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Testking.ITIL-F.197.QA

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ITIL-F.EN.dat

ITIL® Foundation

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Sections1. Service Management as a practice2. The Service Lifecycle3. Generic concepts and definitions

4. Key Principles and Models5. Major Processes6. Minor Processes7. Functions8. Roles9. Technology and Architecture

Exam A

QUESTION 1What should a service always deliver to customers?

A. ApplicationsB. InfrastructureC. ValueD. Resources

Correct Answer: CSection: Service Management as a practiceExplanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 2Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?

A. It is measurableB. It delivers specific resultsC. It responds to specific eventsD. It structures an organization

Correct Answer: DSection: Service Management as a practiceExplanation


QUESTION 3What are customers of IT services who work in the same organization as the service provider known as?

A. Strategic customersB. External customersC. Valued customers

D. Internal customers



QUESTION 4What is the act of transforming resources and capabilities into valuable service better known as?


A. Service managementB. Incident managementC. Resource managementD. Service support

Correct Answer: ASection: Service Management as a practiceExplanation


QUESTION 5Which of the following are sources of best practice?1. Academic research2. Internal experience3. Industry practices

A. All of the above

B. 1 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 2 onlyD. 2 and 3 only



QUESTION 6Which of the following statements is CORRECT for every process?

1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function

A. Both of the aboveB. 1 onlyC. Neither of the aboveD. 2 only

Correct Answer: BSection: Service Management as a practiceExplanation


QUESTION 7Which one of the following is the BEST definition of the term 'service management'?

A. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of servicesB. A group of interacting, interrelated, or independent components that form a unified whole, operating together for a common purposeC. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activitiesD. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities

Correct Answer: ASection: Service Management as a practice

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:Answer is valid.

QUESTION 8Which of the following is NOT a source of best practice?

A. StandardsB. TechnologyC. Academic researchD. Internal experience



QUESTION 9Which reason describes why ITIL is so successful?

A. The five ITIL volumes are conciseB. It is not tied to any particular vendor platformC. It tells service providers exactly how to be successfulD. It is designed to be used to manage projects



QUESTION 10What type of services are NOT directly used by the business but are required by the service provider to deliver customer facing services?

A. Business services

B. Component servicesC. Supporting servicesD. Customer services



QUESTION 11Which of the following is NOT an objective of Continual Service Improvement?

A. Review and analyze Service Level Achievement resultsB. Identify activities to improve the efficiency of service management processesC. Improve the cost effectiveness of IT services without sacrificing customer satisfactionD. Conduct activities to deliver and manage services at agreed levels to business users

Correct Answer: DSection: The Service LifecycleExplanation


QUESTION 12Understanding what to measure and why it is being measured are key contributors to which part of the Service Lifecycle?

A. Service StrategyB. Continual Service ImprovementC. Service OperationD. Service Design

Correct Answer: BSection: The Service LifecycleExplanation


QUESTION 13Which one of the following provides the CORRECT list of processes within the service operation stage of the service lifecycle?

A. Event management, incident management, problem management, request fulfilment, and access managementB. Event management, incident management, change management, and access managementC. Incident management, problem management, service desk, request fulfilment, and event managementD. Incident management, service desk, request fulfilment, access management, and event management

Correct Answer: ASection: The Service LifecycleExplanation


QUESTION 14Which one of the following is NOT a responsibility of the service transition stage of the service lifecycle?

A. To ensure that a service can be managed and operated in accordance with constraints specified during designB. To design and develop capabilities for service managementC. To provide good-quality knowledge and information about servicesD. To plan the resources required to manage a release



QUESTION 15Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?


A. Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packagesB. Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved servicesC. Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the service designs that are producedD. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes



QUESTION 16Which stage of the service lifecycle is MOST concerned with defining policies and objectives?

A. Service designB. Service transitionC. Continual service improvementD. Service operation



QUESTION 17Which of the following provide value to the business from service strategy?1. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customers successful

2. Enabling the service provider to respond quickly and effectively to changes in the business environment3. Support the creation of a portfolio of quantified services

A. All of the aboveB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 2 onlyD. 2 and 3 only



QUESTION 18Which of the following are benefits to the business of implementing service transition?

1. Better reuse and sharing of assets across projects and resources2. Reduced cost to design new services3. Result in higher volume of successful changes

A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. None of the above

Correct Answer: CSection: The Service LifecycleExplanation


QUESTION 19In which core ITIL publication can you find detailed descriptions of service catalogue management, information security management, and supplier management?

A. Service strategyB. Service design

C. Service transitionD. Service operation



QUESTION 20Which of the following is an objective/are objectives of the service strategy stage of the service lifecycle?

1. Providing an understanding of what strategy is2. Ensuring a working relationship between the customer and service provider3. Defining how value is created

A. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. 3 onlyD. All of the above



QUESTION 21Check, Act and Plan are three of the stages of the Deming Cycle. Which is the fourth?

A. DoB. PerformC. ImplementD. Measure

Correct Answer: ASection: Generic concepts and definitions

Explanation


QUESTION 22Which of the following is NOT a recognized example of a service provider type within the ITIL framework?

A. InternalB. ExternalC. Service deskD. Shared services unit

Correct Answer: CSection: Generic concepts and definitionsExplanation


QUESTION 23Which of the following statements about standard changes are CORRECT?

