Doon University, Dehradun

Entrance Test

Ph.D. Environmental Science

Roll Number

Programme Name

Examination Centre

Date of Examination Signatures of Candidate Name of the Invigilator

Signature of the Invigilator

Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 100

INSTRUCTIONS FOR CANDIDATES

Candidates must read carefully the following instructions before attempting the Question Paper.

(i) Write your Roll Number in the space provided above

(ii) There are TWO PARTS in the Paper. PART I is compulsory. Answer all the 60 Questions in PART-

I.

(iii) In PART II select any Four Sections out of the Seven Sections (Botany, Biotechnology, Chemistry,

Geology, Mathematics, Physics and Zoology) and answer all the 10 Questions in each of the selected

Section.

(iv) Use ONLY BLUE/BLACK Ballpoint Pen to tick the correct option. Do not use Pencil.

(v) Please do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet.

(vi) Please do not do any rough work on the Answer Sheet.

(vii) Each question carries 1 mark. There will be no negative marking.

(viii) Pages at the end have been provided for rough work.

(ix) All answers must be tick marked directly on the question paper. Mark your answer only inside

the box given against the options as follows.

(a)

(b) √

(c)

(d)

1. The use of anthropoid hazard chemicals like

DDT causes reduction in fish population

because the chemical mimics the effect of

2. The ionizing radiation, which affects the

activities of most of the enzymes is due to

a. Photoemission of electron

b. Interaction of a-particles, b-and g-

rays with enzymes

c. Interaction of electron with body.

d. Interaction of radiation with

tissues.

3. SDS-PAGE of tissue proteins under

denaturation determines the

a. Hydrogen bond breakage

b. Sulfide bridge breakage

c. Subunits of protein

d. None of the above

4. Intake of lead may primarily cause the

damage of

a. Brain

b. Lung

c. Liver

d. Kidney

5. Parallelism among the standard curves can

be determined by one of the following.

a. ANOVA

b. Student‟s-t test

c. Chi square

d. ANCOVA

6. Liquid ammonia can be used in

refrigeration because of its

a. High basicity

b. High dipole moment

c. High heat of vaporization

d. Non-toxic nature

7. The pair of molecules forming strongest

intermolecular hydrogen bonds are

a. H2O and H2

b. HCOOH and CH3COOH

c. CH3COCH3 and CHCl3

d. SiH4 and SiF6

8. Which of these requires quantum nature of

light for their explanation ?

a. Diffraction

b. Polarisation

c. Black body spectrum

d. Interference

9. The mass of 1 mole of electron is equal to

a. 9.1094 × 6.16 × 10–28 g

b. 9.1094 × 10–31 × 6.023 × 1023 kg

c. (9.1094 × 10–31) / 6.023 × 1023

kg

d. (6.023 × 1023) / 6.1094 × 10–28

gm

10. Inversions occur when atmosphere is

a. unstable

b. neutral

c. slightly stable

d. most stable

a. Luteinizing hormone

b. Testosterone

c. Estrogen

d. All of the above

PART I

ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE

Note:

1. Answer all the 60 questions

2. Each Question carries 1 mark

11. Which of the transmutation does not take

place by a-decay ?

a. 238U92 ¾¾® 234Th90

b. 213Bi83 ¾¾® 213Po84

c. 226Ra88 ¾¾® 222Rn86

d. 227Ac89 ¾¾® 223Fr87

12. Which radioactive element is considered

under Indoor pollutants category ?

a. O –16

b. N –13

c. Carbon 14

d. Radon

13. Industries generating hazardous waste are

classified as

a. Brown

b. Green

c. Yellow

d. Red

14. One of the following methods for disposal

of municipal solid waste known to be

scientific is

a. Open land disposal

b. Incerination

c. Landfill method

d. Sanitary landfill method

15. One of the following is not an In situ

conservation for biological resources.

