few words to say about this book -...
TRANSCRIPT
1
2
Few words to say about this book:
“Study smart, not hard”- This book represents a smart approach for aspiring IELTS candidates
especially in listening.
A candidate is guaranteed to score 7 or more in listening if he/she can master the approaches to each
question type that this book provides.
Feel free to let us know your suggestion/correction regarding to this book at 01921-999222 or at
With all the best wishes
Tarik Hasan Founder and CEO
IELTS SPIRIT
www.ieltsspirit.com
3
Index
Section 1…………….……………………4-28
Section 2…………..……………………29-59
Section 3 ……..…………..……………60-91
Section 4 ……………………………..92-120
Full test ……………………………..121-299
4
Section 1
Lesson 1.1
Questions 1-10
Questions 1 and 2
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. Example In the library George found
A a book.
B a brochure. C a newspaper.
1 In the lobby of the library George saw A a group playing music.
B a display of instruments.
C a video about the festival.
2 George wants to sit at the back so they can A see well.
B hear clearly.
C pay less.
Questions 3-10
Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Summer music festival Booking form
NAME: George O’Neill ADDRESS: 3 …………Westsea POSTCODE: 4…………….. TELEPHONE: 5……………
5
Date Event Price per ticket No. of tickets
5 June Instrumental group - Guitarrini £7.50 2
17 June Singer (price includes 6 ………….in garden) £6 2
22 June 7 ………..(Anna Ventura) £7.00 1
23 June Spanish Dance & Guitar Concert 8 £…………… 9…………..
NB Children / Students / Senior Citizens have 10 ………….discount on all tickets.
Lesson 1.2
Questions 1-10
Questions 1-3
Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Total Insurance Incident Report
Example
Name Answer
Michael Alexander
Address 24 Manly Street, 1 …………Sydney
Shipping agent 2…………..
Place of origin China
Date of arrival 3…………..
Reference number 601 ACK
6
Questions 4-10
Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Item
Damage Cost to repair/replace
Television The 4…………needs to be replaced not known
The 5…………. cabinet The 6…………..of the cabinet is damaged 7$ ……………..
Dining room table A 8……………is split $200
Set of china Six 9……….were broken about 10 $.......... in total
Lesson 1.3
Questions 1-10
Questions 1-3
Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Rented Properties Customer's Requirements
Name: Steven Godfrey
Example
No. of bedrooms:
Answer
four
Preferred location: in the 1 …………area of town
Maximum monthly rent: 2 £……………….
Length of let required: 3……………….
7
Starting: September 1st
Questions 4-8
Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Address Booms Monthly
rent Problem
Oakington Avenue living/dining room, separate kitchen £550 no 4………….
Mead Street large living room and kitchen,
bathroom and a cloakroom £580 the 5 ……….is too
large
Hamilton Road living room, kitchen-diner, and
a 6………. £550 too 7……………
Devon Close living room, dining room, small
kitchen 8 £……… none
Questions 9 and 10
Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO facilities in the district of Devon Close are open to the public at the moment?
A museum
B concert hall
C cinema
D sports centre
E Swimmingpool
Lesson 1.4
Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
8
West Bay Hotel - details of job
Example Answer • Newspaper advert for staff
• Vacancies for 1……………
• Two shifts
• Can choose your 2………….(must be the same each week)
• Pay: £5.50 per hour, including a 3…………
• A 4…………..is provided in the hotel
• Total weekly pay: £231
• Dress:
a white shirt and 5………….trousers (not supplied)
a 6…………… (supplied)
• Starting date: 7………….
• Call Jane 8………..(Service Manager) before 9…………..tomorrow (Tel: 832009)
• She’ll require a 10…………..
Lesson 1.5
Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
JOB ENQUIRY
Example • Work at: .....restaurant...... • Type of work: 1……………………
• Number of hours per week: 12 hours
• Would need work permit
9
• Work in the: 2……………….. branch
• Nearest bus stop: next to 3……………..
• Pay: £4……………………an hour
• Extra benefits:
- a free dinner
- extra pay when you work on 5……………
- transport home when you work 6………………
• Qualities required:
- 7………………
- ability to 8………………
• Interview arranged for: Thursday 9……………… at 6 p.m.
• Bring the names of two referees
• Ask for: Samira 10…………….
Lesson 1.6
Questions 1-10
Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Accommodation Form - Student Information
Example
Type of accommodation:
.......hall.......of residence
Name: Anu 1………….
Date of birth: 2………….
Country of origin: India
Course of study: 3……………..
Number of years planned in hall: 4…………….
Preferred catering arrangement: half board
10
Special dietary requirements: no 5………… (red)
Preferred room type: a single 6…………
Interests: the 7…………
badminton
Priorities in choice of hall: to be with other students who are 8………….
to live outside the 9………….
to have a 10……………area for socialising
Contact phone number: 667549
Lesson 1.7
Questions 1-10
Questions 1-5
Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Apartments Facilities Other Information Cost
Rose Garden
Apartments
studio flat Example
entertainment programme:
Greek dancing
£219
Blue Bay
Apartments
large salt-water
swimming pool
- just 1 …………..metres from
beach
- near shops
£275
2…………….
Apartments
terrace watersports £490
The Grand - Greek paintings - overlooking 4……….. 5 £………….
11
- 3……………. - near a supermarket and a
disco
Questions 6-10
Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
GREEK ISLAND HOLIDAYS
Insurance Benefits Maximum Amount
Cancellation 6 £ …………
Hospital £600. Additional benefit allows a 7 ………… to travel to resort
8 ……………. departure Up to £1000. Depends on reason
Personal belongings Up to £3000; £500 for one 9…………….
Name of Assistant Manager: Ben 10………………
Direct phone line: 081260 543216
Lesson 1.8
Questions 1-10
Questions 1-4
Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Health Centres
Name of centre Doctor’s name Advantage
The Harvey Clinic Example
Dr Green
especially good with 1………..
12
The 2 ………….Health Practice Dr Fuller offers 3………… appointments
The Shore Lane Health Centre Dr 4…………
Questions 5-6
Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO of the following are offered free of charge at Shore Lane Health Centre?
A acupuncture
B employment medicals
C sports injury therapy
D travel advice
E vaccinations
Questions 7-10
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Talks for patients at Shore Lane Health Centre
Subject of talk Date/Time Location Notes
Giving up smoking 25th
February at 7pm room 4
useful for people
with
asthma or 7……….
problems
Healthy eating 1st March at 5pm the 8…………
(Shore Lane) anyone welcome
Avoiding injuries during
exercise 9th March
at 9……….. room 6 for all 10………….
13
Lesson 1.9
Questions 1-10
Questions 1-6
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD for each answer.
SELF-DRIVE TOURS IN THE USA
Example Name: ...Andrea.......
Address: 24 1 …………. Road Postcode: BH5 20P Phone: (mobile) 077 8664 3091 Heard about company from: 2…………. Possible self-drive tours Trip One:
• Los Angeles: customer wants to visit some 3……………..parks with her children • Yosemite Park: customer wants to stay in a lodge, not a 4……………. Trip Two:
• Customer wants to see the 5…………….on the way to Cambria • At Santa Monica: not interested in shopping
• At San Diego, wants to spend time on the 6…………….
Questions 7-10
Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Number of days Total distance Price
(per person) Includes
Trip One 12 days 7………….. km £525
• accommodation
• car
• one 8…………….
Trip Two 9 days 980 km 9 £………..
• accommodation
• car
• 10……………
14
Lesson 1.10
Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Transport Survey
Example Travelled to town today: by bus Name: Luisa 1…………
Address: 2………….White Stone Rd
Area: Bradfield
Postcode: 3………..
Occupation: 4…………
Reason for visit to town: to go to the 5…………
Suggestions for improvement:
better 6…………..
have more footpaths
more frequent 7………..
Things that would encourage cycling to work:
having 8……………parking places for bicycles
being able to use a 9…………. at work
the opportunity to have cycling 10………….. on busy roads
Lesson 1.11
Questions 1-10
Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer .
Early Learning Childcare Centre Enrolment Form
Example Parent or guardian: Carol Smith
15
Personal Details Child’s name: Kate
Age: 1………… Address: 2……………. Road, Woodside, 4032 Phone: 3345 9865
Childcare Information Days enrolled for: Monday and 3…………… Start time: 4………….. am Childcare group: the 5…………. group Which meal/s are required each day? 6………….. Medical conditions: needs 7………….. Emergency contact: Jenny 8…………….Phone: 3346 7523 Relationship to child: 9………….
Fees Will pay each 10………….
Lesson 1.12
Questions 1-10
Questions 1-6 Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
THORNDYKE’S BUILDERS
Example Customer heard about Thorndyke’s from a friend
Name: Edith 1…………..
Address: Flat 4, 2………….. Park Flats
(Behind the 3………………)
Phone number: 875934
Best time to contact customer: during the 4………….
Where to park: opposite entrance next to the 5………….
Needs full quote showing all the jobs and the 6…………..
16
Questions 7-10
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Area Work to be done Notes
Kitchen
Replace the 7………….
in the door Fix tomorrow
Paint wall above
the 8…………….
Strip paint and plaster approximately
one 9……………. in advance
Garden One 10………….. needs
replacing (end of garden)
Lesson 1.13
Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
HIRING A PUBLIC ROOM
Example • the Main Hall - seats 200
Room and cost
• the 1 ……………Room - seats 100
• Cost of Main Hall for Saturday evening: 2 £…………… + £250 deposit (3……………… payment is required)
• Cost includes use of tables and chairs and also 4……………
• Additional charge for use of the kitchen: £25
Before the event
• Will need a 5…………….. licence
• Need to contact caretaker (Mr Evans) in advance to arrange 6……………
17
During the event
• The building is no smoking
• The band should use the 7………….. door at the back
• Don’t touch the system that controls the volume
• For microphones, contact the caretaker
After the event
• Need to know the 8…………… for the cleaning cupboard
• The 9……………..must be washed and rubbish placed in black bags
• All 10…………….. must be taken down
• Chairs and tables must be piled up
Lesson 1.14
Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Example Name: Roger Brown Age: 18
Currently staying in a 1……………… during the week
Postal address: 2 17, ………………… Street, Stamford, Lines
Postcode: 3…………………..
Occupation: student and part-time job as a 4……………..
Studying 5……………..(major subject) and history (minor subject)
Hobbies: does a lot of 6………………, and is interested in the 7………………
On Youth Council, wants to work with young people who are 8……………
Will come to talk to the Elections Officer next Monday at 9…………….. pm
18
Mobile number: 10…………..
Lesson 1.15
Questions 1-6
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Free activities in the Burnham area
Example The caller wants to find out about events on
A 27 June.
B 28 June.
C 29 June.
1 The ‘Family Welcome’ event in the art gallery begins at A 10 am.
B 10.30 am.
C 2 pm.
2 The film that is now shown in the ‘Family Welcome’ event is about A sculpture.
B painting.
C ceramics.
3 When do most of the free concerts take place? A in the morning
B at lunchtime
C in the evening
4 Where will the 4 pm concert of Latin American music take place?
19
A in a museum
B in a theatre
C in a library
5 The boat race begins at A Summer Pool.
B Charlesworth Bridge.
C Offord Marina.
6 One of the boat race teams A won a regional competition earlier this year.
B has represented the region in a national competition.
C has won several regional competitions.
Questions 7-10
Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Paxton Nature Reserve
7 Paxton is a good place for seeing rare…………….. all year round.
8 This is a particularly good time for seeing certain unusual………………
9 Visitors will be able to learn about………………and then collect some.
10 Part of the…………….. has been made suitable for swimming.
20
Lesson 1.16
Questions 1-7
Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer
Event Cost Venue Notes
Jazz
band
Example
Tickets available
for £15
The 1………….
school
Also appearing:
Carolyn Hart (plays the 2…………….)
Duck
races
£1 per duck Start behind
the 3………..
Prize: tickets for 4……….
held at the end of the festival.
Ducks can be bought in the 5………..
Flower
show
Free 6………… Hall Prizes presented at 5 pm
by a well-known 7………….
Questions 8-10
Who is each play suitable for? Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to Questions 8-10. A mainly for children
B mainly for adults
C suitable for people of all ages
Plays 8 The Mystery of Muldoon ……………
9 Fire and Flood………….
10 Silly Sailor……………
21
Solution for section 1
Lesson 1.1
1. C
2. B
3. 48 North Avenue
4. WS6 2YH
5. 01674 553242
6. (free) drink(s)/refreshment(s)
7. (the/a) pianist/piano player
8. 10.50
9. 4
10. 50%
Lesson 1.2
1. Milperra
2. First Class Movers
3. 28 November
4. screen
5. bathroom
6. door
7. 140
8. leg
9. plates
10. 60
22
Lesson 1.3
1. central
2. 600
3. 2 years
4. garage
5. garden
6. study
7. noisy
8. 595
9. B, E IN EITHER ORDER
10. B, E IN EITHER ORDER
Lesson 1.4
1. waiter(s)
2. day off
3. break
4. (free) meal
5. dark (coloured/colored)
6. jacket
7. 28 June
8. Urwin
9. 12.00 (pm)/noon/mid-day
10. reference
23
Lesson 1.5
1. answer(ing) (the) phone
2. Hillsdunne Road
3. (the) library
4. 4.45
5. national holidays
6. after 11 (o’clock)
7. clear voice
8. think quickly
9. 22 October
10. Manuja
Lesson 1.6
1. Bhatt
2. 31(st) March
3. nursing
4. 2
5. meat
6. bedsit
7. theatre/theater
8. mature/older
9. town
10. shared
Lesson 1.7
24
1. 300
2. Sunshade
3. balcony
4. forest/forests
5. 319
6. 10,000
7. relative
8. missed
9. item
10. Ludlow
Lesson 1.8
1. babies
2. Eshcol
3. evening
4. Gormley
5. B, E IN EITHER ORDER
6. B, E IN EITHER ORDER
7. heart
8. primary school
9. 4.30
10. ages
25
Lesson 1.9
1. Ardleigh
2. newspaper
3. theme
4. tent
5. castle
6. beach/beaches
7. 2020
8. flight
9. 429
10. dinner
Lesson 1.10
1. Hardie
2. 19
3. GT82LC
4. hairdresser
5. dentist/dentist’s
6. lighting
7. trains
8. safe
9. shower
10. training
26
Lesson 1.11
1. 4
2. 46 Wombat
3. Thursday
4. 8.30
5. red
6. lunch
7. glasses
8. BALL
9. aunt
10. month
Lesson 1.12
1. Pargetter
2. East
3. library
4. morning/mornings
5. postbox
6. prices
7. glass
8. cooker
9. week
27
10. fence
Lesson 1.13
1. Charlton
2. (£)115 / a/one hundred (and) fifteen
3. cash
4. parking
5. music
6. entry
7. stage
8. code
9. floor/floors
10. decoration/decorations
Lesson 1.14
1. hostel
2. Buckleigh
3. PE9 7QT
4. waiter
5. politics
6. cycling
7. cinema
8. disabled
9. 4.30 (pm) / half past four
28
10. 07788 136711
Lesson 1.15
1. B
2. C
3. B
4. A
5. C
6. A
7. birds
8. flowers
9. mushrooms
10. river
Lesson 1.16
1. secondary
2. flute
3. cinema
4. concert
5. market
6. Bythwaite
7. actor
8. A
9. B
10. C
29
Section 2
Lesson 2.1
Questions 11-20
Questions 11-15
Complete the sentences below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer
The Dinosaur Museum
11 The museum closes at ………….p.m. on Mondays. 12 The museum is not open on…………… 13 School groups are met by tour guides in the…………… 14 The whole visit takes 90 minutes, including ………………minutes for the guided tour. 15 There are ………………behind the museum where students can have lunch.
Questions 16-18
Choose THREE letters, A-G. Which THREE things can students have with them in the museum?
A food
B water
C cameras
D books
E bags
F pens
G worksheets
Questions 19 and 20
Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO activities can students do after the tour at present?
A build model dinosaurs
B watch films
C draw dinosaurs
D find dinosaur eggs
E play computer games
30
Lesson 2.2
Questions 11-20
Question 11
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 11 According to the speaker, the main purposes of the park are A education and entertainment. B research and education. C research and entertainment.
Questions 12-14
Label the plan below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Agricultural Park
Questions 15-20
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
31
15 When are the experimental areas closed to the public? A all the year round
B almost all the year
C a short time every year
16 How can you move around the park? A by tram, walking or bicycle
B by solar car or bicycle
C by bicycle, walking or bus
17 The rare breed animals kept in the park include A hens and horses.
B goats and cows.
C goats and hens.
18 What is the main purpose of having the Rare Breeds Section? A to save unusual animals
B to keep a variety of breeds
C to educate the public
19 What can you see in the park at the present time? A the arrival of wild birds
B fruit tree blossom
C a demonstration of fishing
20 The shop contains books about A animals.
B local traditions.
C the history of the park.
32
Lesson 2.3
Questions 11-16
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
THE NATIONAL ARTS CENTRE
Well known for: 11……….
Complex consists of:
concert rooms
theatres
cinemas
art galleries
public library
restaurants
a 12………..
Historical background:
1940 - area destroyed by bombs
1960s-1970s - Centre was 13………..and built
in 14…………. - opened to public
Managed by: the 15………..
Open: 16………… days per year
Questions 17-20
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Day Time Event
Venue
Ticket price
Monday and
Tuesday
7.30 p.m. ‘The Magic Flute’ (opera
by Mozart)
17………… from £8.00
Wednesday 8.00 p.m. 18 ‘………….’ (Canadian
film)
Cinema 2 19 £…………
33
Saturday and
Sunday
11 a.m. to
10 p.m.
20’…………..’ (art
exhibition)
Gallery 1 free
Lesson 2.4
Questions 11-13
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Improvements to Red Hill Suburb
11 Community groups are mainly concerned about A pedestrian safety.
B traffic jams.
C increased pollution.
12 It has been decided that the overhead power lines will be A extended.
B buried.
C repaired.
13 The expenses related to the power lines will be paid for by A the council.
B the power company.
C local businesses.
Questions 14-20
Label the map below. Write the correct letter, A-H, next to questions 14-20.
34
14 ……………… trees
15 ………………wider footpaths
16 ……………….coloured road surface
17 ……………….new sign
18 ……………….traffic lights
19 ………………. artwork
20 …………..children’s playground
Lesson 2.5
Questions 11-16
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
SPORTS WORLD
• a new 11 ………… of an international sports goods company
• located in the shopping centre to the 12………………… of Bradcaster
• has sports 13………………. and equipment on floors 1-3
• can get you any item within 14……………. days
• shop specialises in equipment for 15…………..
• has a special section which just sells 16…………..
Questions 17 and 18
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
17 A champion athlete will be in the shop A on Saturday morning only.
B all day Saturday.
C for the whole weekend.
35
18 The first person to answer 20 quiz questions correctly will win A gym membership.
B a video.
C a calendar.
Questions 19 and 20
Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO pieces of information does the speaker give about the fitness test?
A You need to reserve a place.
B It is free to account holders.
C You get advice on how to improve your health.
D It takes place in a special clinic.
E It is cheaper this month.
Lesson 2.6
Questions 11-13
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Parks and open spaces
Name of place Of particular interest Open
Halland Common source of River Ouse 24 hours
Holt Island many different 11……….. between 12………..
Longfield Country Park reconstruction of a 2,000-year-old
13……….with activities for children
daylight hours
Questions 14-16
36
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Longfield Park
14 As part of Monday’s activity, visitors will A prepare food with herbs.
B meet a well-known herbalist.
C dye cloth with herbs.
15 For the activity on Wednesday, A only group bookings are accepted.
B visitors should book in advance.
C attendance is free.
16 For the activity on Saturday, visitors should A come in suitable clothing.
B make sure they are able to stay for the whole day.
C tell the rangers before the event what they wish to do.
Questions 17-20
Label the map below. Write the correct letter, A-l, next to questions 17-20.
17 bird hide…………….
18 dog-walking area……………..
19 flower garden…………………
37
20 wooded area…………………
Lesson 2.7
Questions 11-20
Questions 11-13
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Winridge Forest Railway Park
11 Simon’s idea for a theme park came from A his childhood hobby.
B his interest in landscape design.
C his visit to another park.
12 When they started, the family decided to open the park only when A the weather was expected to be good.
B the children weren’t at school.
C there were fewer farming commitments.
13 Since opening, the park has had
A 50,000 visitors.
B 1,000,000 visitors.
C 1,500,000 visitors.
Questions 14-18
What is currently the main area of work of each of the following people?
38
Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-H, next to questions 14-18.
People
14 Simon (the speaker) ……….
15 Liz …………..
16 Sarah ………..
17 Duncan ………..
18 Judith ………….
Area of work
A advertising
B animal care
C building
D educational links
E engine maintenance
F food and drink
G sales
H staffing
Questions 19 and 20
Complete the table below. Write THREE WORD AND/OR NUMBERS for each answer.
Feature Size Biggest challenge Target age group
Railway 1.2 km Making tunnels
Go-Kart arena 19 ……….m2 Removing mounds on the track 20 ………….year-olds
Lesson 2.8
Questions 11-13
Label the diagram below. Choose THREE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-E, next to questions 11-13. A electricity indicator B on/off switch C reset button
D time control E warning indicator
39
Water Heater
Questions 14-18
Where can each of the following items be found? Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 14-18.
14 pillows ,…………..
15 washing powder …………
16 key …………
17 light bulbs ………..
18 map …………..
Locations
A in box on washing machine
B in cupboard on landing
C in chest of drawers
D next to window in living room
E on shelf by back door
F on top of television
G under kitchen sink
Questions 19 and 20
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
The best place to park in town - next to the station
Phone number for takeaway pizzas -19……………..
40
Railway museum closed on 20………………….
Lesson 2.9
Questions 11-20
Questions 11-12
Choose TWO letters A-E. Which TWO facilities at the leisure club have recently been improved? A the gym
B the tracks
C the indoor pool
D the outdoor pool
E the sports training for children
Questions 13-20
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. Joining the leisure club
Personal Assessment
• New members should describe any 13……………
• The 14……………. will be explained to you before you use the equipment.
• You will be given a six-week 15……………..
Types of membership
• There is a compulsory £90 16…………….. fee for members.
• Gold members are given 17……………to all the LP clubs.
• Premier members are given priority during 18………….. hours.
• Premier members can bring some 19…………. every month.
• Members should always take their 20 …………...with them.
41
Lesson 2.10
Questions 11-14
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
New city developments
11. The idea for the two new developments in the city came from
A local people.
B the City Council.
C the SWRDC.
12. What is unusual about Brackenside pool?
A its architectural style
B its heating system
C its method of water treatment
13. Local newspapers have raised worries about
A the late opening date.
B the post of the project.
C the size of the facilities.
14. What decision has not yet been made about the pool?
A whose statue will be at the door
B the exact opening times
C who will open it
Questions 15-20
Which feature is related to each of the following areas of the world represented in the playground? Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-l, next to questions 15-20.
42
Features
A ancient forts
B waterways
C ice and snow
D jewels
E local animals
F mountains
G music and film
H space travel
I volcanoes
Areas of the world
15…………….Asia
16……………..Antarctica
17……………..South America
18……………..North America
19……………..Europe
20……………..Africa
Lesson 2.11
Questions 11 and 12
Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO things does Alice say about the Dolphin Conservation Trust?
43
A Children make up most of the membership.
B It’s the country's largest conservation organisation.
C It helps finance campaigns for changes in fishing practices.
D It employs several dolphin experts full-time.
E Volunteers help in various ways.
Questions 13-15
Choose the correct letter, A, B, or C 13. Why is Alice so pleased the Trust has won the Charity Commission award? A It has brought in extra money.
B It made the work of the trust better known.
C 1t has attracted more members.
14. Alice says oil exploration causes problems to dolphins because of A noise.
B oil leaks.
C movement of ships.
