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FOR PLUS ONE STUDENTS

EXAMINATION SCHEDULE

Date of Exam 05-01-2020 (Sunday)

Exam Centre Will be notified in the Hall Ticket

Exam Pattern NEET / JEE-MAIN

Timing of Exam 9.30 AM – 01.00 PM

Reporting Time 9.00 AM

SCHEME OF EXAMINATION

EXAM EXAM PATTERN SUBJECTS NO. OF QNS. DURATION MAX.MARKS

NEET

Medical

Multiple choice with 4 options

Physics, Chemistry & Biology

180 Qns (Physics-45,

Chemistry-45, Biology-90)

3 Hrs. 720

JEE MAIN

Multiple choice with 4 options

Physics, Chemistry

& Mathematics

90 Qns (Physics-30,

Chemistry-30, Maths-30)

3 Hrs. 360

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES APPEARING FOR EXAMINATION

Candidates without having Identity card / Admit card will not be allowed to enter the exam hall

Candidates should occupy their seats allotted in the exam venue 30 minutes before the scheduled start of the examination.

Bring good quality ball point pen (Blue or Black) and writing board if necessary

M.O: Kunnumpuram, Ayurveda College Jn., Trivandrum-1 ( 0471-2573040, 2473040, 2466040 Branches: Puthussery Building, Kaloor, Ernakulam ( 0484-2531040 Sivajyothi Complex, Polayathodu, Kollam ( 0474-2743040, 2753040 Good Shepherd School, Marthandam ( 9746272773 E-mail: [email protected], Visit: www.zephyrentrance.in

mailto:[email protected]

http://www.zephyrentrance.in

PHYSICS CHEMISTRY BIOLOGY MATHEMATICS

Physical world-Units and Measurements

Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry

The Living World Sets

Motion in a straight line Structure of Atom Biological Classification Relations and Functions

Motion in a planeClassification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties

Animal Kingdom Trigonometric Functions

Laws of motion & FrictionChemical Bonding and Molecular Structure

Plant KingdomComplex Numbers and Quadratic Equations

Work, Energy and Power States of MatterStructural organisation in animals

Permutations and Combinations

System of particles and Rotational motion

ThermodynamicsMorphology of flowering Plants

Binomial Theorem

Gravitation Equilibrium Anatomy of Flowering Plants Sequences & Series

Properties of matter Hydrogen Digestion and Absorption

S Block elements Cell: The Unit of Life

P Block elements Cell Structure

Body Fluids and Circulation

EXAMINATION SCHEDULE & SYLLABUS

PAGE: 1

VERSION-A SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK TURN OVER

NEET MODEL EXAM FIRST YEAR TALENT TEST-2019 1. If we choose velocity V, acceleration A

and force F as the fundamental quantities, then the angular momentum in terms of V, A and F would be

(1) [FA–1 V] (2) [FV3A–2] (3) [FV2A–1] (4) [ML2T–1]

2. Match correctly Column I and Column II

Column I Column II

A Linear mass density P [M0L0T–1]

B Velocity gradient Q [ML–1T–2] C Pressure R [ML–1T–1]

D Coefficient of viscosity S [ML–1T0]

(1) A–P, B–Q, C–R, D–S (2) A–S, B–P, C–R, D–Q (3) A–S, B–Q, C–R, D–P (4) A–S, B–P, C–Q, D–R

3. A physical quantity P = 2

3 1/3

abcd e

is

determined by measuring a, b, c, d and e separately with the percentage error of 2%, 3%, 2% , 1% and 6% respectively. Minimum amount of error is contributed by the measurement of

(1) b (2) a (3) d (4) e

4. A body of mass 3 kg is suspended by a

string from a rigid support. The body is pulled horizontally by a force F until the string makes an angle of 300 with the vertical. The value of F and tension in the string are

(1) 19.6 N ; 19.6 N (2) 9.8 N, 9.8 N (3) 9.8 N, 19.6 N (4) 19.6 N, 9.8 N

5. Two forces P and Q have a resultant perpendicular to P. The angle between the forces is

(1) tan–1 (– P/Q) (2) tan–1 (P/Q) (3) sin–1 (P/Q) (4) cos –1 (–P/Q)

6. A ball is projected with a velocity 20 ms–

1 at an angle to the horizontal. In order to have the maximum range, its velocity at the highest position must be

(1) 10 ms–1 (2) 14 ms–1 (3) 18 ms–1 (4) 16 ms–1

7. If the range of a gun which fires a shell

with muzzle speed v is R, then the angle of elevation of the gun is

(1) 2

1cos vR g

−

(2) 12cos R g

v−

(3) 2

11 sin2

vR g

−

(4) 12

1 sin2

R gv

−

8. A body A starts from rest with an

acceleration a1. After 2 second, another body B starts from rest with an acceleration a2. If they travel equal distances in the 5th second, after the start of A, then the ratio a1 : a2 is equal to

(1) 5 : 7 (2) 5 : 9 (3) 9 : 5 (4) 9 : 7

9. A 600 kg rocket is set for a vertical

firing. If the exhaust speed is 1000 ms–1, the mass of the gas ejected per second to supply the thrust needed to overcome the weight of rocket is

(1) 117.6 kg s–1 (2) 58.6 kg s–1 (3) 6 kg s–1 (4) 76.4 kg s–1

PAGE: 2


NEET MODEL EXAM FIRST YEAR TALENT TEST-2019 10. A train consists of two bogies of mass m

and 2m and an engine of mass 2m as shown in the figure. If the train has an acceleration of 5 m/s2, then the tension force in the coupling between the middle car and the engine is (All surface are assumed to be smooth and m = 1000 kg)

(1) 25,000 N

(2) 20,000 N (3) 15,000 N (4) 10,000 N

11. Two blocks of masses M1 and M2 are

connected with a string passing over a pulley as shown in figure. The block M1 lies on a horizontal surface. The coefficient of friction between the block M1 and the horizontal surface is µ. The system accelerates. What additional mass m should be placed on the block M1 so that the system does not accelerate?