1. The approach is pre-authorized2. The risk is usually low and well understood3. Details of the change will be recorded4. Some standard changes will be triggered by the request fulfillment process

A. 1 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1, 2 and 4 onlyD. All of the above

Correct Answer: DSection: Generic concepts and definitionsExplanation


QUESTION 24Which of the following BEST describes a problem?

A. An issue reported by a userB. The cause of two or more incidentsC. A serious incident which has a critical impact to the businessD. The cause of one or more incidents



QUESTION 25What are underpinning contracts used to document?

A. The provision of IT services or business services by a service providerB. The provision of goods and services by third party suppliersC. Service levels that have been agreed between the internal service provider and their customerD. Metrics and critical success factors (CSFs) for internal support teams

Correct Answer: BSection: Generic concepts and definitionsExplanation


QUESTION 26The addition, modification or removal of an authorized, planned or supported service or service component and its associated documentation is a definition ofwhat?

A. A changeB. A change modelC. A change requestD. A change advisory board

Correct Answer: ASection: Generic concepts and definitionsExplanation


QUESTION 27Which one of the following includes four stages called Plan, Do, Check and Act?

A. The Deming CycleB. The continual service improvement approachC. The seven-step improvement processD. The service lifecycle



QUESTION 28Which one of the following contains information that is passed to service transition to enable the implementation of a new service?

A. A service optionB. A service transition package (STP)C. A service design package (SDP)D. A service charter



QUESTION 29The effective management of risk requires specific types of action. Which of the following pairs of actions would be BEST to manage risk?


A. Training in risk management for all staff and identification of risksB. Identification of risk, analysis and management of the exposure to riskC. Control of exposure to risk and investment of capitalD. Training of all staff and investment of capital



QUESTION 30What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as?

A. OutcomeB. IncidentC. ChangeD. Problem



QUESTION 31Why is it important for service providers to understand patterns of business activity (PBA)?

A. PBA are based on organizational roles and responsibilitiesB. IT service providers CANNOT schedule changes until they understand PBAC. Demand for the services delivered by service providers are directly influenced by PBAD. Understanding PBA is the only way to enable accurate service level reporting



QUESTION 32The BEST description of an incident is:

A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that serviceB. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of serviceC. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplannedD. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not



QUESTION 33Within service design, what is the key output handed over to service transition?

A. Measurement, methods and metricsB. Service design packageC. Service portfolio designD. Process definitions



QUESTION 34Which of the following statements about service asset and configuration management is/are CORRECT?1. A configuration item (CI) can exist as part of any number of other CIs at the same time2. Choosing which CIs to record will depend on the level of control an organization wishes to exert

A. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both of the aboveD. Neither of the above



QUESTION 35Which of the following are types of service defined in ITIL?1. Enabling2. Core3. Enhancing4. Computer

A. 1, 3 and 4 onlyB. 2, 3 and 4 onlyC. 1, 2 and 4 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 only



QUESTION 36Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that involved significant cost and risk to the organization?

A. Change proposalB. Change policyC. Service requestD. Risk register


Explanation/Reference:Still valid.

QUESTION 37In which of the following should details of a workaround be documented?

A. The service level agreement (SLA)B. The problem recordC. The availability management information systemD. The IT service continuity plan



QUESTION 38Which one of the following is the BEST description of a service level agreement (SLA)?

A. The part of a contract that specifies the responsibilities of each partyB. An agreement between the service provider and an internal organizationC. An agreement between a service provider and an external supplierD. An agreement between the service provider and their customer



QUESTION 39Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an event?

A. Any change of state that has significance for the management of a configuration item (CI) or IT serviceB. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or a reduction in the quality of an IT serviceC. The unknown cause of one or more incidents that have an impact on an IT serviceD. Reducing or eliminating the cause of an incident or problem



QUESTION 40Which of the following would commonly be found in a contract underpinning an IT service?

1. Financial arrangements related to the contract2. Description of the goods or service provided3. Responsibilities and dependencies for both parties

A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 1 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 3 onlyD. All of the above



QUESTION 41Which of the following is the correct definition of an outcome?

A. The results specific to the clauses in a service level agreement (SLA)B. The result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT serviceC. All the accumulated knowledge of the service providerD. All incidents reported to the service desk



QUESTION 42From the perspective of the service provider, who is the person or group that agrees their service targets?

A. The userB. The customerC. The supplierD. The administrator



QUESTION 43Which of the following would NOT be contained in a release policy?

A. Naming and numbering conventionsB. Entry and exit criteria of the release into testingC. Roles and responsibilities for the releaseD. The risk register for the release



QUESTION 44Which of the following would be most useful in helping to implement a workaround as quickly as possible?


A. A capacity databaseB. A definitive media libraryC. A request for changeD. A known error database



QUESTION 45A Service design package (SDP) would normally be produced for which of the following?

1. A new IT service2. A major change to an IT service3. An emergency change to an IT service4. An IT service retirement

A. 2, 3 and 4 only

B. 1, 2 and 4 onlyC. None of the aboveD. All of the above



QUESTION 46Which of the following are valid parts of the service portfolio?

1. Service pipeline2. Service knowledge management system (SKMS)3. Service catalogue

A. 1 and 2 onlyB. 3 onlyC. 1 and 3 onlyD. All of the above



QUESTION 47Which one of the following is concerned with policy and direction?

A. Capacity managementB. GovernanceC. Service designD. Service level management

Correct Answer: B

Section: Generic concepts and definitionsExplanation


QUESTION 48Which one of the following is it the responsibility of supplier management to negotiate and agree?