15. Alice became interested in dolphins when A she saw one swimming near her home.
B she heard a speaker at her school.
C she read a book about them.
Questions 16-20
Which dolphin does Alice make each of the following comments about? Write the correct letter, A, B, C or D, next to questions 16-20.
Dolphins
A Moondancer
B Echo
C Kiwi
D Samson
Comments 16. It has not been seen this year…………… 17. It is photographed more than the others…………….
44
18. It is always very energetic…………….. 19. It is the newest one in the scheme……………… 20. It has an unusual shape………………..
Lesson 2.12
Questions 11-15 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. MANHAM PORT 11. Why did a port originally develop at Manham?
A It was safe from enemy attack.
B It was convenient for river transport.
C It had a good position on the sea coast.
12. What caused Manham’s sudden expansion during the Industrial Revolution? A the improvement in mining techniques
B the increase in demand for metals
C the discovery of tin in the area
13. Why did rocks have to be sent away from Manham to be processed? A shortage of fuel
B poor transport systems
C lack of skills among local people
14. What happened when the port declined in the twentieth century? A The workers went away.
B Traditional skills were lost.
C Buildings were used for new purposes.
45
15. What did the Manham Trust hope to do? A discover the location of the original port
B provide jobs for the unemployed
C rebuild the port complex
Questions 16-20
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Tourist attractions in Manham
Place Features and activities Advice
copper mine specially adapted
miners’ 16…………… take visitors
into
the mountain
the mine is 17………… and
enclosed - unsuitable for children
and animals
village school classrooms and a special exhibition
of 18…………
a 19…………. is recommended
The George’
(old sailing
ship)
the ship’s wheel (was lost but has
now been restored)
children shouldn’t use
the 20……….
Lesson 2.13
Questions 11-14
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD for each answer.
Fiddy Working Heritage Farm
Advice about visiting the farm
46
Visitors should
• take care not to harm any 11……………..
• not touch any 12……………..
• wear 13………………
• not bring 14……………. into the farm, with certain exceptions
Questions 15-20
Label the map below. Write the correct letter A-I, next to Questions 15-20.
15 Scarecrow………………
16 Maze………………
17 Café……………
18 Black Barn………….
19 Covered picnic area…………..
20 Fiddy House……………
Lesson 2.14
Questions 11-20
New staff at theatre
47
Questions 11 and 12
Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO changes have been made so far during the refurbishment of the theatre?
A Some rooms now have a different use.
B A different type of seating has been installed.
C An elevator has been installed.
D The outside of the building has been repaired.
E Extra seats have been added.
Questions 13 and 14
Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO facilities does the theatre currently offer to the public?
A rooms for hire
B backstage tours
C hire of costumes
D a bookshop
E a café
Questions 15 and 16
Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO workshops does the theatre currently offer?
A sound
B acting
C making puppets
D make-up
E lighting
Questions 17-20
Label the plan below. Write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 17-20.
Ground floor plan of theatre
48
17 box office…………..
18 theatre manager’s
office……………….
19 lighting
box…………….
20 artistic director’s
office…………….
Lesson 2.15
Questions 11-15
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Changes in Barford over the last 50 years
11 In Shona’s opinion, why do fewer people use buses in Barford these days? A The buses are old and uncomfortable.
B Fares have gone up too much.
C There are not so many bus routes.
12 What change in the road network is known to have benefited the town most? A the construction of a bypass
B the development of cycle paths
C the banning of cars from certain streets
13 What is the problem affecting shopping in the town centre? A lack of parking spaces
49
B lack of major retailers
C lack of restaurants and cafes
14 What does Shona say about medical facilities in Barford? A There is no hospital.
B New medical practices are planned.
C The number of dentists is too low.
15 The largest number of people are employed in A manufacturing.
B services.
C education.
Questions 16-20
What is planned for each of the following facilities? Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 16-20.
Plans
A It will move to a new location.
B It will have its opening hours extended.
C It will be refurbished.
D It will be used for a different purpose.
E It will have its opening hours reduced.
F It will have new management.
G It will be expanded.
Facilities
16 railway station car park ………….
17 Cinema …………
50
18 indoor market ………….
19 Library …………..
20 nature reserve ………….
Lesson 2.16
Questions 11-16
What does the speaker say about each of the following collections? Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to Questions 11-16. Comments A was given by one person
B was recently publicised in the media
C includes some items given by members of the public
D includes some items given by the artists
E includes the most popular exhibits in the museum
F is the largest of its kind in the country
G has had some of its contents relocated
Collections
11 20th- and 21st-century paintings ………….
12 19th-century paintings …………..
13 Sculptures …………
14 ‘Around the world’ exhibition …… ……..
15 Coins …………..
16 Porcelain and glass ……………..
Questions 17-20
Label the plan below. Write the correct letter, A-H, next to Questions 17-20.
51
Basement of museum
17…………. restaurant
18…………. café
19………….. baby-changing facilities
20………….. cloakroo
---------------
Tips for IELTS Listening Map Labelling Read the instructions carefully - this is so you
know what you need to do and the maximum number of words and / or numbers you can use – in this case it is no more than two words.
Know the vocabulary of location - you need to know words commonly used to describe where things are located.
Identify where the numbers start and finish Understand the context - listen carefully at the
beginning as the speaker will give you the context. Also, look over the map. This will help you identify exactly what you are labelling - note the things that are already labelled to get a feel for where things are.
Predict the answers - as with all the listening test, it helps to predict what the answer may be. Look at the gaps and see if you can guess what you are labelling - a room, building, sports facility, street etc?
Pay particular attention to things close by Pay attention to any other clues in the map -
for example, you are given a compass icon in the corner telling you where ‘North’, ‘South’, ‘East’ and ‘West’ are. This means it is likely that these phrases will be used to direct you. So listen out for them.
Look at two questions at once - this is
something you should always do in the
listening test
52
.Solution for section 2
Lesson 2.1
11. 1.30
12. 25 December/Christmas Day
13. car-park/parking lot
14. 45
15. (some) tables
16. C, F, G IN ANY ORDER
17. C, F, G IN ANY ORDER
18. C, F, G IN ANY ORDER
19. B, E IN EITHER ORDER
20. B, E IN EITHER ORDER
Lesson 2.2
11. B
12. (the) Forest
13. Fish Farm(s)
14. Market Garden
15. C
16. A
17. C
18. B
19. C
20. A
53
Lesson 2.3
11. classical music/(classical/music) concerts
12. bookshop/bookstore
13. planned
14. 1983/(the) 1980s
15. City Council
16. 363
17. (the) Garden Hall
18. Three Lives
19. 4.50
20. Faces of China
Lesson 2.4
11. A
12. B
13. B
14. C
15. D
16. G
17. B
18. F
19. A
20. E
54
Lesson 2.5
11. branch
12. west
13. clothing
14. 10
15. running
16. bags
17. A
18. A
19. A, E IN EITHER ORDER
20. A, E IN EITHER ORDER
Lesson 2.6
11. trees
12. Friday and Sunday
13. farm
14. C
15. B
16. A
17. A
18. I
19. F
20. E
Lesson 2.7
11. C
55
12. A
13. C
14. E
15. H
16. F
17. C
18. G
19. 120
20. 5 to 12
Lesson 2.8
11. B
12. C
13. E
14. B
15. E
16. D
17. A
18. C
19. 732281
20. Thursday/Thursdays
Lesson 2.9
11. A, C IN EITHER ORDER
12. A, C IN EITHER ORDER
56
13. health problems
14. safety rules
15. plan
16. joining
17. free entry
18. peak
19. guests
20. photo card / photo cards
Lesson 2.10
11. A
12. C
13. C
14. A
15. E
16. F
17. D
18. H
19. A
20. B
Lesson 2.11
11. IN EITHER ORDER C & E
57
12. IN EITHER ORDER C & E
13. B
14. A
15. C
16. B
17. C
18. D
19. D
20. A
Lesson 2.12
11. B
12. B
13. A
14. A
15. C
16. trains
17. dark
18. games
19. guided tour
20. ladder/ladders
Lesson 2.13
11. animal/animals
58
12. tool/tools
13. shoes
14. dog/dogs
15. F
16. G
17. D
18. H
19. C
20. A
Lesson 2.14
11. A,B IN EITHER ORDER
12. A,B IN EITHER ORDER
13. B,D IN EITHER ORDER
14. B,D IN EITHER ORDER
15. C,E IN EITHER ORDER
16. C,E IN EITHER ORDER
17. G
18. D
19. B
20. F
Lesson 2.15
59
11. C
12. B
13. B
14. A
15. C
16. G
17. A
18. C
19. B
20. F
Lesson 2.16
11. E
12. D
13. G
14. B
15. C
16. A
17. F
18. H
19. C
20. B
60
Section 3
Lesson 3.1
Questions 21-30
Questions 21-24
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Field Trip Proposal
21 The tutor thinks that Sandra’s proposal A should be re-ordered in some parts.
B needs a contents page.
C ought to include more information.
22 The proposal would be easier to follow if Sandra A inserted subheadings.
B used more paragraphs.
C shortened her sentences.
23 What was the problem with the formatting on Sandra’s proposal? A Separate points were not clearly identified.
B The headings were not always clear.
C Page numbering was not used in an appropriate way.
24 Sandra became interested in visiting the Navajo National Park through A articles she read.
B movies she saw as a child.
C photographs she found on the internet.
Questions 25-27
Choose THREE letters, A-G. Which THREE topics does Sandra agree to include in the proposal?
A climate change
B field trip activities
61
C geographical features
D impact of tourism
E myths and legends
F plant and animal life
G social history
Questions 28-30
Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer . 28 The tribal park covers …………..hectares.
29 Sandra suggests that they share the ……………for transport.
30 She says they could also explore the local……………
Lesson 3.2
Questions 21-30
Questions 21-24
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Honey Bees in Australia
21 Where in Australia have Asian honey bees been found in the past? A Queensland
B New South Wales
C several states
22 A problem with Asian honey bees is that they A attack native bees.
B carry parasites.
C damage crops.
62
23 What point is made about Australian bees? A Their honey varies in quality.
B Their size stops them from pollinating some flowers.
C They are sold to customers abroad.
24 Grant Freeman says that if Asian honey bees got into Australia, A the country’s economy would be affected.
B they could be used in the study of allergies.
C certain areas of agriculture would benefit.
Questions 25-30
Complete the summary below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Looking for Asian honey bees
Birds called Rainbow Bee Eaters eat only 25……………, and cough up small bits of skeleton and
other products in a pellet.
Researchers go to the locations the bee eaters like to use for 26…………..
They collect the pellets and take them to a 27 …………….for analysis.
Here 28………… is used to soften them, and the researchers look for the 29…………….of Asian
bees in the pellets.
The benefit of this research is that the result is more 30…………. than searching for live Asian bees.
Lesson 3.3
Questions 21-30
Questions 21-26
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Latin American studies
21 Paul decided to get work experience in South America because he wanted
63
A to teach English there.
B to improve his Spanish.
C to learn about Latin American life.
22 What project work did Paul originally intend to get involved in? A construction
B agriculture
C tourism
23 Why did Paul change from one project to another? A His first job was not well organised.
B He found doing the routine work very boring.
C The work was too physically demanding.
24 In the village community, he learnt how important it was to A respect family life.
B develop trust.
C use money wisely.
25 What does Paul say about his project manager? A He let Paul do most of the work.
B His plans were too ambitious.
C He was very supportive of Paul.
26 Paul was surprised to be given A a computer to use.
B so little money to live on.
C an extension to his contract.
Questions 27-30
What does Paul decide about each of the following modules? Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 27-30. A He will do this. B He might do this.
64
C He won’t do this.
Module
27 Gender Studies in Latin America……………
28 Second Language Acquisition…………..
29 Indigenous Women’s Lives……………
30 Portuguese Language Studies…………..
Lesson 3.4
Questions 21 and 22
Choose TWO letters, A-E. In which TWO ways is Dan financing his course? A He is receiving money from the government.
B His family are willing to help him.
C The college is giving him a small grant.
D His local council is supporting him for a limited period.
E A former employer is providing partial funding.
Questions 23 and 24
Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO reasons does Jeannie give for deciding to leave some college clubs?
A She is not sufficiently challenged.
B The activity interferes with her studies.
C She does not have enough time.
D The activity is too demanding physically.
E She does not think she is any good at the activity.
Questions 25 and 26
65
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 25 What does Dan say about the seminars on the course? A The other students do not give him a chance to speak.
B The seminars make him feel inferior to the other students.
C The preparation for seminars takes too much time.
26 What does Jeannie say about the tutorials on the course?
A They are an inefficient way of providing guidance.
B They are more challenging than she had expected.
C They are helping her to develop her study skills.
Questions 27-30
Complete the flow-chart below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Advice on exam preparation
Make sure you know the exam requirements
⇩ Find some past papers
⇩ Work out your 27…………….. for revision and write them on a card
⇩ Make a 28………………….. and keep it in view
⇩ Divide revision into 29……………………for each day
66
⇩ Write one 30…………….. about each topic
⇩ Practise writing some exam answers
Lesson 3.5
Questions 21-30
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Course Feedback
21 One reason why Spiros felt happy about his marketing presentation was that A he was not nervous.
B his style was good.
C the presentation was the best in his group.
22 What surprised Hiroko about the other students’ presentations? A Their presentations were not interesting.
B They found their presentations stressful.
C They didn’t look at the audience enough.
23 After she gave her presentation, Hiroko felt A delighted.
B dissatisfied.
C embarrassed.
24 How does Spiros feel about his performance in tutorials? A not very happy
B really pleased
67
C fairly confident
25 Why can the other students participate so easily in discussions? A They are polite to each other.
B They agree to take turns in speaking.
C They know each other well.
26 Why is Hiroko feeling more positive about tutorials now? A She finds the other students’ opinions more interesting.
B She is making more of a contribution.
C The tutor includes her in the discussion.
27 To help her understand lectures, Hiroko A consulted reference materials.
B had extra tutorials with her lecturers.
C borrowed lecture notes from other students.
28 What does Spiros think of his reading skills? A He reads faster than he used to.
B It still takes him a long time to read.
C He tends to struggle with new vocabulary.
29 What is Hiroko’s subject area? A environmental studies
B health education
C engineering
30 Hiroko thinks that in the reading classes the students should A learn more vocabulary.
B read more in their own subject areas.
C develop better reading strategies.
68
Lesson 3.6
Questions 21-24
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Self-Access Centre
21 Students want to keep the Self-Access Centre because A they enjoy the variety of equipment.
B they like being able to work on their own.
C it is an important part of their studies.
22 Some teachers would prefer to A close the Self-Access Centre.
B move the Self-Access Centre elsewhere.
C restrict access to the Self-Access Centre.
23 The students’ main concern about using the library would be A the size of the library.
B difficulty in getting help.
C the lack of materials.
24 The Director of Studies is concerned about A the cost of upgrading the centre.
B the lack of space in the centre.
C the difficulty in supervising the centre.
Questions 25-30
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Necessary improvements to the existing Self-Access Centre
Equipment Replace computers to create more space.
Resources The level of the 25 …………..materials, in particular, should be more clearly shown. Update the 26 …………….collection. Buy some 27 ……………..and divide them up. Use of the room Speak to the teachers and organise a 28 ………………for supervising the centre
69
Install an 29…………. Restrict personal use of 30………………….on computers.
Lesson 3.7
Questions 21-30
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Study Skills Tutorial - Caroline Benning
Dissertation topic: the 21…………….
Strengths: • 22………………
• computer modelling
Weaknesses: • lack of background information
• poor 23…………….. skills
Possible strategy Benefits Problems
peer group discussion increases 24………….. dissertations tend to contain the
same 25………….
use
the 26………… service
provides
structured programme
limited 27…………..
consult study skills books are a good source
of reference
can be too 28…………
Recommendations: • use a card index
• read all notes 29………….
Next tutorial date: 30 …………..January
70
Lesson 3.8
Questions 21 and 22
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
21 In her home country, Kira had A completed a course.
B done two years of a course.
C found her course difficult.
22 To succeed with assignments, Kira had to A read faster.
B write faster.
C change her way of thinking.
Questions 23-25
Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer. 23 Kira says that lecturers are easier to……………….. than those in her home country.
24 Paul suggests that Kira may be more ………………. than when she was studying before.
25 Kira says that students want to discuss things that worry them or that ………………….them very much.
Questions 26-30
Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
26 How did the students do their practical sessions? 26…………………….
27 In the second semester how often did Kira work in a hospital? 27………………….
28 How much full-time work did Kira do during the year? 28……………….
29 Having completed the year, how does Kira feel? 29……………………
30 In addition to the language, what do overseas students need to become
familiar with? 30……………..
71
Lesson 3.9
Questions 21-30
Questions 21-25
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. Global Design Competition
21 Students entering the design competition have to A produce an energy-efficient design.
B adapt an existing energy-saving appliance.
C develop a new use for current technology.
22 John chose a dishwasher because he wanted to make dishwashers A more appealing.
B more common.
C more economical.
23 The stone in John’s ‘Rockpool’ design is used
A for decoration.
B to switch it on.
C to stop water escaping.
24 In the holding chamber, the carbon dioxide A changes back to a gas.
B dries the dishes.
C is allowed to cool.
25 At the end of the cleaning process, the carbon dioxide A is released into the air.
B is disposed of with the waste.
C is collected ready to be re-used.
Questions 26-30
Complete the notes below.
72
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
• John needs help preparing for his 26…………….
• The professor advises John to make a 27…………………of his design.
• John’s main problem is getting good quality 28…………….
• The professor suggests John apply for a 29………………..
• The professor will check the 30…………………..information in John’s written report.
Lesson 3.10
Questions 21 and 22
Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO hobbies was Thor Heyerdahl very interested in as a youth? A camping B climbing C collecting D hunting E reading
Questions 23 and 24
Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which do the speakers say are the TWO reasons why Heyerdahl went to live on an island? A to examine ancient carvings
B to experience an isolated place
C to formulate a new theory
D to learn survival skills
E to study the impact of an extreme environment
Questions 25-30
Choose the correct letter A, B or C.
The later life of Thor Heyerdahl
73
25. According to Victor and Olivia, academics thought that Polynesian migration from the east was impossible due to A the fact that Eastern countries were far away.
B the lack of materials for boat building.
C the direction of the winds and currents.
26. Which do the speakers agree was the main reason for Heyerdahl’s raft journey? A to overcome a research setback
B to demonstrate a personal quality
C to test a new theory
27. What was most important to Heyerdahl about his raft journey? A the fact that he was the first person to do it
B the speed of crossing the Pacific
C the use of authentic construction methods
28. Why did Heyerdahl go to Easter Island?
A to build a stone statue
B to sail a reed boat
C to learn the local language
29. In Olivia’s opinion, Heyerdahl’s greatest influence was on A theories about Polynesian origins.
B the development of archaeological methodology.
C establishing archaeology as an academic subject.
30. Which criticism do the speakers make of William Oliver’s textbook? A Its style is out of date.
B Its content is over-simplified.
C Its methodology is flawed.
74
Lesson 3.11
Questions 21-25
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Theatre Studies Course
21. What helped Rob to prepare to play the character of a doctor? A the stories his grandfather told him
B the times when he watched his grandfather working
C the way he imagined his grandfather at work
22. In the play's first scene, the boredom of village life was suggested by A repetition of words and phrases.
B scenery painted in dull colours.
C long pauses within conversations.
23. What has Rob learned about himself through working in a group? A He likes to have clear guidelines.
B He copes well with stress.
C He thinks he is a good leader.
24. To support the production, research material was used which described A political developments.
B changing social attitudes.
C economic transformations.
25. What problem did the students overcome in the final rehearsal? A one person forgetting their words
B an equipment failure
C the injury of one character
75
Questions 26-30
Choose FIVE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 26-30.
Action
A be on time
B get a letter of recommendation
C plan for the final year
D make sure the institution’s focus is relevant
E show ability in Theatre Studies
F make travel arrangements and bookings
G ask for help
Stages in doing the ‘year abroad’ option 26 in the second year of the course
27 when first choosing where to go
28 when sending in your choices
29 when writing your personal statement
30 when doing the year abroad
Lesson 3.12
Questions 21 and 22
Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO skills did Laura improve as a result of her work placement? A communication
B design
C IT
D marketing
76
E organization
Questions 23 and 24
Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO immediate benefits did the company get from Laura’s work placement?
A updates for its software
B cost savings
C an-improved image
D new clients
E a growth in sales
Questions 25-30
What source of information should Tim use at each of the following stages of the work placement? Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 25-30.
Sources of information
A company manager
B company’s personnel department
C personal tutor
D psychology department
E mentor
F university careers officer
G internet
Stages of the work placement procedure 25 obtaining booklet
26 discussing options
27 getting updates
77
28 responding to invitation for interview
29 informing about outcome of interview
30 requesting a reference
Lesson 3.13
Questions 21-30
Choose the correct letter, A, B C. Study on Gender in Physics
21 The students in Akira Miyake’s study were all majoring in A physics. B psychology or physics. C science, technology, engineering or mathematics.
22 The aim of Miyake’s study was to investigate A what kind of women choose to study physics. B a way of improving women’s performance in physics. C whether fewer women than men study physics at college.
23 The female physics students were wrong to believe that A the teachers marked them in an unfair way.
B the male students expected them to do badly.
C their test results were lower than the male students’.
24 Miyake’s team asked the students to write about A what they enjoyed about studying physics.
B the successful experiences of other people.
C something that was important to them personally.
78
25 What was the aim of the writing exercise done by the subjects? A to reduce stress
B to strengthen verbal ability
C to encourage logical thinking
26 What surprised the researchers about the study? A how few students managed to get A grades
B the positive impact it had on physics results for women
C the difference between male and female performance
27 Greg and Lisa think Miyake’s results could have been affected by
A the length of the writing task.
B the number of students who took part.
C the information the students were given.
28 Greg and Lisa decide that in their own project, they will compare the effects of A two different writing tasks.
B a writing task with an oral task.
C two different oral tasks.
29 The main finding of Smolinsky’s research was that class teamwork activities A were most effective when done by all-women groups.
B had no effect on the performance of men or women.
C improved the results of men more than of women.
30 What will Lisa and Greg do next? A talk to a professor
B observe a science class
79
C look at the science timetable
Lesson 3.14
Questions 21-26
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Rocky Bay field trip
21 What do the students agree should be included in their aims? A factors affecting where organisms live
B the need to preserve endangered species
C techniques for classifying different organisms
22 What equipment did they forget to take on the Field Trip? A string
B a compass
C a ruler
23 In Helen’s procedure section, Colin suggests a change in A the order in which information is given.
B the way the information is divided up.
C the amount of information provided.
24 What do they say about the method they used to measure wave speed? A It provided accurate results.
B It was simple to carry out.
C It required special equipment.
80
25 What mistake did Helen make when first drawing the map? A She chose the wrong scale.
B She stood in the wrong place.
C She did it at the wrong time.
26 What do they decide to do next with their map?
A scan it onto a computer
B check it using photographs
C add information from the internet
Questions 27 and 28
Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO problems affecting organisms in the splash zone are mentioned?
A lack of water
B strong winds
C lack of food
D high temperatures
E large waves
Questions 29 and 30
Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO reasons for possible error will they include in their report?
A inaccurate records of the habitat of organisms
B influence on behaviour of organisms by observer
C incorrect identification of some organisms
D making generalisations from a small sample
E missing some organisms when counting
81
Lesson 3.15
Questions 21-26
Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Subject of drawing Change to be made
A 21……………..
surrounded by trees
Add Malcolm and
a 22…………….noticing
him
People who are 23…………..
outside the forest
Add Malcolm sitting on
a tree trunk
and 24…………….
Ice-skaters
on 25……………..
covered with ice
Add a 26…………….
for each person
Questions 27-30
Who is going to write each of the following parts of the report? Write the correct letter, A—D, next to Questions 27—30. A Helen only
B Jeremy only
C both Helen and Jeremy
D neither Helen nor Jeremy
Parts of the report
27 how they planned the project………….