(1) 2 1M M−µ

(2) 21

M M−µ

(3) M2 – 1Mµ

(4) (M2 – M1) µ

12. A car of mass ‘m’ is driven with acceleration ‘a’ along a straight level road against a constant external resistance ‘R’. When the velocity is ‘v’, the power of the engine is

(1) Rv (2) mav (3) (R + ma) v (4) (R – ma) v

13. A simple pendulum of length 1m has a

bob of 200 g. It is displaced through 60° and then released. What will be its kinetic energy when it passes through the mean position? (Take g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 0.5 J (2) 1.0 J (3) 1.5 J (4) 2.0 J 14. If the system is released, then the

acceleration of the centre of mass of system is

(1) g/4 (2) g/2 (3) g (4) 2g 15. A 5 kg stationary bomb is exploded in

three parts having mass in the ratio 1 : 1 : 3 respectively. If parts having same mass move in perpendicular directions with velocity 30 m/s, then the speed of bigger part will be

(1) 10 2 m/s (2) 102

m/s

(3) 13 2 m/s (4) 15

2 m/s

3m

m

PAGE: 3


NEET MODEL EXAM FIRST YEAR TALENT TEST-2019 16. A solid sphere rolls down on two

different incline planes of the same height but of different inclinations. Then

(1) In both cases, the speeds and time of descent will be same

(2) The speeds will be same but time of descent will be different

(3) The speeds will be different but time of descent will be same

(4) Speeds and time of descent both will be different

17. A ring of mass m and radius R has three

particles attached to the ring as shown in figure. The centre of the ring has a speed v0. The kinetic energy of the system is (Slipping is absent)

(1) 2

06mv (2) 2012mv

(3) 204mv (4) 2

08mv 18. A particle is moving on a circular path of

10 m radius. At any instant of time, its speed is 5ms–1 and the speed is increasing at a rate of 2ms–2. The magnitude of net acceleration at this instant is

(1) 5 ms–2 (2) 2 ms–2 (3) 3.2 ms–2 (4) 4.3 ms–2

19. The power of a water pump is 2 kW. If

g = 10 ms–2, the amount of water it can raise in one minute to a height of 10 m is

(1) 2000 litre (2) 1000 litre (3) 100 litre (4) 1200 litre

20. A particle moves along a straight line. Its position at any instant is given by

38323tx t= − , where x is in metre and t

is in second. Find the acceleration of the particle at the instant when particle is at rest.

(1) –16 m/s2 (2) –32 m/s2 (3) 32 m/s2 (4) 16 m/s2+

21. A stone thrown upward with a speed u

from the top of the tower reaches the ground with a speed 3u. The height of the tower is

(1) 3 u2 / g (2) 4 u2 / g

(3) 6 u2 / g (4) 9 u2 / g

22. The driver of a train travelling at 115

km/hour sees on the same track, 100 m in front of him, a slow train travelling in the same direction at 25 km/hour. The least retardation that must be applied to faster train to avoid a collision is

(1) 50 m/s2 (2) 75 m/s2 (3) 3.125 m/s2 (4) 25 m/s2

23. A particle starts from rest, accelerates at

2 m/s2 for 10 s and then goes for constant speed for 30 s and then decelerates at 4 m/s2 till it stops. What is the distance travelled by it?

(1) 750 m (2) 800 m (3) 700 m (4) 850 m

m

2m m

PAGE: 4


NEET MODEL EXAM FIRST YEAR TALENT TEST-2019 24. The velocity-time graph for a particle

moving along x-axis is shown in the figure. The corresponding displacement-time graph is correctly shown by

(1) (2) (3) (4) 25. Neglecting the air resistance, the time of

flight of a projectile is determined by (1) Uvertical

(2) Uhorizontal (3) U = U2

verrtical + U2horizontal

(4) U = U (U2vertical + U2

horizontal)1/2 26. From a point on the ground at a distance

2 metres from the foot of a vertical wall, a ball is thrown at an angle of 45º which just clears the top of the wall and afterward strikes the ground at a distance

4m on the other side. The height of the wall is

(1) 2/3 m (2) 3/4 m (3) 1/3 m (4) 4/3 m

27. A projectile is given an initial velocity of

$( )2i j+$ m/s, where i$ is along the ground

and $j is along the vertical. If g = 10 m/s2, the equation of its trajectory is

(1) 4y = 2 x – 25 x2

(2)y = x –5 x2 (3) y = 2 x –5 x2 (4) 4y = 2 x –5 x2+

28. A projectile is thrown with a velocity of

10 2 m/s at an angle of 45o with horizontal. The interval between the moments when speed is 125 m/s is (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 1.0 s (2) 1.5 s (3) 2.0 s (4) 0.5 s

29. A block of mass M is pulled along a

horizontal frictionless surface by a rope of mass m. Force P is applied at one end of the rope. The force which the rope exerts on the block is

(1) ( )

PM m−

(2) ( )

PM m M+

(3) ( )

PMm M+

(4) ( )

PMM m−

v

t

t

x

t

x

t

x

t

x

PAGE: 5


NEET MODEL EXAM FIRST YEAR TALENT TEST-2019 30. A body of mass 8 kg is hanging from

another body of mass 12 kg. The combination is being pulled by a string with an acceleration of 2.2 ms–2. The tension T1 will be