A. Service level agreements (SLAs)B. Third-party contractsC. The service portfolioD. Operational level agreements (OLAs)



QUESTION 49Which one of the following are the two primary elements that create value for customers?

A. Value on investment (VOI) and return on investment (ROI)B. Customer and user satisfactionC. Service requirements and warrantyD. Resources and capabilities



QUESTION 50What type of baseline captures the structure, contents and details of the infrastructure and represents a set of items that are related to each other?

A. Configuration baselineB. Project baselineC. Change baselineD. Asset baseline



QUESTION 51Check, Act and Plan are three of the stages of the Deming Cycle.

Which is the fourth?

A. DoB. PerformC. ImplementD. Measure



QUESTION 52Which of these statements about resources and capabilities is CORRECT?

A. Resources are types of service asset and capabilities are notB. Resources and capabilities are both types of service assetC. Capabilities are types of service asset and resources are notD. Neither capabilities nor resources are types of service asset

Correct Answer: BSection: Generic concepts and definitions

Explanation


QUESTION 53What type of record should you raise when a problem diagnosis is complete and a workaround is available?

A. A service objectB. An incidentC. A changeD. A known error



QUESTION 54Service design emphasizes the importance of the "Four Ps". These "Four P's" include Partners, People, Processes and one other "P". Which of the following is theadditional "P"?

A. ProfitB. PreparationC. ProductsD. Potential

Correct Answer: CSection: Key Principles and ModelsExplanation


QUESTION 55Which one of the following is the CORRECT set of steps for the continual service improvement approach?

A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually improveB. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the momentum going?C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the

solutionD. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?

Correct Answer: DSection: Key Principles and ModelsExplanation


QUESTION 56The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of "the four Ps". What are these four Ps?

A. People, process, partners, performanceB. Performance, process, products, plansC. People, process, products, partnersD. People, products, plans, partners



QUESTION 57Which of the following BEST describes 'partners' in the phrase "people, processes, products and partners"?

A. Suppliers, manufacturers and vendorsB. CustomersC. Internal departmentsD. The facilities management function

Correct Answer: ASection: Key Principles and Models

Explanation


QUESTION 58At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service be defined?

A. Service design: Design the processesB. Service strategy: Develop the offeringsC. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deploymentD. Service operation: IT operations management

Correct Answer: ASection: Key Principles and ModelsExplanation


QUESTION 59Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?

A. ComponentsB. ProcessesC. The end-to-end serviceD. Customer satisfaction


Explanation/Reference:Answer is modified.

QUESTION 60The consideration of value creation is a principle of which stage of the service lifecycle?

A. Continual service improvement

B. Service strategyC. Service designD. Service transition

Correct Answer: BSection: Key Principles and ModelsExplanation


QUESTION 61Which one of the following does service metrics measure?

A. FunctionsB. Maturity and costC. The end-to-end serviceD. Infrastructure availability



QUESTION 62Which stage of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach is BEST described by the phrase 'Understand and agree on the priorities for improvement basedon a deeper development of the principles defined in the vision'?

A. Where are we now?B. Where do we want to be?C. How do we get there?D. Did we get there?

Correct Answer: BSection: Key Principles and ModelsExplanation


QUESTION 63What would be the next step in the continual service improvement (CSI) model after:

1. What is the vision?2. Where are we now?3. Where do we want to be?4. How do we get there?5. Did we get there?6. ?

A. What is the return on investment (ROI)?B. How much did it cost?C. How do we keep the momentum going?D. What is the value on investment (VOI)?



QUESTION 64Which of the following should be considered when designing measurement systems, methods and metrics?1. The services2. The architectures3. The configuration items4. The processes




QUESTION 65Implementation of ITIL service management requires the preparation and planning of the effective and efficient use of "the four Ps".

What are these four Ps?

A. People, process, partners, performanceB. Performance, process, products, problemsC. People, process, products, partnersD. People, products, perspective, partners



QUESTION 66Which one of the following activities are carried out during the "Where do we want to be?" step of the continual service improvement (CSI) approach?

A. Implementing service and process improvementsB. Reviewing measurements and metricsC. Creating a baselineD. Defining measurable targets



QUESTION 67What are the three types of metrics that an organization should collect to support continual service improvement (CSI)?

A. Return on investment (ROI), value on investment (VOI), qualityB. Strategic, tactical and operationalC. Critical success factors (CSFs), key performance indicators (KPIs), activitiesD. Technology, process and service



QUESTION 68Which process would ensure that utility and warranty requirements are properly addressed in service designs?

A. Availability managementB. Capacity managementC. Design coordinationD. Release management

Correct Answer: CSection: Major ProcessesExplanation


QUESTION 69Which process is responsible for low risk, frequently occurring, low cost changes?

A. Demand managementB. Incident managementC. Release and deployment managementD. Request fulfilment

Correct Answer: DSection: Major ProcessesExplanation


QUESTION 70Which of the following identify the purpose of business relationship management?


1. To establish and maintain a business relationship between service provider and customer2. To identify customer needs and ensure that the service provider is able to meet

A. Both of the aboveB. 1 onlyC. 2 onlyD. Neither of the above

Correct Answer: ASection: Major ProcessesExplanation


QUESTION 71Which one of the following is NOT a valid purpose or objective of problem management?

A. To prevent problems and resultant incidentsB. To manage problems throughout their lifecycleC. To restore service to a userD. To eliminate recurring incidents

Correct Answer: CSection: Major Processes

Explanation


QUESTION 72Which one of the following is an objective of service catalogue management?

