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FULL SYLLABUS TEST-6 (FST-6)

PATTERN : AIPMT

TARGET : AIPMT/AIIMS-2016

CCLLAASSSS XXIIII//XXIIIIII || CCOOUURRSSEE :: AALLLL IINNDDIIAA TTEESSTT SSEERRIIEESS ((VVIIKKAALLPP))

Date : 24-04-2016 Time : 3 Hours Max. Marks : 720

Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for this purpose.

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1. Immediately fill the particulars on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue / Black Ball Point Pen. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.

1.

2. The Answer Sheet is kept inside this Test Booklet. When you are directed to open the Test Booklet, take out the Answer Sheet and fill in the particulars carefully.

2.

3. The test is of 3 hours duration. 3. 3

4. The Test Booklet consists of 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.

4. 180 720

5. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Chemistry (45), Physics (45) and Biology (90) questions. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for correct response.

5. A, B, C

(45) (45) (90)

4

6. Candidates will be awarded marks as stated above in Instructions No. 5 for correct response of each question. ¼ [one fourth (–1)] marks will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.

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¼ (–1)

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Name of the Candidate ( ) : Roll Number ( ) :

Resonance Eduventures Ltd. CORPORATE OFFICE : CG Tower, A-46 & 52, IPIA, Near City Mall, Jhalawar Road, Kota (Raj.) - 324005

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mailto:[email protected]

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PART–A

Atomic masses : [H = 1, D = 2, Li = 7, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, F = 19, Na = 23, Mg = 24, Al = 27, Si = 28, P = 31, S = 32, Cl = 35.5, K = 39, Ca = 40, Cr = 52, Mn = 55, Fe = 56, Cu = 63.5, Zn = 65, As = 75, Br = 80, Ag = 108, I = 127, Ba = 137, Hg = 200, Pb = 207]

Straight Objective Type

This section contains 45 multiple choice questions.

Each question has 4 choices (1), (2), (3) and (4) for

its answer, out of which Only One is correct.

1. A d-subshell containing four unpaired electrons

can show how many number of exchanges :

(1) four (2) three

(3) sixteen (4) six

2. The ratio of E2 – E1 to E4 – E3 for the hydrogen

atom is approximately euqal to

(1) 10 (2) 15

(3) 17 (4) 12

3. Calculate the enthalpy change when 50 mL of

0.01 M Ca(OH)2 reacts with 25 mL of 0.01 M

HCl. Given that neutH of a strong acid and

strong base is 14 kcal equivalent:

(1) 14.0 cal (2) 35 cal

(3) 10.0 cal (4) 7.5 cal

4. Polarization involves the distortion of the shape

of an anion by an adjacently placed cation. In

this context, which of the following statements is

correct?

(1) Maximum polarization is brought about by a

cation of high charge

(2) Minimum polarization is brought about by a

cation of low radius

(3) A large cation is likely to bring about a high

degree of polarization

(4) The polarizing power of a cation is less than

that of an anion

45

4 (1), (2), (3) (4)

1. d-

-

(1) 4 (2) 3

(3) 16 (4) 6

2. E2 – E1 E4 – E3

(1) 10 (2) 15

(3) 17 (4) 12

3. 0.01 M Ca(OH)2 50 mL 0.01 M

HCl 25 mL

H 14 kcal

(1) 14.0 cal (2) 35 cal

(3) 10.0 cal (4) 7.5 cal

4.

?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)




5. Among the following species, which has the

minimum bond length

(1) B2 (2) C2

(3) F2 (4) 2O

6. The quantity pV/(kbT) represent the –

(given : kb = R/NA)

(1) number of molecules in the gas

(2) mass of the gas

(3) number of moles of the gas

(4) translational energy of the gas

7. To which of the following gaseous mixtures is

Dalton’s law not applicable?

(1) Ne + He + SO2

(2) NH3 + HCl + HBr

(3) O2 + N2 + CI2

(4) N2 + H2 + O2

8. The density of water at 4°C is 1.0 × 103 kg m

–3.

The volume occupied by one molecule of water

is approximately

(1) 3.0 × 10–23

mL (2) 6.0 × 10–22

mL

(3) 3.0 × 10–21

mL (4) 9.0 × 10–23

mL

9. Phenol associates in benzene solvent to form

double molecules. By the freezing point

depression method, the vant Hoff's factor has

been found to be 0.54. To what degree, phenol

is associated ?

(1) 0.46 (2) 0.54

(3) 0.98 (4) 0.92

10. When a 0.20 mole solution of acetic acid is

neutralized with 0.20 mole NaOH in 0.50 L of

water, the pH of the resulting solution will be

(given that pKa for CH3COOH = 4.74)

(1) 12.67 (2) 7.87

(3) 9.17 (4) 7.00

5.

(1) B2 (2) C2

(3) F2 (4) 2O

6. pV/(kbT) –

( : kb = R/NA)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7.

(1) Ne + He + SO2

(2) NH3 + HCl + HBr

(3) O2 + N2 + CI2

(4) N2 + H2 + O2

8. 4°C 1.0 × 103 kg m

–3

(1) 3.0 × 10–23

mL (2) 6.0 × 10–22

mL

(3) 3.0 × 10–21

mL (4) 9.0 × 10–23

mL

9.

0.54

(1) 0.46 (2) 0.54

(3) 0.98 (4) 0.92

10. 0.20 0.50 L

0.20 NaOH

pH

( CH3COOH pKa = 4.74)

(1) 12.67 (2) 7.87

(3) 9.17 (4) 7.00




11. Which of the following solids is not an electrical

conductor?

(A) Mg(s) (B) TiO(s)

(C) I2(s) (D) H2O(s)

(1) (A) only

(2) (B) Only

(3) (C) and (D)

(4) (B), (C) and (D)

12. What is the potential of the cell containing two

hydrogen electrodes as represented below

Pt : H2(g) / H+(10

–8) M | | H

+ (0.001 M) /

1

2 H2(g). Pt ;

(1) – 0.295 V (2) – 0.0591 V

(3) 0.295 V (4) 0.0591 V

13. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a

gas is found to be proportional to the cube of its

absolute temperature. The ratio Cp/Cv = for the

gas is

(1) 2

3 (2)

2

7

(3) 3

5 (4)

7

9

14. For the reaction AB(g) A(g) + B(g), AB is

33% dissociated at a total pressure of p. Then

(1) p = Kp (2) p = 4Kp

(3) p = 3Kp (4) p = 8Kp

15. Cu (II) sulphate solution is treated separately

with KCl and KI. In which case, Cu2+

be reduced

to Cu+?

(1) with KCl

(2) with KI

(3) with both (1) and (2)

(4) none of these

11.

(A) Mg(s) (B) TiO(s)

(C) I2(s) (D) H2O(s)

(1) (A)

(2) (B)

(3) (C) (D)

(4) (B), (C) (D)

12.

Pt : H2(g) / H+(10

–8) M | | H

+ (0.001 M) /

1

2 H2(g). Pt ;

(1) – 0.295 V (2) – 0.0591 V

(3) 0.295 V (4) 0.0591 V

13.

Cp/Cv =

(1) 2

3 (2)

2

7

(3) 3

5 (4)

7

9

14. AB(g) A(g) + B(g) AB , p

33%

(1) p = Kp (2) p = 4Kp

(3) p = 3Kp (4) p = 8Kp

15. Cu (II) KCl KI

Cu2+

Cu+

?

(1) KCl

(2) KI

(3) (1) (2)

(4)




16. On passing electricity through dilute H2SO4

solution the mass ratio of gases liberated at the

cathode and anode are in the ratio :

(1) 1 : 8 (2) 8 : 11

(3) 16 : 1 (4) 1 : 16

17. The half time of a second order reaction is

(1) inversely proportional to the square of the

initial concentration of the reactants

(2) inversely proportional to the initial

concentration of the reactants

(3) proportional to the initial concentration of

reactants

(4) independent of the initial concentration of

reactants

18. The rate of disappearance of SO2 in the reaction;

322 SO2OSO2 is 1.28 × 10–3

g/sec. Then

the rate of formation of SO3 is:

(1) 30.64 10 g/ sec

(2) 30.80 10 g/ sec

(3) 11.28 10 g/ sec

(4) 31.60 10 g/ sec

19. Which statement is not correct?

(1) Physical adsorption is due to van der

Waals’ forces

(2) Physical adsorption decreases at high

temperature and low pressure

(3) Physical adsorption is reversible

(4) Adsorption energy for a chemical

adsorption is generally lesser than that of

physical adsorption

16. H2SO4

:

(1) 1 : 8 (2) 8 : 11

(3) 16 : 1 (4) 1 : 16

17.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18. ; 2 2 32SO O 2SO SO2

1.28 × 10–3

g/sec SO3

(1) 30.64 10 g/ sec

(2) 30.80 10 g/ sec

(3) 11.28 10 g/ sec

(4) 31.60 10 g/ sec

19. ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)




20. The coagulation of sol particles or sol destruction

may be brought in by:

(1) electrophoresis

(2) adding oppositively charged sol

(3) adding electrolyte

(4) all of the above

21. Which process is used in the extractive

metallurgy of Mg?