(1) 200 N (2) 220 N (3) 240 N (4) 260 N

31. Two masses of 10 kg and 20 kg

respectively are tied together by a massless spring. A force of 200 N is applied on the 20 kg mass as shown in figure. At the instant shown, the acceleration of 10kg mass is 12 m/s2, the acceleration of 20 kg mass is

(1) 0

(2) 10 m/s2 (3) 4 m/s2 (4) 12 m/s2

32. A body of mass 2kg has an initial velocity of 3 metre/sec along OE and it is subjected to a force of 4N in a direction perpendicular to OE. The distance of body from O after 4 sec will be

(1) 12 metre (2) 20 metre (3) 8 metre (4) 48 metre

33. The figure shows the position – time (x – t)

graph of one-dimensional motion of a body of mass 0.4 kg. The magnitude of each impulse is

(1) 0.8 Ns

(2) 1.6 Ns (3) 0.2 Ns (4) 0.4 Ns

12 kg

8 kg

T1

T2 a

200N 10 kg 20 kg

S

S1

S2

O E

t = 4 sec accl. = a

v = 3m/s, t = 4 sec

2

0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16

x(m)

t(s)

PAGE: 6


NEET MODEL EXAM FIRST YEAR TALENT TEST-2019 34. A particle is moving along a circular path.

The angular velocity, linear velocity, angular acceleration and centripetal acceleration of the particle at any instant respectively are ω

ur, υ

r, α

ur and ca

r. Which

of the following relations is not correct?

(1) ωur

⊥ υr

(2) ω

ur ⊥ α

ur

(3) ωur

⊥ car

(4) υ

r ⊥ ca

r

35. A stone of mass 1 kg is tied to the end of

a string 1 m long. It is whirled in a vertical circle. If the velocity of the stone at the top be 4 ms–1, what is the tension in the string? (g = 10 ms–2)

(1) 16 N (2) 10 N (3) 6 N (4) 5 N 36. A person with mass m kg stands in contact

against the wall of cylindrical drum of radius r rotating with an angular velocity ω. If the coefficient of friction between the wall and the clothing is µ, the minimum rotational speed of the cylinder which enables the person to remain struck to the wall when the floor is suddenly removed, is

(1) ωmin = µrg

(2) ωmin = grµ

(3) ωmin = r

gµ

(4) ωmin = rgµ

37. A wheel is subjected to uniform angular acceleration about its axis. Initially its angular velocity is zero. In the first 2 sec, it rotates through an angle θ1; in the next 2 sec it rotates through an additional

angle θ2. The ratio of 2

1

θθ

is

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 5

38. The potential energy function for a

diatomic molecule is U ( ) 12 6

a bxx x

= − . In

stable equilibrium, the distance between the particles is

(1) 1/ 62a

b

(2) 1/ 6a

b

(3) 1/ 6

2ba

(4) 1/ 6b

a

39. A uniform chain has a mass m and length

l. It is held on a frictionless table with one-sixth of its length hanging over the edge. The work done in just pulling the hanging part back on the table is

(1) 72

mgl

(2) 36

mgl

(3) 12mgl

(4) 6

mgl

PAGE: 7


NEET MODEL EXAM FIRST YEAR TALENT TEST-2019 40. A bullet of mass m moving with velocity

v strikes a suspended wooden block of mass M. If the block rises to a height h, the initial velocity of the bullet will be

(1) 2gh

(2) ( ) 2M m ghm+

(3) 2( )

m ghM m+

(4) ( ) 2M m ghm−

41. A mass m moves with a velocity v and

collides inelastically with another identical mass. After collision, the first mass moves with velocity v/ 3 in a direction perpendicular to the initial direction of motion. Find the speed of the 2nd mass after collision

(1) 23v

(2) 3

v

(3) v (4) 3 v

42. If the linear momentum is increased by

50%, then K.E. will be increased by (1) 50%

(2) 100% (3) 125% (4) 25%

43. A circular disc X of radius R is made from an iron plate of thickness t, and another plate Y of radius 4R is made from an iron plate of thickness t/4. The ratio of moment of inertia IY/IX is

(1) 32 (2) 16 (3) 1 (4) 64

44. A small object of uniform density rolls up

a curved surface with an initial velocity v. It reaches up to a maximum height of

234gυ with respect to the initial position.

The object is (1) Ring

(2) Solid sphere (3) Hollow sphere (4) Disc

45. The M. I of a body about the given axis

is 1.2 kg × m2 initially the body is at rest. In order to produce a rotational kinetic energy of 1500 J, an angular acceleration of 25 rad/ sec2 must be applied about that axis for duration of

(1) 4 sec (2) 2 sec (3) 8 sec (4) 10 sec

v m m

v / 3

Before collision

After collision

v

PAGE: 8


NEET MODEL EXAM FIRST YEAR TALENT TEST-2019 46. 10g CaCO3 on heating leaves behind a

residue weighing 5.6g. CO2 released into the atmosphere at STP will be

(1) 1.12 L (2) 2.24 L (3) 4.48 L (4) 0.56 L

47. Two metallic oxides contain 27.6% and

30% oxygen respectively. If the formula of the first oxide is M3O4, that of the second will be