A. Negotiating and agreeing service level agreementB. Negotiating and agreeing operational level agreementsC. Ensuring that the service catalogue is made available to those approved to access itD. Only ensuring that adequate technical resources are available



QUESTION 73The experiences, ideas, insights and values of individuals are examples of which level of understanding within knowledge management?

A. DataB. InformationC. KnowledgeD. Governance



QUESTION 74Which process will perform risk analysis and review of all suppliers and contracts on a regular basis?

A. The service level management

B. The IT service continuity managementC. The service catalogue managementD. The supplier management



QUESTION 75Which process would be used to compare the value that newer services have offered over those they have replaced?

A. Availability managementB. Capacity managementC. Service portfolio managementD. Service catalogue management



QUESTION 76Which process is responsible for dealing with complaints, comments, and general enquiries from users?

A. Service level managementB. Service portfolio managementC. Request fulfilmentD. Demand management



QUESTION 77Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of access management?

A. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard servicesB. Provides the rights for users to be able to use a service or group of servicesC. To prevent problems and resulting Incidents from happeningD. To detect security events and make sense of them

Correct Answer: BSection: Major ProcessesExplanation


QUESTION 78Which of the following statements BEST describes the aims of release and deployment management?

A. To build, test and deliver the capability to provide the services specified by service designB. To ensure that each release package specified by service design consists of a set of related assets and service componentsC. To ensure that all changes can be tracked, tested and verified if appropriateD. To record and manage deviations, risks and issues related to the new or changed service



QUESTION 79Where would you expect incident resolution targets to be documented?

A. A service level agreement (SLA)B. A request for change (RFC)C. The service portfolioD. A service description



QUESTION 80Which process will regularly analyze incident data to identify discernible trends?

A. Service level managementB. Problem managementC. Change managementD. Event management



QUESTION 81What body exists to support the authorization of changes and to assist change management in the assessment and prioritization of changes?

A. The change authorization boardB. The change advisory boardC. The change implementerD. The change manager



QUESTION 82

Consider the following list:


1. Change authority2. Change manager3. Change advisory board (CAB)

Which one of the following is the BEST description of the items above?

A. Job descriptionsB. FunctionsC. TeamsD. Roles, people or groups



QUESTION 83Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of problem management?

A. To prevent problems and their resultant IncidentsB. To manage problems throughout their lifecycleC. To restore service to a userD. To eliminate recurring incidents



QUESTION 84What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the normal change process?

A. Technical managementB. Emergency change advisory boardC. Urgent change boardD. Urgent change authority



QUESTION 85When can a known error record be raised?

1. At any time it would be useful to do so2. After a workaround has been found

A. 2 onlyB. 1 onlyC. Neither of the aboveD. Both of the above



QUESTION 86Which of the following are objectives of service level management?

1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of IT services to be provided

2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction4: Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in

A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 1 and 2 onlyC. 1, 2 and 4 onlyD. All of the above



QUESTION 87Which statement about the emergency change advisory board (ECAB) is CORRECT?

A. The ECAB considers every high priority request for changeB. Amongst the duties of the ECAB is the review of completed emergency changesC. The ECAB will be used for emergency changes where there may not be time to call a full CABD. The ECAB will be chaired by the IT director


Explanation/Reference:Renovated.

QUESTION 88Which process is responsible for eliminating recurring incidents and minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be prevented?

A. Service level managementB. Problem managementC. Change managementD. Event management



QUESTION 89Which one of the following is the purpose of service level management?

A. To carry out the service operations activities needed to support current IT servicesB. To ensure that sufficient capacity is provided to deliver the agreed performance of servicesC. To create and populate a service catalogueD. To ensure that an agreed level of IT service is provided for all current IT services



QUESTION 90The 'multi-level SLA' is a three-layer structure. Which one of the following layers is NOT part of this type of SLA?

A. Customer levelB. Service levelC. Corporate levelD. Configuration level



QUESTION 91Hierarchic escalation is BEST described as?

A. Notifying more senior levels of management about an incidentB. Passing an incident to people with a greater level of technical skillC. Using more senior specialists than necessary to resolve an Incident to maintain customer satisfactionD. Failing to meet the incident resolution times specified in a service level agreement



QUESTION 92Remediation planning is BEST described in which of the following ways?

A. Planning how to recover the cost of a changeB. Planning the steps required to be taken if a change is unsuccessfulC. Planning how to compensate a user for a failed changeD. Planning how to advise the change requestor of a failed change



QUESTION 93Which of the following should be documented in an incident model?

1. Details of the service level agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident2. Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident

A. 1 onlyB. 2 onlyC. Both of the aboveD. Neither of the above



QUESTION 94Which problem management activity ensures that a problem can be easily tracked and management information can be obtained?

A. CategorizationB. DetectionC. PrioritizationD. Escalation



QUESTION 95Which one of the following can help determine the level of impact of a problem?

A. Definitive media library (DML)B. Configuration management system (CMS)C. Statement of requirements (SOR)D. Standard operating procedures (SOP)



QUESTION 96In which document would you expect to see an overview of actual service achievements against targets?

A. Operational level agreement (OLA)B. Capacity planC. Service level agreement (SLA)D. SLA monitoring chart (SLAM)



QUESTION 97Which of these should a change model include?

1. The steps that should be taken to handle the change2. Responsibilities; who should do what, including escalation3. Timescales and thresholds for completion of the actions4. Complaints procedures

A. 1,2 and 3 onlyB. All of the aboveC. 1 and 3 onlyD. 2 and 4 only



QUESTION 98Which statement BEST represents the guidance on incident logging?