(1) Fused salt electrolysis

(2) Self reduction

(3) Aqueous solution electrolysis

(4) Thermite reduction

22. Which property of white phosphorus is common

to red P?

(1) It is soluble in carbon disulphide

(2) It shows chemilluminescence

(3) It reacts with hot caustic soda solution to

give phosphine

(4) It burns when heated in air

23. There is O—O bond in

(1) 22 8S O (2) 2

4 6S O

(3) 23SO (4) 2

2 7S O

24. Two pungent smelling gases bleach a certain

substance. The gases may be

(1) Cl2 and SO2

(2) Cl2 and NH3

(3) NH3 and PH3

(4) O2 and CO2

25. Liquid flow from a higher to a lower level. Which

of the following liquids can climb up the wall of

the glass vessel in which it is placed?

(1) Alcohol (2) Liquid He

(3) Liquid N2 (4) Water

20. (destruction)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21. Mg ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22.

?

(1)

(2) (chemilluminescence)

(3)

(4)

23. O—O

(1) 22 8S O (2) 2

4 6S O

(3) 23SO (4) 2

2 7S O

24.

(1) Cl2 SO2

(2) Cl2 NH3

(3) NH3 PH3

(4) O2 CO2

25.

(1) (2) He

(3) N2 (4)




26. Which is true in the case of [Ni(CO)4] complex?

(1) Hybridization of Ni is sp3

(2) Tetrahedral shape of the molecule

(3) Diamagnetic

(4) All are correct

27. Which of the following has maximum ionisation

energy ?

(1) Ba Ba+ + e

–

(2) Be Be+ + e

–

(3) Ca Ca2+

+ 2e–

(4) Mg Mg+ + e

–

28. Which of the following compounds has the

highest boiling point ?

(1) CH3CH2CH2Cl

(2) CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl

(3) CH3CH(CH3)CH2Cl

(4) (CH3)3CCl

29. The order of reactivity of the following alcohols

towards conc. HCl is :

(1) II > III > IV > I (2) I > II > III > IV

(3) IV > I > III > II (4) II > IV > I > III

30. IUPAC name of the given compound is :

Br

HO

(1) 3-Bromo-1-hydroxycyclohex-4-ene

(2) 1-Bromocyclohex-2-en-5-ol



26. [Ni(CO)4]

(1) Ni sp3

(2)

(3)

(4)

27.

(1) Ba Ba+ + e

–

(2) Be Be+ + e

–

(3) Ca Ca2+

+ 2e–

(4) Mg Mg+ + e

–

28.

(1) CH3CH2CH2Cl

(2) CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl

(3) CH3CH(CH3)CH2Cl

(4) (CH3)3CCl

29. HCl

(1) II > III > IV > I (2) I > II > III > IV

(3) IV > I > III > II (4) II > IV > I > III

30. IUPAC

Br

HO

(1) 3- -1- -4-

(2) 1- -2- -5-

(3) 5- -3- -1-

(4) 6- -1- -4-




31. Total No. of isomeric structure for aromatic

compound C7H6O2 ?

(1) 4 (2) 5

(3) 3 (4) 5

32. Which one amongst the following does not react

with CH3MgBr ?

(1) Phenol

(2) Phenylacetylene

(3) Benzoic acid

(4) o-phenylethylene

33. Mono Chloro structure of 3-methylpentone will

be

(1) 4 (2) 3

(3) 2 (4) 5

34. What product is obtained when

HOOCCOOHCOOH is heated :

(1) COOHCOOH

(2) O

(3) OHOOC

(4) CC

O

O

O

35. Streptomycin is an :

(1) antiseptic

(2) Antifertility drug

(3) tranquilizer

(4) Antibiotic

36. Which of the following will give a yellow

precipitate with iodine and alkali ?

(1) Methyl propanoate

(2) Formamide

(3) Butan-2-ol

(4) Benzophenone

31. C7H6O2

?

(1) 4 (2) 5

(3) 3 (4) 5

32. CH3MgBr

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) o-

33. 3-

(1) 4 (2) 3

(3) 2 (4) 5

34. HOOCCOOHCOOH

(1) COOHCOOH

(2) O

(3) OHOOC

(4) CC

O

O

O

35.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36.

?

(1)

(2)

(3) -2-

(4)




37. Terylene is a condensation polymer of

(1) Ethylene glycol & Benzoic acid

(2) Benzoic acid & Terephthalic acid

(3) Ethylene glycol & Terephthalic acid

(4) Ethylene glycol & salicylic acid

38. Which polysaccharide has -glycoside linkage ?

(1) Amylose

(2) Amylopectin

(3) Cellulose

(4) All of these

39. Total Number of isomers of

CH3–CH=CH–CH–CH3

OH

:

(1) 4 (2) 6

(3) 2 (4) 3

40. 2 4

4

(i) KCN / H SO

(ii) LiAlH Product is

(1)

OH

|

NHCHCHCHCH 2223

(2) CH3 – CH2 – – CH2 – NH – CH3

(3)

OH|

CNCHCHCH 23

(4)

OH|

NH–CHCHCHCH 2223

41. The correct IUPAC name of (C2H5)4C is :

(1) Tetraethyl methane

(2) 2-Ethylpentane

(3) 3,3-Diethylpentane

(4) None of these

37.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

38. -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39. CH3–CH=CH–CH–CH3

OH

(1) 4 (2) 6

(3) 2 (4) 3

40. 2 4

4

(i) KCN / H SO

(ii) LiAlH :

(1)

OH

|

NHCHCHCHCH 2223

(2) CH3 – CH2 – – CH2 – NH – CH3

(3)

OH|

CNCHCHCH 23

(4)

OH|

NH–CHCHCHCH 2223

41. (C2H5)4C IUPAC

(1)

(2) 2-

(3) 3,3-

(4)




42. In which of the following molecule gauche form

is most stable :

(1) 4-flourobutanal

[F–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH=O]

(2) 3-Chlorobutane-1-ol

[HO–CH2–CH2–CH(Cl)–CH3]

(3) 3-Hydroxypropanal

[CH2(OH)–CH2–CHO]

(4) Meso-tartaric acid

[HOOC–CH(OH)–CH(OH)–COOH]

43. Observe the following reaction -

Ph–OH + CO2 + KOH

Products mixture

Which is incorrect regarding above reaction ?

(1) Two products are formed.

(2) It is electrophilic substitution reaction.

(3) Products give positive test with Tollen's

reagent.

(4) Ortho-isomer is the major product of this

reaction.

44. Which reaction can give strongest acid among

the following products.

(1) CH3–CN 3H O

(2) Ph–CH2CH3

4KMnO ,H ,

(3) CH3–CH2CHO 4KMnO ,

H /

(4) HCOOCH3 3H O

45. Which one is not correct for E2 reaction.

(1) It is stereospecific

(2) Both the eliminated atoms should be at

anitparallel to each other

(3) 2º > 3º alkyl halide

(4) Larger size of base will give anti Saytzef

product

42.

(1) 4-

[F–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH=O]

(2) 3- -1-

[HO–CH2–CH2–CH(Cl)–CH3]

(3) 3-

[CH2(OH)–CH2–CHO]

(4) -

[HOOC–CH(OH)–CH(OH)–COOH]

43.

Ph–OH + CO2 + KOH

?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44.

(1) CH3–CN 3H O

(2) Ph–CH2CH3

4KMnO ,H ,

(3) CH3–CH2CHO 4KMnO ,

H /

(4) HCOOCH3 3H O

45. E2

(1)

(2)

(3) 2º > 3º

(4)



Toll Free: 1800 258 5555 | CIN: U80302RJ2007PLC024029

PART–B


This section contains 45 multiple choice

questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),

(3) and (4) for its answer, out of which Only One

is correct.