(1) MO (2) MO2 (3) M2O5 (4) M2O3

48. Total number of electrons present in 1.8

mL of water is (1) 6.02 × 1022

(2) 6.02 × 1023 (3) 6.02 × 1023 (4) 6.02 × 1024

49. The density of 2M NaCl solution is 1.117

g mL–1. The molality of the solution is (1) 1m (2) 1.5m

(3) 1.8m (4) 2m

50. In the reaction, 4NH3 + 5O2 → 4NO +

6H2O, when 1 mol of NH3 and 1 mole of O2 are made to react to completion, then

(1) 1 mole of H2O is formed (2) 1.5 mole of NO is formed

(3) All the O2 is consumed (4) All the NH3 is consumed

51. The maximum number of molecules

present in (1) 44.8 L SO2 at STP

(2) 64g SO2 (3) 11200 mL SO2 at STP (4) 3 mol SO2

52. In the ground state, an element has 13 electrons in its M-shell. The element is

(1) Co (2) Cr (3) Ni (4) Fe

53. The wavelength associated with a golf

ball weighing 200g and moving at a speed of 5m/hr is of the order

(1) 10–10 m (2) 10–20 m (3) 10–30 m (4) 10–40 m

54. The ionization potential for hydrogen

atom is 13.6 eV, the ionization potential for He+ is

(1) 54.4 eV (2) 6.8 eV (3) 13.6 eV (4) 24.5 Ev

55. The orientation of an atomic orbital is

governed by (1) Magnetic quantum number (2) Principal quantum number (3) Azimuthal quantum number (4) Spin quantum number 56. Which of the following set of quantum

numbers represents the highest energy of an atom?

n l m s (1) 3 0 0 +1/2 (2) 3 1 1 +1/2 (3) 3 2 1 +1/2 (4) 4 0 0 +1/2

57. The ratio of velocity of the electron in

the third and fifth orbit of Li2+ would be : (1) 3 : 5

(2) 5 : 3 (3) 25 : 9 (4) 9 : 25

PAGE: 9


NEET MODEL EXAM FIRST YEAR TALENT TEST-2019 58. The de-Broglie wavelength associated

with a ball of mass 1kg having K.E 0.5 J is (1) 6.626 × 10–34 m

(2) 13.20 × 10–34 m (3) 10.38 × 10–21m (4) 6.626 × 10–33 m

59. Which of the following is an incorrect

statement? (1) The I.E of nitrogen is greater than

that of oxygen (2) The electron affinity of chlorine is

greater than Flourine (3) The electronegativity of chlorine is

greater than fluorine (4) The I.E of Mg is greater than Na 60. Which of these has no unit? (1) Ionisation energy

(2) Electron gain enthalpy (3) Electronegativity

(4) Atomic size 61. The most acidic oxide among the

following (1) MgO

(2) Al2O3 (3) Cl2O7 (4) ZnO

62. The correct order of ionic size is (1) F– > Cl– > S2– > P3–

(2) F– < Cl– < S2– < P3– (3) F– < P3– < S2– < Cl–

(4) P–3 < S– < F– < Cl– 63. The electronic configuration of the atom

having maximum difference in first and second ionization energies is

(1) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s1

(2) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2

(3) 1s2 2s2 2p1 (4) 1s2 2s2 2p3

64. The values of IE1, IE2, IE3, IE4 and IE5 of an element are 7.1, 14.3, 34.5, 46.8 and 162.2 eV respectively. The element is likely to be

(1) Na (2) Si (3) F (4) Ca

65. In an octahedral structure, the pair of d-

orbitals involved in d2sp3 hybridisation is (1) dxz and dyz

(2) 2 2x yd

− and 2z

d

(3) 2 2x yd

− and dyz

(4) 2 2x yd

− and xzd

66. Shape and hybridization of IF5

respectively are (1) Trigonal bipyramidal, sp3d (2) See-saw, sp3d (3) Square pyramidal, sp3d2 (4) Square planar, sp3d2 67. Which of the following is paramagnetic

with bond order 0.5? (1) F2

(2) H2+

(3) O2–

(4) B2 68. Which of the following statement is correct? (1) The I3

– ion has a bent shape. (2) NF3 has high dipole moment than NH3.

(3) O3 has 2 resonating structures. (4) The bond order of C-O bond in bond in carbonate ion is 1.33. 69. The dipole moment of HBr is 0.76 × 10–18

esu cm and inter atomic spacing is 1.41 Å. Find the % ionic character of HBr?

(1) 7.5 (2) 11.7 (3) 15 (4) 27

PAGE: 10


NEET MODEL EXAM FIRST YEAR TALENT TEST-2019 70. Consider the following reactions, ½ A→ B ∆H = 150 kJ/mol 3B → 2C + D ∆H = – 125 kJ/mol E + A → 2D ∆H = + 350 kJ/mol Find ∆H for the reaction B + D → E + 2C (1) – 325 kJ / mol

(2) – 175 kJ / mol (3) 325 kJ / mol (4) 175 kJ / mol

71. The standard enthalpy of formation of

NH3 is – 46 kJ / mol. If the enthalpy of formation of H2 from its atoms is – 436 kJ / mol and that of N2 is – 712kJ / mol. The average bond enthalpy of N – H bond in NH3 is

(1) – 1102 kJ / mol (2) – 964 kJ / mol (3) + 352 kJ / mol (4) + 1056 kJ / mol

72. The amount of heat evolved when 500

cm3 of 0.1 M HCl is mixed with 200 cm3 of 0.2 M NaOH is

(1) 2.284 kJ (2) 1.284 kJ (3) 0.284 kJ (4) 3.284 kJ

73. In which of the following process,

entropy decreases (1) Crystallisation of sucrose from solution (2) Rusting of iron (3) Melting of NaCl (4) Vaporisation of Camphor 74. At 300 K, the reactions which have

following values of thermodynamic parameters occur spontaneously

(1) ∆H° = 200 kJ / mol, ∆S° = – 4J / k / mol (2) ∆H° = – 200 kJ / mol, ∆S° = 4J / k / mol (3) ∆H° = – 200 J / mol, ∆S° = 40 J / k / mol (4) ∆H° = 100 J / mol, ∆S° = – 40 J / k / mol