A. Incidents must only be logged if a resolution is not immediately availableB. Only incidents reported to the service desk can be loggedC. All incidents must be fully loggedD. The service desk decide which incidents to log



QUESTION 99The remediation plan should be evaluated at what point in the change lifecycle?

A. Before the change is approvedB. Immediately after the change has failed and needs to be backed outC. After implementation but before the post implementation reviewD. After the post implementation review has identified a problem with the change



QUESTION 100Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?

A. Incident and financial managementB. Change and release and deployment managementC. Incident and event managementD. Knowledge and service level management



QUESTION 101What guidance does ITIL give on the frequency of production of service reporting?

A. Service reporting intervals must be defined and agreed with the customersB. Reporting intervals should be set by the service providerC. Reports should be produced weeklyD. Service reporting intervals must be the same for all services



QUESTION 102Which of the following statements MOST correctly identifies the scope of design coordination activities?

A. Only changes that introduce new servicesB. It is mandatory that all changes are subject to design coordination activityC. Only changes to business critical systemsD. Any change that the organization believes could benefit

Correct Answer: DSection: Minor ProcessesExplanation


QUESTION 103Which process is responsible for sourcing and delivering components of requested standard services?

A. Request fulfilmentB. Service portfolio managementC. Service deskD. IT finance

Correct Answer: ASection: Minor ProcessesExplanation


QUESTION 104Which of the following would be examined by a major problem review?

1. Things that were done correctly2. Things that were done incorrectly3. How to prevent recurrence4. What could be done better in the future

A. 1 onlyB. 2 and 3 onlyC. 1, 2 and 4 onlyD. All of the above



QUESTION 105

What is the PRIMARY process for strategic communication with the service provider's customers?

A. Service catalogue managementB. Service portfolio managementC. Service deskD. Business relationship management



QUESTION 106Access management is closely related to which other process?

A. Capacity management onlyB. 3rd line supportC. Information security managementD. Change management

Correct Answer: CSection: Minor ProcessesExplanation


QUESTION 107Availability management is directly responsible for the availability of which of the following?

A. IT services and componentsB. IT services and business processesC. Components and business processesD. IT services, components and business processes

Correct Answer: A

Section: Minor ProcessesExplanation


QUESTION 108Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?

A. Change managementB. Service portfolio managementC. Supplier managementD. Continual service improvement



QUESTION 109Which process is responsible for the availability, confidentiality and integrity of data?

A. Service catalogue managementB. Service asset and configuration managementC. Change managementD. Information security management



QUESTION 110What are the categories of event described in the ITIL service operation book?

A. Informational, scheduled, normalB. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergencyC. Informational, warning, exceptionD. Warning, reactive, proactive



QUESTION 111Which of the following are basic concepts used in access management?

A. Personnel, electronic, network, emergency, identityB. Rights, access, identity, directory services, service/service componentsC. Physical, personnel, network, emergency, serviceD. Normal, temporary, emergency, personal, group

Correct Answer: BSection: Minor ProcessesExplanation


QUESTION 112Which one of the following do major incidents require?

A. Separate proceduresB. Less urgencyC. Longer timescalesD. Less documentation



QUESTION 113Which one of the following statements about incident reporting and logging is CORRECT?


A. Incidents can only be reported by usersB. Incidents can be reported by anyone who detects a disruption or potential disruption to normal serviceC. All calls to the service desk must be logged as incidentsD. Incidents reported by technical staff must also be logged as problems



QUESTION 114With which process is problem management likely to share categorization and impact coding systems?

A. Incident managementB. Service asset and configuration managementC. Capacity managementD. IT service continuity management



QUESTION 115Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and dependencies of all services that are being run or being prepared to run in thelive environment?

A. Service level managementB. Service catalogue managementC. Demand managementD. Service transition



QUESTION 116Which of the following is NOT an objective of request fulfillment?

A. To provide information to users about what services are available and how to request themB. To update the service catalogue with services that may be requested through the service deskC. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard servicesD. To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested



QUESTION 117Which of the following is service transition planning and support NOT responsible for?

A. Prioritizing conflicts for service transition resourcesB. Coordinating the efforts required to manage multiple simultaneous transitions

C. Maintaining policies, standards and models for service transition activities and processesD. Detailed planning of the build and test of individual changes



QUESTION 118Which statement about the service portfolio is TRUE?

A. The service portfolio includes all services except those managed by third partiesB. It is an integral part of the service catalogueC. It allows the organization unlimited resources when planning for new service deploymentsD. It represents all resources presently engaged or being released in various stages of the service lifecycle



QUESTION 119Which one of the following is an objective of release and deployment management?

A. To standardize methods and procedures used for efficient and prompt handling of all changesB. To ensure all changes to service assets and configuration items (CIs) are recorded in the configuration management system (CMS)C. To ensure that the overall business risk of change is optimizedD. To define and agree release and deployment plans with customers and stakeholders



QUESTION 120Which one of the following is the BEST definition of reliability?

A. The availability of a service or componentB. The level of risk that affects a service or processC. How long a service or configuration item (CI) can perform its function without failingD. How quickly a service or component can be restored to normal working order



QUESTION 121Which process has the following objective, 'Produce service design packages (SDPs) based on service charters and change requests'?