28 how they had ideas for their stories…………….
29 an interpretation of their storie…………….
82
30 comments on the illustrations…………….
Lesson 3.16
Questions 21 and 22
Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO characteristics were shared by the subjects of Joanna’s psychology study?
A They had all won prizes for their music. B They had all made music recordings. C They were all under 27 years old. D They had all toured internationally. E They all played a string instrument. Questions 23 and 24
Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO points does Joanna make about her use of telephone interviews? A It meant rich data could be collected.
B It allowed the involvement of top performers.
C It led to a stressful atmosphere at times.
D It meant interview times had to be limited.
E It caused some technical problems.
Questions 25 and 26
Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO topics did Joanna originally intend to investigate in her research? A regulations concerning concert dress
B audience reactions to the dress of performers
C changes in performer attitudes to concert dress
D how choice of dress relates to performer roles
E links between musical instrument and dress choice
Questions 27-30
83
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 27 Joanna concentrated on women performers because A women are more influenced by fashion.
B women’s dress has led to more controversy.
C women’s code of dress is less strict than men’s.
28 Mike Frost’s article suggests that in popular music, women’s dress is affected by A their wish to be taken seriously.
B their tendency to copy each other.
C their reaction to the masculine nature of the music.
29 What did Joanna’s subjects say about the audience at a performance? A The musicians’ choice of clothing is linked to respect for the audience.
B The clothing should not distract the audience from the music.
C The audience should make the effort to dress appropriately.
30 According to the speakers, musicians could learn from sports scientists about A the importance of clothing for physical freedom.
B the part played by clothing in improving performance.
C the way clothing may protect against physical injury.
84
Solution for section 3
Lesson 3.1
21. A
22. C
23. A
24. B
25. B, C, F IN ANY ORDER
26. B, C, F IN ANY ORDER
27. B, C, F IN ANY ORDER
28. 12,000
29. horses
30. caves
Lesson 3.2
21. A
22. B
23. C
24. A
25. insects
26. feeding/eating
27. laboratory
28. water
29. wings
30. reliable/accurate
85
Lesson 3.3
21. C
22. C
23. A
24. B
25. C
26. A
27. C
28. A
29. B
30. C
Lesson 3.4
21. B, E IN EITHER ORDER
22. B, E IN EITHER ORDER
23. A, C IN EITHER ORDER
24. A, C IN EITHER ORDER
25. B
26. C
27. priorities
28. timetable
29. (small) tasks
30. (single) paragraph
86
Lesson 3.5
21. B
22. C
23. B
24. A
25. C
26. B
27. A
28. B
29. C
30. B
Lesson 3.6
21. C
22. B
23. B
24. C
25. reading
26. CD
27. workbooks
28. timetable/schedule
29. alarm
30. email/emails
Lesson 3.7
21. fishing industry
87
22. statistics
23. note-taking
24. confidence
25. ideas
26. student support
27. places
28. general
29. 3 times
30. 25th
Lesson 3.8
21. A
22. C
23. approach
24. mature
25. interest
26. groups/small groups
27. every second day
28. 2 weeks
29. confident
30. education system
Lesson 3.9
21. C
22. A
23. B
88
24. A
25. C
26. presentation
27. model
28. material/materials
29. grant
30. technical
Lesson 3.10
21. B, C IN EITHER ORDER
22. B, C IN EITHER ORDER
23. B, E IN EITHER ORDER
24. B, E IN EITHER ORDER
25. A
26. C
27. C
28. A
29. B
30. A
Lesson 3.11
21. C
89
22. A
23. A
24. B
25. B
26. E
27. D
28. A
29. G
30. C
Lesson 3.12
21. IN EITHER ORDER A & E
22. IN EITHER ORDER A & E
23. IN EITHER ORDER B & C
24. IN EITHER ORDER B & C
25. D
26. F
27. G
28. B
29. E
30. C
Lesson 3.13
21. C
22. B
90
23. B
24. C
25. A
26. B
27. C
28. A
29. B
30. A
Lesson 3.14
21. A
22. A
23. C
24. B
25. B
26. B
27. A,D IN EITHER ORDER
28. A,D IN EITHER ORDER
29. C,E IN EITHER ORDER
30. C,E IN EITHER ORDER
Lesson 3.15
21. cave
22. tiger
91
23. dancing
24. crying
25. grass
26. scarf
27. A
28. C
29. D
30. B
Lesson 3.16
21. B,D IN EITHER ORDER
22. B,D IN EITHER ORDER
23. A,B IN EITHER ORDER
24. A,B IN EITHER ORDER
25. B,E IN EITHER ORDER
26. B,E IN EITHER ORDER
27. C
28. A
29. A
30. C
92
Section 4
Lesson 4.1
Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Geography
Studying geography helps us to understand:
• the effects of different processes on the 31 ……….of the Earth
• the dynamic between 32…………… and population
Two main branches of study:
• physical features
• human lifestyles and their 33…………
Specific study areas: biophysical, topographic, political, social, economic, historical and 34…………… geography, and also cartography
Key point: geography helps us to understand our surroundings and the associated 35………….
What do geographers do?
• find data - e.g. conduct censuses, collect information in the form of 36………….. using computer and satellite technology
• analyse data - identify 37…………..e.g. cause and effect
• publish findings in form of:
a) maps
- easy to carry
93
- can show physical features of large and small areas
- BUT a two-dimensional map will always have some 38…………
b) aerial photos
- can show vegetation problems, 39……………density, ocean floor etc.
c) Landsat pictures sent to receiving stations
- used for monitoring 40…………… conditions etc.
Lesson 4.2
Questions 31-40
Questions 31-36
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Research on questions about doctors
31 In order to set up her research programme, Shona got A advice from personal friends in other countries.
B help from students in- other countries.
C information from her tutor’s contacts in other countries.
32 What types of people were included in the research? A young people in their first job
B men who were working
C women who were unemployed
33 Shona says that in her questionnaire her aim was A to get a wide range of data.
B to limit people’s responses.
C to guide people through interviews.
94
34 What do Shona’s initial results show about medical services in Britain? A Current concerns are misrepresented by the press.
B Financial issues are critical to the government.
C Reforms within hospitals have been unsuccessful.
35 Shona needs to do further research in order to
A present the government with her findings.
B decide the level of extra funding needed.
C identify the preferences of the public.
36 Shona has learnt from the research project that A it is important to plan projects carefully.
B people do not like answering questions.
C colleagues do not always agree.
37-40 Which statement applies to each of the following people who were interviewed by Shona? Choose FOUR answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-F, next to questions 37-40.
A gave false data
B decided to stop participating
C refused to tell Shona about their job
D kept changing their mind about participating
E became very angry with Shona
F was worried about confidentiality
People interviewed by Shona
95
37 a person interviewed in the street
38 an undergraduate at the university
39 a colleague in her department
40 a tutor in a foreign university
Lesson 4.3
Questions 31-40
Questions 31-34
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Trying to repeat success
31 Compared to introducing new business processes, attempts to copy existing processes are A more attractive.
B more frequent.
C more straightforward.
32 Most research into the repetition of success in business has A been done outside the United States.
B produced consistent findings.
C related to only a few contexts.
33 What does the speaker say about consulting experts? A Too few managers ever do it.
B It can be useful in certain circumstances.
96
C Experts are sometimes unwilling to give advice.
34 An expert’s knowledge about a business system may be incomplete because A some details are difficult for workers to explain.
B workers choose not to mention certain details.
C details are sometimes altered by workers.
Questions 35-40
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Setting up systems based on an existing process
Two mistakes
Manager tries to:
• improve on the original process
• create an ideal 35………………from the best parts of several processes
Cause of problems
• information was inaccurate
• comparison between the business settings was invalid
• disadvantages were overlooked, e.g. effect of changes on 36………………
Solution
• change 37…………
• impose rigorous 38……………
• copy original very closely:
- physical features of the 39………….
- the 40………….. of original employees
Lesson 4.4
97
Questions 31-36
Australian Aboriginal Rock Paintings Which painting styles have the following features? Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 31-36. Painting Styles A Dynamic
B Yam
C Modern
Features 31 figures revealing bones ………
32 rounded figures ………
33 figures with parts missing ………..
34 figures smaller than life size ………
35 sea creatures ………..
36 plants ……….
Questions 37-40
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Rainbow Serpent Project
Aim of project: to identify the 37………. used as the basis for the Rainbow Serpent
Yam Period
• environmental changes led to higher 38……………
98
• traditional activities were affected, especially 39………….s
Rainbow Serpent image
• similar to a sea horse
• unusual because it appeared in inland areas
• symbolises 40…………in Aboriginal culture
Lesson 4.5
Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Mass Strandings of Whales and Dolphins
Mass strandings: situations where groups of whales, dolphins, etc. swim onto the beach and die
Common in areas where the 31 ……………. can change quickly
Several other theories:
Parasites
e.g. some parasites can affect marine animals’ 32………………………….., which they depend on for navigation
Toxins
Poisons from 33…………………… are commonly consumed by whales
e.g. Cape Cod (1988) - whales were killed by saxitoxin
Accidental Strandings
Animals may follow prey ashore, e.g. Thurston (1995)
99
Unlikely because the majority of animals were not 34 ……………….when they stranded
Human Activity
35 …………………..from military tests are linked to some recent strandings
The Bahamas (2000) stranding was unusual because the whales
• were all 36…………..
• were not in a 37……………….
Group Behaviour
• More strandings in the most 38…………………. species of whales
• 1994 dolphin stranding - only the 39…………………was ill
Further Reading
Marine Mammals Ashore (Connor) - gives information about stranding 40……………..
Lesson 4.6
Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Business Cultures
Power culture
100
Characteristics of
organisation
• small
• 31 ……………..power source
• few rules and procedures
• communication by 32……………
Advantage: • can act quickly
Disadvantage: • might not act 33………….
Suitable employee: • not afraid of 34……………
• doesn’t need job security
Role culture
Characteristics of
organisation:
• large, many 35……….
• specialised departments
• rules and procedure, e.g. job 36 ……….and rules
for discipline
Advantages: • economies of scale
• successful when 37 ……….ability is important
Disadvantages: • slow to see when 38 ………..is needed
• slow to react
Suitable employee: • values security
• doesn’t want 39…………
101
Task culture
Characteristics of
organisation:
• project orientated
• in competitive market or making product with short life
• a lot of delegation
Advantage: • 40………….
Disadvantages: • no economies of scale or special expertise
Suitable employee: • likes to work in groups
Lesson 4.7
Questions 31 and 32
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
31 The owners of the underground house A had no experience of living in a rural area.
B were interested in environmental issues.
C wanted a professional project manager.
32 What does the speaker say about the site of the house? A The land was quite cheap.
B Stone was being extracted nearby.
C It was in a completely unspoilt area.
Questions 33-40
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
The Underground House
102
Design
• Built in the earth, with two floors
• The south-facing side was constructed of two layers of 33………….
• Photovoltaic tiles were attached
• A layer of foam was used to improve the 34…………… of the building
Special features
• To increase the light, the building has many internal mirrors and 35…………
• In future, the house may produce more 36………….than it needs
• Recycled wood was used for the 37………… of the house
• The system for processing domestic 38………… is organic
Environmental issues
• The use of large quantities of 39…………..in construction was environmentally harmful
• But the house will have paid its ‘environmental debt’ within 40………..
Lesson 4.8
Questions 31-36
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Wildlife in city gardens
31 What led the group to choose their topic? A They were concerned about the decline of one species.
B They were interested in the effects of city growth.
C They wanted to investigate a recent phenomenon.
32 The exact proportion of land devoted to private gardens was confirmed by A consulting some official documents.
B taking large-scale photos.
C discussions with town surveyors.
33 The group asked garden owners to
103
A take part in formal interviews.
B keep a record of animals they saw.
C get in contact when they saw a rare species.
34 The group made their observations in gardens A which had a large number of animal species.
B which they considered to be representative.
C which had stable populations of rare animals.
35 The group did extensive reading on A wildlife problems in rural areas.
B urban animal populations.
C current gardening practices.
36 The speaker focuses on three animal species because A a lot of data has been obtained about them.
B the group were most interested in them.
C . they best indicated general trends.
Questions 37-40
Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Animals Reason for population increase in
gardens Comments
37……… suitable stretches of water massive increase in urban
population
Hedgehogs safer from 38………… when in cities easy to 39…………. them
accurately
Song
thrushes
- a variety of 40………… to eat
- more nesting places available large survey starting soon
Lesson 4.9
104
Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer. THE SPIRIT BEAR
General facts
• It is a white bear belonging to the black bear family.
• Its colour comes from an uncommon 31…………….
• Local people believe that it has unusual 32……………
• They protect the bear from 33……………
Habitat
• The bear’s relationship with the forest is complex.
• Tree roots stop 34…………. along salmon streams.
• The bears’ feeding habits provide nutrients for forest vegetation.
• It is currently found on a small number of 35………….
Threats
• Habitat is being lost due to deforestation and construction of 36………….by logging
companies.
• Unrestricted 37………….is affecting the salmon supply.
• The bears’ existence is also threatened by their low rate of 38…………
Going forward
• Interested parties are working together.
• Logging companies must improve their 39…………..of logging.
• Maintenance and 40………….of the spirit bears’ territory is needed.
Lesson 4.10 (IELTS 10 - Listening Practice Test 2)
Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
THE FUTURE OF MANAGEMENT
Business markets
105
greater 31…………… among companies
increase in power of large 32…………… companies
rising 33…………… in certain countries
External influences on businesses
more discussion with 34…………….. before making business decisions
environmental concerns which may lead to more 35………….
Business structures
more teams will be formed to work on a particular 36………….
businesses may need to offer hours that are 37………… , or the chance to work remotely
Management styles
increasing need for managers to provide good 38…………..
changes influenced by 39…………… taking senior roles
Changes in the economy
service sector continues to be important
increasing value of intellectual property more and more 40……………workers
Lesson 4.11
Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
'Self-regulatory focus theory' and leadership
Self-regulatory focus theory
People's focus is to approach pleasure or avoid pain
Promotion goals focus on 31……………
Prevention goals emphasise avoiding punishment
106
Factors that affect people's focus
The Chronic Factor
comes from one's 32…………….
The 33………….. Factor
we are more likely to focus on promotion goals when with a 34……………
we are more likely to focus on prevention goals with our boss
How people's focus affects them
Promotion Focus: People think about an ideal version of themselves, their 35…………..and their gains.
Prevention Focus: People think about their 'ought' self and their obligations
Leaders
Leadership behaviour and 36………….. affects people's focus
Transformational Leaders:
pay special attention to the 37………….. of their followers
passionately communicate a clear 38……………
inspire promotion focus in followers
Transactional Leaders:
create 39……………to make expectations clear
emphasise the results of a mistake
inspire prevention focus in followers
Conclusion
Promotion Focus is good for jobs requiring 40…………………..
Prevention Focus is good for work such as a surgeon Leaders' actions affect which focus people use
Lesson 4.12
Questions 31-33
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
107
Nanotechnology: technology on a small scale
31. The speaker says that one problem with nanotechnology is that
A it could threaten our way of life.
B it could be used to spy on people.
C it is misunderstood by the public.
32. According to the speaker, some scientists believe that nano-particles
A should be restricted to secure environments.
B should be used with more caution.
C should only be developed for essential products.
33. In the speaker's opinion, research into nanotechnology
A has yet to win popular support.
B colild be seen as unethical.
C ought to be continued.
Questions 34-40
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Uses of Nanotechnology Transport • Nanotechnology could allow the development of stronger 34…………….. • Planes would be much lighter in weight. • 35………….. travel will be made available to the masses. Technology
108
• Computers will be even smaller, faster, and will have a greater 36………….. • 37……….. energy will become more affordable. The Environment • Nano-robots could rebuild the ozone layer. • Pollutants such as 38…………. could be removed from water more easily. • There will be no 39…………. from manufacturing. Health and Medicine • New methods of food production could eradicate famine. • Analysis of medical 40…………..will be speeded up. • Life expectancy could be increased.
Lesson 4.13
Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
Ocean Biodiversity
Biodiversity hotspots
• areas containing many different species
• important for locating targets for 31…………..
• at first only identified on land
109
Boris Worm, 2005
• identified hotspots for large ocean predators, e.g. sharks
• found that ocean hotspots:
- were not always rich in 32…………….
- had higher temperatures at the 33………..
- had sufficient 34…………………in the water
Lisa Ballance, 2007
• looked for hotspots for marine 35……………
• found these were all located where ocean currents meet
Census of Marine Life
• found new ocean species living:
- under the 36…………….
- near volcanoes on the ocean floor
Global Marine Species Assessment
• want to list endangered ocean species, considering:
- population size
- geographical distribution
- rate of 37…………….
• Aim: to assess 20,000 species and make a distribution 38……………… for each one
Recommendations to retain ocean biodiversity
• increase the number of ocean reserves
• establish 39…………… corridors (e.g. for turtles)
• reduce fishing quotas
• catch fish only for the purpose of 40……………..
Lesson 4.14
Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
110
DESIGNING A PUBLIC BUILDING:
THE TAYLOR CONCERT HALL
Introduction
The designer of a public building may need to consider the building’s
• function
• physical and 31……………….. context
• symbolic meaning
Location and concept of the Concert Hall
On the site of a disused 32……………..
Beside a 33…………..
The design is based on the concept of a mystery
Building design
It’s approached by a 34…………… for pedestrians
The building is the shape of a 35………………
One exterior wall acts as a large 36……………..
In the auditorium:
- the floor is built on huge pads made of 37……………
- the walls are made of local wood and are 38………………in shape
- ceiling panels and 39…………… on walls allow adjustment of acoustics
Evaluation
Some critics say the 40………….. style of the building is inappropriate
Lesson 4.15
Qestions 31-40
Complete the notes below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
ETHNOGRAPHY IN BUSINESS
Ethnography: research which explores human cultures
It can be used in business:
111
• to investigate customer needs and 31………….
• to help companies develop new designs
Examples of ethnographic research in business
Kitchen equipment
• Researchers found that cooks could not easily see the 32………… in measuring cups.
Cell phones
• In Uganda, customers paid to use the cell phones of entrepreneurs
• These customers wanted to check the 33…………… used.
Computer companies
• There was a need to develop 34……………… to improve communication between system administrators and colleagues.
Hospitals
• Nurses needed to access information about 35……………….. in different parts of the hospital.
Airlines
• Respondents recorded information about their 36……………..while travelling.
Principles of ethnographic research in business
• The researcher does not start off with a hypothesis.
• Participants may be selected by criteria such as age, 37…………….. or product used.
• The participants must feel 38……………… about taking part in the research.
• There is usually direct 39…………..of the participants.
• The interview is guided by the participant.
• A lot of time is needed for the 40……………..of the data.
• Researchers look for a meaningful pattern in the data.
112
Lesson 4.16
Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
The use of soil to reduce carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
Rattan Lal: • Claims that 13% of C02 in the atmosphere could be absorbed by agricultural soils
• Erosion is more likely in soil that is 31…………….
• Lal found soil in Africa that was very 32…………..
• It was suggested that carbon from soil was entering the atmosphere
Soil and carbon: • plants turn C02 from the air into carbon-based substances such as 33…………
• some C02 moves from the 34……………of plants to microbes in the soil
• carbon was lost from the soil when agriculture was invented
Regenerative agriculture: • uses established practices to make sure soil remains fertile and 35………….
• e.g. through year-round planting and increasing the 36………….. plants that are grown
California study: • taking place on a big 37……………….. farm
• uses compost made from waste from agriculture and 38……………
Australia study: • aims to increase soil carbon by using 39…………… that are always green Future developments may include: • reducing the amount of fertilizer used in farming
• giving farmers 40……………. for carbon storage, as well as their produce
113
Solution for section 4
Lesson 4.1
31. surface
32. environment
33. impact(s)/effect(s)
34. urban
35. problems
36. images
37. patterns
38. distortion(s)
39. traffic
40. weather
Lesson 4.2
31. B
32. B
33. A
34. A
35. C
36. C
37. B
38. F
39. D
40. C
114
Lesson 4.3
31. B
32. B
33. B
34. A
35. combination/system
36. safety
37. attitude(s)
38. control(s)
39. factory/factories
40. skills
Lesson 4.4
31. C
32. B
33. C
34. A
35. B
36. B
37. animal/creature
38. sea/water level(s)
39. hunting
40. creation
115
Lesson 4.5
31. tide/tides
32. hearing/ear/ears
33. plants/animals/fish/fishes
34. feeding
35. noise/noises
36. healthy
37. group
38. social
39. leader
40. network/networks
Lesson 4.6
31. central
32. conversation/conversations
33. effectively
34. risk/risks
35. levels
36. description/descriptions
37. technical
38. change
39. responsibility
40. flexible
116
Lesson 4.7
31. B
32. A
33. glass
34. insulation
35. windows
36. electricity
37. floor/floors
38. waste
39. concrete
40. 15 years
Lesson 4.8
31. C
32. A
33. B
34. B
35. A
36. C
37. frog/frogs
38. predators
39. count
40. seed/seeds
Lesson 4.9
31. gene
117
32. power/powers
33. strangers
34. erosion
35. islands
36. roads
37. fishing
38. reproduction
39. method/methods
40. expansion
Lesson 4.10
31. competition
32. global
33. demand
34. customers
35. regulation
36. project
37. flexible
38. leadership
39. women
40. self-employed
118
Lesson 4.11
31. achievement/achievements
32. personality / character
33. situational
34. friend
35. aspirations / ambitions
36. style
37. development
38. vision
39. structures
40. innovation / innovations
Lesson 4.12
31. C
32. B
33. C
34. metal/metals
35. space
36. memory
37. solar
38. oil
39. waste
40. tests
119
Lesson 4.13
31. conservation
32. food/foods
33. surface
34. oxygen/O2
35. mammals
36. ice
37. decline/declining/decrease
38. map
39. migration
40. consumption
Lesson 4.14
31. social
32. factory
33. canal
34. bridge
35. box
36. screen
37. rubber
38. curved
39. curtains
40. international
120
Lesson 4.15
31. attitude/attitudes
32. numbers
33. time/minutes
34. software
35. patients
36. emotions/feelings
37. income
38. comfortable
39. observation
40. analysis
Lesson 4.16
31. dry
32. hard
33. sugar/sugars
34. roots
35. moist/damp/wet
36. variety
37. cattle
38. gardens/gardening
39. grasses
40. payment/payments / money
121
Full tests
Test 1
(IELTS 5 - Listening Practice Test 1)
SECTION 1
Questions 1-10
Questions 1-4
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Dreamtime travel agency
Tour information
Example
Holiday name: Whale watch Experience
Holiday length 2 days
Type of transportation 1…………
Maximum group size 2……………
Next tour date 3……………..
Hotel name 4 The…………..
Questions 5 and 6
Choose TWO letters A-E. Which TWO things are included in the price of the tour?
122
A fishing trip
B guided bushwalk
C reptile park entry
D table tennis
E tennis
Questions 7-10
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. 7 The tour costs $..............
8 Bookings must be made no later than 8…………….. days in advance.
9 A……………………… deposit is required.
10 The customer’s reference number is…………..
SECTION 2
Questions 11-20
Questions 11-19
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Brand of Cot Good Points Problems Verdict
Baby Safe Easy to
11……………
• Did not have any 12…………..
• Babies could trap their
13…………
in the side bar
14………….
Choice Cots Easy to
15…………..
• Side did not drop down
• Spaces between the bars were
16…………..
17…………..
Mother's
Choice
Base of cot could be
moved
• Did not have any 18………….
• Pictures could be removed
easily
19 ………
123
SECTION 3
Questions 21-30
Questions 21-23
Choose the correct letter. A. B or C. 21 Andrew has worked at the hospital for A two years.