a. Biosphere reserve

b. National Parks

c. Protected areas

d. Breeding under confined areas

16. Solar ponds are used for

a. Salt production

b. Aquaculture

c. Power generation

d. All of the above

17. Biodiesel is produced in India presently

from

a. Calotropis sp

b. Catharanthus sp

c. Jatropha sp

d. Delonix sp

18. Ozone depletion is caused by the increase

in the level of

a. Water vapour

b. Chlorofluro carbon

c. Oxygen

d. Carbon monoxide

19. Thermal power generation in India is

carried out by burning

a. Natural gas

b. Coal

c. Oil

d. All of the above

20. Biogas production is the outcome of

a. Methanogenesis

b. Pyrolysis

c. Methanogenesis and Gasification

d. Gasification

21. Mauna Loa, in Hawaii is famous for

a. Botanical Garden

b. Monitoring sea level rise since

1950

c. Biggest collection of mammals

fossils

d. Continuous monitoring of

atmospheric CO2 since 1957

22. To generate environmental awareness

Paryavaran Vahini Scheme was launched

in

a. 1998

b. 1968

c. 1992

d. 1994

23. General Circulation Model (GCM‟s) are

used to

a. predict climate

b. predict cyclones

c. study ocean currents

d. study temperature on wind

24. Among the following which country has

lowest per capita green house gas emission ?

a. France

b. India

c. China

d. Mexico

25. Water (Prevention & Control of Pollution)

Act 1974, industries are allowed to release

waste in inland water having BOD level

a. 100 mg/l

b. 30 mg/l

c. 150 mg/l

d. 80 mg/l

26. Richael Carsson in her book Silent Spring

has raised concern on

a. Economical & social impacts

b. Deforestation

c. Climate change

d. Impacts of agro-chemicals on

ecological functions

27. The term oligotrophic refers to

a. Higher nutrients in water

b. High aquatic productivity

c. Low nutrients and low

productivity

d. Algal blooms

28. Following initiative under International

efforts made to have household eco-

friendly refrigerators :

a. Kyoto Protocol

b. Basal Convention

c. Montreal Protocol

d. CITES

29. The „mean‟ that stands for relative

importance of different items in a data set is

a. Weighted mean

b. Harmonic mean

c. Arithmetic mean

d. Geometric mean

30. In symmetrical distribution pattern

a. Median, Mean and Mode

coincide

b. Mean & Median coincide

c. Mean & Mode coincide

d. Mode & Median coincide

31. Which statistical device helps in analysing

the co-variation of two or more variables ?

a. Regression

b. Correlation

c. Standard deviation

d. Mean of the variables

32. 7. The pH of a 0.001 M solution of HCl is

a. 2

b. 4

c. 3

d. 1

33. Correct arrangement in order of decreasing

soil particle size

a. Sand, clay, silt

b. Silt, sand, clay

c. Sand, silt, clay

d. Clay, silt, sand

34. Comparing continental and oceanic crust

a. the chemical composition of crust

does not vary.

b. the Fe content in continental crust

is more than that of oceanic crust.

c. the Si and Al content in

continental crust is more than that

of oceanic crust.

d. the Na, Ca, Al content in oceanic

crust is more than that of

continental crust

.35. The size distribution of particles in soil

and sediments generally follow

a. binomial distribution

b. normal distribution

c. linear distribution

d. log-normal distribution

36. Maximum density of water is at

a. 0 °C

b. 100 °C

c. – 4 °C

d. 4 °C

37. The geochemical weathering process can

be viewed as

a. Clay minerals + CO2 Quartz +

Al2O3

b. Primary silicate + CO2 + H2O

clay minerals + cations + HCO–3

+ H4 SiO4 + H+

c. Primary silicate + H2O Al2O3 +

SiO2 + CaO + H+

d. Clay minerals + H2O Fe2O3 +

Al2O3 + SiO2 + CaO

38. Which group of minerals represent

a. Polymorphic transformation

b. Non-substitutional representation

c. Isomorphic substitution

d. Unmixed presence of different non

silicates

39. Garnet is a metamorphic product of

a. Feldspar

b. Quartzite

c. Mica

d. Serpentine

40. Formation of marble can be represented

by

a. CaSiO3 Ca+2

+ SiO3–2

b. CaO + CO2 CaCO3

c. CaCO3 CaO + CO2

d. CaCO3 + SiO2 CaSiO3 + CO2

41. For efficient crop productivity, the level

(kg/ha) of N, P, K in soils should,

respectively be

a. > 300, > 80 and > 360

b. < 50, < 15 and < 120

c. < 100, < 30 and < 180

d. 150, 50 and 240

42. How many sites as potential areas for

biosphere reserves have been identified

by the National MAB Committee for the

Department of Environment ?

