (d) Mizoram

(e) None of these

3. Who among the following has won the Durand Cup held in New Delhi recently?

(a) JCT (b) Chirag United

(c) East Bengal (d) Mohun Bagan

(e) None of these

4. Name the Spanish world champion who won the Valencia Grand Prix in the final round of the world championship.

(a) Jorge Lorenzo (b) Malcolm Campbell

(c) Enzo Ferrari (d) Louis Chiron

(e) None of these

5. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Swiss Indoors – Roger Federer

(b) ATP Valencia Open – David Ferrer

(c) WTA tournament of Champion – Ana Ivanovic

(d) Questnet Open ITF Women’s – Nicha Lertpitak

(e) US Open 2010 – Roger Federer

6. Who is the author of the book World of All Human Rights?

(a) Harish Salve (b) Santosh Hegde

(c) Arundhati Roy (d) Soli J Sorabjee

(e) None of these

7. Name the Ethiopian legend who announced his retirement after dropping out of the New york City Marathon with a knee injury.

(a) Haile Gebreslassie (b) Duncan Kibet

(c) James Kwambai (d) Patrick Makau

(e) None of these

8. Name the deputy governor of RBI who retired recently after spending nearly 38 years there in various capacities during which she has had a stint in virtually every area of central banking.

(a) Mohan Rakesh (b) Subir Gokarn

(c) Usha Thorat (d) Shyamala Gopinath

(e) None of these

9. Name the person who has been honoured with the prestigious 2010 Intel Environment Award for his efforts to solve global safe drinking water and sanitation crises.

(a) Subir Bhomick (b) Rajesh Shah

(c) Sundarlal Bahuguna (d) Chandi Prasad

(e) None of these

10. The three-day India Economic Summit, organized by the Geneva-based World Economic Forum (WEF), November 14-17 was held in

(a) New Delhi (b) Geneva

(c) Washington (d) Brussels

(e) None of these

11. Name Myanmar’s celebrated pro-democracy leader and a political prisoner of global stature who was set free from house arrest in Yangon.

(a) Ne Win (b) San Yu

(c) Maung Maung (d) Than Shwe

(e) None of these

12. The 10th Russia-India-China (RIC) meeting was held in

(a) Guilin (China) (b) Beijing (China)

(c) Bangalore (India) (d) Wuhan (China)

(e) None of these

13. Which of the following has been removed from the United Nations list of unresolved disputes, in a setback to Pakistan which has been asking the world body to intervene on the issue?

(a) Siachin (b) Sir Creek

(c) Baglihar dam (d) Jammu and Kashmir

(e) None of these

14. Which of the following has not been conferred Maharatna status by the Central government?

(a) ONGC (b) IOC

(c) NTPC (d) SAIL

(e) Railways

15. Who has been re-appointed as the prime minister of France?

(a) Dominique de Villepin (b) Jean-Perre Raffarin

(c) Francois Fillon (d) Lionel Jospin

(e) None of these

16. Who among the following became the first enlisted Sikh soldier in the US Army in more than two decades to complete basis training after getting a rare religious exemption for his turban and beard because the military requires his language skills?

(a) Kamaljeet Singh Kalsi (b) Tejdeep Singh Rattan

(c) Bob Singh Dhillon (d) Simran Preet Singh Lamba

(e) None of these

17. Ending weeks of opposition to a European Union bailout, heavily-indebted –has agreed finally with the EU and the International Monetary Fund (IMF) on a multi-billion euro rescue package to avert bankruptcy. It will be the first country to receive financial support from the euro 750-billion (nearly trillion dollars) financial safety net, spread by the EU and the IMF six months ago, to help euro zone nations facing liquidity crisis.

(a) Ireland (b) Spain

(c) Argentina (d) Denmark

(e) None of these

18. Sonal Mansingh is associated with

(a) Painting (b) Theatre

(c) Dance (d) Sports

(e) None of these

19. Who has won the Indian Open golf title recently?

(a) Baek Seuk-Hyun (b) Rikard Karlberg

(c) Manar Jaini (d) Shiv Kapur

(e) None of these

20. Serbia has won the Davis Cup title by defeating

(a) France (b) US

(c) Switzerland (d) Sweden

(e) None of these

21. Who has been crewned Miss Earth Talent 2010 after beating 17 other contestants at a talent competition in Ho Chi Minh City in Vietnam?