B three years.
C five years.
22 During the course Andrew’s employers will pay A his fees.
B his living costs.
C his salary.
23 The part-time course lasts for A one whole year.
B 18 months.
C two years.
Questions 24 and 25
Choose TWO letters A-E. What TWO types of coursework are required each month on the part-time course? A a case study
B an essay
C a survey
D a short report
E a study diary
Questions 26-30
Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Modular Courses
124
Students study 26………….. during each module. A module takes
27…………….. and the work is very 28……………. To get a Diploma each
student has to study 29……………… and then work on 30……………. in depth.
SECTION 4
Questions 31-40
Questions 31-35
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 31 According to George Bernard Shaw, men arc supposed to understand 31…………… economics
and finance.
32 However, women are more prepared to 32…………. about them.
33 Women tend to save for 33……………and a house.
34 Men tend to save for 34……………and for retirement.
35 Women who are left alone may have to pay for 35………….. when they are old.
Questions 36-40
Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Saving for the future
Research indicates that many women only think about their financial future when a
36…………… occurs.This is the worst time to make decisions. It is best for women
to start thinking about pensions when they are in their 37…………… A good way
for women to develop their 38……………in dealing with financial affairs would be
to attend classes in 39………… When investing in stocks and shares, it is
suggested that women should put a high proportion of their savings in 40………….
In such ways, women can have a comfortable, independent retirement.
125
Test 2
(IELTS 5 - Listening Practice Test 2)
SECTION 1
Questions 1-10
Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
LIBRARY INFORMATION
Example Minimum joining age: 13 years
For registration, must take
• two 1……………. and
• two forms of l.D. e.g. driving licence, 2………………..
Cost to join per year (without current student card): 3 £ …………
Number of items allowed: (members of public) 4……………
126
Loan times: four weeks
Fines start at 5 £ …………..
Computers can be booked up to 6……………. hours in advance
Library holds most national papers, all 7……………… and magazines
Need 8………… to use photocopier
Creative Writing class
• tutor is John 9……………
• held on 10……………. evenings
SECTION 2
Questions 11-20
Questions 11-15
Choose the correct letter, A. B or C.
BICYCLES FOR THE WORLD
11 In 1993 Dan Pearman went to Ecuador A as a tourist guide.
B as part of his studies.
C as a voluntary worker.
12 Dan’s neighbour was successful in business because he A employed carpenters from the area.
B was the most skilled craftsman in the town.
C found it easy to reach customers.
13 Dan says the charity relies on A getting enough bicycles to send regularly.
127
B finding new areas which need the bicycles.
C charging for the bicycles it sends abroad.
14 What does Dan say about the town of Rivas? A It has received the greatest number of bikes.
B It has almost as many bikes as Amsterdam.
C Its economy has been totally transformed.
15 What problem did the charity face in August 2000? A It couldn’t meet its overheads.
B It had to delay sending the bikes.
C It was criticised in the British media.
Questions 16 and 17
Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD OR A NUMBER for each answer 16 How much money did the charily receive when it won an award? £ …………..
17 What is the charity currently hoping to buy?...............
Questions 18-20
Choose THREE letters A-G. Which THREE things can the general public do to help the charily Pedal Power?
A organise a bicycle collection
B repair the donated bikes
C donate their unwanted tools
D do voluntary work in its office
E hold an event to raise money
F identify areas that need bikes
G write to the government
128
SECTION 3
Questions 21-30
Questions 21-30
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
‘Student Life’ video project
Cristina Ibrahim
Enjoyed: • using the camera
• going to a British 21………….
contact with students doing other
courses
(has asked some to 22…………… with
him)
Most useful
language
practice:
• listening to instructions
• learning 23…………….
• vocabulary
listening to British students' language
because of:
- normal speed
- large amount of 24…………..
General ♦ operating video camera the importance of 27…………….
129
usefulness: • working with other people:
- learning about 25……………..
- compromising
- 26…………..people
who have different views
Things to
do
differently
in
future:
• decide when to 28………… each
stage
at the beginning
• make more effort
to 29 with
the camera
don't make the film too 30………………
SECTION 4
Questions 31-40
Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
ANTARCTICA
GEOGRAPHY
• world's highest, coldest and windiest continent
• more than 31……….. times as big as the UK
• most of the area is classified as 32…………
RESEARCH STATIONS
• international teams work together
• 33…………is integrated with technical support
• stations contain accommodation, work areas, a kitchen, a 34……………and a gym
• supplies were brought to Zero One station by sledge from a 35…………. at
the edge of the ice 15 km away
130
• problem of snow build-ups solved by building stations on 36……………. with
adjustable legs
FOOD AND DIET
• average daily requirement for an adult in Antarctica is approximately
37………… kilocalories
• rations for field work prepared by process of freeze-drying
RESEARCH
The most important research focuses on climate change, including
- measuring changes in the ice-cap (because of effects on sea levels and
38……………..)
- monitoring the hole in the ozone layer
- analysing air from bubbles in ice to measure 39…………… caused by human
activity
WORK OPPORTUNITIES
Many openings for 40……………… people including
- research assistants
- administrative and technical positions
Test 3
(IELTS 5 - Listening Practice Test 3)
SECTION 1
Questions 1-10
Questions 1-10
Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
MINTONS CAR MART
Customer Enquiry
131
Example
Make: Lida
Engine size: 1…………..
Model: Max
Type of gears: 2……………..
Preferred colour: 3…………. blue
FINANCE
Customer wishes to arrange 4………….
Part exchange? yes
PERSONAL DETAILS
Name: Wendy 5………….
Title: 6………….
Address:
Postcode:
20, Green Banks 7…………
Hampshire
GU3 9EW7
Contact number: 8 (for………… only) 079S 257643
CURRENT CAR
Make: Conti
Model: Name: 9………..
Year: 1994
Mileage: maximum 70,000
Colour: metallic grey
Condition: 10………..
132
ECTION 2
Questions 11-20
Questions 11 and 12
Choose TWO letters A-E. What TWO advantages does the speaker say Rexford University has for the students he is speaking to? A higher than average results in examinations
B good transport links with central London
C near London Airport
D special government funding
E good links with local industry
Questions 13—15
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer. • When application is received, confirmation will be sent
• Application processing may be slowed down by
- postal problems
- delays in sending 13…………. • University tries to put international applicants in touch with a student from the
same 14…………. who can give information and advice on - academic atmosphere
- leisure facilities
- English 15…………..and food - what to pack
Questions 16-20
Choose the correct letter. A, B or C. 16 The speaker says international students at UK universities will be A offered accommodation with local families.
B given special help by their lecturers.
C expected to work independently.
17 What does the speaker say about university accommodation on campus?
133
A Most places are given to undergraduates.
B No places are available for postgraduates with families.
C A limited number of places are available for new postgraduates.
18 Students wishing to live off-campus should apply A several months in advance.
B two or three weeks in advance.
C at the beginning of term.
19 The university accommodation officer will A send a list of agents for students to contact.
B contact accommodation agencies for students.
C ensure that students have suitable accommodation.
20 With regard to their English, the speaker advises the students to A tell their lecturers if they have problems understanding.
B have private English lessons when they arrive.
C practise their spoken English before they arrive.
134
SECTION 3
Questions 21-30
Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Feedback Form
Course: Communication in Business
Course code: CB162
Dates: From 21……………to 22…………. Please give your comments on the following aspects of the course:
Good Points Suggestions for Improvement
Course organisation
• 23…………. • useful to have 24…………. at beginning of course
• too much work in 25…………… of the course - could be more evenly balanced
Course delivery • good 26…………. • some 27………… sessions went on too long
Materials and equipment • good 28……………
• not enough copies of key texts available
• need more computers
Testing and evaluation
• quick feedback from oral presentations
• marking criteria for oral presentations known in advance
• too much 29………………… • can we know criteria for marking final exams?
Other comments • excellent 30…………….
135
ECTION 4
Questions 31-40
Questions 31-35
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
HOUSEHOLD WASTE RECYCLING
31 By 2008, carbon dioxide emissions need to be……………..lower than in 1990. 32 Recycling saves energy and reduces emissions from landfill sites and …………….. 33 People say that one problem is a lack of …………………. sites for household waste. • At the "bring banks’, household waste is sorted and unsuitable items removed.
34 Glass designed to be utilised for…………………..cannot be recycled with other types of glass.
35 In the UK……………….tons of glass is recycled each year.
Questions 36-40
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Companies working with recycled materials
Material Company Product that the company manufactures
glass CLF Aggregates material used for making 36……………
paper
Martin’s office stationery
Papersave 37……….for use on farms
plastic
Pacrice 38…………….for collecting waste
Waterford 39…………….
Johnson & Jones 40……………..
136
Test 4
(ELTS 5 - Listening Practice Test 4)
SECTION 1
Questions 1-10
Questions 1-10
Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR NUMBERS for each answer.
HOST FAMILY APPLICANT
Example Name: Jenny Chan
Present address: Sea View Guest House, 1……………
Daytime phone number: 2237676
[NB Best time to contact is 2…………..]
Age: 19
Intended length of stay: 3…………..
Occupation while in UK: student
General level of English: 4………………
Preferred location: in the 5…………….
Special diet: 6…………….
Other requirements: own facilities
own television
7…………….
to be 8……………….
Maximum price: 9 £…………….a week
i Preferred starting date: 10………………
137
SECTION 2
Questions 11-20
Questions 11-13
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
11 The next meeting of the soccer club will be in the…………… in King’s Park on 2 July.
12 The first event is a…………………
13 At the final dinner, players receive…………….
Questions 14-17
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Com petition Number of Teams Games Begin Training Session (in King's Park)
Junior 14………… 8.30 am 15…………..
Senior 16…………. 2.00 pm 17……………….
Questions 18-20
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Name of Office Bearer Responsibility
Robert Young: President to manage meetings
Gina Costello: Treasurer to 18………
David West: Secretary to 19…………
Jason Dokic: Head Coach to 20………….
138
SECTION 3
Questions 21-30
Questions 21-24
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Box Telecom
Problems: been affected by • drop in 21………..
• growing 22…………..
• delays due to a strike
Causes of problems: • high 23…………
• lack of good 24………….
Questions 25-27
Choose the correct letter, A. B or C 25 What does Karin think the company will do? A look for private investors
B accept a takeover offer
C issue some new shares
26 Mow does the tutor suggest the company can recover? A by appointing a new managing director
B by changing the way it is organised
C by closing some of its retail outlets
27 The tutor wants Jason and Karin to produce a report which A offers solutions to Box Telecom’s problems.
B analyses the UK market.
C compares different companies.
139
Questions 28-30
Which opinion does each person express about Box Telecom? Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-F next to questions 28-30.
28 ………….Karin
29 ………….Jason
30 ………….the tutor
A its workers are motivated
B it has too little investment
C it will overcome its problems
D its marketing campaign needs improvement
E it is old-fashioned
F it has strong managers
ECTION 4
Questions 31-40
Questions 31-36
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 31 During the first week of term, students are invited to A be shown round tire library by the librarian.
B listen to descriptions of library resources.
C do an intensive course in the computer centre.
32 The speaker warns the students that A internet materials can be unreliable.
B downloaded information must be acknowledged.
C computer access may be limited at times.
33 The library is acquiring more CDs as a resource because
A they arc a cheap source of information.
B they take up very little space.
140
C they are more up to date than the reference books.
34 Students are encouraged to use journals online because
A the articles do not need to be returned to the shelves.
B reading online is cheaper than photocopying articles.
C the stock of printed articles is to be reduced.
35 Why might some students continue to use reference books? A they can be taken away from the library
B they provide information unavailable elsewhere
C they can be borrowed for an extended loan period
36 What is the responsibility of the Training Supervisor? A to supervise and support library staff
B to provide orientation to the library facilities
C to identify needs and inform section managers
Questions 37-40
Which section of the university will help postgraduate students with their dissertations in the following ways? A the postgraduate’s own department or tutor
B library staff
C another section of the university
Write the correct letter, A. B or C. next to questions 37-40.
37 training in specialised computer programs ………..
38 advising on bibliography presentation ………….
39 checking the draft of the dissertation …………
40 providing language support ……….
141
Test 5
(IELTS 6 - Listening Practice Test 1)
Questions 1-10
Section 1
Questions 1-4
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Notes on sports club
Example Answer
Name of club: Kingswell
Facilities available: Golf
1……………..
2………………
Classes available:
• Kick-boxing
• 3……………..
Additional facility: 4……………. (restaurant opening soon)
Questions 5-8
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO NUMBERS for each answer.
MEMBER SHIP SCHEME
Type Use of
facilities
Cost of
classes
Times Joining Annual
Subscription
fee
142
GOLD All Free Any time £250 5 £……..
SILVER All 6 £…………
from 7……….. £225 £300
BRONZE Restricted £3 from 10.30 to 3.30
weekdays only
£50 8 £……
Questions 9 and 10
Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer. 9 To join the centre, you need to book an instructor’s………… 10 To book a trial session, speak to David……………….(0458 95311).
Section 2
Questions 11-16
What change has been made to each part of the theatre? Choose SIX answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-G, next to questions 11-16.
RIVENDEN CITY THEATRE
A doubled in number
B given separate entrance
C reduced in number
D increased in size
E replaced
F strengthened
G temporarily closed
Part of the theatre 11 box office……………
143
12 shop…………
13 ordinary scats…………..
14 scats for wheelchair users…………..
15 lifts…………
16 dressing rooms…………..
Questions 17-20
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Play Dates Starting time Tickets available Price
Royal Hunt
of the Sun
October 13th to
17……………
18 ……….pm for 19…………. 20 £
Section 3
Question 21
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
A attend a class
B write a report
C read a book
21 What is Brian going to do before the course starts?.............
Questions 22-25
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
College
Facility
Information
144
Refectory inform them 22 ………..about special dietary requirements
23…………. long waiting list, apply now
Careers advice drop-in centre for information
Fitness centre reduced 24 ………………for students
Library includes books, journals, equipment room containing audio-visual materials
Computers ask your 25 ……………to arrange a password with the technical support
team
Questions 26-30
Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Business Centre
The lousiness Resource Centre contains materials such as books and manuals to be used for training. It is possible to hire 26 …………….and 27……………
There are materials for working on study skills (e.g. 28…………….) and other subjects include finance and 29…………
30 …………….membership costs £50 per year.
Section 4
Questions 31-37
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Social history of the East End of London
Period Situation
1st-4th centuries Produce from the area was used to 31 …………the people of London.
5th— 10th
centuries
New technology allowed the production of goods made of 32…………..
11th century Lack of 33…………….in the East End encouraged the growth of
businesses.
145
I6th century Construction of facilities for the building of 34…………… stimulated
international trade
Agricultural workers came from other parts of 35…………….to look for
work
17th century Marshes were drained to provide land that could be 36 …………….on
I9th century Inhabitants lived in conditions of great 37 …………….with very poor
sanitation.
Questions 38-40
Choose THREE letters, A-G. Which THREE of the following problems arc mentioned in connection with 20th century housing in the East End? A . unsympathetic landlords
B unclean water
C heating problems
D high rents
E overcrowding
F poor standards of building
G houses catching fire
146
Test 6
(ELTS 6 - Listening Practice Test 2)
Questions 1-10
Questions 1-5
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer
CHILDREN'S ART AND CRAFT WORKSHOPS
Example Answer
Workshops organised every: Saturday
• Adults must accompany children under 1…………………..
• Cost: £2.50
• Workshops held in: Winter House, 2………….. Street
• Security device: must push the 3……………. to open door
• Should leave car behind the 4……………
• Book workshops by phoning the 5………….. (on 200765)
Questions 6-10
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Next two workshops
Date Workshop title Children advised to wear Please bring (if possible)
16/11 'Building 6…………..’ 7………… 8……………
147
23/11 9…………. (Nothing special) 10………….
Section 2
Questions 11-20
Questions 11-14
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer .
TRAIN INFORMATION
11 Local services depart from ………..….railway station.
12 National services depart from the …………….railway station.
13 Trains for London depart every ……………..each day during the week.
14 The price of a first class ticket includes………………
Questions 15-17
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Type of ticket Details
Standard open no restrictions
Supersave travel after 8.45
Special travel after 15 ……….and at weekends
16…………. buy at least six days ahead limited numbers
17 ………..essentials
Questions 18-20
Choose THREE letters, A-G. Which THREE attractions can you visit at present by train from Trebirch? A a science museum
148
B a theme park
C a climbing wall
D a mining museum
E an aquarium
F a castle
G a zoo
Section 3
Questions 21-30
Complete the tables below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Dissertation Tutorial Record (Education)
Name: Sandy Gibbons
Targets previously
agreed
Work completed Further action suggested
Investigate suitable data
analysis software
- Read IT 21………….. - Spoken to Jane Prince,
Head of the 22……………
Sign up for some software practice sessions
Prepare a 23…………. for survey
- Completed and sent for review Add questions in section three on 24…………..
Further reading about
discipline
- Read Banerjee
N.B. Couldn’t find Ericsson’s essays on managing the 25………………
Obtain from library through special loans service
New Targets Specific suggestion Timing
Do further work on Chapter 1
(Give the title:
Context 26………………)
- Add statistics on the
27…………….in various zones - Include more references to works dated after
28…………………….
By the 29……………
Prepare list of main
sections for Chapter 2
- Use index cards to help in organisation Before starting the 30
149
Section 4
Questions 31-37
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
The history of moving pictures
31 Some photographs of a horse running showed A all feet oft the ground.
B at least one foot on the ground.
C two feet off the ground.
32 The Scotsman employed by Edison A designed a system to use the technology Edison had invented.
B used available technology to make a new system.
C was already an expert in motion picture technology.
33 One major problem with the first system was that A only one person could be filmed.
B people could only sec very short films.
C the camera was very heavy.
34 Rival systems started to appear in Europe after people had A been told about the American system.
B seen the American system.
C used the American system.
35 In 1895, a famous new system was developed by A a French team working alone.
B a French and German team working together.
C a German team who invented the word ‘cinema’.
36 Longer films were not made at the time because of problems involving
150
A the subject matter.
B the camera.
C the film projector.
37 The ‘Lantham Loop’ invention relied on A removing tension between the film reels.
B adding three more film reels to the system.
C making one of the film reels more effective.
Questions 38-40
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. 38 The first motion picture was called The ………………
39 ……………….were used for the first time on film in 1926.
40 Subtitles were added to The Lights of New York because of its………………..
Test 7
(IELTS 6 - Listening Practice Test 3)
Questions 1-10
Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
OPENING A BANK ACCOUNT
Example Answer
Application for a Current bank account
Type of current account: The 1 ………… account
151
Full name of applicant: Pieter Henes
Date of birth: 2…………..
Joint account holder(s): No
Current address: 3…………….Exeter
Time at current address: 4…………..
Previous address: Rielsdorf 2, Utrecht, Holland
Telephone:
work 5…………..
home 796431
Occupation: 6…………….
Identity (security): Name of his 7…………….: Siti
Opening sum: 8 €……………..
to be transferred from Fransen dank, Utrecht
Statements: Every 9……………
Requests: Supply information about the bank’s 10………… service
Section 2
Questions 11-20
Questions 11-13
Choose the correct letter. A, B or C.
THE HISTORY OF ROSEWOOD HOUSE
11 When the writer Sebastian George first saw Rosewood House, lie A thought lie might rent it.
B felt it was too expensive for him.
C was unsure whether to buy it.
152
12 Before buying the house, George had A experienced severe family problems.
B struggled to become a successful author.
C suffered a serious illness.
13 According to the speaker, George viewed Rosewood House as A a rich source of material for his books.
B a way to escape from his work.
C a typical building of the region.
Questions 14-17
Label the map below. Write the correct letter, A-J, next to questions 14-17.
ROSEWOOD HOUSE AND GARDENS
153
14 Pear Alley……………….
15 Mulberry Garden…………….
16 Shop……………
17 Tea Room…………
Questions 18-20
Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
RIVER WALK
18 You can walk through the 18…………… that goes along the river bank.
19 You can go over the 19……………and then into a wooded area.
20 On your way back, you could also go up to the 20…………..
Section 3
Questions 21-30
Questions 21-24
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
MARKETING ASSIGNMENT
21 For their assignment, the students must investigate one part of the……………… 22 The method the students must use to collect data is………………. 23 In total, the students must interview……………..people. 24 Jack thinks the music preferences of…………….listeners are similar.
154
Questions 25-30
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Marketing Survey: Music Preferences
Age group of interviewee • 25 or under
• 45 or over
Music preferences • Pop
• 25……………… • Folk
• Easy listening
• 26……………… Medium for listening to music • Radio
• CD
• TV
• 27…………… Source of music • Music shops
• 28…………… • Internet
Places for listening to music
155
• Disco
• Pub
• 29………… • Concert hall
• 30…………..
Section 4
Questions 31-34
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
IRELAND IN THE NEOLITHIC PERIOD
31 According to the speaker, it is not clear A when the farming economy was introduced to
Ireland.
B why people began to farm in Ireland.
C where the early Irish farmers came from.
32 What point does the speaker make about breeding animals in Neolithic Ireland? A Their numbers must have been above a certain level.
B They were under threat from wild animals.
C Some species died out during this period.
33 What docs the speaker say about the transportation of animals? A Livestock would have limited the distance the farmers could sail.
B Neolithic boats were too primitive to have been used.
C Probably only a few breeding animals were imported.
34 What is the main evidence for cereal crops in Neolithic Ireland? A the remains of burnt grain in pots
B the marks left on pots by grains
C the patterns painted on the surface of pots
156
Questions 35-40
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer .
STONETOOLS
35 Ploughs could either have been pulled by ………………..or by cattle.
• The farmers needed homes which were permanent dwellings.
36 In the final stages of axe-making …………….were necessary for grinding and polishing.
37 Irish axes were exported from Ireland to ………………and England.
POTTERY MAKING
• The colonisers used clay to make pots.
38 The …………..of the pots was often polished to make them watertight.
39 Clay from ……………areas was generally used.
40 Decoration was only put around the …………………of the earliest pots.
Test 8
(IELTS 6 - Listening Practice Test 4)
Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Example Answer
Title of conference: Future Directions in Computing
157
Three day cost: 1 £……………..
Payment by 2…………….. or on arrival
Accommodation:
Conference Centre
• 3 £……………per night
• near to conference rooms
Guest House
• 4 £……………per night
• approximately 5 …………..walk from Conference Centre
Further documents to be sent:
, • 6…………….
• an application form Location:
Conference Centre is on 7 …………….Park Road, next to the 8……………
Taxi costs 9 £……………… or take bus number 10……………...from station.
Section 2
Questions 11-20
Questions 11-13
Which team will do each of the following jobs?
Choose THREE answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-D, next to questions 11-13. Teams A the blue team
B the yellow team
C the green team
D the red team
158
11 checking entrance tickets
12 preparing refreshments
13 directing car-park traffic
Questions 14-20
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Travel Expo
Temporary Staff Orientation Programme
Time Event Details
9.30 am Talk by Anne Smith • information about pay
• will give out the 14……………….forms
10.00
am
Talk by Peter Chen • will discuss Conference Centre plan
• will explain about arrangements for 15…………..and
fire exits
10.30
am
Coffee Break • go to Staff Canteen on the 16………………
11.00
am
Video Presentation • go to 17…………
• video title: 18…………….
12.00 Buffet Lunch • go to the 19 ……………..on 1st door
1.00 pm Meet
the 20…………..
3.00 pm Finish
Section 3
Questions 21-30
159
Questions 21-25
Complete the summary below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
The School of Education Libraries
The libraries on both sites provide internet access and have a variety of 21 …………..materials on education. The Castle Road library has books on sociology, together with 22 …………..and other resources relevant to the majority of 23 …………….school subjects. The Fordham library includes resources for teaching in 24 …………….education and special needs. Current issues of periodicals are available at both libraries, although 25 ……………issues are only available at Fordham.