a. 13

b. 23

c. 33

d. 43

43. Which one of the following is not a

permitting cryoprotectant ?

a. Glycerol

b. DMSO

c. Sucrose

d. 1, 2 – propanediol

44. The aggregation of all eco systems on the

earth is referred to as

a. Atmosphere

b. Ecosphere

c. Stratosphere

d. Ionosphere

45. Which one of the following is not a

biofertilizer ?

a. Aquatic ferns

b. Blue-green algae

c. Phosphate-Solubilising micro-

organisms

d. Vermicompost

46. Who first used and defined “Ecology” in

1866 ?

a. H. Reiter

b. Haeckel

c. Charles Elton

d. Odum

47. CITES has following schedules in order

of priority to protect animals and plants from

trade :

a. Schedule I, II, III

b. Schedule I, I, III

c. Schedule III, III, I

d. Schedule II, I, III

48. Methamoglobinemia is actually caused

by water pollution containing

a. NO2

b. NO–3

c. NH+4

d. NO–2

49. Environmental Impact Assessment is

mandatory for certain developmental project

under one of the following legislation :

a. The Factories‟ Act

b. Forest Act

c. Environment (Protection) Act

d. Air (Pollution and Control) Act

50. Which one of the following air pollution

control device has highest efficiency in

controlling dust ?

a. Wet Scruber

b. Electrostatic precipitator

c. Venturi Scruber

d. Cyclonic spray scruber

51. Lignite is a low grade coal found in

a. Gujarat

b. Uttar Pradesh

c. Tamil Nadu

d. Karnataka

52. India has huge resources of which nuclear

materials?

a. Uranium

b. Thorium

c. Plutonium

d. Deuterium

53. Pent wash is the effluent produced from

which industry?

a. Tannery

b. Textile

c. Pulp and paper

d. Distillery

54. Which radioactive element is considered

under indoor pollutants category?

a. O-16

b. N - 13

c. Carbon 14

d. Radon

55. A simple and relatively inexpensive film-

flow type of aerobic treatment method is

a. Septic tank

b. Activated sludge process

c. Percolating filter system

d. All of these above

56. Which is the most common gas released

from the landfills

a. Carbon monoxide

b. Methane

c. Hydrogen sulphide

d. Carbon di oxide

57. The water having Calcium concentration

in the range of 60-120 mg/l is considered

as

a. Soft

b. Hard

c. Medium

d. Very hard

58. During composting maximum degradation

and stabilization of organic matter occurs

during which stage?

a. Mesophilic

b. Thermophilic

c. Starting

d. Cooling

59. Septic tank is a most suitable unit for

a. Hospitals

b. Hotels

c. Hostels

d. All of the above

60. Electrostatic precipitators remove

a. Sulphur dioxide

b. Particulate matter

c. Both (a) and (b)

d. None of them

PART II

Note:

1. Select any THREE SECTIONS out of the following SIX Sections and answer all the 20

questions in each section.

2. All Questions carry equal marks.

Section A: BOTANY

1. You can determine the age of an

oak tree by counting the annual rings

formed by the

a. Primary xylem/apical meristem

b. Secondary phloem/vascular

cambium

c. Dermal tissue/cork cambium

d. Secondary xylem/vascular

cambium

2. Which of the following does not arise from

meristematic activity in a plant?

a. Secondary xylem

b. Tendrils

c. Corms

d. All of these

3. All plants exhibit alternation of generations.

This means their life cycle

a. Includes both haploid and diploid

gametes.

b. Shows only asexual reproduction

c. Has both a multicellular haploid

stage and a multicellular diploid

stage

d. Does not include meiosis

4. All flowering plants (angiosperms)

a. Produce exposed seeds

b. Are nonvascular.

c. Have flagellated sperm.

d. Havefruit.

