MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

GENERAL ENGINEERING

AND APPLIED SCIENCES By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

THERMODYNAMICS General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

1. Thermodynamics is the study of heat and its transformation which stems from Greek

words meaning _________.

a. transformation of heat

b. transformation of energy

c. movement of heat

d. movement of matter

2. What is the Si unit for temperature?

a. Kelvin

b. Celsius

c. Fahrenheit

d. Rankine

3. The energy that flows from higher temperature object to a lower temperature object

because of the difference in temperature is called

a. heat

b. temperature

c. thermodynamics cycle

d. energy flow

4. The amount of heat energy per kilogram that must be added or removed when a

substance changes from one phase to another.

a. specific heat

b. heat of expansion

c. latent heat

d. useful heat

5. The change in physical size of a substance when its temperature changes.

a. intensive property

b. extensive property

c. volume expansion

d. thermal expansion

6. A stress which develops within an object when it attempts to expand or contract in

response to a temperature changes, but cannot, due to being held rigidly in place.

a. elongation

b. thermal stress

c. expansion contraction

d. thermal expansion

7. The energy associated with individual molecules in a gas, liquid or solid.

a. Specific Energy

b. Molecular Energy

c. Internal Energy

d. Phase Energy

8. The heat Q per unit mass per degree change in temperature that must be supplied or

removed to change the temperature of a substance.

a. Specific Heat Capacity

b. Latent Heat

c. Heat of Transformation

d. Internal Heat

9. The pressure of the vapor phase of a substance that is in equilibrium with the liquid or

solid phase.

a. Phase Pressure

b. Equilibrium Vapor Pressure

c. Specific Pressure

d. Equilibrium Phase Pressure

10. Vapor pressure depends only on _________.

a. pressure

b. force

c. volume

d. temperature

11. A plot of pressure vs. temperature for a given substance showing the various phases

possible for that particular substance.

a. Phase diagram

b. P-T diagram

c. Wein Diagram

d. Histogram

12. _________ is the grand total of all energies inside a substance.

a. Internal Energy

b. Grand Energy

c. Atomic Energy

d. Elemental Energy

13. The _________ is defined as the amount of heat required to change the temperature of 1

gram of water by 1 Celsius degree.

a. specific heat

b. latent heat

c. Joule

d. calorie

14. _________ is a measure of the average kinetic energy per molecule in a substance.

a. movement

b. temperature

c. heat

d. mass

15. _________ the very small KE still present in molecules at absolute zero temperature.

a. internal KE

b. Atomic kinetic energy

c. Zero-Point Energy

d. Subliminal Energy

16. Convert the change of temperature from 20˚C to 30˚C to Kelvin scale.

a. 10 K

b. 293 K

c. 303 K

d. 273 K

17. _________ is a thermodynamic potential which measures the “useful” work obtainable

from a closed thermodynamic system at a constant temperature and volume.

a. useful work

b. energy consumed

c. Helmholtz free energy

d. Kinetic Energy

18. How much will the length of a 1.0 km section of concrete highway change if the

temperature varies from -15˚C in winter to 41˚C in summer?

a. 0.67 m

b. 2.2 m

c. 3.1 m

d. 0.47 m

19. Two 12 ft sections of aluminium siding are placed end to end on the outside wall of

house. How large a gap should be left between the pieces to prevent buckling if the

temperature can change by 55˚C?

a. 0.21 m

b. 0.18 m

c. 0.31 in

d. 0.18 in

20. What is the amount of radiant energy received each second over each square meter that is

at right angles to the sun’s rays at the top of the atmosphere?

a. 1400 J

b. 6000 J

c. 10000 J

d. 800 J

21. _________ is a thermodynamic potential that measures the “useful” or process-initiating

work obtainable from an isothermal, isobaric thermodynamic system.

a. Du-Pont Potential

b. Gibbs free energy

c. Rabz-Eccles Energy

d. Claussius Energy

22. All the energy we consume ultimately becomes _________.

a. heat

b. depleted

c. exhausted

d. work

23. _________is the partial pressure of water vapor at the existing temperature divided by the

equilibrium vapor pressure of water at the existing temperature.

a. vacuum pressure

b. relative humidity

c. absolute pressure

d. vapor pressure

24. _________ is the transition of a given substance from the solid to the gas phase with no

intermediate liquid stage.

a. Convection

b. Conduction

c. Radiation

d. Sublimation

25. A process in which heat energy is transferred by the flow of fluid.

a. Convection

b. Conduction

c. Radiation

d. Sublimation

26. In order to use a substance to make a thermometer the substance must _________ with a

temperature change.

a. expand

b. contract

c. change

d. increase

27. For most solids, the coefficient of volume expansion is _________ the coefficient of

linear expansion.

a. unrelated to

b. proportional to

c. twice

d. three times

28. The volume of a given amount of water _________ as the temperature decreases from

4˚C to 0˚C.

a. decreases

b. increases

c. remains constant

d. none of the above

29. The gas in a constant gas thermometer cooled to absolute zero would have _________.

a. no volume

b. no pressure

c. zero temperature at all scales

d. none of the above

30. On a day when the partial pressure of water vapor remains constant, what happens as the

temperature rises?

a. the relative humidity increases

b. the relative humidity decreases

c. the relative humidity remains constant

d. the air would eventually become saturated

31. The flow of a fluid when heat is transferred by convection.

a. placidity

b. mass flow

c. convection current

d. heat transfer

32. An idealized perfect absorber and perfect emitter of radiation.

a. elastic material

b. transponder material

c. Teflon

d. blackbody

33. A process by which heat is transferred through a material without a bulk movement of the

material.

a. Convection

b. Conduction

c. Radiation

d. Emission

34. Is the amount of a substance that contains Avogadro’s number of atoms/molecules.

a. mass

b. matter

c. gram-mole

d. volume

35. The distribution of particle speeds in an ideal gas at a given temperature.

a. velocity of propagation

b. escape velocity

c. Maxwell speed Distribution

d. terminal velocity

36. A convection process in which an external device, such as a fan, is used to produce the

fluid flow.