A. Service transition planning and supportB. Design coordinationC. Service level managementD. Change management



QUESTION 122Which process would you MOST expect to be involved in the management of underpinning contracts?

A. Change managementB. Service catalogue managementC. Supplier managementD. Release and deployment management



QUESTION 123What are the categories of events described in the ITIL service operation book?

A. Informational, scheduled, normalB. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergencyC. Informational, warning, exceptionD. Warning, reactive, proactive



QUESTION 124Which two elements of financial management for IT services are mandatory?

A. Budgeting and chargingB. Accounting and chargingC. Budgeting and accountingD. Costing and charging



QUESTION 125Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?


A. Capacity managementB. Incident managementC. Service level managementD. Financial management



QUESTION 126Which one of the following is the BEST description of a relationship in service asset and configuration management?

A. Describes the topography of the hardwareB. Describes how the configuration items (CIs) work together to deliver the servicesC. Defines which software should be installed on a particular piece of hardwareD. Defines how version numbers should be used in a release



QUESTION 127Which one of the following would NOT involve event management?

A. Intrusion detectionB. Recording and monitoring environmental conditions in the data centreC. Recording service desk staff absenceD. Monitoring the status of configuration items



QUESTION 128Which one of the following activities would be performed by access management?

A. Providing physical security for staff at data centres and other buildingsB. Managing access to computer rooms and other secure locationsC. Managing access to the service deskD. Managing the rights to use a service or group of services



QUESTION 129Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio management?

1. Those planned to be delivered2. Those being delivered3. Those that have been withdrawn from service

A. 1 and 3 onlyB. All of the aboveC. 1 and 2 onlyD. 2 and 3 only



QUESTION 130Which of the following activities are performed by a service desk?1. Logging details of incidents and service requests2. Providing first-line investigation and diagnosis3. Restoring service4. Implementing all standard changes

A. All of the aboveB. 1, 2 and 3 onlyC. 2 and 4 onlyD. 3 and 4 only

Correct Answer: BSection: FunctionsExplanation


QUESTION 131Which function or process would provide staff to monitor events in an operations bridge?

A. Technical managementB. IT operations managementC. Request fulfilmentD. Applications management



QUESTION 132Which of the following BEST describes technical management?

A. A function responsible for facilities management and building control systemsB. A function that provides hardware repair services for technology involved in the delivery of service to customersC. Senior managers responsible for all staff within the technical support functionD. A function that includes providing technical expertise and overall management of the IT infrastructure

Correct Answer: DSection: FunctionsExplanation


QUESTION 133Which of the following is NOT a service desk type recognized in the service operation volume of ITIL?

A. LocalB. CentralizedC. OutsourcedD. Virtual

Correct Answer: CSection: FunctionsExplanation


QUESTION 134Which one of the following functions would be responsible for the management of a data centre?

A. Technical managementB. Service deskC. Application managementD. Facilities management



QUESTION 135Which of the following processes are performed by the service desk?

1. Capacity management2. Request fulfilment3. Demand management4. Incident management

A. All of the aboveB. 3 and 4 onlyC. 2 and 4 onlyD. 2 only

Correct Answer: CSection: FunctionsExplanation


QUESTION 136How many people should be accountable for a process as defined in the RACI model?

A. As many as necessary to complete the activityB. Only one - the process ownerC. Two - the process owner and the process enactorD. Only one - the process architect

Correct Answer: BSection: RolesExplanation


QUESTION 137A process owner is responsible for which of the following?

1. Defining the process strategy2. Assisting with process design3. Improving the process4. Performing all activities involved in a process

A. 2, 3 and 4 onlyB. All of the aboveC. 1, 2 and 3 onlyD. 1, 2 and 4 only

Correct Answer: CSection: RolesExplanation


QUESTION 138A process owner has been identified with an "I" in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following would be expected of them?

A. Be accountable for the outcome of an activityB. Perform an activityC. Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activityD. Manage an activity



QUESTION 139

Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?

A. Process ownerB. Change managerC. Service managerD. Process practitioner

Correct Answer: DSection: RolesExplanation


QUESTION 140Which role is accountable for the operational management of a process?


A. Process practitionerB. Process managerC. Service managerD. Change manager

Correct Answer: BSection: RolesExplanation


QUESTION 141What is a RACI model used for?

A. Performance analysisB. Recording configuration itemsC. Monitoring servicesD. Defining roles and responsibilities

Correct Answer: DSection: RolesExplanation


QUESTION 142A process owner has been identified with an "I" in a RACI matrix.

Which one of the following would be expected of them?

A. Be accountable for the outcome of an activityB. Perform an activityC. Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activityD. Manage an activity



QUESTION 143Who is responsible for ensuring that the request fulfillment process is being performed according to the agreed and documented standard?

A. The IT directorB. The process ownerC. The service ownerD. The customer

Correct Answer: B

Section: RolesExplanation


QUESTION 144Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?

A. Wisdom - Information - Data - KnowledgeB. Data - Information - Knowledge - WisdomC. Knowledge - Wisdom - Information - DataD. Information - Data - Knowledge - Wisdom

Correct Answer: BSection: Technology and ArchitectureExplanation


QUESTION 145Which of the following CANNOT be provided by a tool?

A. KnowledgeB. InformationC. WisdomD. Data

Correct Answer: CSection: Technology and ArchitectureExplanation


QUESTION 146Which of the following areas would technology help to support during the service lifecycle?