5. Sort out the branched algae:

a. Oedogonium

b. Spirogyra

c. Zygnema

d. Ectocarpus

6. Callose is a:

a. Disaccharide

b. Monosaccharide

c. Protein

d. Polysaccharide

7. Mutation in which substitution of one amino

acid by another amino acid in codon takes place

is called:

a. Nonsense mutation

b. Missense mutation

c. Frameshift mutation

d. Promoter mutation

8. Transfusion tissue in gymnosperm leaves

are composed of:

a. Tracheids

b. Parenchyma cells

c. Sclerenchyma cells

d. Tracheids and Parenchyma

cells

9. Which of the following mineral deficiency

does not show necrotic symptoms?

a. Boron

b. Iron

c. Chlorine

d. Nitrogen

10. Gymnosperms differ from extinct ferns

because they have:

a. Have Pollen

b. Are woody

c. Have spores

d. Have macrophylls

1. In gram staining safranin acts as:

a. A Primary stain

b. Mordant

c. Counter stain

d. Decoloriser

2. RNA molecule that exhibit catalysis activity are

called:

a. mRNA

b. Ribonuclease

c. Ribozymes

d. Ribonucleotodes

3. The direct method of study of bacteriophage is:

a. Lysogenic conversion

b. Serological testing

c. Electron microscopy

d. Plaque study

4. Which are the most diverse molecules in cell:

a. Proteins

b. Carbohydrate

c. Lipids

d. Mineral salts

5. Which genus of bacteria given below grows best at

70-100 degree C.?

a. Pyrococcus

b. Halobacterium

c. Methanosarcinia

d. Nitrobacter

6. Explant is:

a. Any cut part of the plant

used in tissue culture

b. A plant extract used in

tissue culture

c. A Source of growth

regulator added to media

d. Solidifying agent

7. Haploid plants can be obtained through:

a. Meristem culture

b. Embryo culture

c. Endosperm culture

d. Pollen culture

8. Monoclonal antibodies are usually

produced from:

a. Myeloma

b. Hybridoma

c. Monocytes

d. Adipocyte

9. A segment of DNA that reads from the

same forward and backward is called:

a. lindromic DNA

b. Complementary DNA

c. Plasmid DNA

d. Copy DNA

10. Which one of the following organism is

used for the large scale production of

recombinant

insulin?

a. Plasmodium

b. Rhizobium

c. Agrobacterium

d. E.Coli

Section B: BIOTECHNOLOGY

1. The most malleable metal is

a. Platinum

b. Silver

c. Iron

d. Gold

2. The oil used in the froth floatation process

is

a. Coconut oil

b. Olive oil

c. Kerosene oil

d. Pine oil

3. The number of waves in n x 10th

Bohr's

orbit are

a. n2

b. n

c. n-2

d. n3

4. The mass of one Avogadro number of

helium atom is

a. 1.00 gram

b. 4.00 gram

c. 8.00 gram

d. 4 x 6.02 x 1023

gram

5. The items amenable to detection by soft x-

rays are

a. Contrabands

b. Llead in bullets

c. Narcotics

d. Genuine coins from counterfeit

coins

6. The material which can be deformed

permanently by heat and pressure is called a

a. Thermoplastic

b. Thermoset

c. Chemical compound

d. Polymer

7. The mass number of a nucleus is

a. Always less than its atomic

number

b. The sum of the number of

protons and neutrons present in

the nucleus

c. Always more than the atomic

weight

d. A fraction

8. The inexpensive and commonly used

variety of glass is called soda glass. It is

called so because

a. Was used initially for making

bottles of soda (carbonated

drink)

b. Is made using soda(sodium

carbonate)

c. Was initially used for storing

sodium carbonate

d. Is made using soda lime

9. The gas used in the manufacture of

vanaspati from vegetable oil is

a. Hydrogen

b. Oxygen

c. Nitrogen

d. Carbon dioxide

10. The ionic radii of N3-

, O2-

, F- and Na

+

follows the order

a. N3-

> O2-

> F- > Na

+

b. N3-

> Na+ > O

2- > F

-

c. Na+ > O

2- > N

3- > F

-

d. O2-

> F- > Na

+ > N

3-

Section C: CHEMISTRY

1. The term Orogeny was introduced by

e. Morgan

f. G.K. Gilbert

g. H. Hess

h. Holmes

2. The Tethys disappeared completely during

a. Eocene

b. Middle-Miocene

c. Pliocene

d. Oligocene

3. The final phase of Himalayan Orogeny

occurred

a. 00 million years ago

b. 3.5 million years ago

c. Before formation of Tethys

d. 65 million years ago

4. Oxy-bow lakes are generally associated

with the ---- stage stream.