(a) Jennifer Pazmino (b) Watsaporn Wattanakoon

(c) Yeidy Bosquez (d) Nicole Faria

(e) None of these

22. Who won the 21st Lal Bahadur Shastri hockey tournament?

(a) ONGC (b) Indian Oil

(c) Air India (d) Indian Railways

(e) None of these

23. Which country has recently won the ICC Inter Continental Cup in Dubai?

(a) Kenya (b) Scotland

(c) Afghanistan (d) China

(e) None of these

24. World leaders from 193 countries signed a new global climate regime on Dec 11 called

(a) Cancun Agreement (b) Kyoto Agreement

(c) Copenhagen Agreement (d) London Agreement

(e) None of these

25. Mobile banking is set to get a boost form IMPS, which stands for

(a) Inter-Bank Mobile Payment Service

(b) Inter-Bank Money Payment Service

(c) Inter-Bank Money Payment System

(d) Inter-Bank Money Payment System

(e) None of these

26. With the aim of giving a fillip to development schemes in tribal and backward regions, mostly affected by Naxal violence, the Cabinet Committee on Economic affairs (CCEA) has approved the commencement of an Integrated Action Plan (IAP) in

(a) 20 districts (b) 40 districts

(c) 60 districts (d) 100 districts

(e) None of these

27. Name of the animal rights crusader who was presented the shining World Compassion Award along with a cheque for 20,000 dollars from Supreme Master Ching Hai International Association.

(a) Vandana Shiva (b) Sunita Narain

(c) Maneka Gandhi (d) Sunder Lal Bahuguna

(e) None of these

28. Name the founder of the whistleblower website Wikileaks.

(a) Julin Assange (b) Navi Pillay

(c) Phillip Adams (d) BenLaurie

(e) None of these

29. Name the country’s only government award for an environmental film.

(a) Vasudha Award (b) Vasundhara Award

(c) Vaishali Award (d) Vriksha Mistra Award

(e) None of these

30. The controversial UDRS system used in cricket is

(a) Universal Decision Review System

(b) Unified Decision Review System

(c) Umpire Decision Review System

(d) Unmanned Decision Review System

(e) None of these

31. Which of the following is anti-corruption watchdog?

(a) WTO (b) Transparency International

(c) UN Security Council (d) Wikileaks

(e) None of these

32. Who among the following has been appointed as the new director of the Central Bureau of investigation watchdog?

(a) Ashwani Kumar (b) Amar Pratap Singh

(c) DP Kohli (d) VS Tiwari

(e) None of these

33. Who is the author of the book Yes, We Can!?

(a) M Karunanidhi (b) Dr Ramadoss

(c) Vaiko (d) MK Azhagiri

(e) None of these

34. Who is the author of the book A Rainbow in the Night?

(a) Jim Corbett (b) George Orwell

(c) Riduard Lo[;omg (d) Dominique Lapierre

(e) None of these

35. Which country will host the FIFA World Cup in 2018?

(a) England (b) Spain

(c) Portugal (d) Belgium

(e) None of these

36. Name the film which is an Indo-Bangladesh joint production and has bagged the coveted Golden Peacock Award for the Best Film at the 41st International Film Festival of India (IFFI) 2010.

(a) Moner Manush (b) Bilet Pherat

(c) Andhare Lao (d) Neel Akasher Neechey

(e) None of these

37. Beighton Cup is associated with

(a) Football (b) Cricket

(c) Badminton (d) Hockey

(e) None of these

38. Name the tiny the energy-rich gulf Arab country that has been picked to host the FIFA 2022 World Cup.

(a) UAE (b) Oman

(c) Saudi Arabia (d) Qatar

(e) None of these

39. World Disabled Day is observed on

(a) 1 December (b) 2 December

(c) 3 December (d) 4 December

(e) None of these

40. Name the concept introduced by the UPA govt through an Act in 2008 for imparting speedy justice to rural population.

(a) Gram Nyayalayas (b) Gram Panchayat

(c) Gram Nyaya Sabha (d) Gram Sabha

(e) None of these

41. Name the son of the late Andhra chief minister YS Rajasekhara Reddy who resigned form the Kadapa Lok Sabha constituency and Congress recently.