46. A frictionless wire is fixed between A and B

inside a sphere of radius R. A bead slips along

the wire. The time taken by the ball to slip from A

to B will be

(1) 2 R / g (2) gR / gcos

(3) 2 gR

gcos (4)

2 gRcos

g

47. The graph shown in the figure shows the velocity

v versus time t of a body. Which of the graphs

shown in figure represents the corresponding

acceleration versus time graphs?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45

4 (1), (2), (3) (4)

46. R A B

(fixed)

A B

(1) 2 R / g (2) gR / gcos

(3) 2 gR

gcos (4)

2 gRcos

g

47.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)




48. Two bodies are thrown with the same speed at

angles and 90– to the horizontal. Ratio of

maximum heights reached by the bodies is -

(1) tan (2) tan2

(3) cot2 (4) cot

49. A block is attached with an ideal spring and

string, and is in equilibrium as shown in Figure.

The acceleration of the block just after breaking

the string is a1 and just after breaking the spring

is a2. Then

m

53° 53°

(1) a1 =

5g

8 (2) a

1 =

g

2

(3) a2 = g (4) None of these

50. A force of 5 Newton acts horizontally on a body

of weight 9.8 Newton. What is the acceleration

produced in m s–2 ?

(1) 0.51 (2) 1.46

(3) 49.00 (4) 5.00

51. Graph shows the acceleration 'a' of a particle v/s

is x -coordinate, as an applied force moves the

particle from rest at x = 0 along x axis. The

mass of the particle is 3 kg. The total work done

by the force on the particle as it moves from

x = 0 to x = 6 m, is :

(1) 20 J (2) 30 J

(3) 40 J (4) 60 J

48.

90–

–

(1) tan (2) tan2

(3) cot2 (4) cot

49.

a1

a2

m

53° 53°

(1) a1 =

5g

8 (2) a

1 =

g

2

(3) a2 = g (4)

50. 9.8 N 5 N

(m s–2 )

(1) 0.51 (2) 1.46

(3) 49.00 (4) 5.00

51. x = 0

'a' 'x'

3 kg

x = 0 x = 6 m

(1) 20 J (2) 30 J

(3) 40 J (4) 60 J




52. For which force we can write the potential

energy function :

(1) spring force and gravitational force

(2) constant force and friction

(3) drag force and tension

(4) buoyant force and pseudo force

53. A man is supplying a constant power of 500 J/s

to a massless string by pulling it at an

instantaneous speed of 10 m/s as shown. It is

known that kinetic energy of the block is

increasing at a rate of 100 J/s at that instant.

Then the mass of the block is :

(1) 5 kg (2) 3 kg

(3) 10 kg (4) 4 kg

54. Which of following statement is correct :

(1) A particle may have momentum but not

kinetic energy

(2) A particle may have kinetic energy but not

momentum

(3) A body may have momentum but not kinetic

energy

(4) A body may have kinetic energy but not

momentum

55. Moment of inertia of an ellipse shaped wire of

mass ‘m’, semimajor axis ‘a’ about an axis

passing through the centre and perpendicular to

the plane of wire can be:

(1) ma2 (2) 1.2 ma2

(3) 1.4 ma2 (4) 0.6 ma2

52.

:

(1)

(2)

(3) (drag)

(4)

53. 500 J/s

10 m/s

100 J/s

(1) 5 kg (2) 3 kg

(3) 10 kg (4) 4 kg

54.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

55. ‘m’ 'a'

(1) ma2 (2) 1.2 ma2

(3) 1.4 ma2 (4) 0.6 ma2




56. A uniform solid sphere of mass M and radius R

is lying on rough horizontal plane. A constant

force F = 4 Mg acts vertically downwards at point

P such that OP makes 60° with horizontal as

shown in figure. Find the minimum value of

coefficient of friction so that sphere starts pure

rolling.

O

F = 4Mg

P

60°

(1) 3

7 (2)

4

7

(3) 2

7 (4)

2

5

57. A body falls freely under gravity. Its speed is v

when it has lost an amount U of the gravitational

energy. Then its mass is

(1) 2

Ug

v (2)

2U

g

(3) 2

2u

v (4) 22Ugv

58. Two wires of copper having the length in the

ratio 4 : 1 and their radii ratio as 1 : 4 are

stretched by the same force. The ratio of

longitudinal strain in the two will be

(1) 1 : 16 (2) 16 : 1

(3) 1 : 64 (4) 64 : 1

59. At which of the following temperatures, the value

of surface tension of water is minimum

(1) 4o C

(2) 25o C

(3) 50o C

(4) 75o C

56. M R

F = 4 Mg P

OP 60°

O

F = 4Mg

P

60°

(1) 3

7 (2)

4

7

(3) 2

7 (4)

2

5

57.

U

v

(1) 2

Ug

v (2)

2U

g

(3) 2

2u

v (4) 22Ugv

58.

4 : 1 1 : 4

(1) 1 : 16 (2) 16 : 1

(3) 1 : 64 (4) 64 : 1

59.

(1) 4o C

(2) 25o C

(3) 50o C

(4) 75o C




60. In making an alloy, a substance of specific

gravity s1 and mass m1 is mixed with another

substance of specific gravity s2 and mass m2;

then the specific gravity of the alloy is

(1) 1 2

1 2

m m

s s

(2) 1 2

1 2

s s

m m

(3) 1 2

1 2

1 2

m m

m m

s s

(4)

1 2

1 2

1 2

m m

s s

m m

61. To get the maximum flight, a ball must be thrown

as

(1)

v

(2)

v

(3)

v

(4) Any of (1), (2) and (3)

62. A steel ball of mass 0.1 kg falls freely from a

height of 10 m and bounces to a height of 5.4m

from the ground. If the dissipated energy in this

process is absorbed by the ball, the rise in its

temperature is (Specific heat of

steel 1 1 2460Joule kg C , g 10ms )

(1) 0.01°C (2) 0.1°C

(3) 1°C (4) 1.1°C

63. That gas cannot be liquified

(1) Which obeys Vander Waal's equation

(2) Which obeys gas equation at every

temperature and pressure

(3) The molecules of which are having potential

energy

(4) Which is a inert gas

64. One mole of an ideal monoatomic gas is heated

at a constant pressure of one atmosphere from

0ºC to 100ºC. Then the change in the internal

energy is

(1) 6.56 joules (2) 28.32 10 joules

(3) 212.48 10 joules (4) 20.80 joules

60. , m1

s1 m2

s2 ,

(1) 1 2

1 2

m m

s s

(2) 1 2

1 2

s s

m m

(3) 1 2

1 2

1 2

m m

m m

s s

(4)

1 2

1 2

1 2

m m

s s

m m

61.

(1)

v

(2)

v

(3)

v

(4) (1), (2) (3)

62. 0.1 kg 10 m

5.4m

(

1 1 2460Joule kg C , g 10ms )

(1) 0.01°C (2) 0.1°C

(3) 1°C (4) 1.1°C

63. ,

(1)

(2) -

(3)

(4)

64.

0°C 100°C

(1) 6.56 (2) 8.32 102

(3) 12.48 102

(4) 20.80




65. Three moles of an ideal gas P

7C R

2

at

pressure PA and temperature TA is isothermally

expanded to twice its initial volume. It is then

compressed at constant pressure to its original

volume. Finally the gas is compressed at

constant volume to its original pressure PA . The

correct P-V and P-T diagrams indicating the

process are

(1)

PA

PA/2

C

A

B

VA 2VA V

P

(2)

PA

PA/2

A

C

B

VA 2VA V

P

(3)

PA

PA/2

B A

C

TA/2 TA T

P

(4)

PA

PA/2

B

A

C

TA/2 TA T

P

66. If two metallic plates of equal thicknesses and

thermal conductivities K1 and K2 are put

together face to face and a common plate is

constructed, then the equivalent thermal

conductivity of this plate will be

K1 K2

(1) 1 2

1 2

K K

K K (2) 1 2

1 2

2K K

K K

(3) 2 2 3/21 2

1 2

(K K )

K K

(4)

2 2 3/21 2

1 2

(K K )

2K K

65. P

7C R

2

PA

TA

PA

P-V P-T

(1)

PA

PA/2

C

A

B

VA 2VA V

P

(2)

PA

PA/2

A

C

B

VA 2VA V

P

(3)

PA

PA/2

B A

C

TA/2 TA T

P

(4)

PA

PA/2

B

A

C

TA/2 TA T

P

66. K1 K2

K1 K2

(1) 1 2

1 2

K K

K K (2) 1 2

1 2

2K K

K K

(3) 2 2 3/21 2

1 2

(K K )

K K

(4)

2 2 3/21 2

1 2

(K K )

2K K




67. Equations 1y Asin t and

2

A Ay sin t cos t

2 2 represent S.H.M. The

ratio of the amplitudes of the two motions is

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 0.5 (4) 2

68. If x asin t6

and x acos t , then what

is the phase difference between the two waves

(1) / 3 (2) / 6

(3) / 2 (4)