a. Youth

b. Mature

c. Old

d. In any stage of stream

5. Landscape is a function of structure,

process and stage”, the statement is given

by

a. J-Hutton

b. Penk

c. Davis

d. Plafair

6. Choose among the following the largest

island in the world:

a. Greenland

b. New Guinea

c. Andaman Nicobar

d. Medagaskar

7. What is rift valley

a. It‟s a deep valley formed in between

the mountains

b. It‟s a valley on the sides of which

are huge mountain

c. It‟s a subsidized land leaving a long

and narrow opening

d. None of the above statement suits

for rift valley

8. Run off and erosion would probably be

greatest on a land area that is

a. Flat lying and slightly covered with

vegetation

b. Sloping and barren without any

vegetation

c. Gently sloping and covered with

grass

d. Sloping and contour ploughed

9. What is a Canyon? Is it a

a. Depression between two faults

b. Deep gorge or ravine

c. Feature formed by wind action

d. Rift valley or graben

10. Mountain soils are also termed as

a. Ex- Situ soils

b. Alluvial soil

c. Placer deposits

d. in- Situ soils

Section D: GEOLOGY

1. Two cards are drawn at random from a pack of 52 cards. The probability of getting atleast a spade and an ace is

a. 1/34

b. 8/221

c. 1/26

d. 2/51

2. If 𝑎𝑥2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 6 = 0 does not have two distinct real roots, where a 𝜖 R, b 𝜖 R, then the least value of 3a+b is

a. 4

b. -1

c. 1

d. -2

3. If A= 1 −1 11 2 01 3 0

then the value of |adj

A| is equal to

a. 5

b. 0

c. 1

d. 2

4. If 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝛼

2 and 𝑡𝑎𝑛

𝛽

2 are the roots of

equation 8𝑥2 − 26𝑥 + 15 = 0 then cos(α + β) is equal to

a. -627/725

b. 627/725

c. −1

d. 1

5. The rank of the matrix 1 2 3𝜆 2 42 −3 1

is 3 if

a. 𝜆 ≠ 18/11

b. 𝜆 = 18/11

c. 𝜆 = −18/11

d. None of these

6. If 𝑓 𝑥 =𝑠𝑖𝑛3𝑥

𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑥, where 𝑥 ≠ 𝑛𝜋, then the

range values of f(x) for real values of x is

a. [-1,3]

b. (-∞, −1]

c. (3,+∞)

d. [-1,3)

7. The angles of a right-angled triangle are in AP. The ratio of the in-radius and the perimeter is

a. (2 − 3: 2 3)

b. (1: 8 3 (2 + 3)

c. (2 − 3: 4 3)

d. (2 + 3: 2 3)

8. 𝑑(𝑥2+1)

𝑥2+2 is equal to

a. 2 𝑥2 + 2 + 𝑘

b. 𝑥2 + 2 + 𝑘

c. 1

(𝑥2+2)3/2 + 𝑘

d. −1

(𝑥2+2)3/2+ 𝑘

Section E: MATHEMATICS

9. The determinant

𝑎 𝑎 + 𝑑 𝑎 + 2𝑑𝑎2 (𝑎 + 𝑑)2 (𝑎 + 2𝑑)2

2𝑎 + 3𝑑 2(𝑎 + 𝑑) 2𝑎 + 𝑑 = 0.

Then

a. d=0

b. a+d=0

c. d=0 or a+d =0

d. None of these

10. If f(x) =

1 𝑥 𝑥 + 12𝑥 𝑥(𝑥 − 1) 𝑥(𝑥 + 1)

3𝑥(𝑥 − 1) 𝑥 𝑥 − 1 (𝑥 − 2) 𝑥(𝑥2 − 1)

then f(100) is equal to

a. 0

b. 1

c. 100

d. -100

1. In a gravity-free space, a man of mass M

standing at a height h above the floor

throws a ball of mass m straight down

with a speed u. When the ball reaches the

floor, the distance of the man above the

floor will be

a. 𝑕(1 +𝑚

𝑀)

b. 𝑕(2 −𝑚

𝑀)

c. 2h

d. A function of m, M, h and u

2. A rectangular block has a square base

measuring a x a, and its height is h. It

moves with speed v on a smooth

horizontal surface.