Questions 26 and 27
Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. 26 Which books cannot be renewed by telephone or email? ................. 27 How much time is allowed to return recalled books? ........................
Questions 28-30
Choose THREE letters, A-G. Which THREE topics do this term’s study skills workshops cover?
A An introduction to the Internet
B How to carry out research for a dissertation
C Making good use of the whole range of library services
D Planning a dissertation
E Standard requirements when writing a dissertation
F Using the Internet when doing research
G What books and technical resources arc available in the library
160
Section 4
Questions 31-40
Questions 31-34
Choose the correct letter A, B or C. 31 When did Asiatic lions develop as a separate sub-species? A about 10,000 years ago B about 100,000 years ago C about 1,000,000 years ago
32 Pictures of Asiatic lions can be seen on ancient coins from A Greece.
B The Middle East.
C India.
33 Asiatic lions disappeared from Europe A 2,500 years ago.
B 2,000 years ago.
C 1,900 years ago.
34 Very few African lions have A a long mane.
B a coat with varied colours.
C a fold of skin on their stomach.
Questions 35-40
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
THE GIR SANCTUARY
35 The sanctuary has an area of approximately …………..square kilometres.
36 One threat to the lions in the sanctuary is……………..
37 The ancestors of the Gir Sanctuary lions were protected by a……………..
38 A large part of the lions’ …………….. consists of animals belonging to local farmers.
39 The lions sometimes…………….especially when water is short.
40 In ancient India a man would fight a lion as a test of
161
Test 9
(IELTS 7 - Listening Practice Test 1)
Questions 1-10
Questions 1-5
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Transport from Airport to Milton
Example Answer
Distance: 147 miles
Options: • Car hire
- don’t want to drive
• 1…………… - expensive
• Greyhound bus
- $15 single, $27.50 return
- direct to the 2……………… - long 3……………. • Airport Shuttle
- 4…………..service - every 2 hours
- $35 single, $65 return
- need to 5……………
Questions 6-10
Complete the booking form below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer
AIRPORT SHUTTLE BOOKING FORM
162
To: Milton
Date: 6…………… No. of passengers: One
Bus Time: 7…………….pm Type of ticket: Single
Name: Janet 8………..
Flight No: 9……….. From: London Heathrow
Address in Milton: Vacation Motel,
24, Kitchener Street
Fare: $35
Credit Card No: (Visa) 10…………
Section 2
Questions 11-20
Questions 11-16
Choose the correct letter. A, B or C. 11 PS Camping has been organising holidays for A 15 years. B 20 years. C 25 years.
12 The company has most camping sites in A France. B Italy. C Switzerland.
13 Which organised activity can children do every day of the week? A football B drama C model making
14 Some areas of the sites have a ‘no noise’ rule after A 9.30 p.m. B 10.00 p.m. C 10.30 p.m.
15 The holiday insurance that is offered by PS Camping
163
A can be charged on an annual basis.
B is included in the price of the holiday.
C must be taken out at the time of booking.
16 Customers who recommend PS Camping to friends will receive A a free gift. B an upgrade to a luxury
tent. C a discount.
Questions 17-20
What does the speaker say about the following items? Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 17-20. A They are provided in all tents.
B They are found in central areas of the campsite.
C They are available on request.
17 barbecues 18 toys 19 cool boxes
20 mops and buckets
Section 3
Questions 21-30
Questions 21-23
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
DIFFERENCES BETWEEN INDIVIDUALS IN THE WORKPLACE
Individuals bring different:
• ideas
• 21…………….
• learning experiences
Work behaviour differences are due to:
164
• personality
• 22………………
Effects of diversity on companies:
Advantage: diversity develops 23…………..
Disadvantage: diversity can cause conflict
Questions 24-27
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
24 Janice thinks that employers should encourage workers who are
A potential leaders.
B open to new ideas.
C good at teamwork.
25 Janice suggests that managers may find it difficult to A form successful groups.
B balance conflicting needs.
C deal with uncooperative workers.
26 Janice believes employers should look for job applicants who A can think independently.
B will obey the system.
C can solve problems.
27 Janice believes managers should A demonstrate good behaviour.
B encourage co-operation early on.
C increase financial incentives.
Questions 28-30
Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer. 28 All managers need to understand their employees and recognise their company’s……………..
165
29 When managing change, increasing the company’s……………..may be more important than
employee satisfaction.
30 During periods of change, managers may have to cope with increased amounts of……………
Section 4
Questions 31-40
Questions 31-35
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
SEMINAR ON ROCK ART
Preparation for fieldwork trip to Namibia in 31…………
Rock art in Namibia may be
• paintings
• engravings
Earliest explanation of engravings of animal footprints
They were used to help 32 ………..learn about tracking
But:
• Why are the tracks usually 33…………………?
• Why are some engravings realistic and others unrealistic?
• Why are the unrealistic animals sometimes half 34………………….?
More recent explanation:
Wise men may have been trying to control wild animals with 35…………….
Comment:
Earlier explanation was due to scholars over-generalising from their experience of a different culture.
Questions 36-40
Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
166
36 If you look at a site from a……………………, you reduce visitor pressure.
37 To camp on a site may be disrespectful to people from that………………….
38 Undiscovered material may be damaged by……………..
39 You should avoid…………………or tracing rock art as it is so fragile.
40 In general, your aim is to leave the site…………………
Test 10
(IELTS 7 - Listening Practice Test 2)
Questions 1-10
Questions 1-10
Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
CAR INSURANCE
Example Answer
Name: Patrick Jones
Address: 1……………… Greendale
Contact number: 730453
Occupation: 2……………
Size of car engine: 1200cc
167
Type of car:
Manufacturer: Hewton Model: 3……………
Year: 1997
Previous insurance company: 4……………
Any insurance claims in the last five years?: Yes
If yes, give brief details:
Car was 5…………….in 1999
Name(s) of other driver(s):
Simon 6……………
Relationship to main driver: 7………………..
Uses of car:
- social
- 8…………………
Start date: 31 January
Recommended Insurance arrangement
Name of company: 9………………..
Annual cost: 10 $......................
Section 2
Questions 11-20
Questions 11 and 12
Label the map below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
168
Questions 13-18
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Attraction Further Information
STOP A:
Main Booking Office:
First boat: 8 a.m.
Last boat: 13………… p.m.
Palace • has lovely 14…………..
STOP B: 15……………. • has good 16………… of city centre
STOP C: Museum • bookshop specialising in the
17……………of the local
area
STOP D: Entertainment Complex • 18…………..cinema
• bowling alley
• video games arcade
Questions 19 and 20
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. 19 How often do the Top Bus Company tours run? ....................
20 Where can you catch a Number One Sightseeing Tour from? ................
169
Section 3
Questions 21-30
Questions 21-26
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 21 The Antarctic Centre was established in Christchurch because A New Zealand is a member of the Antarctic Treaty.
B Christchurch is geographically well positioned.
C the climate of Christchurch is suitable.
22 One role of the Antarctic Centre is to A provide expeditions with suitable equipment.
B provide researchers with financial assistance.
C ensure that research is internationally relevant.
23 The purpose of the Visitors’ Centre is to A provide accommodation.
B run training sessions.
C show people what Antarctica is like.
24 Dr Merrywhether says that Antarctica is A unlike any other country. B extremely beautiful. C too cold for tourists.
25 According to Dr Merrywhether, Antarctica is very cold because A of the shape of the continent.
B it is surrounded by a frozen sea.
C it is an extremely dry continent.
26 Dr Merrywhether thinks Antarctica was part of another continent because A he has done his own research in the area.
170
B there is geological evidence of this.
C it is very close to South America.
Questions 27 and 28
Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR TWO NUMBERS for each answer.
ANTARCTIC TREATY
Date Event 1870 Polar Research meeting
27……………. 1st International Polar Year
1957 Antarctic Treaty was proposed
1959 Antarctic Treaty was 28……………
Questions 29 and 30
Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO achievements of the Antarctic Treaty are mentioned by the speakers? A no military use
B animals protected
C historic sites preserved
D no nuclear testing
E fishing rights protected
Section 4
Questions 31-40
Questions 31-35
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Left and Right Handedness in Sport
31 Anita first felt the Matthews article was of value when she realized A how it would help her difficulties with left-handedness.
B the relevance of connections he made with music.
171
C the impressive size of his research project.
32 Anita feels that the findings on handedness will be of value in A helping sportspeople identify their weaknesses.
B aiding sportspeople as they plan tactics for each game.
C developing suitable training programmes for sportspeople.
33 Anita feels that most sports coaches
A know nothing about the influence of handedness.
B focus on the wrong aspects of performance.
C underestimate what science has to offer sport.
34 A German study showed there was greater ‘mixed handedness’ in musicians who A started playing instruments in early youth.
B play a string instrument such as the violin.
C practise a great deal on their instrument.
35 Studies on ape behaviour show that A apes which always use the same hand to get food are most successful.
B apes have the same proportion of left- and right-handers as humans.
C more apes are left-handed than right-handed.
Questions 36-40
Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Sport Best
laterality
Comments
Hockey mixed
laterality
• hockey stick has to be used in 36………..
• mixed-handed players found to be much
more 37…………… than others
Tennis single
laterality
• gives a larger relevant field of 38…………….
• cross-lateral players make 39…………too late
172
Gymnastics cross
laterality
• gymnasts’ 40………….. is important for performances
Test 11
(IELTS 7 - Listening Practice Test 3)
Questions 1-10
Questions 1 and 2
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Example Answer
Type of job required: Part-time
Student is studying 1…………… Student is in the 2………….year of the course.
Questions 3-5
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Position Available Where Problem
Receptionist in the 3…………. evening lectures
4………… in the Child Cane Centre too early
Clerical Assistant in the 5…………. evening lectures
Questions 6-10
Complete the form below.
173
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer
Section 2
Questions 11-20
Questions 11-16
Choose the correct letter. A, B or C.
SPONSORED WALKING HOLIDAY
11 On the holiday, you will be walking for
STUDENT DETAILS
Name: Anita Newman
Address: 6…………
Room No. 7………..
Other skills: Speaks some Japanese
Position available:
8 ………….at the English
Language Centre
Duties:
Respond to enquiries and 9…………..
Time of interview:
Friday at 10……………a.m.
174
A 6 days.
B 8 days.
C 10 days.
12 What proportion of the sponsorship money goes to charity?
A……… B……… C………..
13 Each walker’s sponsorship money goes to one A student.
B teacher.
C school.
14 When you start the trek you must be A interested in getting fit.
B already quite fit.
C already very fit.
15 As you walk you will carry A all of your belongings.
B some of your belongings.
C none of your belongings.
16 The Semira Region has a long tradition of A making carpets.
B weaving blankets.
C carving wood.
Questions 17-20
175
Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
ITINERARY
Day 1 arrive in Kishba
Day 2 rest day
Day 3 spend all day in a 17…………..
Day 4 visit a school
Day 5 rest day
Day 6 see a 18…………. with old carvings
Day 7 nest day
Day & swim in a 19……………
Day 9 visit a 20……………
Day 10 depart from Kishba
Section 3
Questions 21-30
Questions 21 and 22
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
OCEAN RESEARCH
The Robotic Float Project
• Float is shaped like a 21…………… • Scientists from 22…………… have worked on the project so far
Questions 23-25
Complete the diagram below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
THE OPERATIONAL CYCLE
176
Questions 26-30
In what time period can data from the float projects help with the following things? Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 26-30. A At present
B In the near future
C In the long-term future
26 understanding of El Niño…………..
27 understanding of climate change…………
28 naval rescues………….
29 sustainable fishing practices……………
30 crop selection……………..
Section 4
177
Questions 31-40
Questions 31-34
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
Hotels and the tourist industry
31 According to the speaker, how might a guest feel when staying in a luxury hotel? A impressed with the facilities
B depressed by the experience
C concerned at the high costs
32 According to recent research, luxury hotels overlook the need to A provide for the demands of important guests.
B create a comfortable environment.
C offer an individual and personal welcome.
33 The company focused their research on A a wide variety of hotels.
B large, luxury hotel chains.
C exotic holiday hotels.
34 What is the impact of the outside environment on a hotel guest? A It has a considerable effect.
B It has a very limited effect.
C It has no effect whatsoever.
Questions 35-40
Complete the notes below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
A company providing luxury serviced apartments aims to:
178
• cater specifically for 35…………… travellers
• provide a stylish 36………….. for guests to use
• set a trend throughout the 37…………..
Traditional holiday hotels attract people by:
• offering the chance to 38…………. their ordinary routine life
• making sure that they are cared for in all respects - like a 39…………
• leaving small treats in their rooms - e.g. cosmetics or 40 ………..
Test 12
(IELTS 7 - Listening Practice Test 4)
Questions 1-10
Questions 1-6
Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer
HOMESTAY APPLICATION
Example Answer
Surname: Yuichini
First name: 1……………
Sex: female
Nationality: Japanese
Passport number: 2……………..
Age: 28 years
Present address: Room 21C, Willow College
Length of homestay: approx 3……………
179
Course enrolled in: 4……………….
Family preferences:
- no 5…………..
- no objection to 6…………….
Questions 7-10
Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. 7 What does the student particularly like to eat?
8 What sport does the student play?
9 What mode of transport does the student prefer?
10 When will the student find out her homestay address?
Section 2
Questions 11-20
Questions 11-14
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 11 What kind of tour is Sally leading? A a bus tour B a train tour C a walking tour
12 The original buildings on the site were A houses. B industrial buildings. C shops.
13 The local residents wanted to use the site for A leisure. B apartment blocks. C a sports centre.
14 The Tower is at the centre of the A nature reserve. B formal gardens. C Bicentennial Park.
180
Questions 15-17
Label the plan below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Questions 18-20
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Nature Reserve
Facility Activity
The Mangroves boardwalk 18………..
Frog Pond outdoor classroom 19……………
The Waterbird Refuge 20…………. bird watching
Section 3
Questions 21 and 22
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
181
The presentation will last 15 minutes.
There will be 21………….. minutes for questions. The presentation will not be 22…………….
Questions 23-26
What do the students decide about each topic for the geography presentation? A They will definitely include this topic. B They might include this topic. C They will not include this topic.
Write the correct letter, A, B or C, next to questions 23-26.
23 Geographical Location …………….. 24 Economy …………….. 25 Overview of Education System…………. 26 Role of English Language ……………..
Questions 27-30
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Information/visual aid Where from?
Overhead projector the 27…………
Map of West Africa the 28………….
Map of the islands a tourist brochure
Literacy figures the 29………….
30………….on school places as above
Section 4
Questions 31-40
Questions 31-33
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
182
Monosodium Glutamate (MSG)
31 The speaker says the main topic of the lecture is A the history of monosodium glutamate.
B the way monosodium glutamate works.
C where monosodium glutamate is used.
32 In 1908, scientists in Japan A made monosodium glutamate.
B began using kombu.
C identified glutamate.
33 What change occurred in the manufacture of glutamate in 1956? A It began to be manufactured on a large scale.
B The Japanese began extracting it from natural sources.
C It became much more expensive to produce.
Questions 34-40
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Monosodium Glutamate (MSG)
• MSG contains
- glutamate (78.2%)
- sodium (12.2%)
- 34…………….. (9.6%)
• Glutamate is found in foods that contain protein such as 35………….. and 36…………….
• MSG is used in foods in many different parts of the world.
• In 1900 Kikunae Ikeda discovered a 37……………
183
• Our ability to detect glutamate makes sense because it is so 38………… naturally.
• John Prescott suggests that:
- sweetness tells us that a food contains carbohydrates.
- 39…………. tells us that a food contains toxins.
- sourness tells us that a food is spoiled.
- saltiness tells us that a food contains 40………….
Test 13
(IELTS Plus 1 - Listening Practice Test 1)
Section 1: Questions 1-10
Tip Strip * Note how many different types of questions there are. In this case, there are four: multiple choice, note completion, selecting from a list and short answer.
Look at the instructions for each set of questions. Read the questions; try to predict the context of the conversation. Look at the questions again to see exactly what information you must listen out for. Underline any key words in the main part of the questions with options. Then look at the options and make sure you understand how they differ from each other.
Questions 1-3
Listen to the telephone conversation between a student and owner of a paragliding school and answer the questions below Choose the correct letters A-D. Example Which course does the man suggest? A. 2 day C. 5 day
184
B. 4 day D. 6 day
1. How much is the beginner’s course? A $190
B $320
C $330
D $43
2. What does the club insurance cover? A injury to yourself
B injury to your equipment
C damage to other people’s property
D loss of personal belongings
3. How do the girls want to travel? A public transport
B private bus
C car
D bicycle
Questions 4-7 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
TELEPHONE MEMO
Name: Maria Gentle Address: C/o Mr & Mre 4………… 5 …………..Newcastle Fax no: 0249 6………….. Type of Card : 7…………..
Question 8
Check TWO letters A-G Which TWO of the following items must people take with them?
A sandals
185
B old clothes
C pullover
D shirt with long sleeves
E soft drinks
F hat
G sunglasses
Question 9
Choose TWO letters A-G. Which TWO accommodation options mentioned are near the paragliding school?
A camping
B youth hostel
C family
D backpackers’ inn
E caravan park
F bed and breakfast
G cheap hotel
186
Question 10 Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for your answer Which weekend do the girls decide to go? 10 ……..
Section 2 Questions 11-20 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer
GOODWOOD CAR SHOW Type of car: Dueeenberq J-type Number made: 11……….
Type of body: 12………….
Engines contained capsules of mercury to ensure a 13………… trip.
Top speed: 14………. kilometres per hour.
Sold as a 15………….
Main attraction: 16…………..
Type of car: LeyatHelica
Number built: 17……….
Car looks like a 18……….. without 19…………….
Steering used the 20…………..
Tip
Section 2 is always a talk by one speaker. Look at the questions and the title of the task. Try to guess the context from the language and the picture.
Note that all the questions here are note completion format. Turn the notes into questions in your head, e.g. Number made = How many were made? Do this for all the questions before you listen.
Decide what type of information is missing (noun, number, adjective?). The questions follow the order of the text. There are two parts to this listening. This will help to orientate you.
SECTION 3
Questions 21- 22
187
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Research details: Title of project: 2 …………. Focus of project: entertainment away from 22…………… Tip
Section 3 can have between 2 and 4 people speaking. The voices will sound quite different. The questions follow the order of the text. Note how many different types of questions there are. In this case there are four: note completion,
charts and diagrams, multiple choice and completing a chart. Look through the questions to get an idea of the topic. Look carefully at the graphs. Reading the questions and underlining key words will help
you make sense of the graphs, e.g. Question 24: 'relative popularity ... cinemas'. Each column in the bar chart represents how popular each cinema is in relation to the other. Look at C: Which is the most popular cinema in this graph? Which is the least popular? Questions 23-26
Choose the correct letters A-C. 23. Which chart shows the percentage of cinema seats provided by the different cinema houses?
A Chart A
B Chart B
C Chart C
24. Which graph shows the relative popularity of different cinemas?
188
A Graph A
B Graph B
C Graph C
25. What did Rosie and Mike realise about the two theatres? A The prices were very similar.
B They were equally popular.
C They offered the same facilities.
26. Which graph shows comparative attendance for cinema and theatre?
A Graph A
B Graph B
C Graph C
Questions 27-30
Complete the chart about the different music clubs below. Choose the correct words in the list. A. Poor B. OK C. Excellent
Club
Type of
music
Quality
of venue
The Blues
Club
Blues 27……….
The
Sansue
South
American
28………………
189
Pier Hotel Folk 29……………
Baldrock
Cafe
Rock 30……………..
ECTION 4
Questions 31-40
Questions 31-32
Complete the notes using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Main focus of lecture: the impact of 31………….. on the occurrence of dust storms. Two main types of impact:
1. break up ground surface, e.g. off-road vehicle use 2. remove protective plants, e.g. 32………….
Questions 33-36
Complete the table using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Name of area Details
USA ‘dust bowl’ Caused by mismanagement of farmland
Decade renamed the 33…………
West Africa Steady rise in dust storms over 20-year period
Arizona Worst dust clouds arise from 34……………
Dust deposits are hazardous to 35……….
Sahara Increased wind erosion has occurred along with long-term 36…………….
Questions 37-40
Complete the flow chart using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Drying-up of Aral Sea
Intensive 37 …………...in Central Asian Republics
Drop in water in major tributaries
Total volume of water in lake reduced by 38…………..
190
Increase in wind-blown material
Lake has become more 39…………..
Serious effects on 40………….. nearby
Test 14 (IELTS Plus 1 - Listening Practice Test 2)
SECTION 1
Questions 1-10
Questions 1-4
Circle the correct letters A-C. Example Which course is the man interested in? A. English
B. Mandarin
191
C. Japanese
1. What kind of course is the man seeking? A Daytime
B Evenings
C Weekends
2. How long does the man want to study? A 12 weeks
B 6 months
C 8 months
3. What proficiency level is the student? A Beginner
B Intermediate
C Advanced
4. When does the man want to start the course?
A March
B June
C September
Questions 5-10
Complete the form. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Language Centre
Client Information Card
Name: Richard 5……………
E-mail address: 6…………………[email protected]
Date of birth: 7…………. 1930
192
Reason for studying Japanese: 8…………….
Specific learning needs: 9………………..
Place of previous study (if any): 10 ………………
SECTION 2
Questions 11-20
Questions 11-12
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer 11. The story illustrates that dogs are 11……………… animals.
12. The people of the town built a 12………………. of a dog.
Questions 13-20 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
TYPE OF
WORKING DOG
ESSENTIAL CHARACTERISTICS
FOR THE JOB
ADDITIONAL INFORMATION
Sheep dogs Smart, obedient Herd sheep
and 13…………….. them
Guide dogs Confident and 14…………. Training paid for by 15…………..
Guard dogs and
16…………..dogs
Tough and courageous Dogs and trainers available through
17…………..
Detector dogs Need to really 18……………. In Sydney they catch 19………..a
month
Transport dogs Happy working 20………………. International treaty bans huskies
from Antarctica
SECTION 3:
Questions 21-23
193
Questions 21-23 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer.
Braille - a system of writing for the blind
Louis Braille was blinded as a child in his 21………….
Braille invented the writing system in the year 22……………….
An early writing system for the blind used embossed letters.
A military system using dots was called 23……………
Questions 24-27
Circle the correct letters A-C. 24. Which diagram shows the Braille positions?
oooo
oooo
oooo
oo
oo
oo
ooo
ooo
A B C
25. What can the combined dots represent? A both letters and words B only individual words C only letters of the alphabet
26. When was the Braille system officially adopted? A as soon as it was invented
B two years after it was invented
C after Louis Braille had died
27. What is unusual about the way Braille is written? A It can only be written using a machine.
B The texts have to be read backwards.
C Handwritten Braille is created in reverse.
Questions 28-30
194
List THREE subjects that also use a Braille code. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD for each answer. 28…………… 29……………. 30…………..
ECTION 4
Questions 31-40
Questions 31-35
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer
195
Question: Can babies remember any 31…………..?
Experiment with babies: Apparatus:
baby in cot
colourful mobile
some 32…………. Re-introduce mobile between one and 33……………… later. Table showing memory test results
Baby’s age Maximum memory span
2 months 2 days
3 months 34…………
21 months several weeks
2 years 35………….
Questions 36-40 Research questions: Is memory linked to 36…………….. development? Can babies 37……………. their memories? Experiment with older children: Stages in incident:
a) lecture taking place
b) object falls over c) 38……………..
Table showing memory test results
Age % remembered next day % remembered after 5 months
Adults 70% 39………….
9-year-olds 70% Less than 60%
6-year-olds Just under 70% 40…………..
Test 15
196
(IELTS Plus 1 - Listening Practice Test 3)
Section 1
Questions 1-10
Questions 1-4 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer
Conference Registration Form Example Name of Conference: Beyond 2000 Name: Melanie Ms 1…………….