a. Forced Convection

b. External Convection

c. Placid Convection

d. Thermionic Convection

37. A _________ is a quantity whose value at any state is independent of the path or process

used to reach that state.

a. cycle

b. path function

c. point function

d. process

38. A _________ is a quantity whose value depends on the path followed during a particular

change in state.

a. path function

b. point function

c. process

d. cycle

39. The contact surface shared by both the system and the surroundings is called _________.

a. wall

b. boundary

c. interface

d. intersection

40. A closed system is also known as _________.

a. isolated system

b. closed container

c. control mass

d. control volume

41. Open system is also known as _________.

a. isolated system

b. closed container

c. control mass

d. control volume

42. Liquid hydrogen boils at 17K. What is the temperature in degrees Celsius?

a. 290

b. 63

c. -120

d. -256

43. When a solid melts,

a. the temperature of the substance increases.

b. the temperature of the substance decreases.

c. heat leaves the substance.

d. heat enters the substance.

44. How many kilocalories of heat are required to heat 750 g of water from 35˚C to 55˚C.

a. 15

b. 1500

c. 1.5 x 10^4

d. 6.3 x 10^4

45. Which of the following does not determine the amount of internal energy an object has?

a. temperature

b. amount of material

c. type of material

d. shape of the object

46. Which of the following have the highest thermal conductivities?

a. liquids

b. gases

c. metals

d. solids other than metals

47. Identical objects of four different materials are heated to the same high temperature.

Which of the following would least likely burn your hand if touched?

a. aluminium

b. brass

c. glass

d. concrete

48. As we heat a gas at constant pressure, its volume

a. increases

b. decreases

c. stays the same

d. none of the above

49. The volume of an ideal gas is directly proportional to its

a. pressure

b. Celsius temperature

c. Kelvin temperature

d. Fahrenheit temperature

50. An ideal gas is maintained at constant temperature. If the pressure on the gas is doubled,

the volume is

a. increased fourfold

b. doubled

c. reduced by half

d. decreased by a quarter

51. If the Kelvin temperature of an ideal gas is doubled, what happens to the rms speed of the

molecules in the gas?

a. it increases by a factor of square root of 2

b. it increases by a factor of 2

c. it increases by factor of 4

d. none of the above

52. A function of state that is associated with disorder in the system and environment.

a. enthalpy

b. entropy

c. law of diminishing return

d. Lenz’ Law

53. No volume changes occur during this type of process

a. Isobaric process

b. Isomillimetric process

c. Isocaloric process

d. Isochoric process

54. The boiling of water into steam in an open container is an example of a/an _________

process.

a. adiabatic

b. isochoric

c. isobaric

d. zero work

55. When liquid water is converted to steam at 100˚C, the entropy of water

a. increases

b. decreases

c. remains the same

d. none of the above

56. Only energy can cross the boundaries.

a. Closed system

b. Open system

c. Isolated system

d. Isoenergetic system

57. The temperature at which the vapor pressure exactly equals one atm is called _________.

a. boiling temperature

b. normal boiling point

c. triple point

d. point of infliction

58. Mixture of liquid and steam of the same substance in which both are at saturation

temperature.

a. dry steam

b. current steam

c. wet steam

d. aerosol

59. The term _________ is traditionally used to describe steam issuing from condensate

receiver vents and open-ended condensate discharge lines from steam traps.

a. dry steam

b. wet steam

c. phase steam

d. flash steam

60. Defined as the ratio of weight of dry steam to the weight of stuff.

a. dryness fraction

b. Vaporization

c. fusion

d. super heated steam

61. What device measures infrared radiation below?

a. thermocouple

b. thermopile

c. thermodynamic device

d. thermos

62. When an object undergoes thermal expansion,

a. any holes in the object expand as well

b. any holes in the object remain the same

c. mass increases

d. molecular activities would cease

63. _________ is the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of one pound of water

1 F˚ from 63 ˚F to 64 ˚F.

a. one Joule

b. one calorie

c. one watt

d. one BTU

64. Boiling temperature of a material is dependent on its _________.

a. volume

b. power

c. heat

d. pressure

65. Thermos was invented by _________.

a. Sir Arthur Conan Doyle

b. Sir Fredrich the Great

c. Thomas Edison

d. Sir James Dewar

66. Most cooking activities involve _________ process.

a. Isochoric

b. Isothermal

c. Isobaric

d. Isovolumic

67. Adiabatic heating and Adiabatic cooling really means _________ and _________

respectively.

a. raising the temp and lowering the temp

b. maintaining the pressure and changing the temperature

c. decreasing the volume and increasing the pressure

d. lowering the temp and raising the temp

68. The statement “heat cannot by itself flow from one body into a hotter body” is governed

by _________.

a. the first law of thermodynamics

b. the second law of thermodynamics

c. the third law of thermodynamics

d. the zeroth law of thermodynamics

69. It is impossible for any process to have as its sole result the transfer of heat from a cooler

to a hotter body

a. Carnot’s statement

b. Clausius statement

c. Rankine statement

d. Gauss statement

70. _________ is the average distance a molecule moves before colliding with another

molecule.

a. mean free path

b. path allowance

c. compacting factor

d. molecular space

71. Find the pressure due to a column of mercury 74.0 cm high.

a. 91.80 x 10^3 N/m^2

b. 73.56 x 10^2 N/m^2

c. 9.86 x 10^4 N/m^2

d. 87.2 x 10^4 N/m^2

72. Roughly what is the total weight of air in the entire earth?

a. 1 x 10^5 tons

b. 2 x 10^6 tons

c. 6 x 10^15 tons

d. 8 x 10^10 tons

73. _________ is defined as that equivalent to the pressure due to a column of mercury 76cm

long.