(a) K Rossiah (b) YS Jaganmohan

(c) Kiran Reddy (d) Gopal Rao

(e) None of these

42. What is Wikileaks?

(a) A spy agency (b) A terrorist organization

(c) A whistle-blowing website (d) A hackers, group

(e) None of these

43. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) IDBI Bank – RBI (b) ULIP—SEBI

(c) Pension – PFRDA (d) Insurance—IRDA

(e) Mutual Fund – PFRDA

44. Which of the following is not an instrument of capital market?

(a) Share (b) Bond

(c) Debenture (d) Repo

(e) All the above

45. Lemuam rimmer David R udisha and Croatian high jump star Blanka Vlasic were named male and female athletes of the year respectively by the

(a) IAAF (b) World Athletic Organisation

(c) European Athletic Organisation (d) World Athletic Federation

(e) None of these

46. Which of the following is the last book of VS Naipaul?

(a) A House for Mr Biswas (b) The Masque of Africa

(c) India: A Wounded Civilization (d) India: A Million Mutinies Now

(e) None of these

47. Who among the following is not an economist?

(a) Bhagwati Prasad (b) Suresh Tendulkar

(c) Kaushik Basu (d) Vandana Shiva

(e) All the above

48. Name the chief minister of Andhra Pradesh who resigned recently.

(a) YS Jaganmohan (b) YV Reddy

(c) Janardhan Reddy (d) K Rosaiah

(e) None of these

49. Nallari Kiran Kumar Reddy has been appointed as the Chief Minister of

(a) Karnataka (b) Andhra Pradesh

(c) Kerala (d) Tamil Nadu

(e) None of these

50. Who has been conferred Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for 2010?

(a) Luiz Inacio Lula da Silva (b) Aung San Suu Kyi

(c) Nelson Mandela (d) Bingu Wa Mutharika

(e) None of these

ENGLISH

Directions (Q. 51-64): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

July 15, 2010 turned out to be a historic day, as the Indian Rupee got the much-awaited symbol, just like other leading currencies of the world, viz Dollar, Euro, Pound Sterling and the Yen. The new symbol Rs. is an amalgamation of Devanagari “Ra” and the Roman “R” without the stem. Till now, the Rupee was written in various abbreviated forms in different languages.

The new symbol designed by IIT Bombay postgraduate Shri D Udaya Kumar was approved by the Union Cabinet on July 15. “It’s a big statement on the Indian currency… The symbol would lend a distinctive character and identity to the currency and further highlight the strength and global face of the Indian economy,” said Information and Broadcasting Minister Smt Ambika Soni, while briefing the media on the Cabinet decision.

The new symbol will not be printed or embossed on currency notes or coins, but it would be included in the “Unicode Standard” to ensure that it is easily displayed and printed in the electronic and print media. The encoding of the rupee symbol in the Indian Standards is estimated to take about six months while encoding in the Unicode and ISO/IEC 10646 will take about 18 months to two years. It will also be incorporated in software packages and keyboards for use in India.

On March 5, 2009 the Government announced a contest to create a symbol for the Rupee, inviting entries for the symbol, which would reflect and capture the Indian ethos and culture. Over 3000 entries were received, which were evaluated by a jury headed by the Deputy Governor, RBI, which also included experts from three reputed art and design institutes. The Jury selected five entries and also gave its evaluation of these five entries to the Government to take a final decision.

Shri Udaya Kumar’s entry was the ‘Best of Five”. He will get an award of Rs. 2.5 lakh and more than that an incredible fame, as the designer of the Rupee symbol. “My design is a perfect blend of Indian and Roman letters – capital ‘R’ and Devanagri ‘Ra’ which represents rupaiah, to appeal to international and Indian audiences… It is based on the tricolour, with two lines at the top and white space in between,” a visibly-happy Kumar said.

The genesis of the word ‘rupee’ is in the Sanskrit word ‘raupya’ which means silver. Indian Rupee is variously called ‘rupaya’ in Hindi, ‘rupiya’ in Gujarati, ‘roopayi’ in Telugu and Kannada, ‘rubai’ in Tamil and ‘rupyakam’ in Sanskrit. However in Eastern India it is called ‘Taka/Toka’ in Bengali and Assamese and ‘Tanka’ in Oriya.

India stands among the earliest to issue coin, and as a result it has seen a wide range of monetary units throughout its history. There is some historical evidence to show that coins may have been introduced the first time some time between 2500 and 1750 BC.

51. Who is the Union Information and Broadcasting Minister?

(a) Smt Sushma Swaraj (b) Smt Meera Kumar

(c) Smt Pratibha Devisingh Patil (d) Smt Ambika Soni

(e) None of these

52. What is the importance of 15 July in the history of Indian rupee?

(a) The new Rupee symbol replaced the old.

(b) The international community approved the Rupee symbol.