1. Data mining and workflow2. Measurement and reporting3. Release and deployment4. Process design


Correct Answer: DSection: Technology and ArchitectureExplanation


QUESTION 147Which areas of service management can benefit from automation?1. Design and modeling2. Reporting3. Pattern recognition and analysis4. Detection and monitoring

A. 1, 2 and 3 onlyB. 1, 3 and 4 onlyC. 2, 3 and 4 onlyD. All of the above

Correct Answer: DSection: Technology and ArchitectureExplanation

Explanation/Reference:corrected.

QUESTION 148Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?1. Local service desk2. Virtual service desk

3. IT help desk4. Follow the sun

A. 1, 2 and 4 onlyB. 2, 3 and 4 onlyC. 1, 3 and 4 onlyD. 1, 2 and 3 only

Correct Answer: ASection: FunctionsExplanation


QUESTION 149Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT infrastructure?

A. Service level managementB. IT operations managementC. Capacity managementD. Incident management



QUESTION 150Which one of the following activities does application management perform?

A. Defining where the vendor of an application should be locatedB. Ensuring that the required functionality is available to achieve the required business outcomeC. Deciding who the vendor of storage devices will beD. Agreeing the service levels for the service supported by the application

Correct Answer: B

Section: FunctionsExplanation


QUESTION 151Which of the following is the BEST description of a centralized service desk?

A. The desk is co-located within or physically close to the user community it servesB. The desk uses technology and other support tools to give the impression that multiple desk locations are in one placeC. The desk provides 24 hour global supportD. There is a single desk in one location serving the whole organization


Explanation/Reference:Answer is updated.

QUESTION 152Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of service design?

A. The design of the service portfolio, including the service catalogueB. The design of new or changed servicesC. The design of market spacesD. The design of the technology architectures



QUESTION 153What do customer perceptions and business outcomes help to define?

A. The value of a serviceB. GovernanceC. Total cost of ownership (TCO)D. Key performance indicators (KPIs)



QUESTION 154Which of the following is the BEST reason for categorizing incidents?

A. To establish trends for use in problem management and other IT service management (ITSM) activitiesB. To ensure service levels are met and breaches of agreements are avoidedC. To enable the incident management database to be partitioned for greater efficiencyD. To identify whether the user is entitled to log an incident for this particular service



QUESTION 155Which process is responsible for providing the rights to use an IT service?

A. Incident managementB. Access managementC. Change managementD. Request fulfillment



QUESTION 156Which of the following are classed as stakeholders in service management?

1. Customers2. Users3. Suppliers




QUESTION 157Which of the following is an enabler of best practice?

A. StandardsB. TechnologyC. Academic researchD. Internal experience



QUESTION 158Which is the correct definition of a customer facing service?

A. One which directly supports the business processes of customersB. A service that cannot be allowed to failC. One which is not covered by a service level agreementD. A service not directly used by the business



QUESTION 159What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?

A. EmployersB. StakeholdersC. RegulatorsD. Accreditors


Explanation/Reference:The correction is added.

QUESTION 160Why are public frameworks, such as ITIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?

A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumentedB. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adoptC. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to doD. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments

Correct Answer: ASection: Service Management as a practice

Explanation


QUESTION 161Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?

A. To identify patterns of business activityB. To ensure high levels of customer satisfactionC. To secure funding to manage the provision of servicesD. To ensure strategic plans for IT services exist



QUESTION 162Which of the following identifies the purpose of service transition planning and support?

A. Provide overall planning for service transitions and co-ordinate the resources they requireB. Ensure that all service transitions are properly authorizedC. Provide the resources to allow all infrastructure elements of a service transition to be recorded and trackedD. To define testing scripts to ensure service transitions are unlikely to ever fail



QUESTION 163Which of the following identifies the purpose of design coordination?

A. Provide a single point of control for all activities and processes within the service design stage of the lifecycle

B. Ensuring all service designs have availability designed into themC. Designing of all the links between every service design process and all other processes in the service lifecycleD. Control of all supplier relationships from design right through to the production environment



QUESTION 164Where should the following information be stored?

1. The experience of staff2. Records of user behaviour3. Supplier's abilities and requirements4. User skill levels

A. The change scheduleB. The service portfolioC. A configuration management database (CMDB)D. The service knowledge management system (SKMS)



QUESTION 165Which one of the following generates demand for services?

A. Infrastructure trendsB. Patterns of business activity (PBA)C. Cost of providing supportD. Service level agreements (SLA)



QUESTION 166What is the BEST description of an operational level agreement (OLA)?


A. An agreement between the service provider and another part of the same organizationB. An agreement between the service provider and an external organizationC. A document that describes to a customer how services will be operated on a day-to-day basisD. A document that describes business services to operational staff



QUESTION 167Which one of the following activities is NOT part of the Deming Cycle?

A. ActB. PlanC. DoD. Co-ordinate

Correct Answer: D

Section: Generic concepts and definitionsExplanation


QUESTION 168Which of the following is the best definition of service management?

A. The ability to keep services highly available to meet the business needsB. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of servicesC. A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customersD. An internationally recognized methodology to provide valuable services to customers



QUESTION 169Which of the following is the best definition of IT service management?

A. An internal service provider that is embedded within a business unitB. A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customersC. Technical implementation of supporting IT infrastructure componentsD. The implementation and management of quality IT services that meet business needs



QUESTION 170Which one of the following is the BEST definition of the term ,,service management?

A. A set of specialized organizational capabilities for providing value to customers in the form of servicesB. A group of interrelated, interacting or independent components that form a unified whole, operating together for a common purposeC. The management of functions within an organization to perform certain activitiesD. Units of organizations with roles to perform certain activities



QUESTION 171Which one of the following is NOT an objective of problem management?