a. surface pressure

b. gage pressure

c. standard atmospheric pressure

d. isobaric pressure

74. If any external pressure is applied to a confined fluid, the pressure will be increased at

every point in the fluid by the amount of the external pressure is known as _________.

a. Torricelli’s law

b. Barometric law

c. Newton’s Second law

d. Pascal’s law

75. What type of pressure cannot be used for Boyle’s Law?

a. Atmospheric Pressure

b. Gauge Pressure

c. Surface Pressure

d. Isobaric Pressure

76. To displace a cubic foot of fresh water, you need _________ force.

a. 62.4 lb

b. 9.81 lb

c. 76 lb

d. 760 lb

77. The force per unit length across such a line in the surface is called _________.

a. force per length

b. surface tension

c. Pressure

d. Density

78. The speed at which a liquid escapes from a vessel through an orifice is given by

_________.

a. Archimedes Principle

b. Evangelista’s Law

c. Torricelli’s Theorem

d. Bernoulli’s Equation

79. The process of one substance mixing with another because of molecular motion is called

_________.

a. diffusion

b. viscosity

c. streamline flow

d. solution

80. When was the Ninth General Conference on Weights and Measures decided to abandon

centigrade and used Celsius Instead?

a. 1950

b. 1936

c. 1957

d. 1948

81. _________ is the temperature to which the air must be cooled, at constant pressure, to

produce saturation.

a. relative humidity

b. triple point temperature

c. dew point

d. critical point

82. _________ is a succession of changes that ends with the return of the body or system to

its initial state.

a. process

b. system

c. equilibrium

d. cycle

83. Intensive properties of a system are called _________.

a. Bulk Properties

b. Innate Properties

c. Natural Properties

d. Inside Properties

84. In thermodynamics, a throttling process, also called a _________, is a type of isenthalpic

process where a liquid or gas is cooled as it passes from a higher pressure state to a lower

pressure state.

a. Rankine Process

b. Carnot Cycle

c. Joule-Thomson process

d. Refrigeration process

85. Gasoline and Diesel Engines are best described by the _________.

a. Otto Cycle

b. Burnign Cycle

c. Shikki Cycle

d. Shapa R’ Elli Cycle

86. Twenty grams of ice at 0˚C melts to water at 0˚C. How much does the entropy of the 20g

change in this process?

a. 30.5 J/K

b. 24.6 J/K

c. 21.3 J/K

d. 15.7 J/K

87. The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following principles?

a. conservation of mass

b. the enthalpy-entropy relationship

c. action – reaction

d. conservation of energy

88. If a system absorbs 500 cal of heat at the same time does 400J of work, find the change in

internal energy of the system.

a. 1400 J

b. 1700 J

c. 1900 J

d. 1500 J

89. A gas is enclosed in a cylinder with a weighted piston as the top boundary. The gas is

heated and expands from a volume of 0.04 m3 to 0.10 m3 at a constant pressure of 200

kPa. Find the work done on the system.

a. 5 kJ

b. 15 kJ

c. 10 kJ

d. 12 kJ

90. A simple steam engine receives steam from the boiler at 180˚C and exhausts directly into

the air at 100˚C. What is the upper limit of its efficiency?

a. 11.28 %

b. 36.77 %

c. 20.36 %

d. 17.66 %

91. Heat which causes a change in temperature of a substance.

a. Latent heat

b. Sensible heat

c. Specific heat

d. Heat of Fusion

92. Who coined the term latent heat?

a. John Thompson

b. Studey Baker

c. Joe di Maggio

d. Joseph Black

93. Which of the following cannot be measured by a thermometer?

a. Latent Heat

b. Sensible Heat

c. Specific Heat

d. Heat of Fusion

94. It is generally accepted as a law of nature that although one may closely approach 0

Kelvin it is impossible actually to reach it.

a. First Law of thermodynamics

b. Second Law of thermodynamics

c. Third Law of thermodynamics

d. Zeroth Law of thermodynamics

95. One calorie is equal to _________.

a. 1/180 W.h

b. 1/860 W.h

c. 1/360 W.h

d. 1/250 W.h

96. A _________ is a reversible process in which there is transfer of heat and takes place

according to the relation pV^n=C where n is any constant.

a. Polytropic process

b. Entropy

c. Ideal Gas Law

d. Carnot Cycle

97. The flow through an open system is _________ if all properties at each point within the

system remain constant with respect to time.

a. streamline flow

b. steady flow

c. constant flow

d. algebraic flow

98. The most efficient cycle that can operate between two constant temperature reservoir is

the _________.

a. Otto Cycle

b. Lazare Cycle

c. Isothermal Cycle

d. Carnot Cycle

99. The flow energy of 150 L of a fluid passing a boundary to a system is 110 kJ. Determine

the pressure at this point

a. 733.33 kPa

b. 833.33 kPa

c. 933.33 kPa

d. 633.33 kPa

100. Who is the father of thermodynamics?

a. Lazare Carnot

b. Sadi Carnot

c. William Thompson

d. Rudolf Classius

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

CHEMISTRY General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

1. An instrument that separates particles of different isotopic composition and measure their

individual relative masses.

A. mass spectrometer

B. barometer

C. hygrometer

D. hydrometer

2. These are compounds containing water molecules loosely bound to the other components.

A. isotope

B. hydrates

C. ion

D. mixture

3. If a more active element replaces a less active one in a compound, the reaction is:

A. combustion reactions

B. replacement reactions

C. metathesis

D. neutralization

4. If a single reactant is transformed by heat or electricity into two or more products, the type of

reaction is

A. decomposition

B. combination

C. displacement

D. double displacement

5. The numerical value for standard pressure of any gas is

A. 76 mm Hg

B. 760 cm Hg

C. 760 mm Hg

D. 7.6 cm Hg

6. Any process extracting the metal in a fused state is called

A. Calcination

B. Roasting

C. Smelting

D. Froth flotation process

7. Which of the following does not change with change in temperature?

A. volume

B. mass

C. pressure

D. density

8. A device used to measure density.

A. manometer

B. hydrometer

C. spectrometer

D. densimeter

9. The statement “mass is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction” is known as:

A. The law of conservation of mass

B. The law of constant composition

C. The law of multiple proportions

D. The law of chemical reaction

10. What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity

difference between atoms is greater than 2.0

A. Ionic Bond

B. Covalent Bond

C. Metallic Bond

D. Chemical Bond

11. What kind of chemical bond will form in binary compounds where the electronegativity

difference between atoms is less than 1.5?