(c) The Cabinet approved the much-awaited Rupee symbol.

(d) Both (1) and (3).

(e) None of these

53. Which of the following countries has a currency symbol?

(a) China (b) France

(c) Singapore (d) Germany

(e) Not mentioned in the passage

54. Who has designed the newly approved Rupee symbol?

(a) A teacher posted at IIT Bombay (b) Mr Uday Kumar of Maharashtra

(c) Mr D Uday Kumar, a postgraduate

(d) Information and Broadcasting Minister

(e) None of these

55. The new design ‘Rs.’ finds its origin in

(a) Devanagari (b) Roman

(c) Devanagari and Sanskrit (d) Devanagari and Roman

(e) None of these

56. What is the importance of the new Rupee symbol?

(a) It highlights the strength of the Indian economy.

(b) Now Indian rupee gets value like Dollar, Pound, Euro Yen.

(c) Now most of the foreign countries will maintain their foreign exchange reserves in Rupee.

(d) Now it will be a fully convertible currency.

(e) None of these

57. Where is the genesis of the term ‘rupee’?

(a) It has been derived from Sanskrit word ‘Raupya’.

(b) It finds its origin in the term ‘Rupaya’ of Hindi.

(c) ‘Rupiyo’ in Gujarati

(d) ‘Roopayi’ in Tamil and Kannada

(e) None of these

58. What does ‘Raupya’ mean in Sanskrit?

(a) Gold (b) Diamond

(c) Silver (d) Bronze

(e) None of these

59. What is Rupee called in Oriya?

(a) Taka (b) Toka

(c) Rupyakam (d) Tanka

(e) None of these

60. When was the first coin introduced?

(a) Between 250 and 750 BC (b) Between 2500 and 1750 AD

(c) Between 250 and 759 AD (d) Between 2500 and 1750 BC

(e) None of these

61. When was the process to develop a new rupee symbol initiated?

(a) 15 July 2010 (b) 5 June 2009

(c) 5 March 2009 (d) 31 January 2010

(e) None of these

62. Which among the following methods did the Government adopt to get the new symbol?

(a) All the leading artists were asked to design.

(b) A contest was announced for the purpose.

(c) The contestants were interviewed.

(d) The governor of RBI was asked to decide the process.

(e) None of these

63. What do the two lines of the design mean?

(a) They reflect the federal structure of the govt.

(b) They reflect the mixed structure of Indian economy.

(c) They reflect the new liberalized Indian economy.

(d) They reflect the tri-colour India flag.

(e) None of these

64. How many designs were sent to the Government for approval?

(a) 3000 (b) 2000

(c) 10 out of 3000 (d) 5 out of more than 3000

(e) None of these

Directions (Q. 65-74): Read each sentence carefully and detect the error which may be in any one of the parts 1, 2, 3 or 4. In case of ‘No error’, 5 will be the answer.

65. (1) To hit a man/(2) when he is down/(3) is a contemptuous/(4) thing to do./(5) No error

66. (1) The climate on this/(2) altitude is cool and dry/(3) but down in the valley/(4) it is very sultry./(5) No error

67. (1) Since her mother/(2) died when she/(3) was young/(4) she did lack maternal care./(5) No error

68. (1) In 1665 a/(2) great pestilence caused/(3) the death of 63000 persons/(4) in the city of London./(5) No error

69. (1) Because of his/(2) lack of interest in the/(3) affairs of the society, the members/(4) decided to depose the president./(5) No error.

70. (1) In the last three/(2) years Rohan has managed/(3) to obtain for him thousands/(4) of foreign stamps./(5) No error.

71. (1) We watched the/(2) aeroplane until it/(3) disappeared, surrounded/(4) complete by clouds./(5) No error

72. (1) Before the police could/(2) seize on the way the thief/(3) escaped across the/(4) river into the forest./(5) No error

73. (1) If you leave/(2) now, you will have/(3) plenty time to reach/(4) the city by noon./(5) No error

74. (1) According to/(2) present-day opinion, action/(3) must be taken long/(4) ago to preserve forests./(5) No error

Directions (Q. 75-79): Rearrange the sentences given below in a way which would make an appropriate and meaningful paragraph. Mark the correct order of sentences and answer the questions given below.

i. In most of the tourist destinations of the valley, the somber environs greet the visitor.

ii. But the turmoil has restricted most of the pilgrims only to visit the Amarnath Shrine.

iii. Besides, most of the Amarnath Yatris too used to visit the valley’s tourist spots after their pilgrimage to the holy Amarnath cave shrine.

iv. The tourism industry was expecting a booming business this summer.

v. But the unrest has dashed the hopes of those associated with this industry, the mainstay of Kashmir’s economy.

vi. The industry was expecting at least ten lakh visitors this season.