A. Minimizing the impact of incidents that cannot be preventedB. Preventing problems and resulting incidents from happeningC. Eliminating recurring incidentsD. Restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible



QUESTION 172Which of the following is the BEST description of a service-based service level agreement (SLA)?

A. The SLA covers one service, for all the customers of that serviceB. The SLA covers an individual customer group for all services they useC. An SLA that covers all customers for all servicesD. An SLA for a service with no customers



QUESTION 173Which process is responsible for ensuring that appropriate testing takes place?

A. Knowledge managementB. Release and deployment managementC. Service asset and configuration managementD. Service level management



QUESTION 174Which of the following processes contributes MOST to quantifying the financial value of IT services to the business?

A. Service level managementB. Financial managementC. Demand managementD. Risk management



QUESTION 175Which of the following are sources of best practice?

1. Academic research2. Internal experience3. Industry practices



Explanation/Reference:Answer is updated.

QUESTION 176What type of services are NOT directly used by the business but are required by the service provider to deliver customer facing services?

A. Business servicesB. Component servicesC. Supporting servicesD. Customer services



QUESTION 177Which of the following are reasons why ITIL is successful?

1. ITIL is vendor neutral2. It does not prescribe actions3. ITIL represents best practice




QUESTION 178Looking for ways to improve process efficiency and cost effectiveness is a purpose of which part of the service lifecycle?

A. Service operationB. Service transitionC. Continual service improvementD. Service strategy

Correct Answer: CSection: The Service LifecycleExplanation


QUESTION 179In which of the following areas would ITIL complementary guidance provide assistance?

1. Adapting best practice for specific industry sectors2. Integrating ITIL with other operating models

A. Both of the aboveB. Neither of the aboveC. Option 1 onlyD. Option 2 only



QUESTION 180From the perspective of the service provider, what is the person or group who defines or and agrees their service targets known as?

A. UserB. CustomerC. SupplierD. Administrator



QUESTION 181A known error has been created after diagnosis of a problem was complete but before a workaround has been found. Is this a valid approach?

A. Yes: for information purposes, a known error record can be created at any time it is prudent to do soB. No: the Known Error should be created before the problem is loggedC. No: a known error record is created when the original incident is raisedD. No: a known error record should be created with the next release of the service



QUESTION 182Which of the following is best definition of IT service management?

A. An internal service provider that is embedded within a business unitB. A complete set of all the documentation required to deliver world class services to customersC. Technical implementation of supporting IT infrastructure componentsD. The implementation and management of quality IT services that meet business needs



QUESTION 183Which one of the following would NOT be defined as part of every process?

A. RolesB. Inputs and outputsC. FunctionsD. Metrics



QUESTION 184What are customers of IT services who do NOT work in the same organization as the service provider known as?

A. Strategic customersB. External customersC. Valued customersD. Internal customers



QUESTION 185

What is a service delivered between two business units in the same organization known as?

A. Strategic serviceB. Delivered serviceC. Internal serviceD. External service



QUESTION 186Who is responsible for defining metrics for change management?

A. The change management process ownerB. The change advisory board (CAB)C. The service ownerD. The continual service improvement manager

Correct Answer: ASection: RolesExplanation


QUESTION 187How many people should be accountable for a process as defined in the RACI model

A. As many as necessary to complete the activityB. Only one - the process ownerC. Two - the process owner and the process enactorD. Only one - the process architect

Correct Answer: B

Section: RolesExplanation


QUESTION 188Which one of the following would be the MOST useful in helping to define roles and responsibilities in an organizational structure?

A. RACI modelB. Incident modelC. Continual service improvement (CSI) approachD. The Deming Cycle



QUESTION 189Which of the following activities would be performed by a process manager?

1. Monitoring and reporting on process performance2. Identifying improvement opportunities3. Appointing people to required roles




QUESTION 190Which statement should NOT be part of the value proposition for Service Design?

A. Reduced total cost of ownershipB. Improved quality of serviceC. Improved Service alignment with business goalsD. Better balance of technical skills to support live services



QUESTION 191Service transition contains detailed descriptions of which processes?

A. Change management, service asset and configuration management, release and deployment managementB. Change management, capacity management event management, service request managementC. Service level management, service portfolio management, service asset and configuration managementD. Service asset and configuration management, release and deployment management, request fulfilment



QUESTION 192Which of the following BEST describes service strategies' value to the business?

A. Allows higher volumes of successful changeB. Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outagesC. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outagesD. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customers successful



QUESTION 193Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?

A. To ensure that a service can be managed, operated and supportedB. To provide training and certification in project managementC. To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assetsD. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release



QUESTION 194Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?

A. Continual service improvementB. Change managementC. Service level managementD. Availability management



QUESTION 195Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?

1. To automatically detect service-affecting events2. To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible3. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations




QUESTION 196Which one of the following is NOT an aim of the change management process?

A. To ensure the impact of changes are understoodB. To ensure that changes are recorded and evaluatedC. To ensure that all changes to configuration items (CIs) are recorded in the configuration management system (CMS)D. To deliver and manage IT services at agreed levels to business users



QUESTION 197Which of the following should be done when closing an incident?

1. Check the incident categorization and correct it if necessary2. Check that the user is satisfied with the outcome

A. 1 only

B. Both of the aboveC. 2 onlyD. Neither of the above




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