69. The fundamental frequency of a closed pipe is

220 Hz. If 1

4 of the pipe is filled with water, the

frequency of the first overtone of the pipe now is

(1) 220 Hz (2) 440 Hz

(3) 880 Hz (4) 1760 Hz

70. Two monoatomic ideal gases 1 and 2 of

molecular masses m1 and m2 respectively are

enclosed in separate containers kept at the

same temperature. The ratio of the speed of

sound in gas 1 to that in gas 2 is given by

(1) 1

2

m

m (2) 2

1

m

m

(3) 1

2

m

m (4) 2

1

m

m

71. In the circuit, shown in fig. ‘K’ is open. The

charge on capacitor C in steady state is q1. Now

key is closed and at steady state, the charge on

C is q2. The ratio of charges 1

2

q

q

is

C

R K

2R E

(1) 3

2 (2)

2

3

(3) 1 (4) 1

2

67. 1y Asin t

2

A Ay sin t cos t

2 2

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 0.5 (4) 2

68. x asin t6

x acos t ,

(1) / 3 (2) / 6

(3) / 2 (4)

69. 220 Hz -

(1) 220 Hz (2) 440 Hz

(3) 880 Hz (4) 1760 Hz

70. - 1 2

m1 m2 -

1 2

(1) 1

2

m

m (2) 2

1

m

m

(3) 1

2

m

m (4) 2

1

m

m

71. ‘K’

q1

C q2

1

2

q

q

C

R K

2R E

(1) 3

2 (2)

2

3

(3) 1 (4) 1

2




72. A conductor has 1914.4 10 coulombs positive

charge. The conductor has (Charge on electron

191.6 10 coulombs )

(1) 9 electrons in excess

(2) 27 electrons in short

(3) 27 electrons in excess

(4) 9 electrons in short

73. A wire has resistance of 24 is bent in the

following shape. The effective resistance

between A and B is

60°

60°

B A

10 cm

5 cm

(1) 24

(2) 10

(3) 16

3

(4) None of these

74. It is easier to start a car engine on a hot day

than on a cold day. This is because the internal

resistance of the car battery

(1) Decreases with rise in temperature

(2) Increases with rise in temperature

(3) Decreases with a fall in temperature

(4) Does not change with a change in

temperature

75. A charge of 2.0 C moves with a speed of

6 13.0 10 ms along + ve X-axis A magnetic field

of strength ˆB 0.2 k Tesla exists in space.

What is the magnetic force m(F ) on the charge

(1) mF 1.2N along + vex direction

(2) mF 1.2N along – vex direction

(4) mF 1.2N along + vey direction

(4) mF 1.2N along – vey direction

72. 1914.4 10

191.6 10 )

(1) 9

(2) 27

(3) 27

(4) 9

73. 24

A B

60°

60°

B A

10 cm

5 cm

(1) 24

(2) 10

(3) 16

3

(4)

74.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

75. 2.0 C 6 13.0 10 ms

X-

ˆB 0.2 k

m(F )

(1) mF 1.2N x–

(2) mF 1.2N x–

(3) mF 1.2N y–

(4) mF 1.2N y–




76. A straight wire of length (2) metre is carrying a

current of 2A and the magnetic field due to it is

measured at a point distant 1 cm from it. If the

wire is to be bent into a circle and is to carry the

same current as before, the ratio of the magnetic

field at its centre to that obtained in the first case

would be

(1) 50 : 1 (2) 1 : 50

(3) 100 : 1 (4) 1 : 100

77. Two short magnets of magnetic moment

1000 Am2 are placed as shown at the corn ers of

a square of side 10 cm. The net magnetic

induction at P is

P S N

S N

(1) 0.1 T (2) 0.2 T

(3) 0.3 T (4) 0.4 T

78. A lens when placed on a plane mirror then object

needle and its image coincide at 15 cm. The

focal length of the lens is

(1) 15 cm (2) 30 cm

(3) 20 cm (4)

79. An electron makes a transition from orbit n = 4 to

the orbit n = 2 of a hydrogen atom. The wave

number of the emitted radiations (R = Rydberg's

constant) will be

(1) 16

3R (2)

2R

16

(3) 3R

16 (4)

4R

16

76. (2)

2A 1 cm

(1) 50 : 1 (2) 1 : 50

(3) 100 : 1 (4) 1 : 100

77. 1000 Am2

10 cm

P

P S N

S N

(1) 0.1 T (2) 0.2 T

(3) 0.3 T (4) 0.4 T

78.

15 cm

(1) 15 cm (2) 30 cm

(3) 20 cm (4)

79. n = 4

n = 2

( R= )

(1) 16

3R (2)

2R

16

(3) 3R

16 (4)

4R

16




80. Radius of 42He nucleus is 3 Fermi. The radius of

20682 Pb nucleus will be

(1) 5 Fermi (2) 6 Fermi

(3) 11.16 Fermi (4) 8 Fermi

81. The collector plate in an experiment on

photoelectric effect is kept vertically above the

emitter plate. Light source is put on and a

saturation photo current is recorded. An electric

field is switched on which has a vertically

downward direction

(1) The photo current will increase

(2) The kinetic energy of the electrons will

increase

(3) The stopping potential will decrease

(4) The threshold wavelength will increase

82. Two coherent sources of intensities, I1 and I2

produce an interference pattern. The maximum

intensity in the interference pattern will be

(1) I1 + I2

(2) 2 21 2I I

(3) (I1 + I2)2

(4) 21 2( I I )

83. The figure here gives the electric field of an EM

wave at a certain point and a certain instant. The

wave is transporting energy in the negative z

direction. What is the direction of the magnetic

field of the wave at that point and instant

X

Y

Z

E

(1) Towards + X direction

(2) Towards – X direction

(3) Towards + Z direction

(4) Towards – Z direction

80. 42He 3 206

82 Pb

(1) 5 Fermi (2) 6 Fermi

(3) 11.16 Fermi (4) 8 Fermi

81.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

82. I1 I2

(1) I1 + I2

(2) 2 21 2I I

(3) (I1 + I2)2

(4) 21 2( I I )

83.

z-

X

Y

Z

E

(1) + X

(2) – X

(3) + Z

(4) – Z




84. A current flows around the small loop of

radius 'a' shown in the figure. Calculate the total

magnetic flux that falls to the right of the infinite

line shown a distance r >> a from the loop. The

current loop and the line are all in the same

plane.

r

I

(1)

2

0

2

µ a I

r

(2)

2

0

4

µ a I

r

(3)

2

0µ a I

r (4)

2

0

2

µ a I

r

85. An alternating voltage of 260 volt and

= 100 radian/second, is applied in an LCR

series circuit where L = 0.01 H, C = 4 × 10–4 F

and R = 10. The power supplied by the source

is:

(1) 1000 W (2) 6760 W

(3) 3380 W (4) 3000 W

86. Which of the following shows wave nature of

light.

(1) Reflection (2) Refraction

(3) Polarization (4) None of these

87. Graph is plotted between maximum kinetic

energy of electron with frequency of incident

photon in Photo electric effect. The slope of

curve will be-

EK

(1) Charge of electron

(2) Work function of metal

(3) Planck's constant

(4) Ratio of Planck constant and charge of

electron

84. 'a'

r (r > > a )

r

I

(1)

2

0

2

µ a I

r

(2)

2

0

4

µ a I

r

(3)

2

0µ a I

r (4)

2

0

2

µ a I

r

85. 260 = 100 /

LCR

L = 0.01 H, C = 4 × 10–4 F R = 10

(1) 1000 W (2) 6760 W

(3) 3380 W (4) 3000 W

86.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

87.

(Ek) (v)

EK

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)




88. Two identical samples (same material and same

amount) P and Q of a radioactive substance

having mean life T are observed to have

activities AP & A

Q respectively at the time of

observation. If P is older than Q, then the

difference in their ages is:

(1) T n P

Q

A

A

(2) T n Q

P

A

A

(3) 1

Tn P

Q

A

A

(4) T P

Q

A

A

89. The current through an ideal PN-junction shown

in the following circuit diagram will be

(1) Zero

(2) 1 mA

(3) 10 mA

(4) 30 mA

90. A 1000 kHz carrier is modulated with 800 Hz

audio signals. What are the frequencies of first

pair of side bands :

(1) 1000.8 kHz, 999.2 kHz

(2) 999.2 kHz, 998.4 kHz

(3) 1001.6 kHz, 1000.8 kHz

(4) 1000 kHz, 800 Hz

88. P Q (

)

T AP

AQ P , Q

:

(1) T n P

Q

A

A

(2) T n Q

P

A

A

(3) 1

Tn P

Q

A

A

(4) T P

Q

A

A

89. PN-

(1)

(2) 1 mA

(3) 10 mA

(4) 30 mA

90. 1000 kHz 800 Hz

(1) 1000.8 kHz, 999.2 kHz

(2) 999.2 kHz, 998.4 kHz

(3) 1001.6 kHz, 1000.8 kHz

(4) 1000 kHz, 800 Hz

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This section contains 90 multiple choice

questions. Each question has 4 choices (1), (2),

(3) and (4) for its answer, out of which ONLY

ONE is correct.