A. Covalent Bond

B. Ionic Bond

C. Metallic Bond

D. Chemical Bond

12. The element which has a mass of about 9 amu is Berylium (Be), atomic number 4. What is

the charge on the Be atom?

A. +4

B. +8

C. -4

D. Neutral

13. The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic number in a Periodic table is

called:

A. period

B. group

C. family

D. row

14. Compounds which contain only carbon and hydrogen are called

A. polymorphs

B. hydrocarbons

C. polycarbon

D. plastics

15. The property of liquid which describes their resistance to flow is called

A. viscosity

B. elasticity

C. glueyness

D. stickiness

16. In oxidation-reduction or redox reactions the component receiving the electrons is called

A. reductant

B. reducing agent

C. oxidant

D. acceptor

17. The mass that enters into a chemical reaction remains the unchanged as a result of the

reaction. In precise form: mass is neither created nor destroyed. This is known as:

A. the law of conservation of mass

B. the law of definite proportion

C. the law of multiple proportion

D. law of conservation of energy

18. When the same elements can form two different two compounds, the ratio of masses of one

of the elements in the two compounds is a small whole number relative to a given mass of the

other element. This is known as:

A. The law of constant composition

B. The law of conservation of mass

C. The law of multiple proportion

D. The law of conservation of energy

19. The ratio of density of the test liquid to the density of a reference Liquid is called:

A. specific gravity

B. relative gravity

C. specific weight

D. relative weight

20. How many electrons are there in a covalent bond?

A. 3

B. 2

C. 4

D. 8

21. The SI unit of temperature is

A. Fahrenheit

B. Kelvin

C. Celsius

D. Rankine

22. The elements that a compound is composed of are present in fixed and precise proportion by

mass. This is known as:

A. the law of constant composition

B. the law of conservation of mass

C. the law of multiple proportion

D. law of conservation of energy

23. The mass to the nearest atomic-mass unit of an atom which contains 9 protons and 10

neutrons.

A. 10 amu

B. 19 amu

C. 15 amu

D. 21 amu

24. The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom is called

A. atomic number

B. percent abundance

C. atomic weight

D. oxidation number

25. The measure of the resistance of an object to a changed in its state of Motion is called

A. momentum

B. mass

C. inertia

D. velocity

26. Refers to the agreement of a particular value with the true value.

A. precision

B. error

C. tolerance

D. accuracy

27. Refers to the degree of arrangement among several measurements of the same quantity.

A. accuracy

B. precision

C. error

D. margin

28. A property of matter that is often used by chemist as an “identification tag” for a substance.

A. mass

B. molarity

C. density

D. volume

29. Protons and neutrons can be broken down further into elementary particles called

A. quarks

B. ions

C. isotope

D. warks

30. The principle of the constant composition of compounds, originally called “Proust’s Law” is

now known as

A. The law of multiple proportion

B. The law of definite proportion

C. The law of conservation of mass

D. The law of compounds

31. The mass of an alpha a particle is how many times more than that of the Electron?

A. 1837 times

B. 7300 times

C. 1829 times

D. 1567 times

32. Atoms with the same number of protons but different number of neutrons are called

A. ions

B. quarks

C. isotopes

D. compounds

33. The forces that hold atoms together are called

A. mechanical bond

B. formula bond

C. atomic bind

D. chemical bond

34. An atom or group of atoms that has a net positive or negative charge is called

A. ion

B. isotope

C. positron

D. polymer

35. A positive ion is called

A. positron

B. anion

C. cation

D. quark

36. A negative ion is called

A. positron

B. anion

C. cation

D. quark

37. The force of attraction between oppositely charged ions is called

A. ionic bonding

B. covalent bonding

C. polar bonding

D. metallic bonding

38. The horizontal arrangement of elements of increasing atomic in a periodic table is called

A. group

B. period

C. series

D. row

39. The vertical arrangement of elements in the periodic table is called

A. period

B. group

C. series

D. column

40. If the number of gas molecule is doubled in a certain volume of a gas the pressure

A. is decreased to half

B. is doubled

C. is increased to four times

D. remains unchanged

41. A symbolic representation to emphasize the valence shell of an atom is called

A. argand diagram

B. constellation diagram

C. electron dot diagram

D. structural formula

42. For which elements do the number of electrons in their outer or valence shell correspond to

their group number?

A. transition group

B. noble gas

C. representative or main group

D. metals

43. What is the maximum number of electrons that can fit into a “p” orbital?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

44. Atoms or ions which have the same electronic configuration

A. isoelectronic

B. isometric

C. iso-ionic

D. isotope

45. Which group of the periodic table is known as the alkali metals?

A. Group 1

B. Group 2

C. Group 3

D. Group 4

46. Which group of the periodic table is known as the halogens?

A. Group 4

B. Group 5

C. Group 6

D. Group 7

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

ENGINEERING

ECONOMICS General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

1. It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want

A. Necessity

B. Utility

C. Luxuries

D. Discount

2. It is the stock that has prior to dividends. It usually does not bring voting right to the

owners and the dividend is fixed and cannot be higher than the specified amount.

A. Common stock

B. Voting stock

C. Pretend stock

D. Non par value stock

3. It is an amount which a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for the property where

each has equal advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell.