75. After rearrangement which of the following sentences will come ‘FIRST’?

(a) I (b) ii (c) iii (d) iv (e) v

76. After rearrangement which will be the ‘SECOND’ one?

(a) I (b) ii (c) iii (d) iv (e) v

77. After rearrangement which will be the ‘FOURTH’ one?

(a) v (b) vi (c) iv (d) iii (e) i

78. After rearrangement which will be the ‘FIFTH’ one?

(a) ii (b) iii (c) iv (d) v (e) vi

79. After rearrangement which will be the ‘LAST’ one?

(a) vi (b) v (c) iv (d) ii (e) i

Directions (80-89): In the following passage some of the words have been left out, each of which is indicated by a number. Find the suitable words from the options given against each number and fill up the blanks with appropriate words to make the paragraph meaningful.

An increase in repo and reverse repo 80 borrowing and lending cost 81 banks will 82. This 83 ideally lead to overall increase in interest rates like credit, deposit etc. The higher interest will in turn 84 to lower demand and thereby lower 85. This is 86 monetary transmission process. However, this 87 may not work 88 and pose 89 problems for a central bank.

80. (a) says (b) reflects

(c) relates (d) implies

(e) None of these

81. (a) of (b) for

(c) to (d) by

(e) None of these

82. (a) diminish (b) decrease

(c) increase (d) stable

(e) None of these

83. (a) do (b) could

(c) should (d) can

(e) None of these

84. (a) lead (b) come

(c) result (d) go

(e) None of these

85. (a) recession (b) deflation

(c) inflation (d) stagflation

(e) None of these

86. (a) known (b) called

(c) told (d) said

(e) None of these

87. (a) route (b) step

(c) application (d) process

(e) None of these

88. (a) suitable (b) appropriate

(c) perfectly (d) systematic

(e) None of these

89. (a) further (b) many

(c) several (d) different

(e) None of these

Directions (Q. 90-94): Fill up the blanks with the most suitable pair of words from the options given to make a meaningful sentence.

90. We’re late. The film ——— have already started by the time we ——– the cinema hall.

(a) shall, arrive (b) would, reach

(c) will, get to (d) should, approach

(e) may, go

91. The fire spread through the building ——– but everybody was ——– escape.

(a) fast, enable to (b) instant, managed to

(c) quick, able (d) immediately, safe

(e) quickly, able to

92. I am thinking ——– a house; ——– you think that’s a good idea?

(a) buying, what (b) of buying, do

(c) taking, what (d) for, will

(e) of, do

93. I am tired. I’d rather ——– out this evening, if you don’t ——– .

(a) go, feel (b) not, accompany

(c) not be, worry (d) never go, annoy

(e) not go, mind

94. I must ——– now. I promised not ——– late.

(a) leave, being (b) reach, of being

(c) go, to be (d) do it, for being

(e) get in, of been

Directions (Q. 95-100): Replace the word/words given in bold by one of the given options to make the sentence correct and meaningful. In case of ‘no correction Required’ (NCR), 5 will be the answer.

95. It was not long for I discovered that he could neither read nor write.

(a) long before (b) long since

(c) longer than (d) long then

(e) No correction required

96. The death toll in the train accident went to six hundred.

(a) increased to (b) rose to

(c) spread to (d) counted to


97. While walking on the road, a dog bit one man.

(a) a dog had bitted a man (b) the man was dogged

(c) a dog did bit a man (d) the man was bitten by a dog


98. He promised that he will deliver the letter within two days.

(a) will must deliver (b) would deliver

(c) will be delivering (d) will have delivered


99. The negotiations faced a doldrums with neither side ready to move even an inch.

(a) a hanger (b) a crisis

(c) a hold (d) an abortion


100. I started early so that I may cover the maximum of distance before even mid-day.

(a) I would (b) I shall

(c) I did (d) I could


ANSWER THESE QUESTION

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10B A B A E D A C B A11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20E D D E C D A C B A21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30D C C A A C C A A C31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40B B C D E A D D C A41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50B C B D A B D D B A51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60D C E C D A A C D D61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70C B D D E A D E E C71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80D C E C D E B B D D81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90B C C A C B D C A C91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100E B E C A A D B B D

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