91. Sympetric speciation is due to :

(1) migration

(2) geographical isolation

(3) reproductive isolation.

(4) isolation

92. Match the column I with column II & identify the

correct option.

Column I Column II

(a) SER (i) 9 + 2 fibrilar

arrangement

(b) RER (ii) 9 + 0 fibrilar

arrangement

(c) Cilia (iii) Phospholipids

synthesis

(d) Centriole (iv) Enzyme

synthesis

a b c d

(1) iv iii i ii

(2) iii ii i iv

(3) i ii iii iv

(4) iii iv i ii

93. Which is correct for the structure of cell wall of

bacteria and fungi

(1) Both are made up of cellulose

(2) Both have mucopeptide

(3) Both are made up of N-acetylglucosamine

(4) None of these

90

4 (1), (2), (3) (4)

91.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

92. I II

– I – II

(a) SER (i) 9+2

(b) RER (ii) 9+0

(c) (iii)

(d) (iv)

a b c d

(1) iv iii i ii

(2) iii ii i iv

(3) i ii iii iv

(4) iii iv i ii

93.

(1)

(2)

(3) –

(4)

PART- C




94. Carrying capacity of a population is determined

by its :

(1) population growth rate

(2) birth rate

(3) death rate

(4) limiting resource

95. This diagram represents

(1) Prophase II (2) metaphase I

(3) metaphase II (4) prophase I

96. The RQ for a resting human adult is

approximately 0.85. If he/she undertakes

violent exercise for 3 to 5

minutes.

(1) RQ will rise

(2) RQ will fall

(3) RQ will remain same

(4) RQ will fall and then rise

97. A few statements regarding sugarcane and

pineapple are given below.

i. Sugarcane is adapted to avoid

photorespiration while pineapple is not.

ii. In both the plants, 4-carbon acid is the first

stable product of photosynthesis.

iii. Both the plants exhibit Kranz anatomy.

iv. In sugarcane, there is spatial separation of

initial CO2 fixation and Calvin cycle, while in

pineapple there is temporal separation of

the two.

The correct statements are

(1) i, ii and iii (2) i, ii and iv

(3) only i and iv (4) only iii and iv

94.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

95.

(1) Prophase II (2) metaphase I

(3) metaphase II (4) prophase I

96. RQ

0.85 3 5

(1) RQ

(2) RQ

(3) RQ

(4) RQ

97.

i.

ii. 4

–

iii.

iv. CO2

(1) i, ii iii (2) i, ii iv

(3) i iv (4) iii iv




98. Under which of the following circumstances, will

there be a temporary shift from non cyclic to

cyclic electron flow during light reaction of

photosynthesis?

(1) Rise in level of NADPH

(2) Absence of PS II

(3) [Chlorophylla]<[Chlorophyll b]

(4) Rise in level of ATP

99. The following figure shows the carbon fixation

reactions during photosynthesis in a typical C4

plant.

C3+CO2

C4

C3

CO2

Which of the following answers indicate the

dominant carbon fixation enzyme in each of the

two cells?

Cell 1 Cell 2

(1) Malate

dehydrogenase

Secrose

synthase

(2) PEP

Carboxylase Rubisco

(3) Rubisco PEP

Carboxylase

(4) Aspartate

aminotransfease

Malate

dehydrogenase

100. Unidirectional flow of water, minerals, some

ogrganic nitrogen and hormones occurs through

(1) Xylem

(2) Phlom

(3) Root

(4) Vacular tissue

98.

(1) NADPH

(2) PS II

(3) [ - a]<[ b]

(4) ATP

99. C4

C3+CO2

C4

C3

CO2

1 2

(1)

(2) PEP

(3) PEP

(4)

100.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)




101. Deficiency symptoms of an element tend to

appear first in young leaves It indicates that the

elements is relatively immobile Which one if the

following element deficiency would show such

symptoms ?

(1) Sulphur (2) Magnesium

(3) Nitrogen (4) Potassium

102. Which of the follownig are likely to be present in

deepest of sea water

(1) Brown algae (2) green algae

(3) Blue green algae (4) Red algae

103. The term synergistic action of hormones refers

to

(1) When two hormones act together but bring

abut opposite effects .

(2)When two hormones act together and

contribute to the same function

(3) When one hormone affects more than one

function.

(4) When many hormones bring about any one

function.

104. During symbiotic N2 fixation in leguminous

plants, high input of energy is required for the

synthesis of ammonia. How many ATP are

required for synthesis of one molecule of NH3 in

this process.

(1) 16 (2) 8

(3) 4 (4) 2

105. The degeneracy of genetic code is

(1) One codon codes for more than one amino

acids

(2) One amino acid is coded by more than one

codons

(3) One codon codes for only one amino acid

(4) None of the above

101.

?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

102.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

103.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

104. N2

ATP

(1) 16 (2) 8

(3) 4 (4) 2

105.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)




106. Given below the following statements (A–E)

(A) In ferns and gymnosperms, gametophyte is

free living.

(B) In liverworts & mosses, direct germination of

spores in to gametophyte occurs

(C) The secondary growth is common in

gymnosperms & dicotplants.

(D) Polysiphonia, Ectocarpus algae show

hapontic life cycle.

How many of above statement are correct.

(1) Three (2) Four

(3) Two (4) one

107. In Guava, the type of phyllotaxy of leaf is

(1) alternate (2) opposite

(3) whorled (4) None of the above

108. Monothecous anther is feature of

(1) China rose (2) Mustard

(3) Sunflower (4) Citrus

109. Glory lily, Groundnut, Indigophora, Tobacco,

Ashwagandha, Tulip, Moong, Smilax, Red

chillie, sunhemp, Aloe, Pea. In above plants,

how many plants bear marginal placentation

(1) 6 (2) 4

(3) 3 (4) 5

110. Which of the following layer of Anther wall has

deposition of -cellulose in radial and tangential

walls and helps in dehiscence of Anther

(1) Epidermis (2) Middle layer

(3) Endothecium (4) Tapetum

111. Pusa shurbha is a variety of -

(1) Cowpea

(2) Cauliflower

(3) Wheat

(4) Rapeseed

106. (A-E)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

107.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

108.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

109. , , , ,

, , , , , ,

(1) 6 (2) 4

(3) 3 (4) 5

110. -

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

111.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)




112. Isogamous condition with flagellated gametes is

found in

(1) Chlamydomonas

(2) Fucus

(3) Volvox

(4) Spirogyra

113. If one parent is carrier & second is affected by

phenylketonuria which is autosomal recessive

disorder. What are the chances of appearance

of this disease in child.

(1) 25% (2) 50%

(3) 75% (4) 0%

114. Which type of forests are found near equator?

(1) Deciduous (2) Tropical'

(3) Coniferous (4) Grasslands

115. Given below the following statements -

(a) In ECORI, the ‘I’ roman number indicates

the order in which the enzymes were

isolated from that strain of bacteria.

(b) Alien piece of DNA can independently

multiply itself in the progeny cells of the

organisms.

(c) In gel electrophoresis, the separated bands

of DNA are cut out from the agarose gel and

extracted from the gel piece that is called

elution.

(d) Genetic modification has increased

efficiency of mineral usage by plants.

How many above statements are correct.

(1) 4 (2) 3

(3) 2 (4) 1

116. Biotic potential refers to :

(1)natural increase of population under optimum

condition

(2) potential of organisms in a biome

(3) number of organisms in a biome

(4) number of organisms in.a population

112.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

113.

(1) 25 % (2) 50 %

(3) 75 % (4) 0 %

114. ?

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

115.

(a) ECORI , ‘I’

(b) DNA

(c) DNA

(d)

(1) 4 (2) 3

(3) 2 (4) 1

116.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)




117. Succession is :

(1) gradual convergent directional and

continuous process

(2) series of biotic communities that appear

gradualy in a baren area

(3) orderly process of community change till

stability

(4) all of the above

118. Which of the following is most dangerous to wild

life?

(1) Over exploitation

(2) Man made forest

(3) Habitat destruction

(4) Introduction of foreign species

119. Which summit/protocol is related to control

emission of green house gases?

(1) Montreal protocol

(2) Beijing protocol

(3) Earth summit held in johannesberg

(4) Kyoto protocol

120.