A. Book value

B. Market value

C. Use value

D. Fair value

4. ____ is the loss of value of the equipment with use over a period of time. It could mean a

difference in value between a new asset and the use asset currently in a service.

A. Loss

B. Depreciation

C. Extracted

D. Gain

5. An economic condition in which there are so few suppliers of a particular product that

one supplier’s actions significantly affect prices and supply.

A. Oligopoly

B. Monopsony

C. Monopoly

D. Perfect competition

6. A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for when there are no goods

substitute.

A. Monosony

B. Monopoly

C. Oligopoly

D. Oligopsony

7. It is the worth of a property as recorded in the book of an enterprise.

A. Salvage value

B. Price

C. Book value

D. Scrap value

8. Reduction in the level of nation income and output usually accompanied by a fall in the

general price level.

A. Devaluation

B. Deflation

C. Inflation

D. Depreciation

9. A formal organization of producers within industry forming a perfect collusion purposely

formed to increase profit and block new comers from the industry.

A. Cartel

B. Monopoly

C. Corporation

D. Competitors

10. A market situation where there is only one seller with many buyer.

A. Monopoly

B. Monophony

C. Oligopoly

D. Perfect competition

11. A market situation where there is one seller and buyer.

A. Bilateral monopoly

B. Monopoly

C. Oligopoly

D. Bilateral Monopoly

12. Reduction in the level of national income and output usually accompanied by a fall in the

general price level.

A. Deflation

B. Inflation

C. Devaluation

D. Depreciation

13. A series of equal payments made at equal interval of time.

A. Annuity

B. Amortization

C. Depreciation

D. Bonds

14. The money paid for the use of borrowed capital.

A. Interest

B. Amortization

C. Annuity

D. Bonds

15. The place where buyers and sellers come together.

A. Maker

B. Store

C. Bargain center

D. Port

16. The value of the stock as stated on the stocks certificate

A. Stock value

B. Par value

C. Interest

D. Maturity value

17. A market situation in which two competing buyers exert controlling influence over many

sellers.

A. Bilateral monopoly

B. Oligopoly

C. Duopsony

D. Duopoly

18. A market situation in which two powerful groups or organizations dominate commerce in

one business market or commodity.

A. Oligopoly

B. Duopoly

C. Duopsony

D. duopoly

19. The type of annuity where the first payment is made after several periods, after the

beginning of the payment.

A. Perpetuity

B. Ordinary annuity

C. Annuity due

D. Deferred annuity

20. The condition in which the total income equals the total operating expenses.

A. Tally

B. Par value

C. Check and balance

D. Break even

21. The amount which has been spent or capital invested which for some reasons cannot be

retrieved.

A. Sunk cost

B. Fixed costs

C. Depletion cost

D. Construction cost

22. An obligation with no condition attach is called

A. Personal

B. Gratuitous

C. Concealed

D. Private

23. The sum of all the costs necessary to prepare a construction project for operation.

A. Operation costs

B. Construction cost

C. Depletion cost

D. Production cost

24. The amount received from the sale of an addition unit of a product.

A. Marginal cost

B. Marginal revenue

C. Extra profit

D. Prime cost

25. The amount that the property would give if sold for junk.

A. Junk value

B. Salvage value

C. Scrap value

D. Book value

26. The worth of the property which is equal to the original cost less the amount which has

been charged to depreciation.

A. Scrap value

B. Salvage value

C. Book value

D. Market value

27. The sum of the direct labor cost incurred in the factory and the direct material cost of all

materials that go into production is called

A. Net cost

B. Maintenance cost

C. Prime cost

D. Operating cost

28. The difference between the present value and the worth of money at some time in the

future is called

A. Market value

B. Net value

C. Discount

D. Interest

29. The addition cost of producing one more unit is

A. Prime cost

B. Marginal cost

C. Differential cost

D. Sunk cost

30. A written contract by a debtor to pay final redemption value on an indicated date or

maturity date and pay a certain sum periodically.

A. Annuity

B. Bond

C. Amortization

D. Collateral

31. Estimated value of the property at the useful life.

A. Market value

B. Fair value

C. Salvage value

D. Book value

32. Determination of the actual quantity of the materials on hand as of a given date.

A. Physical inventory

B. Counting principle

C. Stock assessment

D. Periodic material update

33. This consists of a cash and account receivable during the next period or any other

material which will be sold.

A. Fixed assets

B. Deferred charges

C. Current asset

D. Liability

34. A wrong act that causes injury to a person or property and for which allows a claim by

the injured party to recover damages.

A. Fraud

B. Tort

C. Libel

D. Scam

35. A series of uniform payment over an infinite period of time

A. Depletion

B. Capitalized cost

C. Perpetuity

D. Inflation

36. These are products or services that are required to support human life and activities that

will be purchased in somewhat the same quantity event though the price varies

considerably.

A. Commodities

B. Necessities

C. Demands

D. Luxury

37. The quantity of a certain commodity that is offered for sale at a certain price at a given

place and time.

A. Utility

B. Supply

C. Stocks

D. Goods

38. It is sometimes called the second hand value

A. Scrap value

B. Salvage value

C. Book value

D. Par value

39. Decreases in the value of a physical property due to the passage of time.

A. Deflation

B. Depletion

C. Declination

D. Depreciation

40. An association of two or more individuals for the purpose of engaging business for profit.

A. Single proprietorship

B. Party

C. Corporation

D. Partnership

41. The simplest form of business organization where in the business is own entirely by one

person.

A. Partnership

B. Proprietorship

C. Corporation

D. Joint venture

42. Parties whose consent or signature in a contract is not considered intelligent.

A. Dummy person

B. Minors

C. Demented persons

D. Convict

43. It is defined as the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want.

A. Satisfaction

B. Luxury

C. Necessity

D. Utility

44. This occurs in a situation where a commodity or service is supplied by a number of

vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market.