Address: Room 2…………, at Women's College Newtown
Faculty: 3……………
Student No: 4…………..
Questions 5-10 Circle the correct letters A-C.
Registration for: 5 A
Half day
B
Full day
C
Full conference
Accommodation required: 6 A
Share room/share bathroom
B
Own room/share bathroom
C
Own room with bathroom
Meals required: 7 A
Breakfast
197
B
Lunch
C
Dinner
Friday SIGs: 8 A
Computers in Education
B
Teaching Reading
C
The Gifted Child
Saturday SIGs: 9 A
Cultural Differences
B
Music in the Curriculum
C
Gender Issues
Method of payment: 10 A
Credit Card
B
Cheque
C
Cash
Section 2 Questions 11-20
198
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Name of Beach
Location Geographical
Features Other information
Bandela 1 km from Bandela 11………….
surrounded by 12………..
safe for children/
non-swimmers
Da Porlata
east comer of island area around beach is 13………..
can hire 14…………..
San Gett
just past 'Tip of Cain’ 15………… beach on island
check 16………….. on beach in rough weather
Blanaka 17………….. comer surrounded by 18……….
can go caving and diving
Dissidor close to Blanaka need to walk over 19………..
need to take some 20………….
Section 3 Questions 21-30 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer.
Procedure for Bookshops
Keep database of course/college details.
In May, request 21………. from lecturers.
Categorise books as - essential reading
- 22………. reading
- background reading
When ordering, refer to last year’s 23………..
- type of course
- students’ 24…………
199
- own judgement
Procedure for Publishers
Send 25………..to course providers
Use websites
Compose personal 26………….to academic staff
Send 27………… to bookstores
Students
Main objective is to find books that are good 28……….
Also look for books that are 29………. and 30…………….
Section 4
Question 31-40
Questions 31
Circle the correct letters A-C. 31. At the start of her talk Rebecca points out that new graduates can find it hard to A get the right work.
B take sufficient breaks.
C motivate themselves.
Questions 32-33
Check TWO letters A-E. Which TWO of the following does Rebecca say worry new artists? A A earning enough money
B B moving to a new environment
C C competing with other artists
D D having their work criticised
E E getting their portfolios ready
200
Questions 34-35
Circle the correct letters A-C.
34. Rebecca decided to become an illustrator because it A afforded her greater objectivity as an artist.
B offered her greater freedom of expression.
C allowed her to get her work published.
35. When she had developed a portfolio of illustrations, Rebecca found publishers
A more receptive to her work.
B equally cautious about her work.
C uninterested in her work.
Questions 36-40 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Suggestions for Developing a Portfolio
Get some artwork printed in magazines by entering 36…………
Also you can 37………… mock up book pages.
Make an effort to use a variety of artistic 38…………..
Aim for recognition by dividing work into distinct 39…………..
Possibly use 40………………
Test 16 (IELTS Plus 1 - Listening Practice Test 4)
Section 1 Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below.
201
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer.
Event Details
Example Type of event: Dragon Boat Race Race details
Day & date: 1………………..
Place: Brighton 2…………….
Registration time: 3……………
Sponsorship
- aim to raise over 4……………..pounds (£) as a team and get a free t-shirt
- free Prize Draw for trip to 5………….
Team details
- must have crew of 20 and elect a 6……………
- under 18s need to have 7……………to enter
- need to hire 8……………
- advised to bring extra 9…………..
- must choose a 10………………….. for the team
Section 2
Questions 11-15
Complete the notes below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
KIWI FACT SHEET
Pictures of kiwis are found on 11…………..
202
The name ‘kiwi’ comes from its 12…………
The kiwi has poor sight but a good 13…………
Kiwis cannot 14………………
Kiwis are endangered by 15………….
Questions 16-17 Complete the notes below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Kiwi Recovery Program
Stage of program Program involves
16………….. Looking at kiwi survival needs
Action Putting science into practice
17…………… Schools and the website
Questions 18-20 Complete the flow chart below. Use NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer. OPERATION NEST EGG
18……………
19……………
Chicks returned to wild
RESULT
Survial rate increased from 20………….
203
Section 3
Questions 21-24
Circle the correct letters A-C. 21 The professor says that super highways A lead to better lifestyles.
B are a feature of wealthy cities.
C result in more city suburbs.
22 The student thinks people A like the advantages of the suburbs.
B rarely go into the city for entertainment.
C enjoy living in the city.
23 The professor suggests that in five years’ time A City Link will be choked by traffic.
B public transport will be more popular.
C roads will cost ten times more to build.
24 The student believes that highways A encourage a higher standard of driving.
B result in lower levels of pollution.
C discourage the use of old cars.
Questions 25-26 Label the two bars identified on the graph below.
204
Choose your answers from the box and write them next to Questions 25-26. 25……………..
26…………….
Questions 27-28
Check TWO letters A-F. Which TWO facts are mentioned about Copenhagen? A live street theatre encouraged
B 30% of citizens walk to work
C introduction of parking metres
D annual reduction of parking spots
E free city bicycles
F free public transport
Questions 29-30
Check TWO letters A-F. Which TWO reasons are given for the low popularity of public transport? A buses slower than cars
B low use means reduced service
C private cars safer
D public transport expensive
E frequent stopping inconvenient
205
F making connections takes time
Section 4
Questions 31-32
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Reasons for preserving food
Available all year For 31………….. In case of 32…………….
Questions 33-37
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Method of preservation Advantage Disadvantage
Ultra-high temperature (UHT
milk) 33…………..
spoils the taste
canning inexpensive risk of 34………….
refrigeration stays fresh without processing requires 35………….
36………….. effective time-consuming.
drying long-lasting, light
and 37……………...
loses nutritional
value
Questions 38-40
Label the diagram. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
206
38…………..
39…………..
40………….
207
Test 17
(IELTS Plus 1 - Listening Practice Test 5)
SECTION 1
Questions 1-10
Questions 1-6
Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer.
CUSTOMER ORDER FORM
Example: ORDER PLACED BY: John Carter ACCOUNT NUMBER 1…………. COMPANY NAME 2……………
Envelopes Size A4 normal Colour 3…………….. Quantity 4……………... Photocopy paper Colour 5…………….. Quantity 6………………
Questions 7-9
List THREE additional things that the man requests. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer . 7………………
8………………
9………………
Question 10
Complete the notes. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for your answer.
208
Special instructions: Deliver goods 10…………..
SECTION 2 Questions 11-20
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Artist’s Exhibition General details: Place: 11………… No. 1 12…………..
Dates: 6th October – 13……………..
Display details:
jewellery
furniture
ceramics
14…………..
sculpture
Expect to see: crockery in the shape of 15……………
silver jewellery, e.g. large rings containing 16…………..a shoe sculpture made out of 17…………
Go to demonstrations called: 18………….
Artist’s Conservatory
Courses include:
Chinese brush painting
19…………….
silk painting
Fees include:
Studio use
Access to the shop
Supply of 20…………
209
SECTION 3
Questions 21-30
Questions 21-23
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. According to Alison Sharp, bear ancestors date back 21………….. years. Scientists think bears were originally in the same family as 22……………. The Cave Bear was not dangerous because it 23……………..
Questions 24-28
Choose the correct bear species in each question. 24 Which is the most recent species? 24…………..
25 Which is the largest looking bear? 25……………
26 Which is the smallest bear? 26………………..
27 Which bear eats plants? 27………………..
28 Which bear eats insects? 28………………..
Questions 29-30
Check TWO letters A-F. Which TWO actions are mentioned to help bears survive? A breeding bears in captivity
B encouraging a more humane attitude
C keeping bears in national parks
D enforcing international laws
E buying the speaker’s book
F writing to the United Nations
210
Section 4
Questions 31-36 Choose the correct letters A-C. 31 The speaker compares a solar eclipse today to a A religious experience.
B scientific event.
C popular spectacle.
32 The speaker says that the dark spot of an eclipse is A simple to predict.
B easy to explain.
C randomly occurring.
33 Concerning an eclipse, the ancient Chinese were A fascinated.
B rational.
C terrified.
34 For the speaker, the most impressive aspect of an eclipse is the A exceptional beauty of the sky.
B chance for scientific study.
C effect of the moon on the sun.
35 Eclipses occur rarely because of the size of the A moon.
B sun.
C earth.
36 In predicting eclipses, the Babylonians were restricted by their A religious attitudes.
211
B inaccurate observations.
C limited ability to calculate.
Questions 37-40
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Date of
eclipse Scientists Observation
1715 Halley 37…………… who
accurately predicted an eclipse
1868 Janssen and
Lockyer discovered 38…………..
1878 Watson believed he had found 39………..
1919 Einstein realised astronomers had
misunderstood 40………….
212
Test 18 (IELTS Plus 2 - Listening Practice Test 1)
SECTION 1
Questions 1-9
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
ENQUIRY ABOUT BOOKCASES
Example Answer Number of bookcases available: ...two...
Both bookcases
Width: 1……………..(cm)
Made of: 2……………..
First bookcase
Cost: 3…………… pounds
Colour: 4…………….
Number of shelves: six (four are 5………….)
Second bookcase
Colour: dark brown
Other features
- almost 80 years old
- has a 6…………. at the bottom
- has glass 7…………
Cost: 8………… pounds
Details of seller
Name: Mrs 9………….
Address: 41 Oak Rise. Stanton.
Questions 10
Choose the correct letter A. B or C. Which map shows the correct location of the seller’s house? ………….
213
Questions 11-13
Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Charity Art Sale
The paintings will be displayed in the Star Gallery and in a nearby 11 ………….
The sale of pictures will begin at 12…………. (pm) on Thursday, and there will be refreshments
beforehand.
The money raised will all be used to help 13……………. children in New Zealand and other
countries.
Questions 14-20
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Artist Personal information Type of painting
Don
Studley
• daughter is recovering
from a problem with her
back
• self-taught artist
• pictures of
the 14………… of
New Zealand
James
Chang
• originally from Taiwan
♦ had a number
of 15………. there
• 16………… paintings
• strong colours
214
Natalie
Stevens
• has shown pictures in
many countries
• is an artist and a
website 17……….
• soft colours, various media
• mainly does 18…………..
Christine
Shin
• lived in New Zealand
for 19…………..
• Korean
• paintings are based
on 20…………..
• watercolours of New
Zealand landscapes
SECTION 3 (Questions 21-30)
Section 3 is a conversation about an academic topic such as a course, project, assignment or piece of research It usually involves two or three speakers, who may be students and/or tutors.
Questions 21-25
What instructions were the students given about their project? A they must do this
B they can do this if they want to
C they can't do this
Write the correct letter A. B or C next to Questions 21-25. 21 Choose a writer from a list provided.
22 Get biographical information from the Internet
23 Study a collection of poems.
24 Make a one-hour video.
25 Refer to key facts in the writer’s life.
Questions 26-30
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. Other requirements for the project
215
extract chosen from the author's work must reflect the 26……….. of the author.
students must find sound effects and 27…………. to match the texts they choose.
students must use a 28………….. of computer software programs to make the video.
students must include information about the 29………………..of all material
Criteria for assessment
completion of all components - 25%
30…………… (must represent essence of author's work) - 50% artistic and technical design of
video - 25%
SECTION 4
Section 4 is a talk or lecture on an academic topic. There is only one speaker. There is no break in the middle, so you must look through all the questions in the time given at the beginning.
Questions 31-33
Choose the correct answer A. B or C 31 ’Extremophiles' are life forms that can live in A isolated areas.
B hostile conditions.
C new habitats.
32 The researchers think that some of the organisms they found in Antarctica are A new species.
B ancient colonies.
C types of insects.
33 The researchers were the first people to find life forms in Antarctica A in the soil.
B under the rock surface.
C on the rocks.
Questions 34-40
Complete the sentences below.
216
Write ONE WORD for each answer.
How the extremophiles survive
Access to the sun's heat can create a 34……….. for some organisms. The deeper the soil, the higher the 35……….. of salt. Salt can protect organisms against the effects of 36…………. even at very low temperatures. All living things must have access to 37…………. water. Salt plays a part in the process
of 38………….. which prevents freezing. The environment of 39 is similar to the dry valleys of Antarctica. This research may provide evidence of the existence of extraterrestrial life
forms and their possible 40 on other planets.
Test 19 (IELTS Plus 2 - Listening Practice Test 2)
SECTION 1
Questions 1-3
Choose the correct letter, A. B or C Example: Martin wants to
A sell a flat.
B rent a flat. C buy a flat.
1 What is Martin’s occupation? A He works in a car factory.
B He works in a bank.
C He is a college student.
2 The friends would prefer somewhere with A four bedrooms.
B three bedrooms.
C two bathrooms.
217
3 Phil would rather live in A the east suburbs.
B the city centre.
C the west suburbs.
Questions 4-10
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Details of flats available
Location Features Good (+) and bad (-) points
Bridge Street, near
the 4....................
• 3 bedrooms
• very big living
room
(+) 5…………… (£) a month
(+) transport links
(-) no shower
(-) could be 6……………
7…………….
• 4 bedrooms
• living room
• 8………………..
(+) 9………….. and
well equipped
(+) shower
(+) will be 10…………..
(-) £800 a month
SECTION 2
Questions 11-15
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
The British Library
11 The reading rooms are only open for group visits on……………
12 The library was officially opened in……………..
13 All the library rooms together cover……………..m2.
14 The library is financed by the……………
15 The main function of the library is to provide resources for people doing………….
218
Questions 16-20
Label the plan below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Plan of the British Library
219
SECTION 3
Questions 21-25
Choose the correct answer A. B or C
Project on work placement
21 The main aim of Dave's project is to A describe a policy.
B investigate an assumption.
C identify a problem.
22 Dave’s project is based on schemes in A schools.
B colleges.
C universities.
23 How many academic organisations returned Dave's questionnaire? A 15
B 50
C 150
24 Dave wanted his questionnaires to be completed by company A Human Resources Managers.
B Line Managers.
C owners.
25 Dr Green wants Dave to provide a full list of A respondents.
B appendices.
C companies.
Questions 26-30
220
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Notes on project Introduction - improve the 26……….. of ideas - include a 27…………. of 'Work Placement' - have separate sections for literature survey and research 28………….. and methods Findings Preparation stage - add summary
29………….. development - good Constraints on learning - provide better links to the 30………….from research
SECTION 4
Questions 31-35
Complete the sentences below
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
31 Bilingualism can be defined as having an equal level of communicative……………. in two or more languages.
32 Early research suggested that bilingualism caused problems with……………… and mental development.
33 Early research into bilingualism is now rejected because it did not consider the………….. backgrounds of the children
34 It is now thought that there is a…………….. bilingualism and cognitive skills in children.
35 Research done by Ellen Bialystok in Canada now suggests that the effects of bilingualism also apply to……………..
Questions 36-40 Choose the correct letter A, B or C. 36 In Dr Bialystok's experiment, the subjects had to react according to A the colour of the square on the screen.
B the location of the square on the screen.
C the location of the shift key on the keyboard.
37 The experiment demonstrated the 'Simon effect’ because it involved a conflict between
221
A seeing something and reacting to it.
B producing fast and slow reactions.
C demonstrating awareness of shape and colour.
38 The experiment shows that, compared with the monolingual subjects, the bilingual subjects A were more intelligent.
B had faster reaction times overall.
C had more problems with the 'Simon effect'.
39 The results of the experiment indicate that bilingual people may be better at A doing different types of tasks at the same time.
B thinking about several things at once.
C focusing only on what is needed to do a task.
40 Dr Bialystok's first and second experiments both suggest that bilingualism may A slow down the effects of old age on the brain.
B lead to mental confusion among old people.
C help old people to stay in better physical condition.
222
Test 20 (IELTS Plus 2 - Listening Practice Test 3)
SECTION 1
Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Council Youth Scheme Application for Funding for Group Project
Example Answer
Name Ralph Pearson
Contact address 1…………. Drayton DR6 8AB
Telephone number 01453 586098
Name of group Community Youth Theatre Group
Description of group
amateur theatre group
(2…………. members)
involved in drama 3…………..
Amount of money requested 4……………..(£)
Description of project to produce a short 5 ………….play for
young children
Money needed for
6………….. for scenery
costumes
cost of 7…………….
8……………
sundries
How source of funding will be credited acknowledged in the 9……….. given to
audience
Other organisations approached for
funding (and outcome)
National Youth Services - money
was 10………….
Questions 11-15
223
Choose the correct answer, A, B or C 11 Joanne says that visitors to Darwin are often surprised by A the number of young people.
B the casual atmosphere.
C the range of cultures.
12 To enjoy cultural activities, the people of Darwin tend to A travel to southern Australia.
B bring in artists from other areas.
C involve themselves in production.
13 The Chinese temple in Darwin A is no longer used for its original purpose.
B was rebuilt after its destruction in a storm.
C was demolished to make room for new buildings.
14 The main problem with travelling by bicycle is A the climate.
B the traffic.
C the hills.
15 What does Joanne say about swimming in the sea? A It is essential to wear a protective suit.
B Swimming is only safe during the winter.
C You should stay in certain restricted areas.
Questions 16-20
What can you find at each of the places below? Choose your answers from the box and write the correct letter A-H next to Questions 16-20.
A a flower market
B a chance to feed the fish
C good nightlife
D international arts and crafts
E good cheap international food
224
F a trip to catch fish
G shops and seafood restaurants
H a wide range of different plants
16 Aquascene
17 Smith Street Mall
18 Cullen Bay Marina
19 Fannie Bay
20 Mitchell Street
Questions 21-23
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS breach answer. Effects of weather on mood 21 Phil and Stella's goal is to………. the hypothesis that weather has an effect on a person's mood. 22 They expect to find that 'good' weather (weather which is………..) has a positive effect on a person's mood. 23 Stella defines effect on mood' as an……….. the way a person feels.
Questions 24-27 What information was given by each writer? Choose your answers from the box and write the letters A-F next to Questions 24-27.
A the benefits of moving to a warmer environment
B the type of weather with the worst effect on mood
C how past events affect attitudes to weather
D the important effect of stress on mood
E the important effect of hours of sunshine on mood
F psychological problems due to having to cope with bad weather
24 Vickers
25 Whiteboume
225
26 Haverton
27 Stanfield
Questions 28-30
Choose THREE letters A-H. Which THREE things do Phil and Stella still have to decide on? A how to analyse their results
B their methods of presentation
C the design of their questionnaire
D the location of their survey
E weather variables to be measured
F the dates of their survey
G the size of their survey
H the source of data on weather variables
Questions 31-32
Choose TWO letters A-F Which two of the following problems are causing concern to educational authorities in the USA? A differences between rich and poor students
B high numbers dropping out of education
C falling standards of students
D poor results compared with other nationalities
E low scores of overseas students
F differences between rural and urban students
Questions 33-34
Choose TWO letters A-F According to the speaker, what are two advantages of reducing class sizes? A more employment for teachers
226
B improvement in general health of the population
C reduction in number of days taken off sick by teachers
D better use of existing buildings and resources
E better level of education of workforce
F availability of better qualified teachers
Questions 35-40
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
USA RESEARCH PROJECTS INTO CLASS SIZES
State Schools involved Number of
students
participati
ng
Key findings Problems
Tenness
ee
about 70 schools in
total 35…
……
significant benefit
especially
for 36………… p
upils
• lack of agreement
on implications of
data
Californ
ia
37……….. schools 1.8 million very little benefit • shortage
of 38…………, espe
cially in poorer areas
• no proper method
for 39……….. of pro
ject
Wiscons
in
14 schools (with
pupils
from 40………..fam
ilies)
similar results to
Tennessee project
227
Test 21 (IELTS Plus 2 - Listening Practice Test 4)
SECTION 1
Questions 1-6
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Budget accommodation in Queenstown, New Zealand
Accommodation Price (dormitory) Comments
Travellers’ Lodge Example fully booked
Bingley’s US$ 1………..
• in town centre
• cafe with regular 2………….nights
• sundeck
Chalet Lodge US$ 18.00
• located in a 3………… alpine setting
• 10 mins from town centre
• 4……….. are welcome
Globetrotters US$ 18.50
• in town centre
• 5……….. included
• chance to win a 6…………
Questions 7-10
Who wants to do each of the activities below?
Write the correct letter, A. B or C next to Questions 7-10. 7 bungee jump
8 white-water rafting
9 jet-boat ride
10 trekking on wilderness trail
A only Jacinta
B only Lewis
C both Jacinta and Lewis
SECTION 2
228
Questions 11-14
Choose the correct letter. A, B or C. 11 Jack says that in London these days, many people A see cycling as a foolish activity.
B have no experience of cycling.
C take too many risks when cycling.
12 If people want to cycle to school or work. CitiCyclist helps them by A giving cycling lessons on the route they take.
B advising them on the safest route to choose.
C teaching them basic skills on quiet roads first.
13 Jack works with some advanced cyclists who want to develop A international competitive riding skills.
B knowledge of advanced equipment.
C confidence in complex road systems.
14 CitiCyclist supports the view that cyclists should A have separate sections of the road from motor traffic.
B always wear protective clothing when cycling.
C know how to ride confidently on busy roads.
Questions 15-17
List THREE types of organisations for which CitiCyclist provides services. A training courses
B schools
C local councils
D individuals
E companies
Questions 18-20 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
229
website address: citicyclist.co.uk
phone: 18………..
cost (single person): 19……….. £ per lesson
usual length of course: 20……….. (except complete beginners)
SECTION 3
Questions 21- 23
Answer the questions below.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
21 What do Sharon and Xiao Li agree was the strongest aspect of their presentation?.........
22 Which part of their presentation was Xiao Li least happy with?..........
23 Which section does Sharon feel they should have discussed in more depth?...........
Questions 24-27 Choose the correct letters A-C. 24 Sharon and Xiao Li were surprised when the class said A they spoke too quickly.
B they included too much information.
C their talk was not well organised.
25 The class gave Sharon and Xiao Li conflicting feedback on their A timing.
B use of visuals.
C use of eye contact.
26 The class thought that the presentation was different from the others because A the analysis was more detailed.
B the data collection was more wide-ranging.
C the background reading was more extensive.
27 Which bar chart represents the marks given by the tutor? A Graph A
230
B Graph B
C Graph C
Questions 28-30
Complete the sentences below.
Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
28 The tutor says that the…………. of the presentation seemed rather sudden.
29 The tutor praises the students’ discussion of the………… of their results.
30 The tutor suggests that they could extend the…………. review in their report.
Questions 31-33
Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer. The World Health Organisation says a healthy city must
have a 31……………..and clean environment.
meet the 32………….. of all its inhabitants.
provide easily accessible health services.
encourage ordinary people to take part in 33…………..
Questions 34-40
Complete the table below.
231
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer
Place /
Project Aim Method Achievement
Sri Lanka Community
Contracts
System
to upgrade
squatter
settlements
the 34…………… construct
ed infrastructure, e.g. drains,
paths
• better housing and
infrastructure
• provided
better 35………………….. opp
ortunities
Mali cooperative
to improve
sanitation in city
• 36…………..graduates
organising garbage
collection
• public education
campaign
via 37………. discussion
groups
• greater environmental
awareness
• improved living conditions
Egypt (Mokattam)
38 …………
…..
to
support disadvan
taged women
women provided
with the 39…………….. e
quipment for sewing and
weaving
• rise in the 40………….
and quality of life of young
women
Test 22 (IELTS Plus 2 - Listening Practice Test 5)
SECTION 1
Questions 1-7
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C Example The woman says she is interested in
A part-time employment.
B a permanent job.
C unpaid work.
1 The librarian says that training always includes A computer skills.
B basic medical skills.
232
C interpersonal skills.
2 All library service volunteers have to A record their arrival and departure.
B stay within ‘staff only' sections.
C wear a uniform.