Select the wrong statement about this graph

(1) The value of 'z' is 0.6 – 1.2 for large

continent / geographical area

(2) It shows species area relationship

(3) The curve 'a' is Rectangular hyperbola

where the slope of 'z' is much steeper

(4)The value of 'z ' is 0.1 - 0.2 for biodiversity

rich zone

117.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

118.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

119.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

120.

(1) 'z'

0.6 – 1.2

(2)

(3) 'a' 'z'

(4) 'z ' 0.1 - 0.2




121. Which of the following statement is wrong.

(1)Outer integument forms tegmen of seed after

fertilization.

(2) Pollen allergy is caused due to pollen of

parthenium.

(3) Vallisneria is submerged rooted hydrophyte

& shows epihydrophily.

(4) Exine of pollen grain is composed of

sporopollenin.

122. Which of the following statements about cilia is

not correct ?

(1) Organised beating of cilia is controlled by

fluxes of Ca2+ across the membrane

(2) Cilia are hair like cellular appandages

(3) Cilia contain an outer ring of nine doublet

microtubules surrounding two singlet

microtubules

(4) Microtubules of cilia are composed of

tubulin.

123. Given below the four statements (a-d)

(a) Predators act as conduit for energy transfer

across trophic levels

(b) Predation, Parasitism & commensalism

share a common feature- the interacting

species live closely together.

(c) Exponential growth model is considered a

more realistic model .

(d) Cuscuta is ectoparasite

Select the correct statement

(1) a,b,c,d (2) a,c,d

(3) a,b,c (4) a,b,d

124. Select the correct option with respect to mitosis

(1) Chromatid separate but remain in the centre

of the cell in anaphase.

(2) Chromatids start moving towards opposite

poles in telophase.

(3) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulurn

are still visible at the end of prophase.

(4) Chromosome move to the spindle equator

and get aligned along equatorial plate in

metaphase

121.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

122.

?

(1)

Ca2+

(2)

(3)

(4)

123. (a-d)

(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(1) a,b,c,d (2) a,c,d

(3) a,b,c (4) a,b,d

124.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)




125. Which of the following is correct set of

micronutrient for plants?

(1) Mg, Si Fe, Cu Ca

(2) Cu, Fe, Zn, B. Mn

(3) Mg, Fe, Zn, B, Mn

(4) Mo. Zn, Cl, Mg, Ca

126. Endosperm of gymnosperm is differ from

endosperm of Angiosperm in

(1) Being triploid tissue

(2) Having no reserve food.

(3) Being haploid & formed before fertilization.

(4) Being diploid as perisperm.

127. In Kranz anatomy, the bundle sheath cells have

(1) Thin walls, many intercellular spaces and no

chloroplasts

(2)Thick walls, no intercellular spaces and large

number of chloroplasts

(3) Thin walls, no intercellular spaces and

several chloroplasts

(4) Thick walls, many intercellular spaces and

few chloroplasts

128. Which one of the following organelle in the

figure correctly matches with its funtions.

(1) Rough endoplasmic reticulum–Protein

synthesis

(2) Mitochondria–Oxidative phosphorylation

(3) Chloroplast grana–Site of light reaction of

photosynthesis

(4) Golgibody–Formation of cell plate in plant

cell.

125.

(1) Mg, Si Fe, Cu Ca

(2) Cu, Fe, Zn, B. Mn

(3) Mg, Fe, Zn, B, Mn

(4) Mo. Zn, Cl, Mg, Ca

126.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

127. ( )

(1) ,

(2) ,

,

(3)

,

(4)

128.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)




129. The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of

oxidative phosphorylation proposes that

adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is formed

because

(1) A proton gradient forms across the inner

membrane

(2) There is a change in the permeability of the

inner mitochondrial membrane towards

adenosine diphosphate (ADP)

(3) High energy bonds are formed in

mitochondrial proteins

(4) ADP is pumped out of the matrix in to

intermembrane space.

130. Meristematic cells are:

(1) thin walled, less protoplasmic, isodiametric

and nucleated

(2)thin walled, densaly protoplasmic,

isodiametric and nucleated

(3) thick walled, less protoplasmic, isodiametric

and nucleated

(4) thick walled, densaly protoplasmic,

isodiametric and non-nucleated

131. Match the columns I and II

(1) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – e, 4 – c, 5 – d

(2) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b, 4 – e, 5 – d

(3) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a, 4 – e, 5 – d

(4) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – e, 5 – d

132. Environmental protection act came in force in

(1) 1981

(2) 1974

(3) 1986

(4) 1990

129.

(ATP)

(1)

(2) (ADP)

(3)

(4) ADP

130.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

131. I II

(1) 1 – b, 2 – a, 3 – e, 4 – c, 5 – d

(2) 1 – c, 2 – a, 3 – b, 4 – e, 5 – d

(3) 1 – c, 2 – b, 3 – a, 4 – e, 5 – d

(4) 1 – b, 2 – c, 3 – a, 4 – e, 5 – d

132.

(1) 1981

(2) 1974

(3) 1986

(4) 1990




133. Predict from the following chart

(1) Character is dominant and carried by

chromosome

(2) Character is carried by Y chromosome

(3) Character is sex linked recessive

(4) Character is autosomal recessive

134. Nutrient mobilization for preventing leaf

abscission is initiated by -

(1) Gibberellin (2) Ethylene

(3) Cytokinin (4) ABA

135. In Grasshopper, rosy body colour is caused by

a recessive mutation. The wild -type body

colour is green. If the gene for body colour is

on the X-chromosome, what kind of progeny

would be obtained from a mating between a

rosy female and a wild -type male

(1) All the daughters will be green and all the

sons will be rosy

(2) 50% daughters will be green and 50% sons

will be rosy

(3) All offspring will be green irrespective of sex

(4) All offspering will be rosy irrespective of sex

136. Probiotics are -

(1) cancer inducing microbes

(2) new kind of food allergens

(3) live microbial food supplement

(4) safe antibiotics.

137. The Finches of Galapagos islands provide an

evidence in favour of

(1) Evolution due to mutation

(2) Retrogressive evolution

(3) Biogeographical evolution

(4) Special creation

133.

(1)

(2) Y

(3)

(4)

134.

(1) (2)

(3) (4) ABA

135.

X-

(1)

(2) 50% 50%

(3)

(4)

136.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

137.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)




138. In human body, which one of the following is

anatomically correct?

(1) Collar bones - 3 pairs

(2) Salivary glands - 1 pair

(3) Cranial nerves - 10 pairs

(4) Floating ribs - 2 pairs

139. Which one of the following statement is correct

(1) Patients who have undergone surgery are

given cannabinoids to relieve pain

(2) Benign tumours show the property of

metastasis

(3) Heroin accelerates body functions

(4) Malignant tumours may exhibit metastasis

140. Biologically, marriage is prohibited between.

(1) Rh+ boy and Rh+ girl

(2) Rh+ boy and Rh– girl

(3) Rh– boy and Rh– girl

(4) Rh– boy and Rh+ girl

141. Which one of the following statements is

incorrect about menstruation?

(1) at menopause in the female, there is

especially abrupt increase in gonadotropic

hormones

(2) the beginning of the cycle of menstruation is

called menarche

(3) during normal menstruation about 40 ml

blood is lost

(4) the menstural fluid can easily clot

138.

(1) - 3

(2) - 1

(3) - 10

(4) - 2

139.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

140.

(1) Rh+ Rh+

(2) Rh+ Rh–

(3) Rh – Rh –

(4) Rh– Rh+

141.

(1)

(2)

(3) 40 ml

(4)




142. Which one of the following groups of three

animals each is correctly matched with their one

characteristic

morphological feature?

Animals Morphological features

(1) Scorpion, Spider, - ventral solid central

Cockroach nervous system

(2) Cockroach, Locust, - metameric

Taenia segmentation

(3) Liver fluke, Sea - bilateral symmetry

Anemone, Sea Cucumber

(4) Centipede, Prawn, - jointed appendages

Sea Urchin

143. Ravi, who lived at sea level, had around 5

million RBC per cubic millimeter of his blood.

Later when he lived at an altitude of 18,000 ft,

showed around 8 million RBC per cubic

millimeter of blood. This is an adaptation

because

(1) At high altitude he ate more nutritive food

(2) He had pollution free air to balance breathe

(3) At high altitude O2 level is less hence more

RBCs were required to absorb enough

oxygen

(4) At high altitude there is more UV radiation

which enhances RBCs production

144. The figure below given is angiogram of the

coronary blood vessel. Which one of the

following statements correctly descriebs, what

is being done :

(1) It is coronary artery which has a cancerous

growth that is being removed

(2) It is coronary artery which is blocked by a

plaque and the same is being cracked

(3) It is coronary vein in which the defective

valves are being opened

(4) It is coronary vein blocked by a parasite

(blood fluke) That is being removed

142.