A. Perfect competition

B. Monophony

C. Monopoly

D. Cartel

45. These are products or services that are desired by human and will be purchased if money

is available after the required necessities have been obtained.

A. Commodities

B. Necessities

C. Luxuries

D. Supplies

46. Grand total of the assets and operational capability of a corporation.

A. Authorized capital

B. Paid off capital

C. Subscribed capital

D. Investment

47. It is where the original record of a business transaction is recorded.

A. Ledger

B. Spreadsheet

C. Journal

D. Logbook

48. The length of time which the property may be operated at a profit.

A. Life span

B. Economic life

C. Operating life

D. Profitable life

49. The right and privilege granted to an individual or corporation to do business in a certain

region.

A. Permit

B. Royalty

C. License

D. Franchise

50. The worth of an asset as shown in the accounting records of an enterprise.

A. Fair value

B. Par value

C. Market value

D. Book value

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

ENGINEERING

MANAGEMENT General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

1. Defined as the creative problem solving process of planning, organizing, leading, and

controlling an organization’s resources to achieve its mission and objectives.

A. Management

B. Planning

C. Organizing

D. Supervision

2. Refers to the activity combining “technical knowledge with the ability to organize and

coordinate worker power, materials, machinery, and money.”

A. Engineering Management

B. Engineering Materials

C. Engineering Organization

D. Engineering Club

3. The following are considered as functions of an engineer except

A. Testing

B. Construction

C. Sales

D. Physical Education

4. A function of an engineer where the engineer is engaged in the process of learning about

nature and codifying this knowledge into usable theories.

A. Research

B. Design and Development

C. Testing

D. Manufacturing

5. A function of an engineer where the engineer undertakes the activity of turning a product

concept to a finished physical term.

A. Research

B. Manufacturing

C. Testing

D. Design and Development

6. A function of an engineer where the engineer works in a unit where new products or parts

are tested for workability.

A. Research

B. Design and Development

C. Testing

D. Manufacturing

7. A function of an engineer where the engineer is directly in charge of production

personnel or assumes responsibility for the product.

A. Research

B. Design and Development

C. Testing

D. Manufacturing

8. A function of an engineer where the engineer is either directly in charge of the

construction personnel or may have responsibility for the quality of the construction

process.

A. Construction

B. Sales

C. Consulting

D. Government

9. A function of an engineer where the engineer assists the company’s customers to meet

their needs, especially those that require technical expertise.

A. Construction

B. Government

C. Consulting

D. Sales

10. A function of an engineer where the engineer works as consultant of any individual or

organization requiring his services.

A. Construction

B. Sales

C. Consulting

D. Government

11. A function of an engineer where the engineer may find employment in the government

performing any of the various tasks in regulating, monitoring, and controlling the

activities of various institutions, public or private.

A. Construction

B. Sales

C. Government

D. Consulting

12. A function of an engineer where the engineer gets employment in a school and is

assigned as a teacher of engineering courses.

A. Teaching

B. Government

C. Management

D. Consulting

13. A function of an engineer where the engineer is assigned to manage groups of people

performing specific tasks.

A. Teaching

B. Government

C. Management

D. Consulting

14. Defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of action in a

manner appropriate to the demands of the situation.

A. Decision Making

B. Engineering Management

C. Initiative

D. Problem solving

15. The first step in Decision making process is to

A. Analyze environment

B. Diagnose problem

C. Make a choice

D. Articulate problem or opportunity

16. The last step in decision making process is to

A. Analyze environment

B. Make a choice

C. Diagnose problem

D. Evaluate and adapt decision results

17. Refers to evaluation of alternatives using intuition and subjective judgment.

A. Quantitative evaluation

B. Qualitative evaluation

C. Relative evaluation

D. Subjective evaluation

18. Refers to evaluation of alternatives using any technique in a group classified as rational

and analytical.

A. Quantitative evaluation

B. Qualitative evaluation

C. Relative evaluation

D. Subjective evaluation

19. Refers to the management function that involves anticipating future trends and

determining the best strategies and tactics to achieve organizational objectives.

A. Management

B. Planning

C. Organizing

D. Supervision

20. Refers to the process of determining the major goals of the organization and the policies

and strategies for obtaining and using resources to achieve those goals.

A. Operational Planning

B. Intermediate Planning

C. Strategic planning

D. Secondary Planning

21. The top management of any firm is involved in this type of planning.

A. Operational Planning

B. Intermediate Planning

C. Strategic planning

D. Secondary Planning

22. Refers to the process of determining the contributions that subunits can make with

allocated resources.

A. Operational Planning

B. Intermediate Planning

C. Strategic planning

D. Secondary Planning

23. This type of planning is undertaken by middle management.

A. Operational Planning

B. Intermediate Planning

C. Strategic planning

D. Secondary Planning

24. Refers to the process of determining how specific tasks can best be accomplished on time

with available resources.

A. Operational Planning

B. Intermediate Planning

C. Strategic planning

D. Secondary Planning

25. This type of planning is a responsibility of lower management.

A. Operational Planning

B. Intermediate Planning

C. Strategic planning

D. Secondary Planning

26. This is the written document or blueprint for implementing and controlling an

organization’s marketing activities related to particular marketing strategy.

A. Marketing Plan

B. Financial Plan

C. Production Plan

D. Short-range plans

27. This is a written document that states the quantity of output a company must produce in

broad terms and by product family.

A. Marketing Plan

B. Financial Plan

C. Production Plan

D. Short-range plans

28. It is a document that summarizes the current financial situation of the firm, analyzes

financial needs, and recommends a direction for financial activities.

A. Marketing Plan

B. Financial Plan

C. Production Plan

D. Short-range plans

29. It is a document that indicates the human resource needs of a company detailed in terms

of quantity and quality and based on the requirements of the company’s strategic plan.