75. Which of the following equations does not correctly represent the first law of thermodynamic for the given process

(1) Cyclic process, q = -w (2) Isochoric process, ∆U = q (3) Expansion of a gas into vacuum, ∆U = q (4) Adiabatic process, ∆U = -w 76. Find the relation of between KP and

degree of dissociation (α) for the reaction 2XY X2 + Y2 is

(1) 2PK P= α

(2) 2

PPK

4(1 )α

=− α

(3) 2

P 2K4(1 )

α=

− α

(4) 2

P 2

PK4(1 )

α=

− α

77. One mole of a compound AB reacts with

one mole of a compound CD according to the equation AB + CD AD + C. When equilibrium had been established it

was found that 34

mole each of reactant

AB and CD had been converted to AD and CB. There is no change in volume. The equilibrium constant for the reaction is

(1) 96

(2) 19

(3) 19

(4) 9

PAGE: 11


NEET MODEL EXAM FIRST YEAR TALENT TEST-2019 78. An LPG cylinder contains 15 Kg of

butane at 27oC and 10 atm. It was leaking and the pressure fell down to 8 atm after a day. The mass of gas leaked is

(1) 12 Kg (2) 3 Kg (3) 0.3 Kg (4) 0.1 Kg

79. 1g H2, 2g He and 3 g NO are contained

in 1.1 L flask at 300 K. Total pressure exerted by the mixture is

(1) 5.45 atm (2) 6.0 atm (3) 24.63 atm (4) 134.34 atm

80. At the equilibrium of the reaction

N2O4(g) ààÜáàà 2NO2 (g) the observed molecular weight of N2O4 is 80 g mol–1 at 350 K. The percentage of dissociation of N2O4 (g) at 350 K is

(1) 10 % (2) 15 % (3) 20 % (4) 18 %

81. Arrange the following ions in the order

of decreasing X–O bond length, where X is the central atom in −4

4SiO , −4ClO ,

−34PO –, −2

4SO (1) −

4ClO > −24SO > −3

4PO > −44SiO

(2) −44SiO > −3

4PO > −24SO > −

4ClO (3) −4

4SiO > −34PO > −

4ClO > −24SO

(4) −44SiO > −2

4SO > −34PO > −

4ClO 82. If pressure of a gas contained in a closed

vessel is increased by 0.4% when heated by 1°C its initial temperature must be

(1) 250 K (2) 250°C (3) 2500 K (4) 25°C

83. London forces or dispersion forces are always attractive and interaction energy is proportional to [r = distance between 2 particles]

(1) r3 (2) r6

(3) 2

1r

(4) 6

1r

84. A 2.24 L cylinder of oxygen at NTP is

found to develop a leakage. When the leakage was plugged, the pressure dropped to 570 mm of Hg. The number of moles of gas that escaped will be

(1) 0.025 (2) 0.050 (3) 0.075 (4) 0.09 85. The bond angles of NH3, 4NH + and 2NH −

are in the order (1) 3 3 4NH NH NH +⟩ ⟩

(2) 4 3 2NH NH NH+ −⟩ ⟩ (3) 3 4 2NH NH NH+ −⟩ ⟩

(4) 3 2 4NH NH NH− +⟩ ⟩ 86. Which of the following is the incorrect

order? (1) C <O < N < F → order of First I. E. (2) F > O > N → order of Electro negativity. (3) F > Cl >Br > I → order of electron

affinity. (4) F <O < N < C → order of atomic size. 87. Equimolar concentrations of H2 and I2 are

heated to equilibrium in a 2 litre flask. At equilibrium, the forward and the backward rate constants are found to be equal. What percentage of initial concentration of H2 has reacted at equilibrium?

(1) 33 % (2) 66% (3) 50% (4) 40%

PAGE: 12


NEET MODEL EXAM FIRST YEAR TALENT TEST-2019 88. The degree of dissociation for reaction,

PCl5 PCl3 +Cl2 is 20% at 1 atm. Calculate Kc

(1) 0.04 (2) 0.05 (3) 0.07 (4) 0.06

89. 1.2 mol of A is kept in a 2 litre flask and heated to a constant temperature T when the following equilibrium is attained

2A 2B + C At equilibrium, the flask contains 0.1

mol of C. The value of equilibrium constant Kc for the reaction

2B + C 2A, is

(1) 1 × 10–2 (2) 1 × 102 (3) 5 × 102 (4) 5 × 103

90. For the following gaseous equilibria X, Y

and Z at 300 K

X : 2SO2 + O2 2SO3

Y : PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2 Z : 2HI H2 + I2

The ratio of Kp and Kc in the increasing order is

(1) X = Y = Z (2) X < Y < Z (3) X < Z < Y (4) Z < Y < X

91. Specialised infoldings of the inner

membrane of mitochondria (1) Cristae (2) Fimbriae (3) Cisternae (4) Lamellae

92. Consider the following (A – D) and choose the option that contain true statements only

A. Prokaryotic cells are devoid of microbodies

B. Gram – ve bacteria, lack glycocalyx C. Integral proteins in the plasma

membrane are partially or totally buried in the membrane

D. A chromosome with terminal centromere is called telocentric

(1) A, B & D (2) A, B & C (3) A, C & D (4) A, B, C & D 93. Tonoplast is a differentially permeable

membrane surrounding the (1) Vacuole (2) Nucleus (3) Chloroplast (4) Cytoplasm 94. Choose the false statement (1) Internal structure of centriole is

cartwheel like (2) Centrosome is single membrane

bound organelle (3) Microtubules are present in both

plant and animal cells (4) Both (2) & (3) 95. Select the option that contain cell

structures present in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?