(1) -

(2) -

(3) -

(4) -

143. , ,

5 RBC

18,000 ft ,

8 RBC

,

(1)

(2)

(3) O2

RBCs

(4) UV

RBCs

144.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)




145. Which one of the following is an example of

Hemichordata-

(a) Balanoglossus (b) Cephalodiscus

(c) Herdmania (d) Ciona

(1) (a) and (b) (2) (b) and (c)

(3) (c) and (d) (4) All of these

146. What will happen if the stretch receptors of the

urinary bladder wall are totally removed?

(1) micturition will continue

(2) urine will continue to collect normally in the

bladder

(3) there will be no micturition

(4) urine will not collect in the bladder

147. Which one of the following statements is true

regarding digestion and absorption of food in

humans?

(1)fructose and amino acids are absorbed

through intestinal mucosa with the help of

carrier ions like Na+

(2) chylomicrons are small lipoprotein particles

that are transported from intestine into blood

capillaries

(3) about 60% of starch is hydrolysed by

salivary amylase in our mouth

(4) oxyntic cells in our stomach secrete the

proenzyme pepsinogen

148. If due to some injury the chordae tendinae of

the tricuspid valve of the human heart is

partially non-functional, what will be the

immediate effect

(1) The pacemaker will stop working

(2) The blood will tend to flow into the left atrium

(3) The flow of blood into the pulmonary artery

will be reduced

(4) The flow of blood into the aorta will be

slowed down

145.

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(1) (a) (b) (2) (b) (c)

(3) (c) (d) (4)

146.

(stretch receptors)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

147.

-

(1)

Na+

(2)

(3) 60%

(4)

148.

(1)

(2) ( )

(3)

(4)




149. If for some reason our goblet cells are non-

functional, this will adversely affect

(1) secretion of sebum from the sebaceous

glands

(2) maturation of sperms

(3) smooth movement of food down the

intestine

(4) production of somatostatin

150. It is a diagram of the bones of the human left

hindlimb as seen from front. It has certain

mistakes in labeling. Two of the wrongly

labelled bones are -

(1) Tibia and Tarsals

(2) Femur and Fibula

(3) Fibula and Phalanges

(4) Tarslas and Femur

151. Which of the following is correct

(1) Water reabsorption in descending limb of

loop and collecting duct occur under similar

conditions

(2) Sodium reabsorption in ascending limb of

loop and collecting duct occur under similar

conditions.

(3) Water reabsorption in descending limb of

loop and collecting duct occur under

different conditions.

(4) Water reabsorption in descending limb and

sodium reabsorption in ascending limb of

loop occur under similar condition.

149. ( )

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

150.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

151.

(1)

(2) Na+

(3)

(4)

Na+




152. Consider the following statements about

biomedical technologies :

(a) During open heart surgery blood is

circulated in the heart-lung machine

(b) Blockage in coronary arteries is removed by

angiography

(c) Computerised Axial Tomography (CAT)

shown detailed internal structure as seen in

a section of body

(d) X-ray provides clear and detailed images of

organs like prostate glands and lungs

(1) c and d (2) a and c

(3) a and b (4) b and d

153. In curve of enzyme catalyzed reaction,

the value of velocity of enzyme reaction

at point A will be

Vmax

A

KM (S)

Velo

city o

f re

action

(V

)

(1) 2

1Vmax and velocity may increase

by increasing tempreture

(2) 2

1 Vmax and velocity may increase

by increasing substrate

(3) 2

1 Vmax and velocity may increase

by increasing by catalyst

(4) 2

1 Vmax and velocity remain

constant even changing any factor in

to the medium.

152.

(a)

(b)

(c) (CAT)

(d) X-

(1) c d (2) a c

(3) a b (4) b d

153.

A

Vmax

A

KM (S)

Velo

city o

f re

action

(V

)

(1) 2

1Vmax

(2) 2

1Vmax

(3) 2

1 Vmax

(4) 2

1 Vmax




154. The correct sequense of meninges of brain from

outside to inside is-

(1) duramater arachnoid Piamater

(2) Arachnoid duramater Piamater

(3) Piamater duramater Arachnoid

(4) duramater Piamater Arachnoid

155. Given below is the ECG of a normal human.

Which one of its components is correctly

interpreted below?

P

R

Q S T

(1) Complex QRS-One complete Pulse

(2) Peak T-Initiation of total cardiac contraction

(3) Peak P and Peak R together - systolic and

diastolic blood pressures

(4) Peak P-Initiation of left atrial contraction only

156. Three of the following pairs of the human skeletal parts

are correctly matched with their respective skeletal

category and one pair is not matched. Identify the non-

matching pair.

Pairs of skeletal parts Category

(1) Sternum and Ribs Axial skeleton

(2) Clavicle and Glenoid Cavity Pelvic girdle

(3) Humerus and ulnaAppendicular

skeleton

(4) Malleus and stapes Ear ossicles

154.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

155. ECG

-

P

R

Q S T

(1) QRS-

(2) T-

(3) P R -

(4) P-

156.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)




157. Here is an internal structure of

reproductive organ showing a continous

events of its reproductive function.

Choose the correct option, regarding

event and the part or structure indicated

by A, B, C, D, E, F.

(1)A-Primary folicle, B-Graffian folicle, C-

Ovulation and S. oocyte.

D–Corpus luteum, E-Corpus

albicance, F-Premordial folicle.

(2) F-Ovum, A-Secondary folicle,

B-Graffian folicle, C-Ovulation,

D-Corpusluteum,E-Corpus albicance.

(3) A-Primary folicle,B-Theca of graffian

folicle, C-Ovum, D-Corpus luteum,

E- Corpus albicance, F-oogonia

(4) A-oogonia,B-Theca of graffian folicle,

C-Ovum, D-Corpus luteum, E-Corpus

albicance, F-Primary folicle

157.

A, B, C, D, E, F

(1) A- , B-

, C-

D- , E- , F-

(2) F- , A- , B- ,

C- , D- , E-

(3) A- , B-

, C- , D- , E-

, F-

(4) A - , B- ,

C- , D- , E-

,-




158. The diagram represent Miller's

experiment. Choose the correct

combination of labell ing.

(1) A - Electrodes

B - NH3 + H2 + H2O+CH4

C - Cold water

D-Vacuum

E- U tube

(2) A - Electrodes

B - NH4 + H2 +CO2 +CH3

C-Hotwater

D- Vacuum

E- U tube

(3) A - Electrodes

B-NH3+H2O

C-Steam

D-O2

E-U tube

(4) A-Electrodes

B-NH3+H2

C-Steam

D-Vacuum

E-U tube

159. In human beings vestigial organs are

(1) Wisdom tooth, coccyx, nail, eye lid and

vermiform appendix

(2) Wisdom tooth, coccyx, vermiform appendix,

pancreas and elbow joint

(3) Wisdom tooth, coccyx, vermiform appendix,

nictitating membrane and auricular muscles

(4) Coccyx, wisdom tooth, nail, auricular

muscles

158.

(1) A -

B - NH3 + H2 + H2O+CH4

C -

D-

E- U

(2) A -

B - NH4 + H2 +CO2 +CH3

C-

D-

E- U-

(3) A -

B-NH3+H2O

C-

D-O2

E- U

(4) A -

B-NH3 +H2

C-

D-

E-U

159.

(1) (coccyx),

(vermiform appendix)

(2) (coccyx),

(vermiform appendix),

(3) (coccyx),

(vermiform appendix),

(nictitating membrane)

(4) (Coccyx), (wisdom tooth),

(nail), (auricular muscles)




160. The cross-section of the body of an invertebrate

is given below. Identify the animal, which has

this body plan.

(1) Cockroach

(2) Roundworm

(3) Planaria

(4) Earthworm

161. Match the following columns and select

the correct option.

Column I Column II

A. Euplectella i. Sea pen

B. Physalia i i. Pinworm

C. Pennatula i ii . Venus flower

basket

D. Enterobius iv. Midwife toad

E. Alytes v. Portuguese

man of war

A B C D E

(1) v, iv, i ii , i i, i

(2) v, i ii , iv, i i, i

(3) iv, v, i, i i, i ii

(4) i ii , v, i, i i, iv

162. The location of blood glands in

Pheretima is

(1) 4t h

, 5 th and 6t h

segments

(2) l0t h

to 20t h

segments

(3) 26t h

to the last segments

(4) 13t h

segment

160.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

161.