A. Marketing Plan

B. Financial Plan

C. Production Plan

D. Human Resource Management Plan

30. These are plans intended to cover a period of less than one year. First-line supervisors are

mostly concerned with these planes.

A. Short-range plans

B. Long-range plans

C. Standing Plans

D. Single-Use Plans

31. These are plans covering a time span of more than one year. These are mostly undertaken

by middle and top management.

A. Short-range plans

B. Long-range plans

C. Standing Plans

D. Single-Use Plans

32. Plans that are used again and again and they focus on managerial situations that recur

repeatedly.

A. Short-range plans

B. Long-range plans

C. Standing Plans

D. Single-Use Plans

33. These are broad guidelines to aid managers at every level in making decisions about

recurring situations or function.

A. Policies

B. Procedures

C. Guidelines

D. Rules

34. These are plans that describe the exact series of actions to be taken in a given situation.

A. Policies

B. Procedures

C. Guidelines

D. Rules

35. These are statements that either require or forbid a certain action.

A. Policies

B. Procedures

C. Guidelines

D. Rules

36. Specifically developed to implement courses of action that are relatively unique and are

unlikely to be repeated.

A. Short-range plans

B. Long-range plans

C. Standing Plans

D. Single-Use Plans

37. A plan which sets forth the projected expenditure for a certain activity and explains

where the required funds will come from.

A. Project

B. Budget

C. Program

D. Financial Statement

38. A plan designed to coordinate a large set of activities.

A. Project

B. Budget

C. Program

D. Financial Statement

39. A plan that is usually more limited in scope than a program and is sometimes prepared to

support a program.

A. Project

B. Budget

C. Program

D. Financial Statement

40. A management function which refers to the structuring of resources and activities to

accomplish objectives in an efficient and effective manner.

A. Organizing

B. Planning

C. Supervising

D. Structure

41. The arrangement or relationship of positions within an organization.

A. Organizing

B. Planning

C. Supervising

D. Structure

42. This is a form of departmentalization in which everyone engaged in one functional

activity, such as engineering or marketing, is grouped into one unit.

A. Functional Organization

B. Product or Market Organization

C. Matrix Organization

D. Divisible Organization

43. This type of organization is very effective in similar firms especially “single business

firms where key activities revolve around well-defined skills and areas of specialization”.

A. Functional Organization

B. Product or Market Organization

C. Matrix Organization

D. Divisible Organization

44. This refers to the organization of a company by a division that brings together all those

involved with a certain type of product or customer.

A. Functional Organization

B. Product or Market Organization

C. Matrix Organization

D. Divisible Organization

45. This is appropriate for a large corporation with many product lines in several related

industries.

A. Functional Organization

B. Product or Market Organization

C. Matrix Organization

D. Divisible Organization

46. An organizational structure in which each employee reports both a functional or division

manager and to a project or group manager.

A. Functional Organization

B. Product or Market Organization

C. Matrix Organization

D. Divisible Organization

47. Refers to a manager’s right to tell subordinates what to do and then see that they do it.

A. Line authority

B. Staff authority

C. Functional authority

D. Head authority

48. A staff specialist’s right to give advice to a superior.

A. Line authority

B. Staff authority

C. Functional authority

D. Head authority

49. A specialist’s right to oversee lower level personnel involved in that specialty, regardless

of where the personnel are in the organization.

A. Line authority

B. Staff authority

C. Functional authority

D. Head authority

50. A committee created for a short-term purpose and have a limited life.

A. Ad hoc committee

B. Standing committee

C. Sinking committee

D. Midget committee

51. A permanent committee that deals with issues on an ongoing basis.

A. Ad hoc committee

B. Standing committee

C. Sinking committee

D. Midget committee

52. Defined as the management function that determines human resource needs, recruits,

selects, trains, and develops human resources for jobs created by an organization.

A. Resourcing

B. Recruitment

C. Hiring

D. Staffing

53. An assessment of future human resource needs in relation to the current capabilities of

the organization.

A. Forecasting

B. Control

C. Programming

D. Recruitment

54. Refers to translation of the forecasted human resource needs to personnel objectives and

goals.

A. Forecasting

B. Control

C. Programming

D. Recruitment

55. This refers to monitoring human resource action plans and evaluating their success.

A. Forecasting

B. Evaluation and Control

C. Programming

D. Recruitment

56. Refers to attracting qualified persons to apply for vacant positions in the company so that

those who are best suited to serve the company may be selected.

A. Forecasting

B. Evaluation and Control

C. Programming

D. Recruitment

57. Refers to the act of choosing from those that are available than individuals most likely to

succeed on the job.

A. Forecasting

B. Evaluation and Control

C. Selection

D. Training

58. In this staffing procedure, the new employee is provided with the necessary information

about the company and will be introduced to the immediate working environment and co-

workers.

A. Performance Appraisal

B. Induction and Orientation

C. Training and Development

D. Monetary Rewards

59. Refers to the learning that is provided in order to improve performance on the present

job.

A. Performance Appraisal

B. Induction and Orientation

C. Training and Development

D. Monetary Rewards

60. Refers to a movement by a person into a position of higher pay and greater

responsibilities and which is given as a reward for competence and ambition.

A. Monetary reward

B. Promotion

C. Demotion

D. Transfer

61. The movement of a person to a different job at the same or similar level of responsibility

in the organization.

A. Monetary reward

B. Promotion

C. Demotion

D. Transfer

62. The movement from one position to another which has less pay or responsibility attached

to it. It is used as a form of punishment or as a temporary measure to keep an employee

until he is offered a higher position.

A. Separation

B. Promotion

C. Demotion

D. Transfer

63. Either a voluntary or involuntary termination of an employee.

A. Separation

B. Transfer

C. Termination

D. Demotion

64. A process of sharing information through symbols, including words and message.

A. Counseling

B. Communication

C. Hypnotism

D. Language

65. Function of communication that can be used for decision-making at various work levels

in the organization.