a. It will topple if 𝑣 > 2𝑔𝑕

b. It will topple if 𝑣 > 2𝑔𝑎

c. It will topple if 𝑣 >

2𝑔𝑎2/𝑕

d. It will not topple for any

value of v

3. Two soap bubbles with radii r1 and r2

(r2>r1) come in contact. Their common

surface has a radius of curvature r.

a. 𝑟 =r1+ r2

2

b. 𝑟 =r1 r2

r1− r2

c. 𝑟 =r1 r2

r1+ r2

d. 𝑟 = r1 r2

4. If a beam consisting of 𝛼, 𝛽 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝛾

radiations is passed through an electric

field perpendicular to the beam, the

deflections suffered by the components, in

decreasing order, are

a. 𝛼, 𝛽, 𝛾

b. 𝛼, 𝛾, 𝛽

c. 𝛽, 𝛼, 𝛾

d. 𝛽, 𝛾, 𝛼

5. A charge q is placed at the centre of the

line joining two equal charges Q. The

system of the three charges will be in

equilibrium if q is equal to

a. -Q/2

b. -Q/4

c. +Q/4

d. +Q/2

6. In a Young‟s double-slit experiment, the

fringe width is 𝛽. If the entire arrangement

is now placed inside a liquid of refractive

index 𝜇, the fringe width will become

a. 𝜇𝛽

b. 𝛽/𝜇

c. 𝛽/(𝜇 + 1)

d. 𝛽/(𝜇 − 1)

7. In a Young‟s double-slit experiment, the

central bright fringe can be identified

a. as it has greater intensity than

the other bright fringes

b. as it is wider than the other

bright fringes

c. as it is narrower than the other

bright fringes

d. by using white light instead of

monochromatic light

8. When the temperature of a body increases

from𝑡 to 𝑡 + ∆𝑡, its moment of inertia

increases from𝐼 to 𝐼 + ∆𝐼. The coefficient

of linear expansion of the body is 𝛼. The

ratio ∆𝐼

𝐼 is equal to

a. ∆𝑡

𝑡

b. 2∆𝑡

𝑡

c. 𝛼∆𝑡

d. 2𝛼∆𝑡

Section F: PHYSICS

9. During an adiabatic process, the pressure

of a gas is found to be proportional to the

cube its absolute temperature. The ratio 𝐶𝑝

𝐶𝑉= 𝛾 for the gas is

a. 2

b. 3/2

c. 5/3

d. 4/3

10. A system is taken from state A to state B

along two different paths 1 and 2. The heat

absorbed and work done by system along

these two paths are Q1 and Q2, and W1 and

W2 respectively. Then

a. Q1 = Q2

b. W1 =W2

c. Q1-W1= Q2 -W2

d. Q1+W1= Q2 +W2

1. Evolution of man is believed to have taken

place in

a. Central America

b. Australia

c. Asia

d. Africa

2. Which is part of pectoral girdle?

a. Glenoid cavity

b. Sternum

c. Ilium

d. Acetabulum

3. Mitosis is

a. Karyokinesis

b. Cytokinesis

c. Reduction in chromosome number

d. Both a and b

4. Laurer‟s canal is found in

a. Amoeba

b. Paramecium

c. Fasciola

d. Hydra

5. Muramic acid is a constituent of cell walls

in

a. Green algae

b. Bacteria

c. Blue-green algae

d. Both b and c

6. In crocodilia, the teeth are

a. Thecodont

b. Unequal

c. Not used for mastication

d. All of the above

7. Theory proposed by Bridgas is

a. Sex reversal

b. Hormonal control of sex

c. Genic balance

d. Development of gynandromorph

8. Conversion of ATP to ADP releases

a. Energy

b. Enzyme

c. Hormone

d. Electricity

9. Dudesia shows

a. Transverse binary fission

b. Longitudinal binary fission

c. Oblique binary fission

d. No binary fission

10. A man made micro-ecosystem is

a. Plants grown in a pond

b. Crop fields

c. Tank formed naturally in court yard

d. Lake in a forest

Section G: ZOOLOGY

Rough WORK

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