I I I

A. i.

B. ii.

C. iii.

D. iv.

E. v.

A B C D E

(1) v, iv, i ii , i i, i

(2) v, i ii , iv, i i, i

(3) iv, v, i, i i, i ii

(4) i ii , v, i, i i, iv

162.

(1) 4 , 5 6

(2) 10 20

(3) 26

(4) 13




163. In the pelvic girdle of man A, B, C, D and

E respectively represent.

(1) A-pubis B-acetabulum

C-il ium D-ischium

E-pubic symphysis

(2) A-il ium B-acetabulum

C-pubis D-ischium

E-pubic symphysis

(3) A-ischium B-acetabulum

C-pubis D-il ium

E-pubic symphysis

(4) A-il ium B-pubis

C-acetabulum D-pubic

symphysis

E-ischium

164. One of the alternatives below defines the layers

of the retina in the correct sequence. Which one

incorrect? (Note : The first layer in each

sequence is supposed to be located next to the

jelly like vitreous humor that fills the eyeball .

(1) Pigmented cells-bipolar cells-ganglion cells-

photoreceptors

(2) Photoreceptors-pigmented cells-ganglion

cells-bipolar cells

(3) Ganglion cells-bipolar cells-photoreceptors-

pigmented cells

(4) photoreceptors-bipolar cells-ganglion cells-

pigmented cells

163. A, B, C, D E

(1) A- B-

C- D-

E-

(2) A- B-

C- D-

E-

(3) A- B-

C- D-

E-

(4) A- B-

C- D-

E-

164.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)




165. About 98 percent of the mass of every living

organism is composed of just six elements

including carbone, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen

and

(1) Phosphorus and sulphur

(2) Sulphur and magnesium

(3) magnesium and sodium

(4) Calcium and phosphorus

166.

(A) (B) (C)

Which is essential amino acid from above

amino acid

(1) (A)

(2) (B)

(3) (C)

(4) None of these

167. Respiration involving following steps

A. Diffusion of gases O2 and CO2 across

alveolar membrane

B. Transport of gases by blood

C. Utilization of O2 by cell for catabolic

reactions and resultant release of CO2

D. Pulmonary ventilation by which atmospheric

air is drawn in and CO2 rich alveolar air is

released out

E. Diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and

tissues

The correct sequence of steps is

(1) A B E CD

(2) E D C B A

(3) C E B A D

(4) C B E A D

165. 98 (mass)

, ,

,

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

166.

(A) (B) (C)

(1) (A)

(2) (B)

(3) (C)

(4)

167.

A. O2, CO

2

B.

C. O2

CO2

D.

CO2

E. O2 CO

2

(1) A B E CD

(2) E D C B A

(3) C E B A D

(4) C B E A D




168. Arrange the following in order of increasing

volume

1. Tidal volume

2. Residual volume

3. Expiratory reserve volume

4. Vital capacity

(1) 1 < 2 < 3 < 4 (2) 1 < 4 < 3 < 2

(3) 1 < 3 < 2 < 4 (4) 1 < 4 < 2 < 3

169. The below diagram is a duct system of liver, gall

bladder and pancreas. Write the names of ducts

from A to D-

Gall bladder

Ductsfrom liver

Pancreas

C

D

Duodenum

B

A

(1) A - Cystic duct, B - Bile duct, C - Pancreatic

duct, D - Hepato-pancreatic duct

(2) A -Bile duct, B - Cystic duct, C - Pancreatic

duct, D - Hepato-paricreatic duct

(3) A - Cystic duct, B - Bile duct, C - Hepato-

pancreatic duct, D - Pancreatic duct.

(4) A -Cystic duct, B - Pancreatic duct, C - Bile

duct, D - Hepato-pancreatic duct

170. Which of the following statement is incorrect -

(1) Every 100 ml of oxygenated blood can

deliver around 5 ml of O2 to the tissues

under normal physiological conditions

(2) Minute quantities of carbonic anhydrase is

present in the plasma too

(3) Chemosensitive area is situated adjacent to

the rhythm centre which is highly sensitive to

CO2 and hydrogen ions

(4)The role of oxygen in the regulation of

respiratory rhythm is quite significant

168.

1.

2.

3.

4.

(1) 1 < 2 < 3 < 4 (2) 1 < 4 < 3 < 2

(3) 1 < 3 < 2 < 4 (4) 1 < 4 < 2 < 3

169.

A D

Gall bladder

Ductsfrom liver

Pancreas

C

D

Duodenum

B

A

(1) A - , B - ,

C - , D -

(2) A - , B - , C -

, D -

(3) A - , B - ,

C - , D -

(4) A - , B - , C -

, D -

170. -

(1) 100 ml

5 ml O2

(2)

(3)

CO2

(4)




171. Read the following four statements (A-D) :

(A) Colostrum is recommended for the new born

because it is rich in antigens.

(B) Chikengunya is caused by a Gram negative

bacterium.

(C) Tissue culture has proved useful in obtaining

virus-free plants.

(D) Beer is manufactured by distillation of

fermented grape juice.

How many of the above statements are wrong?

(1) Two (2) Three

(3) Four (4) One

172. Menstrual cycle is controlled by -

(1) Estrogen and progesterone of ovary

(2) FSH and LH of pituitary

(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4) Only FSH of pituitary

173. Match the excretory functions of section l with

the part of the excretory system in section ll.

Choose the correct combination from among

the answers given.

Section l Section ll

(i) Ultra filtration (A) Henle’s loop

(ii) Concentration of urine (B) Ureter

(iii) Transport of urine (C) urinary bladder

(iv) Storage of urine (D) Malpighian

corpuscles.

(E) Proximal

convoluted tubule.

(1) (i) - D, (ii) - A, (iii) - B, (iv) - C

(2) (i) - D, (ii) - C, (iii) - B, (iv) - A

(3) (i) - E, (ii) - D, (iii) - A, (iv) - C

(4) (i) - E, (ii) - D, (iii) - A, (iv) - B

174. Which of the following statements are wrong ?

(i) Leucocytes disintegrate in the spleen and the

liver.

(ii) RBC, WBC and blood platelets are produced

by bone marrow

(iii) Neutrophils bring about destruction and

detoxification of toxin of protein origin

(iv) The important function of lymphocytes is to

produce antibodies.

(1) (i) and (ii) only (2) (i) and (iv) only

(3) (i) and (iii) only (4) (ii) and (iv) only.

171. (A-D)

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

172.

(1)

(2) FSH LH

(3) (1) (2)

(4) FSH

173. I II

l ll

(i) (A)

(ii) (B)

(iii) (C)

(iv) (D)

(E)

(1) (i) - D, (ii) - A, (iii) - B, (iv) - C

(2) (i) - D, (ii) - C, (iii) - B, (iv) - A

(3) (i) - E, (ii) - D, (iii) - A, (iv) - C

(4) (i) - E, (ii) - D, (iii) - A, (iv) - B

174.

(i)

(ii) RBC, WBC

(iii)

(iv)

(1) (i) (ii) (2) (i) (iv)

(3) (i) (iii) (4) (ii) (iv)




175. Choose correct statement about cockroach -

(i) If the head of cockroach cut off, it will live for

as long as one week.

(ii) mosaic vision has less sensitivity and more

resolution

(iii) anal style and anal cerci both present in

female cockroach.

(iv) number of malphigian tubules are 100-150

(v) 6 chitinous teeth are present in gizzard.

(1) only (ii)

(2) only (iii)

(3) only (i), (iv) and (v)

(4) only (vi)

176. Myxoedema is due to-

(1) Decreased production of thyroxin

(2) Increased production of thyroxin

(3) Excess GH

(4) Decreased insulin

177. An endocrine gland known as 'gland of

emergency' is :

(1) pituitary gland (2) parathyroid gland

(3) adrenal gland (4) pancreas

178. Which one of the following pair is incorrectly

matched

(1) Somatostatin - Delta cells (Source)

(2) Corpusluteum - Relaxin (secretion)

(3) Insulin - Diabetes mellitus (disease)

(4) Glucagon - Beta cells (source)

179. Role of bone-marrow in mammals is

(1) To assist kidneys

(2) To act as haemopoietic tissue

(3) To assist liver

(4) To control blood pressure

180. Haemodialysis is done in the condition when

person is suffering from :

(1) Diabetes (2) Uremia

(3) Anaemia (4) Goitre

175.

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv) 100-150

(v) 6

(1) (ii)

(2) (iii)

(3) (i), (iv) (v)

(4) (vi)

176.

(1)

(2)

(3) (GH)

(4)

177.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

178.

(1) - ( )

(2) - ( )

(3) - ( )

(4) - ( )

179.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

180.

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

full syllabus test-6 (fst-6) pattern - … · do not scribble, smudge, cut, tear, or wrinkle the...

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