3 The woman would be entitled to a contribution towards the cost of A transport by minibus.
B parking at the library.
C public transport.
4 One recent library project involved A labelling historical objects.
B protecting historical photographs.
C cataloguing historical documents.
5 At present, the library is looking for people to A record books onto CD.
B tell stories to children.
C read books to the blind.
6 The woman says she is interested in a project involving A taking library books to people in hospital.
B delivering library books to people at home.
C driving the disabled to the library.
7 The woman agrees to work for A two hours per week.
B four hours per week.
C six hours per week.
Questions 8-10
Choose THREE letters A-G. Which THREE of the following must be provided by all volunteers?
233
A civil conviction check
B signed copy of commitment
C certificates to indicate qualifications
D emergency contact information
E date of birth
F signature of parent or guardian
G referees
SECTION 2
Questions 11-14
Complete the sentences below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
11 ‘Canadian Clean Air Day' will be held on 11……….
12 Air pollution may be responsible for 12…………. deaths every year in Canada.
13 The sector most responsible for smog-producing pollutants is 13………….
14 Scientists now know that even 14……….. of pollutants can be harmful.
Questions 15-20 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Reducing Air Pollution Individual action
respond to the 15………… Challenge' walk, cycle or car-pool to work use public transit
16…………… 17…………… your domestic equipment
Government action emission reduction in the 18……………. region of US and Canada move towards 19 ……………( e.g. less sulphur in gasoline & diesel) reduction of pollutants from 20…………… and power plants.
234
SECTION 3 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Field Trip to Kenya
Area of country: the 21…………. of Kenya
Accommodation: Marich Pass Field Studies Centre
in traditional 'bandas' (bring mosquito 22………………..)
study areas: 23……………, lecture room, outdoor areas
Type of environment: both 24……………………and semi-arid plains
Activities:
interviews (with interpreters)
25……………….. (environment and culture)
morphological mapping
projects (all connected with 26………………. issues)
Jack’s group did project on: 27……………… supply and quality issues
Expeditions:
to Sigor (a 28…………………) to study distribution
to the Wei Wei valley to study agricultural production
to a 29………………
Evaluation:
logistics - well run
gave insight into lives of others
provided input for his 30
Questions 31-34
Complete the flow chart below.
235
Write ONE WORD for each answer
Research methodology
Stage
1
Discussion with supermarket department manager to decide on the
store’s 31……….. for the website
Decision to investigate website use as a 32…………… way for customers to
communicate problems
Stage
2
Design of questionnaire to identify customers’ experiences and 33…………. to
problems
Data collected from 34………….. with customers in four branches of the
supermarket
Analysis of responses
Questions 35-40
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C 35 Which pie chart shows the percentage of respondents who experienced a problem in the supermarket?
236
A Chart A
B Chart B
C Chart C
36 Which pie chart shows the reasons why customers failed to report the problem directly to supermarket staff?
A Chart A
B Chart B
C Chart C
37 How might the student's website help the supermarket, according to the manager? A It would support the expansion of the company.
B It would allow the identification of problem areas.
C It would make the company appear more professional.
38 The student says one problem is that some customers A do not have computer skills.
B do not have their own computer.
C do not have access to a computer.
39 Further observation of website use is necessary because of A the small size of the sample.
B the need to evaluate the objectives.
C the unrepresentative nature of the respondents.
40 One positive result of the website for the supermarket staff could be A greater support from management.
B less chance of unfair complaints.
237
C greater cooperation between staff.
Test 23 (IELTS Plus 2 - Listening Practice Test 6)
SECTION 1
Questions 1-10
Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Report on abandoned vehicle
Example Answer
Name of caller Mrs Shefford
Address 41, 1………….
Barrowdale
WH4 5JP
Telephone 2………….
Vehicle location in 3…………… near main road (A69)
238
Type of vehicle 4…………….
Make Catala
Model 5………………
Present colour of vehicle 6……………..
Vehicle number S 322 GEC
General condition poor - one 7…………. cracked windscreen
Length of time at site 8……………….
Land belongs to 9……………….
Last owner no information available
Other notes vehicle does not belong to a 10……………
resident
..
SECTION 2
Questions 11-17
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
The story of John Manjiro
11 Manjiro started work as a………….. when he was still a young boy.
12 He spent…………. on a deserted island before he was rescued.
13 He became friends with William Whitfield, who was a ship's………….
14 The cost of Manjiro's………….. in America was covered by the Whitfield family.
15 Manjiro eventually returned to Japan, where he carried out important work as a teacher
and………….
16 Fairhaven and Tosashimizu are now officially…………….
17 Every two years, the John Manjiro………….. is held in Fairhaven.
Questions 18-20
239
Write the correct letter A-l next to Questions 18-20. Label the map below.
18 ……….. Whitfield family house
19 ……….. Old Oxford School
20 ………… School of Navigation
SECTION 3
Questions 21-23 Choose the best answer, A, B or C 21 What is the main thing Julia feels she has gained from her experience in retail? A better understanding of customer attitudes
B improved ability to predict fashion trends
240
C more skill in setting priorities in her work
22 Why is Julia interested in doing the postgraduate course? A It will enable her to develop new types of technology.
B It will allow her to specialise in a design area of her choice.
C It will provide managerial training focusing on her needs.
23 What would Julia like to do after she has completed the postgraduate course? A work overseas
B start her own business
C stay in an academic environment
Questions 24-27 What does each university facility have? Choose your answers from the box and write the correct letter A-G next to Questions 24-27.
A laboratories
B rooms for individual study
C inter-disciplinary focus
D introductory course
E purpose-built premises
F cafeteria
G emphasis on creative use
24 Library
25 Computer Centre
26 Photomedia
27 Time Based Media
Questions 28-30 Complete the summary below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
241
MA in Fashion Design: Assessment
Assessment includes three 28……………. which take place at the end of the stages of the degree.
Final assessment is based on a project, and includes the student's 29…………… in the form of a
written report, and the 30………….. to which representatives of fashion companies are invited.
SECTION 4 Questions 31-40 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
Laughter
The nature of laughter
laughter is a 31 …………..process - involves movement and sound
it is controlled by our 32………….
Reasons for laughter
only 10% of laughter is caused by jokes / funny stories
may have begun as sign of 33………….. after a dangerous situation
nowadays, may help to develop 34………….. within a group
connected to 35…………. (e.g. use of humour by politicians or bosses)
may be related to male / female differences (e.g. women laugh more at male speakers)
may be used in a 36………….way to keep someone out of a group
Benefits of laughter
safe method for the 37………….. of emotions such as anger and sadness
provides good aerobic exercise
leads to drop in levels of stress-related 38……………
improves the 39………… can stop 40……………. and improve sleep
242
Test 27
(Band 5-6.5
Complete IELTS 2 - Listening Practice Test 2)
SECTION 1
Questions 1-5
Complete the form below.
HOTEL
Booking Form
Example Answer
Arrival date: 23rd August
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Length of stay: 1……………
Type of accommodation: 2……………
Name: Mr and Mrs 3……………. and children
Address: 29 Tower Heights, Dunbar 4……………
Postcode: EH47 2GK
Contact telephone: 5……………
Purpose of trip: holiday
Questions 6-10 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Tourist Board
Questions for holidaymakers
Favourite activity: 6……………
Beaches: busy but 7…………
Shop staff: are sometimes 8…………..
243
Waiters: 9………….. and quick
Suggestions: need some 10………….. for hire
SECTION 2
Questions 11-15
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
ORANA WILDLIFE PARK
Facts about Orana
Orana means 11……………
The park has animals from a total of 12…………..
The animals come from many parts of the world.
Things to do at Orana
13………… the giraffes at 12 or 3 p.m.
Touch the animals in the 14………….. (good for children).
Watch the cheetahs doing their 15……………. at 3.40.
Questions 16-20 Label the plan below.
Write the correct letter, A-I, next to questions 16-20.
244
16 New Zealand birds
17 African village
18 Picnic area
19 Afternoon walkabout meeting place
20 Jomo’s Cafe
SECTION 3
Questions 21-27
Choose the correct letter A, B or C. 21 The students did the study skills course because A it was part of their syllabus.
B they needed it to prepare for an exam.
C their tutor recommended it
22 Why did Sylvie and Daniel use a questionnaire? A Other students preferred the method.
B It reduced the preparation time.
C More information could be obtained.
23 How often did the students meet in class for the course? A once a week
B twice a week
C every weekday
24 Why did Daniel like the course? A It improved his confidence.
B It focused on economics articles.
C It encouraged him to read more books.
25 What did the students like about Jenny? A her homework assignments
245
B her choice of study material
C her style of teaching
26 Which chart below shows how useful students found the course in general?
A Chart A
B Chart B
C Chart C
27 Which graph below shows how useful students found the different parts of the course?
A Chart A
B Chart B
C Chart C
Questions 28-30
246
Complete the sentences. Use NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. 28 Good note-taking improves concentration during………….
29 Making notes with the help of a………….. is useful.
30 Having a………….. on note paper makes notes easier to read.
Questions 31-40 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
AIRPORT DESIGN
Can compare a past airport to a 31………….
Now, can compare an airport to a small 32………….
Reasons for changes
Greater passenger numbers because of
33…………..(e.g. package deals)
34…………… (e.g. meetings)
Need to create a good 35………….. of a country
airports called 'gateways’
Types of change
Inside the building
many big 36……………. provide space and light [e.g. Beijing airport)
calm atmosphere with easy movement reduces 37…………….for passengers
The exterior of the building
designed to match the surroundings
e.g. - the shape of the 38 ……………on the Arctic Circle airport, Norway
247
- the 39……………. outside airports in India and Thailand
structural design reduces 40…………… and costs
Test 23 (Complete IELTS (Bands 5 – 6.5) - Listening Practice Test 3)
Questions 1-10
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Traditional Samoan Houses
Overall design
house: round or 1……………
no walls
2…………….. : to shelter occupants from wind and rain
floor: 3…………. to control temperature
Roof
dome-shaped and thatched using 4……………leaves
5…………… sides prevent dampness
high top permits 6………………. loss
Supporting posts
made using wood from the 7…………… around the village
used to show 8………….. of chiefs and speakers at meetings
attached using rope made by the 9…………….. in the village
rope pulled tightly to form a 10……………. around beams and post
Questions 11-15 Complete the form below.
248
Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
International Social Club
Name: Jenny Foo
Age: 21
Nationality: 11………………
Address: 12……………… Road, Bondi
Mobile phone: 13………………
Occupation: 14………………
Free-time interests: Singing and 15…………….
Questions 16-20 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 16 According to Don, what might be a problem for Jenny?
A her accent
B talking to her colleagues
C understanding local people
17 How many members does the club have now?
A 30
B 50
C 80
18 How often does the club meet?
A once a week
B once every two weeks
249
C once a month
19 What is the club’s most frequent type of activity?
A a talk
B a visit
C a meal
20 The main purpose of the club is to help members to
A meet Australians.
B learn about life in Australia.
C enjoy themselves together.
Questions 21-25 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C . 21 According to Debbie, why do some people fail to eat a balanced diet? A They don’t know how to cook.
B They don’t have enough time to cook.
C They don’t feel hungry enough to cook.
22 Debbie recommends that staff should keep fit by
A using a gym.
B taking up a new sport.
C changing some daily activities
. 23 Which benefit of exercise does Debbie think is most important? A It helps you sleep.
B It keeps your heart healthy.
C It improves mental skills.
24 What advice does Debbie give the nurses about health and safety? A to avoid drinking coffee
B to use the canteen at night
C to take regular breaks
250
25 When she talks about hygiene, Debbie asks the nurses to A wash their hands regularly.
B keep away from germs.
C help with the cleaning.
Test 24 (Complete IELTS (Bands 5 – 6.5) - Listening Practice Test 4)
SECTION 1
Questions 1-5 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
KT Furniture Customer Order Form
Customer details
Example Answer
Caller’s name Sue Brown
Company name: 1……………
Address: 2…………..Trading Estate.
210 New Hampton Road South Down
Contact number: 3………….(mobile)
Delivery option: 2, no 4………..
Method of payment: credit card, type: 5…………..
Questions 6-10
Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
item code colour quantity
Office chairs ASP 23 6………….. 5
7……………. 8…………. 2
251
Leather sofa DFD 44 9………… 1
10…………… TX 22 silver 1
SECTION 2
Questions 11-17
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Marathon - tips for spectators
11 To enjoy the day, make sure you…………… it first.
12 Travel…………. within the city centre.
13 Wear……….. on the day.
14 Check the…………. the night before the marathon.
15 Let the…………. give drinks to runners.
16 Stay on one side of the road to avoid…………….
17 Don’t arrange to meet runners near the…………..
Questions 18-20 What does the speaker say about the following forms of transport? Write the correct letter, A, B, C, D or E, next to questions 18-20. 18 taxis
19 trams
20 buses
A will take more passengers than usual
B will suit people who want to see the start of the race
C waiting times will be longer than usual
D will have fewer staff than usual
E some work schedules will change
252
SECTION 3
Questions 21-26
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C.
21 What does Ahmed say about last week’s seminar?
A He wasn’t able to get there on time.
B He didn’t know all the students.
C He couldn’t understand everything.
22 What does the tutor say about Ahmed’s preparation for the seminar?
A He was better prepared than some students.
B He completed some useful work.
C He read some useful articles.
23 What does Ahmed say about his participation in the seminar?
A He tended to speak to his neighbour only.
B He spoke when other students were talking,
C He felt embarrassed when students looked at him.
24 What does Ahmed worry about most in seminars?
A speaking at the right time
B taking enough notes
C staying focused
25 What does Ahmed say about his role in the group?
A He hasn’t thought about it.
B He’d like to change it.
C He feels he is acting a part.
26 At the next seminar, Ahmed’s tutor suggests that he should
A give other students more help with their work.
B observe the behaviour of other students.
C ask other students for their views.
253
Questions 27-28
Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO strategies does the tutor suggest for the next seminar? A speak more frequently
B behave in a confident manner
C sit next to someone helpful
D listen to what other people say
E think of questions to ask
Questions 29-30 Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO suggestions does the tutor make about taking notes?
A plan them before the seminar
B note down key words that people say
C note points to say later
D include self-analysis
E rewrite them after the seminar
SECTION 4
Questions 31-40
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Complete the notes below.
DESERT PLANT
Background
• Deserts found in what is known as a 31…………. (or dry area).
• Annual rainfall, if any, amounts to a 32…………..
• Soil contains a lot of salt and 33……………
General adaptations of desert plants
254
• They can 34…………and store water.
• They have features that reduce water loss.
Examples of adaptations
• Saguaro Cactus: stores water in its 35…………..
• Barrel Cactus: can 36……….. or shrink according to weather
• Old Man Cactus: has 37……………….that reflect the sun
• Prickly Pear Cactus: has 38 …………… to keep away animals
• Desert Spoon: leaves are 39………….. to reduce water loss
• Aloe Plant: leaf surface acts like a 40…………….. covering and keeps water inside
255
Test 25 (Complete IELTS (Bands 6.5 – 7.5) - Listening Practice Test 1) Questions 1-5 Label the map below.
Write the correct letter, A-H, next to questions 1-5
1 …………… recreation centre
2 …………… health centre
256
3 …………… swimming pool and sauna
4 …………… health-food store
5 ……………. Jenny’s Restaurant
ECTION 2
Choose TWO letters, A-E.
Questions 6-7 Which TWO activities will students do as part of Amanda’s assignment?
A analyse their own speech
B record other students’ speech
C read something from a book
D repeat part of a lecture
E remember part of a lecture
Questions 8-9 Which TWO features must Amanda check when she chooses the extract? A the time it takes to read
B the overall organisation
C the number of words
D the number of sentences
E the inclusion of key ideas
SECTION 3
Questions 10-13
Which comments do the speakers make about each lecture? Choose FOUR answers from the box and write the correct letter, A-F, next to Questions 10-13. Lectures 10………….. History of English
11…………... Gestures and signs
12…………… Intonation patterns
257
13 …………... Language and rhythm
Comments A The content is repetitive.
B It took a long time to write.
C It was shorter than the others.
D It was well structured.
E The content is relevant.
F The topic was popular.
Questions 14-15
Answer the questions below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. Which TWO pieces of equipment will the students use in the study?
14…………..
15…………..
SECTION 4 Questions 16-20
Complete the sentences below.
Write ONE OR TWO WORDS for each answer.
16. Ordinary people can provide a news story, a……………. or a video when no professional journalist is present.
17. Amateur journalists often report on subjects which would be of little interest to a large………….
18. In the past, someone who wanted to express an opinion used to write a ………………. while now they write a blog.
19. An amateur journalist’s subject is more likely to be a…………. rather than national or international news.
20. Amateur news websites, such as Ohmynews in South Korea, earn money from…………….
258
Questions 21-25 Complete the flow chart below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
How to write an article
Put the main facts at the beginning to attract
attention.
Use a model in the shape of a 21……………..to build up details.
Include 22……………..from people involved.
Check the accuracy of your 23……………
Rewrite, making sure paragraphs are short.
Don’t write a 24……………
Add a picture to accompany the article.
259
Finally, write an attractive 25………………
Test 26 (Complete IELTS (Bands 6.5 – 7.5) - Listening Practice Test 2)
SECTION 1
Questions 1-6 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer. Customer name: Igor Petrov Length of holiday: 1…………….
260
Will pay up to £ 2……………….
Told him about 3………………for advance payment
Needs quote for 4………………during holiday
Requires 5……………… on plane
Must check if he needs a 6……………..
Questions 7-10 Complete the table below. Write ONE OR TWO WORDS for each answer .
Eco-holidays
Type of holiday Accommodation Advantage
Dumbarton
Tablelands
watching animals house in a 7…………. close to nature
Bago Nature
Reserve
live with
a 8…………..
village house learn about way of life
San Luis Island working in
a 9…………..
hostel holiday location
without 10…………
SECTION 2
Questions 11-15 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 11 What problem does Fumiko have with her psychology project? A She isn’t interested in the topic.
B She can’t find enough information.
C She doesn’t know what to focus on.
12 What point does Victor make about Fumiko’s tutor? A He explores his students’ key interests.
B He is a very hard-working member of staff.
C He uses a limited range of project titles.
261
13 What has Fumiko already read on her topic? A book extracts
B journal articles
C internet material
14 According to Mr Dresden, Fumiko’s project must include A some graphic data.
B a bibliography.
C a public survey.
15 Victor and Fumiko arrange to A get in contact in half an hour.
B meet up in the library.
C have lunch together.
Questions 16-20 Complete the flow chart below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
Fumiko’s plan
Define 16 ……………..using a diagram
Background: relationships in the 17……………… , e.g. apes
Present an overview of the 18…………….. for human relationships, e.g. work, home
Look at six 19…………….. involved in a friendship (plus survey)
Predict the future 20……………….. on friendship
SECTION 3 You are going to hear someone giving a lecture on a traditional Japanese form of stitching called sashiko.
Questions 21-30
262
Complete the sentences below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer. 21 The word sashiko means ……………….
22 In the beginning, sashiko was ……………..rather than decorative.
23 In the past, warm fabrics such as…………..were not available in some parts of Japan.
24 Warm clothes were produced by using sashiko to join…………… of material.
25 Traditional sashiko designs included one called……………….
26 In the towns of ancient Japan, workers such as………………. wore sashiko garments.
27 It used to be essential for someone married to a…………….. to know how to do sashiko.
28 Sashiko was not needed when…………………. began in northern Japan.
29 Modern sashiko patterns include stripes and…………… shapes.
30 Unfortunately,…………………. are not as interested in old clothes as in other ancient craft
objects.
Section 4 Questions 31-40 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Graduate Fair Registration TGS Global
Graduate details
Area of work: Example: Marketing
Name: Dominika 31………….
Nationality: 32………………..
Email address: 33…………………@qmail.com
University: London
Type of course: 34…………………. BA
Date available: 35…………………..
263
Personal information
Other activities: organised a 36……………… charity
Interests: 37……………..
Previous job(s): 38……………..
Career plans: wants to be a 39…………….
Heard about fair through: 40…………………
Test 27 (Complete IELTS (Bands 6.5 – 7.5) - Listening Practice Test 4)
Questions 1-5
Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Wright’s Employment Agency
Registration form
Name: Helen SHEPARD
Address: 18 Henley Street, Mill Town
Post code: 1………………
Telephone: 07945 76674
Looking for 2………………work.
Experience:
• 3…………… in residential children’s home
• waitressing
264
• cleaning in hotel
Own transport? 4……………..
Availability: not night shifts, can start 5……………..
Questions 6-10 Complete the table below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer .
Job Location Hours Hourly rate
Hylands Hotel
cleaning,
waitressing,
kitchen work)
Near 6………….. Shift work
No later
than 10 pm
£6.75
plus 7……………..
The Cedars
(home for
elderly)
Hamilton Terrace 8…………
Some
weekends
and
evenings
£6.10
Looking
after 9…………..
Poplar Street 2-3 hours
each
morning
10…………… plus
transport
Questions 11-15
Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. 11 The main purpose of the new Arts Centre is to provide
A entertainment and education opportunities
B education and local business opportunities
C entertainment and local business opportunities
12 Where can the permanent art exhibits be found?
A Exhibition Room A
B Exhibition Room B
C The Rees Gallery
265
13 The Drawing Workshop is for
A teenagers
B cartoonists
C local artists
14 The Youth Band and Choir are performing
A twice in the Gilbert Theatre
B at two different venues
C in the theatre and the Moffat Hall
15 The last event of the evening
A is in the Studio Theatre
B is a musical event
C is by a local performer
Questions 16-20 Label the plan below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
SECTION 3
Question 21 Choose the correct letter, A, B or C. Why was the tutor initially concerned about the Mel’s choice of subject?
A There was not enough information on the subject.
266
B The subject was not new or different.
C Mel had taken a different approach to the subject.
Questions 22-25 Write the correct letter, A, B or C next to questions 22-25.
Mel should
A include it
B remove it
C increase it
22 the introduction ………
23 statistics about flooding ……..
24 acknowledgement of visual material ……….
25 a graph about rainfall ………
Questions 26-30
Complete the flow chart. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Advice on presentation
Be well prepared with content and equipment
Prepare slides with main points and visuals.
No bright colors, 26………. or sound effects.
Stand in a central position.
Make 27……………. with audience.
Use a 28…………… mouse or keyboard.
267
Speak slowly.
Don't memorize or read.
Use cue cards as a 29…………...
Deal with 30……………. from audience at end.
SECTION 4
Questions 31-37 Choose the correct letter A, B or C . 31 What is the percentage of people who make a phone call every day?
A 47%
B 92%
C 53%
32 What is the percentage of young people who text every day?
A 15%
B 90%
C 65%
33 On average men
A send fewer texts than women
B send shorter texts than women
C have fewer contacts than women
34 Originally, text messaging was created as A an internal messaging system
B a new commercial venture for a mobile phone company
C a way of sending greetings to friends and family
35 Early texters were limited by
A incompatibility between mobile phone networks
B unsophisticated mobile phones
C expensive mobile phones
268
36 Abbreviated texting language
A is unpopular with many people
B was created due to limitations in text length
C has caused children's language skills to decline
37 On average, children who text
A have better speaking skills than those who don’t
B have better reading and writing skills than those who don’t
C do not show any difference in their language skills
Questions 38-40 Choose THREE letters A-G. Which three uses of text messaging were mentioned in the survey?
A taking part in a competition
B booking a hotel room C buying an airline ticket D following a package delivery
E making a doctor’s appointment
F making a donation
G voting in an election
Test 29 (Complete IELTS (Bands 6.5 – 7.5) - Listening Practice Test 3)
Questions 1-5 Complete the form below. Write NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer
Example
Length of stay:
Answer
5 nights
Date of arrival: 1………………
269
Family name: 2………………
Contact number: 3………………
Camp facilities: 4………….., water and 5…………….