A. Ribosomes B. Nucleolus C. Centriole D. Mesosomes

E. Gas vacuoles (1) A & B (2) A & C (3) A only (4) A & E

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NEET MODEL EXAM FIRST YEAR TALENT TEST-2019 96. As per three domains of life protista

belongs to the domain (1) Archaea (2) Eukarya (3) Microbes (4) Protista 97. Heterocysts found in (1) Yeast (2) Anaebena (3) Spirulina (4) Both (2) & (3) 98. The photosynthetic partner in a lichen is

called (1) Probiont (2) Mycobiont (3) Symbiont (4) Phycobiont 99. Consider the following (A – D) and find

the option that contain true statements only

A. Euglenoids have two flagella B. Archaea lack cell wall C. Ustilago belongs to sac fungi D. Toad stools belongs to imperfect fungi (1) B only (2) A only (3) B & D (4) B, C & D 100. Select the option that contain fungi

belong to Ascomycetes

A. Colletotrichum B. Puccinia C. Claviceps D. Neurospora

(1) A, C & D (2) C & D (3) B & D (4) D only

101. Choose the character not true with regard to kingdom monera

(1) All of them are prokaryotes (2) Majority of them have cell wall (3) In the cells, nuclear membrane is absent (4) They are acellular 102. Cell organelle associated with

intracellular digestion is (1) Endoplasmic reticulum

(2) Lysosome (3) Golgi complex

(4) Ribosome 103. In animal cells, secretary proteins are

synthesized in (1) RER

(2) Lysosome (3) SER (4) Peroxisome

104. One of the following does not include

endromembrane system of the cell (1) Vacuole

(2) ER (3) Nucleus (4) Lysosome

105. Golgi complex plays a major role in (1) Digestion of proteins and carbohydrates (2) Energy transformation (3) Post translational modification of

proteins (4) Both (1) and (3) 106. Which of the following cell component is

common to both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

(1) Centriole (2) Cell wall (3) Plasma membrane (4) ssDNA

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NEET MODEL EXAM FIRST YEAR TALENT TEST-2019 107. Which statement is wrong about nucleolus? (1) It contain rRNA

(2) It has a lipoprotein membrane (3) The number may vary from one to many (4) Nucleoplasm is continuous with it 108. DNA of mitochondria is (1) Double stranded and circular

(2) Single stranded and Circular (3) Double stranded linear (4) Single stranded linear

109. Select the option that contain single

membrane bound organelles A. Vacuoles B. Nucleolus C. Peroxisome D. Lysosome (1) A, B & D

(2) C & D only (3) A, C & D (4) A & D only

110. Which of the following statement is

correct with respect to ribosomes. (1) They are composed of rRNA, mRNA

and proteins (2) They are made of rRNA molecules

beside proteins (3) In all living organisms their smaller

sub unit is 30S (4) Free ribosomes in cytoplasm cannot

engage protein synthesis 111. Choose the protist (1) Gonyaulax (2) Anaebena (3) Glomus (4) Funaria 112. The category of classification ranking

between order and division is (1) Family (2) Class (3) Phylum (4) Subclass

113. The unit of taxnomic classification is termed as

(1) Species (2) Taxon (3) Genus (4) Systema 114. Who pioneered the biospecies cncept (1) Carolus Linnaeus (2) Theophrastus (3) George Bentham (4) Ernst Mayr 115. The binomial of cultivated wheat is (1) Oryza sativa (2) Mangifera indica (3) Triticum aestivum (4) Musa paradisiaca 116. In a stem in which Periderm formation

occured, gaseous exchange in facilitated by (1) Stomata (2) Lenticels (3) Hydathodes (4) Both (1) and (2) 117. In roots, lateral branches arise from (1) Cortex (2) Endodermis (3) Epidermis (4) Pericycle 118. In a dicot root, vascular cambium is (1) Primary in origin (2) Both primary and secondary in origin (3) Endogenous in origin (4) Secondary in origin 119. Aestivation of corolla in cassia (1) Twisted

(2) Imbricate (3) Valvate (4) Vexillary

PAGE: 15


NEET MODEL EXAM FIRST YEAR TALENT TEST-2019 120. Subsidiary cells are (1) Parenchyma cells seen between

xylem and phloem of roots. (2) Epidermal cells seen adjacent to the

guard cells. (3) Parenchyma cells seen in the lenticels (4) Thick walled parenchyma cells seen

below the endodermis of roots. 121. In a dicot stem, cork cambium originates

from (1) Pericycle (2) Epidermis (3) Endodermis (4) Cortex 122. Mucilaginous hydrocolloid carrageen is

obtained from (1) Green algae (2) Brown algae (3) Sphagnum (4) Red algae 123. Antherozoids in Funaria are (1) Quadriflagellate (2) Aflagellate (3) Biflagellate (4) Triflagellate 124. Consider the following statements (A – E)

and choose the option containing truestatements only

A. Members of phacophyceae have two lateral flagella in motile cells

B. Salvenia is a heterosporous pteridophyte. C. In Pteris, sporophylls are aggregated

into strobil. D. All gymnosperms are heterosporous.