Questions 6-10 Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
Site code: 6…………….
Location:
Drive past the offices and 7……………
Keep going until you reach the 8………….
Then turn left.
Remember: Do not leave 9……………
Return the 10………………
Questions 11-14
What does the speaker say about the following natural food colourings? Write the correct letter, A-F, next to questions 11-14. 11………. green
12……… brown
13 ………red
14 ………blue
A It is made using another food product.
B The ingredients are difficult to find.
C It is also used to dye cosmetics.
D Sales fell then increased.
E It can be used to give processed food a uniform colour.
F It is less popular than other dyes.
Questions 15-17
270
Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D. 15 When we buy new clothes, our
A friends may not like the colours we choose.
B choice may be based on the colours we see.
C ideas about fashion may not be up to date.
16 Colourists are people who
A decide which colours suit us best.
B create the dyes that are used to make clothes.
C predict which colours will be fashionable in the future.
17 What does the speaker say about the colours we wear?
A The colours we like change as we get older.
B Most people prefer light colours to dark ones.
C We worry too much about the colour of clothes.
Questions 18-20 Complete the sentences below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer. 18 Both a product and its…………. must appeal to consumers.
19 Green indicates that businesses care about the……….
20 Blue helps people to think in a more……….way.
Questions 21-26
Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
International student mobility
Questions Findings
What is the total number? • about 3 million
• Not every country uses the
same 21……….for an
international student.
• Figure may be much higher.
271
What is the global 22……….? • Figures may be inaccurate.
• 23……….. organisations may
be ignored.
Where do students come from? Big increases in figures for North
America and 24………..
Are
student 25…………… changing?
• more 26…………
• a spirit of exchange
Questions 21-26
Complete the table below. Write ONE WORD ONLY for each answer.
International student mobility
Questions Findings
What is the total number? • about 3 million
• Not every country uses the
same 21………… for an
international student.
• Figure may be much higher.
What is the global 22……….. ? • Figures may be inaccurate.
• 23………… organisations may
be ignored.
Where do students come from? Big increases in figures for North
America and 24……………
Are student 25………. changing? • more 26…………
• a spirit of exchange
Questions 27 and 28
Choose TWO letters, A-E. When choosing a course, which TWO factors did students consider important? A how expensive the course is
B the reputation of the institution
C the distance from home
D the qualifications of the tutors
272
E how useful the qualification will be
Questions 29-30
Choose TWO letters, A-E. Which TWO incentives would encourage graduates to return home? A scholarships for higher degrees
B research grants
C special housing
D lower tax rates
E special work zones
Questions 31-40
Complete the notes below.
Write NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS for each answer.
LIONS
Lion history
• Found today in Africa and a 31……………..in India
• Have lived on every continent apart from Antarctica and 32………….
• Killed by early humans:
a) in competition for food
b) for 33………..
Cave paintings
• 34………… confirms European lions much bigger than African lions
273
• Date of first appearance of mane 35………..
Purpose of mane
• Mane is comparable to 36……….. in some ways
• Researchers first believed mane used for 37…………. during fights
The lion expert ’s study
• Made some 38……….. with different manes
• 39……………manes attracted female lions
Conclusion: mane is a 40……………
274
Solution
Test 1
1. by minibus / a minibus 21. B
2. 15/15 people 22. A
3. April (the) 18th 23. C
4. Pallisades 24. B, D IN EITHER ORDER
5. B, D IN EITHER ORDER 25. B, D IN EITHER ORDER
6. B, D IN EITHER ORDER 26. full-time
7. 280 27. a term / one term
8. 14 28. intensive
9. 20% 29. two modules / (for) two terms
10. 39745T 30. a topic / one topic
11. move around / move about 31. politics
12. brakes 32. learn
13. fingers 33. children’s education / their children’s
education
14. satisfactory 34. a car
15. put (it) together 35. nursing care
16. too wide 36. crisis
17. dangerous 37. early twenties
18. wheels 38. confidence
19. (the) best / (the) best buy / safe 39. money management
20. sharp 40. low-risk investments
Test 2
275
1. (passport) photos / (passport)
photographs
21. home / student's home
2. (a) bank statement 22. (have) dinner / come to dinner / go to
dinner
3. 125 (per year) 23. technical words
4. 8 24. slang
5. 1.50 25. cooperating / cooperation
6. 48 26. persuading
7. local papers / local newspapers 27. editing
8. (a) card / cards 28. complete
9. Grantingham 29. experiment
10. Friday 30. long
11. C 31. 58
12. C 32. desert
13. A 33. science
14. C 34. hospital / small hospital
15. A 35. ship
16. 75,000 36. platforms
17. computers 37. 3,500
18. C, E, F IN ANY ORDER 38. currents / ocean currents
19. C, E, F IN ANY ORDER 39. (the) pollution
20. C, E, F IN ANY ORDER 40. young
Test 3
1. 1.4 litres /1.4 liters 21. 5th May
2. automatic 22. July 16th
3. light / sky 23. clear / was clear
276
4. credit 24. (an/the) outline / (a/the) course outline
5. Harries 25. (the) 2nd half
6. Dr / Doctor 26. (standard of) teaching / (standard of)
teachers
7. Alton 27. discussion / group discussion
8. messages 28. handouts
9. Lion 29. written work
10. reasonable 30. student support / support for students
11. C, E IN EITHER ORDER 31. 12.5%
12. C, E IN EITHER ORDER 32. incineration plants
13. references 33. drop-off
14. country 34. cooking
15. weather 35. 500,000
16. C 36. roads
17. C 37. soil conditioner
18. A 38. containers
19. B 39. pencils
20. C 40. business cards
Test 4
1. 14 Hill Road 21. sales
2. between 9 and 9.30 / 9-9.30 22. competition
3. 1 year 23. interest rates / rates of interest
4. intermediate 24. training
5. North-West 25. A
6. vegetarian 26. B
277
7. (a) (real) garden 27. A
8. (the) only guest 28. C
9. 100 29. B
10. 23rd March / Monday 23rd March 30. D
11. clubhouse 31. B
12. picnic 32. A
13. prizes 33. A
14. 10 34. C
15. Wednesday afternoon(s) 35. A
16. 4 36. B
17. Sunday afternoon(s) 37. B
18. collect (the) fees / collect (the) money 38. A
19. send (out/the) newsletter(s) 39. B
20. supervise (the) teams 40. C
Test 5
1. (a) keep-fit (studio) 21. A
2. swimming 22. in advance
3. yoga (classes) 23. nursery
4. (a) salad bar 24. annual fee
5. 500 25. tutor
6. 1 26. laptops, printers IN EITHER ORDER
7. 10 (am). 4.30 (pm) 27. laptops, printers IN EITHER ORDER
8. 180 28. report writing
9. assessment 29. marketing
10. Kynchley 30. Individual
278
11. B 31. feed
12. G 32. metal/ leather
13. C 33. restrictions
14. A 34. ships
15. E 35. England
16. D 36. built
17. (October (the)) 19th 37. poverty
18. 7 38. C, E, F IN ANY ORDER
19. Monday, Thursday 39. C, E, F IN ANY ORDER
20. 18 40. C, E, F IN ANY ORDER
Test 6
1. 8 21. catalog(ue)s
2. (in/on) Tamer 22. computer centre/center
3. green button 23. checklist
4. library 24. teaching experience
5. education department 25. classroom
6. castles 26. review
7. old clothes 27. schools
8. bottle tops 28. ((the) year) 2000
9. Undersea Worlds 29. end of term
10. silver paper 30. research
11. King Street 31. A
12. central 32. B
13. half hour/30 minutes 33. C
14. refreshments 34. A
279
15. 10.15 35. A
16. Advance 36. C
17. (seat) reservations 37. A
18. C, D, G IN ANY ORDER 38. Great Train Robbery
19. C, D, G IN ANY ORDER 39. Sound effects
20. C, D, G IN ANY ORDER 40. poor sound quality
Test 7
1. Select 21. entertainment industry
2. 27.01.1973 22. telephone interviews
3. 15 Riverside 23. 30/thirty
4. 2 weeks 24. male and female
5. 616295 25. jazz
6. engineer 26. classical
7. mother 27. concerts
8. 2,000 28. department stores
9. month 29. club
10. internet 30. opera house
11. C 31. C
12. A 32. A
13. C 33. A
14. H 34. B
15. F 35. people
16. B 36. water, sand IN EITHER ORDER
17. D 37. Scotland
18. field 38. outside
280
19. footbridge 39. local
20. viewpoint 40. tops
Test 8
1. 75 21. reference
2. cheque/check 22. textbooks
3. 15 23. secondary
4. 25 24. primary
5. 10 minute(s’)/min(s’) 25. back
6. conference pack 26. overdue books/ones
7. South 27. 7 working days
8. library 28. C, E, F IN ANY ORDER
9. 5 29. C, E, F IN ANY ORDER
10. 21A 30. C, E, F IN ANY ORDER
11. D 31. B
12. A 32. A
13. C 33. B
14. tax 34. C
15. security 35. 1,450
16. ground floor 36. disease
17. lecture room 311 37. (wealthy) prince
18. Safety at Work 38. diet
19. Main Hall 39. attack humans
20. team leaders 40. leadership
Test 9
281
1. (a) taxi/cab 21. attitude(s)
2. city centre/center 22. gender/sex
3. wait 23. creativity/creativeness
4. door-to-door 24. A
5. reserve (a seat) 25. B
6. (the) 17th(of) October 26. A
7. 12.30 27. B
8. Thomson 28. culture
9. AC 936 29. profit(s)
10. 3303 8450 2045 6837 30. stress/strain
11. B 31. April
12. A 32. children
13. B 33. repeated
14. C 34. human
15. C 35. magic
16. A 36. distance
17. C 37. culture
18. A 38. fire(s)
19. C 39. touching
20. B 40. intact
Test 10
1. 27 Bank Road 21. B
2. (a) dentist 22. A
3. Sable 23. C
4. Northern Star 24. B
282
5. stolen 25. A
6. Paynter 26. B
7. brother-in-law 27. 1882 (to/-) (18)83
8. (travel(ling/ing)) (to) work 28. signed
9. Red Flag 29. A, D IN EITHER ORDER
10. 450 30. A, D IN EITHER ORDER
11. City Bridge 31. C
12. Newtown 32. B
13. 6.30 33. C
14. (formal) garden 34. A
15. (Tower) Restaurant 35. A
16. view(s) 36. 2 directions
17. history 37. confident
18. 7 screen 38. vision
19. every 20 minutes 39. corrections
20. (from/the) Central Station 40. balance
Test
1. business 21. cigar
2. third 22. 13 (different) countries
3. Sport(s) Centre 23. activated
4. (a) cleaner 24. 50 km(s)
5. Library 25. temperature
6. International House 26. A
7. B659 27. C
8. (an) office assistant 28. A
283
9. answer (the) phone 29. B
10. 11.30 30. C
11. B 31. B
12. C 32. B
13. A 33. A
14. C 34. C
15. B 35. business
16. A 36. kitchen
17. forest 37. world
18. temple 38. escape
19. waterfall 39. baby
20. village 40. chocolate
11
Test 1 2
1. Keiko 21. 5
2. J06337 22. assessed
3. 4 months 23. A
4. (Advanced) English (Studies) 24. B
5. (young) children 25. A
6. pets 26. C
7. seafood 27. media room
8. tennis 28. resources room
9. trains/(the) train 29. embassy
10. this/that afternoon 30. statistics/stats
11. C 31. B
284
12. B 32. C
13. A 33. A
14. B 34. water
15. car park 35. IN EITHER ORDER meat, cheese
16. rose garden 36. IN EITHER ORDER meat, cheese
17. cafe 37. 5th/new taste
18. cycling 38. common
19. biology lesson(s) 39. bitterness
20. viewing shelter 40. minerals
Test 13
1. C 21. Out and About
2. C 22. (the) university/campus
3. D 23. B
4. McDonald/Macdonald/MacDonald 24. B
5. Post Office Box/PO Box 676 25. B
6. 775431 26. A
7. credit card/Visa 27. Poor
8. D,F (both required for one mark, either order) 28. Excellent
9. A, F (any order) 29. OK
10. after (the) exams 30. Excellent
11. 473 31. human activity/activities
12. (open) 2/two(-)seater 32. farming and drainage
13. smooth 33. Dirty Thirties/30s
14. 180 34. dry thunderstorms
15. frame and engine 35. machine operators
285
16. instrument panel/instruments/stop-watch 36. drought
17. 30 37. irrigation
18. light aircraft/plane 38. two-thirds
19. wings 39. salty/saline/toxic
20. rear wheels 40. crops/plants/agriculture
Test 14
1. B 21. father's workshop
2. A 22. 1824
3. B 23. night writing
4. C 24. B
5. Hagerty 25. A
6. ricky45 26. C
7. 29(th) February 27. C
8. business 28. mathematics/maths
9. conversation/to communicate 29. science
10. (at) school 30. music
11. loyal 31. (particular) events
12. statue 32. string
13. (possibly) count 33. 14 days
14. gentle (nature) 34. (a) fortnight/2 weeks/two weeks
15. donations/donors 35. six months
16. search and rescue 36. language
17. (international) database 37. retrieve/recall/recover
18. love their food/love food/love eating 38. (an) argument
19. 80 people 39. 70%
286
20. in a team 40. 40%
Test 15
1. Mitchell 21. (course) booklists/reading list(s)
2. 66 22. recommended
3. Education 23. sales figures
4. 994578ED 24. year (group)
5. C 25. catalogues
6. B 26. letters/correspondence
7. B 27. inspection/free copies
8. A 28. value (for money)
9. C 29. clear/easy to use
10. A 30. easy to use/clear
11. fishing village 31. C
12. pine trees 32. A OR D IN EITHER ORDER
13. marshland/marsh(es) 33. A OR D IN EITHER ORDER
14. sunbeds and umbrellas 34. A
15. longest 35. B
16. flag system/flags 36. (a) competition(s)
17. north(-)west 37. design and print
18. white cliffs 38. styles/techniques
19. sand(-)banks 39. categories
20. food and drink 40. two/2 names
Test 16
1. Sun(day) 2nd July 21. C
287
2. MARINA 22. A
3. 9.30 23. A
4. 1000 24. B
5. Hong Kong 25. Sydney
6. (team) captain 26. Frankfurt
7. parents' permission 27. A OR D IN EITHER ORDER
8. (20/twenty) life jackets 28. A OR D IN EITHER ORDER
9. clothes/clothing/set of clothes 29. B OR F IN EITHER ORDER
10. name 30. B OR F IN EITHER ORDER
11. stamps and coins 31. export/transit (overseas)
12. (shrill) call 32. food shortages
13. sense of smell 33. lasts longer/lasts much longer
14. fly 34. food-poisoning/poisoning
15. introduced animals 35. electricity/electricity supply/supply of
electricity/power
16. (scientific) research 36. chemical preservation/add (adding)
chemicals/using chemicals
17. global education 37. cheap to store
18. eggs (are) collected 38. (hot) soup
19. chicks (are) reared 39. (heated) belt
20. 5% to 85% 40. powdered soup/dried soup/dry sou
Test 17
1. 692411 21. 40 million
2. Rainbow Communications 22. dogs/the dog
3. white 23. only ate plants
4. two/2 boxes 24. Polar Bear
288
5. light blue 25. Brown Bear
6. 10 packs/10 packets 26. Sun Bear
7. (coloured) floppy disks/computer
disks/discs/disks
27. Giant Panda
8. (a/one) wall calendar 28. Sloth Bear
9. (a/new) catalogue 29. B OR E IN EITHER ORDER
10. before 11.30/not after 11.30/by 11.30 30. B OR E IN EITHER ORDER
11. Royal Museum 31. C
12. Queen's Park Road/Rd 32. B
13. 10th Dec(ember) 33. C
14. metal work 34. B
15. (garden) 35. A
16. coloured stones 36. C
17. (white) paper 37. first person
18. Face to Face 38. (a)new element/helium
19. pencil drawing 39. (the) lost planet/(the) new
planet/Vulcan
20. all materials 40. gravity
Test 18
1. 75 21. A
2. wood 22. C
3. 15 23. B
4. cream 24. C
5. adjustable 25. B
6. cupboard 26. interests and style/ style and
interests
289
7. doors 27. visuals
8. 95 28. range
9. Blake 29. source
10. B 30. content
11. cafe 31. B
12. 7:30 32. B
13. (the) disabled 33. A
14. birds 34. microclimate
15. (art) exhibitions 35. concentration
16. abstract 36. frost
17. designer 37. liquid
18. portraits 38. supercooling
19. two/2 years/yrs 39. Mars
20. photographs/photos 40. locations
Test 19
1. B 21. B
2. A 22. C
3. C 23. A
4. bus station 24. B
5. 450 25. A
6. noisy 26. organisation
7. Hills Avenue 27. definition
8. dining room 28. aims
9. modern 29. Key Skills
10. quiet 30. evidence
290
11. Sundays 31. proficiency
12. 1998 32. learning
13. 100,000 33. social and economic
14. government 34. positive
15. research 35. adults
16. Conference Centre/Center 36. A
17. information desk 37. A
18. bookshop 38. B
19. King(’)s Library 39. C
20. stamp display 40. A
Test 20
1. 230 South Road 21. investigate
2. 18 22. sunny and warm
3. activities (and/&) workshops 23. change
4. 250 24. F
5. interactive 25. D
6. material 26. C
7. insurance 27. B
8. publicity 28. B. F, H (in any order)
9. programme 29. B. F, H (in any order)
10. not available/unavailable 30. B. F, H (in any order)
11. A 31. A, D (in either order)
12. C 32. A, D (in either order)
13. B 33. B
14. A 34. E
291
15. C 35. 12000
16. B 36. minority
17. E 37. all
18. G 38. teachers
19. H 39. evaluation
20. C 40. poor
Test 21
1. 19.75 21. (the/their) technique
2. theme 22. (answering) (the/students') questions
3. quiet 23. (the/their) solutions
4. children 24. A
5. breakfast 25. B
6. (free) sky(-)dive 26. B
7. A 27. C
8. C 28. end
9. B 29. limitations
10. C 30. literature
11. B 31. safe
12. A 32. basic needs
13. C 33. local government
14. C 34. residents
15. B,C,E IN EITHER ORDER 35. economic
16. B,C,E IN EITHER ORDER 36. secondary school
17. B,C,E IN EITHER ORDER 37. films
18. 020 7562 4028 38. Women's Centre
292
19. 27.50 39. skills
20. 3 hours/hrs 40. status
Test 22
1. B 21. northwest
2. A 22. spray
3. C 23. (a) (small) library
4. B 24. mountains
5. A 25. field observation
6. A 26. development
7. B 27. water
8. B, D, G in any order 28. market town
9. B, D, G in any order 29. national park
10. B, D, G in any order 30. dissertation
11. June 6th 31. requirements
12. 5000 32. private
13. transportation 33. attitudes
14. low levels 34. interviews
15. Commuter 35. B
16. plant trees 36. C
17. upgrade 37. B
18. border 38. B
19. clean(er) fuels 39. A
20. factories 40. C
Test 23
293
1. Lower Green(e) Street/St 21. A
2. 01778 552387 22. B
3. field 23. B
4. van 24. D
5. Flyer 2000 25. G
6. blue 26. C
7. flat tyre/tire 27. E
8. 8/eight days 28. progress reviews
9. Hill Farm Estate 29. (critical) reflection
10. local 30. exhibition
11. fisherman 31. physical
12. six/6 months 32. instincts
13. captain 33. relief
14. education 34. (social) bonds
15. interpreter 35. power
16. sister cities 36. negative
17. Festival 37. release
18. I 38. hormones
19. B 39. immune system
20. E 40. bad dreams
Test 24
1. 2 weeks 21. C
2. family room 22. B
3. Shriver 23. A
4. Scotland 24. A
294
5. 0131 99 46 5723 25. B
6. swimming 26. C
7. clean 27. B
8. too helpful 28. lectures
9. polite 29. diagram
10. bicycles 30. margin
11. welcome 31. bus station
12. 70 species 32. city
13. handfeed 33. mass tourism
14. farmyard 34. international business
15. exercise run 35. impression
16. B 36. areas
17. G 37. stress
18. E 38. roof
19. C 39. garden
20. H 40. energy
Test 25
1. oval 14. economist
2. blinds 15. dancing
3. stones 16. C
4. sugar cane 17. B
5. steep 18. B
6. heat 19. A
7. forest 20. A
295
8. status 21. B
9. old people 22. C
10. pattern 23. A
11. Malaysian 24. C
12. 13 Anglesea 25. C
13. 040 422 9160
Test 26
1. Dress your Best 21. C
2. Kirby 22. B
3. 09356 788 545 23. A
4. charge 24. C
5. American Express 25. A
6. dark 26. B
7. glass desks 27. D OR E IN EITHER ORDER
8. TG 586 28. D OR E IN EITHER ORDER
9. yellow 29. A OR C IN EITHER ORDER
10. coffee table 30. A OR C IN EITHER ORDER
11. plan 31. rain shadow
12. on foot 32. few inches
13. sensible clothes 33. minerals
14. forecast 34. collect
15. volunteers 35. stem
16. accidents 36. expand
17. finish line 37. white hairs
296
18. C 38. thorns
19. B 39. tough
20. E 40. plastic
Test 27
1. C 14. mobile phone
2. B 15. digital recorder
3. H 16. photo
4. E 17. organisation
5. A 18. letter
6. A OR D IN EITHER ORDER 19. local issue
7. A OR D IN EITHER ORDER 20. advertising
8. B, E (in either order) 21. pyramid
9. B, E (in either order) 22. quotations
10. D 23. figures
11. F 24. conclusion
12. E 25. headline
13. C
Test 28
1. 2 weeks 21. little stitches
2. 1750 22. functional
3. discount 23. wool
4. travel insurance 24. layers
297
5. vegetarian meals 25. sea wave
6. visa 26. firemen
7. tree 27. farmer
8. family 28. rail travel
9. school 29. diamond
10. cars 30. collectors
11. C 31. Alexandrovna
12. A 32. Russian
13. C 33. dom54
14. B 34. full time
15. A 35. 21 of July
16. key terms 36. competition
17. animal world 37. cooking and swimming
18. contexts 38. children's tutor
19. stages 39. project manager
20. influences 40. friend
Test 29
1. MT4 7HV 21. B
2. full-time 22. C
3. voluntary work 23. A
4. no 24. A
5. immediately 25. B
6. Leisure Centre 26. animation
7. meals 27. eye contact
298
8. 7 am-3 pm 28. wireless
9. disabled lady 29. memory aid
10. £6.80 30. questions
11. A 31. A
12. C 32. B
13. A 33. B
14. B 34. A
15. B 35. A
16. Box Office 36. B
17. Stage Door Cafe 37. B
18. Temporary Exhibition rooms 38. A/D/F
19. Studio 39. A/D/F
20. Cloakrooms 40. A/D/F
Test 30
1. 23rd July 21. definition
2. HEPWORTH 22. breakdown
3. 07968 355630 23. private
4. electricity 24. Europe
5. drain 25. destinations
6. SEW 47 26. competition
7. swimming pool 27. B EITHER E
8. laundry 28. B EITHER E
9. litter 29. B EITHER D
10. shower key 30. B EITHER D
11. E 31. forest
299
12. A 32. Australia
13. D 33. clothing
14. F 34. fossil evidence
15. B 35. unknown
16. C 36. human hair
17. A 37. protection
18. packaging 38. toy lions
19. environment 39. long dark
20. creative 40. status symbol
300
***All of the above tests were reproduced courtesy of Cambridge official practice test by Cambridge University
and Top Tips for IELTS by British Council.
Compiled by: Kawser Mahmud
Initiated by: IELTS SPIRIT
Proofread by: The Bible of IELTS book management Team.