(1) A & B (2) A, C & D (3) A & C (4) A, B & D

125. Prothallus represents (1) Gametophytic phase of pteridophytes (2) Sporophytic phase of gymnosperms (3) Gametophytic phase of gymnosperms (4) Sporophytic phase of pteridophytes 126. In which of the following plants, the life

cycle is haplo-diplontic A. Marchantia B. Pinus C. Eucayptus D. Ectocarpus

(1) A & B (2) B & C (3) A & D (4) B & D 127. A fleshy, one seeded fruit with hard and

woody endocarp surrounding the seed is called

(1) Berry (2) Capsule (3) Pome (4) Drupe 128. Ovarian chamber is called (1) Locule (2) Placenta (3) Septum (4) Capsule 129. Which of the following plants have

vexillary aestivation of petals? A. Tulipa B. Indigofera C. Lupinus D. Asparagus (1) B & C (2) A only (3) A, B & C (4) A & D 130. Identify the family showing Bisexual,

Hypogynous, Actinomorphic and Pentamerous flowers

(1) Fabaceae (2) Liliaceae (3) Solanaceae (4) Brassicaceae

PAGE: 16


NEET MODEL EXAM FIRST YEAR TALENT TEST-2019 131. From which of the following plant is

fumigatory is obtained (1) Nicotiana (2) Lupinus (3) Sesbaenea (4) Indigofera 132. Leaves of Neem is (1) Pinnately compound (2) Modified into tendrils (3) Modified into phyllode (4) Palmately compound 133. Anatomically ‘bark’ consist (1) All tissues outer to ‘wood’ (2) Periderm and bast (3) Cork and periderm (4) All dead tissues outer to secondary

phloem 134. In chloroplast, the photosynthetic

pigments are located in (1) Thylakoid

(2) Inner membrane (3) Stroma (4) Both (1) & (2)

135. Consider the following (A – C) and

choose the right option that contain false statements only

A. In prokaryotic cells, the flagellae are meant for motility of cell

B. In eukaryotic cells, the nuclear membrane, mitochondria, microtubules and gas vacuoles are present

C. Mitochondria is the site of aerobic respiration

(1) A & B

(2) B only (3) B & C (4) A only`

136. Find the option with the true description about the diagram.

(1) Figure (C) represents acoelomate

condition common in diploblastic animals.

(2) Figure (B) represents pseudocoelomate condition common in most triploblastic animals.

(3) Figure (A) represents coelomate condition common in annelids and higher forms.

(4) Figure (C) represents acoelomate condition common in flatworms and earthworms.

137. Animal and phylum wrongly matched in:

(1) Hirudinaria – Annelida (2) Pleurobrachia – Mollusca (3) Ancylostoma – Aschelminthes (4) Antedon – Echinodermata

138. Excretion and osmoregulation in

Pheretima is carried out by: (1) Protonephridia

(2) Flame cells (3) Nephridia

(4) Malpighian tubules 139. Which of the following assist in

locomotion? (1) Cnidoblasts in Obelia (2) Radula in Pila (3) Parapodia in Nereis (4) Chanaocytes in Schypha

PAGE: 17


NEET MODEL EXAM FIRST YEAR TALENT TEST-2019 140. Which among the phylum has closed

circulation and segmented body? (1) Aschelminthes

(2) Platyhelminthes (3) Annelida

(4) Arthropoda 141. Choose the incorrect pairing: (1) Schypha – Osculum (2) Pleurobrachia – Comb plates (3) Hydra – Nematocysts

(4) Fasciola – Parapodia 142. Cells specialized for anchorage, defense

and prey capture found in Hydra are: (1) Choanocytes (2) Cnidocytes

(3) Flame cells (4) Podocytes 143. Pila belongs to a group of animals

characterised by (1) Visceral mass, mantle and radula (2) Visceral mass, nephridia and closed

circulation (3) Jointed legs, chitinous cuticle and

malpighian tubules (4) Radial symmetry, water vascular

system and dermal ossicles 144. Annelids show advancement over

platyhelminthes in having: (1) Bilateral symmetry. (2) Metamerism. (3) Sexual reproduction. (4) Triploblastic condition.

145. Chondrichthyes resemble osteichthyes in

having: (1) Operculum

(2) Swim bladder (3) Placoid scales (4) Two-chambered heart

146. The systematic position of which animal is incorrectly given in descending order?

(1) Testudo – Chordata, Vertebrata, Gnathostomata, Tetrapoda, Reptilia

(2) Myxine – Chordata, Vertebrata, Agnatha, Cyclostomata

(3) Pristis – Chordata, Vertebrata, Gnathostomata, Pisces, Osteichthyes

(4) Aptenodytes – Chordata, Vertebrata, Gnathostomata, Tetrapoda, Aves

147. African bird with vestigial wings. (1) Corvus

(2) Struthio (3) Columba

(4) Psittacula 148. Animal in which notochord is present

only in larval tail: (1) Amphioxus

(2) Balanoglossus (3) Petromyzon (4) Ascidia

149. Which one of the following groups of

animals is correctly matched with its one characteristic feature without even a single exception? (1) Reptilia : Possess 3-chambered heart

with one incompletely divided ventricle (2) Vertebrata : Possess a mouth provided

with an upper and a lower jaw (3) Aves : Possess the ability to fly with

the help of well developed wings (4) Chondrichthyes : Possess cartilaginous

endoskeleton 150. Bat is considered as mammal due to the

presence of: (1) Four chambered heart

(2) Internal fertilisation (3) Two pairs of limbs (4) Hairy skin

PAGE: 18


NEET MODEL EXAM FIRST YEAR TALENT TEST-2019 151. Reptiles are more advanced than

amphibians in having______. (1) Four-chambered heart (2) Internal fertilization (3) Two pairs of limbs (4) Cutaneous respiration

152. A viviparous fish with internal fertilisation. (1) Hag fish

(2) Angel fish (3) Dog fish (4) Flying fish 153. In frog, sinus venosus receives

deoxygenated blood from: (1) Left atrium (2) Right atrium (3) Conus arteriosus (4) Vena cavae

154. Which one is an aquatic mammal?

(1) Macropus (2) Pteropus (3) Equus (4) Delphinus

155. Phallomeres are: (1) Olfactory sense organs of cockroach (2) The forewings of cockroach (3) Parts of digestive system of

cockroach were food is crushed (4) Cuticular plates around the male

genital pore of cockroach 156. Four statements about cockroach are

given. Find the false one. (1) Head is formed by the fusion of six

segments. (2) Anal cerci are seen only in male

cockroach. (3) Dorsal sclerite is called tergum. (4) Labium is the lower lip.

157. Macaca resembles Platypus in having: (1) Forelimbs modified as wings (2) Viviparity (3) Webbed toes (4) Four chambered heart

158. Spiracles are openings of _________

cockroach. (1) Respiratory system (2) Digestive system (3) Excretory system (4) Reproductive system

159. Accessory gland present in the female

reproductive system of cockroach are (1) Collaterial gland (2) Uricose gland (3) Phallic gland (4) Mushroom gland

160. Find the incorrect statement about

cockroach. (1) Cockroaches are monoecious. (2) Mesothorax bears a pair of walking

legs and a pair of tegmina. (3) Vas deferens opens into ejaculatory

duct through seminal vesicle. (4) Development is paurometabolous. 161. Structural and functional links in an

epithelium which stop substances from leaking across the tissue:

(1) Microvilli (2) Tight junctions

(3) Gap junctions (4) Adhering junctions

162. Cardiac muscle fibres differ from skeletal

muscle fibres because these are (1) Branched, involuntary

(2) Non-striated, voluntary (3) Non-striated, involuntary

(4) Striated, voluntary

PAGE: 19


NEET MODEL EXAM FIRST YEAR TALENT TEST-2019 163. Find the false statement/s. 1. Bone marrow is the site of production

of blood cells. 2. Blood is a fluid connective tissue

without fibres in matrix. 3. Smooth muscles are attached to

bones and bring about movements. 4. Heart is made up of striated voluntary

muscles. (1) 1 only

(2) 1, 2 & 3 (3) 2 & 3 (4) 3 & 4

164. The following tissue is found in:

(1) Renal tubules of nephron (2) Buccal epithelium

(3) Alveoli of lungs (4) Lining of fallopian tube

165. Tendons which attach one bone to

another bone are made up of: (1) Dense regular connective tissue

(2) Dense irregular connective tissue (3) Areolar tissue

(4) Adipose tissue 166. Ends of long bones have______. (1) Calcified cartilage

(2) Elastic cartilage (3) Hyaline cartilage

(4) Fibrocartilage

167. Four features are given below. 1. Not being covered by another tissue 2. Always has a free surface 3. Found in diffusion boundaries and

protective outer surface. 4. Has very little intercellular matrix

The above features are characteristic of: (1) Epithelial tissue (2) Dense fibrous connective tissue (3) Dense irregular connective tissue (4) Muscular tissue

168. RNA and protein rich granules seen in

the cytoplasm of neuron are called: (1) Nodes of Ranvier (2) Nissl bodies (3) Neurotransmitters (4) Dendrites 169. The second thoracic segment of

cockroach bears (1) A pair of walking legs only (2) A pair of forewings only (3) A pair of walking legs and a pair of

membranous wings (4) A pair of walking legs and a pair of

fore-wings 170. In mature earthworm, segments 14-16

are covered by a prominent dark band of glandular tissue called: (1) Clitellum (2) Typhlosole (3) Nephridium (4) Tegmina

171. Damage to which of the following would

affect fat but not protein or carbohydrate absorption? (1) The microvilli. (2) Brunner's glands. (3) The lacteals. (4) The goblet cells.

PAGE: 20


NEET MODEL EXAM FIRST YEAR TALENT TEST-2019 172. Which area has the greatest amount of

enzyme activity? (1) Duodenum

(2) Colon (3) Jejunum

(4) Ileum 173. Alkaline mucous glands are found in the

submucosa of the: (1) Ileum (2) Jejunum (3) Duodenum (4) Cardiac region of the stomach

174. Parietal cells secrete (1) Pepsinogen and hydrochloric acid (2) Hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor (3) Intrinsic factor and mucus (4) Hydrochloric acid and enterokinase 175. What is incorrect about bile? (1) It emulsifies fat into tiny droplets (2) It contains metabolic wastes of

haemoglobin breakdown (3) It contains lipolytic enzymes (4) It is synthesized by hepatocytes 176. Which of the following best describes the

enzyme composition of pancreatic juice? (1) Amylase, peptidase, trypsinogen,

rennin (2) Lipase, amylase, trypsinogen, nuclease (3) Lipase, amylase, pepsin, maltase (4) Peptidase, amylase, pepsin, rennin

177. The final process of digestion of organic

molecules is undertaken by the hydrolytic enzymes present in the:

(1) Succus entericus (2) Gastric juice

(3) Pancreatic juice (4) Bile juice

178. Enterokinase converts (1) Pepsinogen into pepsin

(2) Protein into polypeptide (3) Maltose to glucose (4) Trypsinogen into trypsin 179. A peristaltic rush which results in a failure

to absorb enough colon water results in: (1) Constipation

(2) Diarrhoea (3) Indigestion

(4) Gastritis 180. Digestion of starch takes place in

(1) Buccal cavity and stomach (2) Stomach and duodenum (3) Duodenum only (4) Buccal cavity and duodenum

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NEET MODEL EXAM FIRST YEAR TALENT TEST-2019

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