A. Information Function

B. Emotive Function

C. Motivation Function

D. Control Function

66. A function of communication used as a means to motivate employees to commit

themselves to the organizations objectives.

A. Information Function

B. Emotive Function

C. Motivation Function

D. Control Function

67. Function of communication that deals when feelings are repressed in the organization,

employees are affected by anxiety, which, in turn, affects performance.

A. Information Function

B. Emotive Function

C. Motivation Function

D. Control Function

68. A form of communication transmitted through hearing or sight.

A. Verbal

B. Oral

C. Written

D. Nonverbal

69. A means of conveying message through body language, as well as the use of time, space,

touch, clothing, appearance and aesthetic elements.

A. Verbal

B. Oral

C. Written

D. Nonverbal

70. Refers to the process of activating behavior, sustaining it, and directing it toward a

particular goal.

A. Suppression

B. Motivation

C. Praising

D. Unification

71. The following are considered as factors contributing to motivation except:

A. Willingness to do a job

B. Self-confidence in carrying out a task

C. Needs satisfaction

D. Inferiority complex

72. The following are considered theories of Motivation except:

A. Maslow’s Needs Hierarchy Theory

B. Expectancy Theory

C. Herzberg’s Two-Factor Theory

D. Gagarin’s Theory

73. It is a management function which involves influencing others to engage in the work

behaviors necessary to reach organizational goals.

A. Sales talk

B. Motivation

C. Leading

D. Commanding

74. A person who occupies a higher position has power over persons in lower positions

within the organization. This describes:

A. Legitimate power

B. Referent power

C. Coercive power

D. Reward power

75. When a person has the ability to give rewards to anybody who follows orders or requests,

it termed as:

A. Legitimate power

B. Referent power

C. Coercive power

D. Reward power

76. When a person compels with orders through treats or punishment.

A. Legitimate power

B. Referent power

C. Coercive power

D. Reward power

77. When a person can get compliance from another because the latter would want to be

identified with the former.

A. Legitimate power

B. Referent power

C. Coercive power

D. Reward power

78. Which of the following is not a trait of an effective leader:

A. A high level of personal drive

B. Knowledge of the company, industry or technology

C. Charisma

D. Greedy

79. Refers to the process of ascertaining whether organizational objectives have been

achieved and determining what activities should then be taken to achieve objectives

better in the future.

A. Planning

B. Controlling

C. Evaluation

D. Inspection

80. A type of controlling when the management anticipates problems and prevents their

occurrence.

A. Feed forward control

B. Preventive control

C. Concurrent control

D. Feedback control

81. A type of controlling when the operations are already ongoing and activities to detect

variances are made.

A. Feed forward control

B. Preventive control

C. Concurrent control

D. Feedback control

82. A type of controlling when information is gathered about a completed activity, and in

order that evaluation and steps for improvement are derived.

A. Feed forward control

B. Preventive control

C. Concurrent control

D. Feedback control

83. Refers to any process that accepts inputs and uses resources to change those inputs in

useful ways.

A. Operation

B. Production

C. Construction

D. Creation

84. The process of planning, organizing, and controlling operations to reach objectives

efficiently and effectively.

A. Planning

B. Operations management

C. Evaluation management

D. Backboning

85. A process of creating a set of product specifications appropriate to the demands of the

situation.

A. Product Design

B. Blueprinting

C. Product planning

D. Conceptualizing

86. Refers to forecasting the future sales of a given product, translating this forecast into the

demand it generates for various production facilities, and arranging for the procurement

of these facilities.

A. Product Design

B. Blueprinting

C. Product planning

D. Conceptualizing

87. The phase of production control involved in developing timetables that specify how long

each operation in the production process takes.

A. Plotting

B. Scheduling

C. Timetable

D. Anticipating

88. Refers to the approach that seeks efficiency of operation through integration of all

material acquisition, movement, and storage activities in the firm.

A. Work

B. Quality Control

C. Inventory Control

D. Purchasing and Materials Management

89. The process of establishing and maintaining appropriate levels of reserve stocks of goods.

A. Work-Flow Layout

B. Quality Control

C. Inventory Control

D. Purchasing and Materials Management

90. The process of determining the physical arrangement of the production system.

A. Work-Flow Layout

B. Quality Control

C. Inventory Control

D. Purchasing and Materials Management

91. Refers to the measurement of products or services against standards set by the company.

A. Work-Flow Layout

B. Quality Control

C. Inventory Control

D. Purchasing and Materials Management

92. A group of activities designed to facilitate and expedite the selling of goods and services.

A. Advertisement

B. Commercial

C. Marketing

D. Sales

93. The four P’s of marketing are the following except:

A. Product

B. Price

C. Promotion

D. Publicity

94. It includes the tangible (or intangible) item and its capacity to satisfy a specified need.

A. Product

B. Price

C. Promotion

D. Place

95. Refers to the money or other considerations exchanged for the purchase or use of the

product, idea, or service.

A. Product

B. Price

C. Promotion

D. Place

96. An important factor for a company to locate in places where they can be easily reached

by their customers.

A. Product

B. Price

C. Promotion

D. Place

97. Defined as communicating information between seller and potential buyer to influence

attitudes and behavior.

A. Product

B. Price

C. Promotion

D. Place

98. A type of promotion where a paid message appears in mass media for the purpose of

informing or persuading people about particular products, services, beliefs, or action.

A. Advertising

B. Publicity

C. Sales promotion

D. Personal selling

99. The promotional tool that publishes news or information about a product, service, or idea

on behalf of a sponsor but is not paid for by the sponsor.

A. Advertising

B. Publicity

C. Sales promotion

D. Personal selling

100. A more aggressive means of promoting the sales of a product or service.

A. Advertising

B. Publicity

C. Sales promotion

D. Personal selling

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

ENGINEERING

MECHANICS General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

1. A physical quantity that is completely described by a real number is called ___________.

A. scalar

B. vector

C. tensor

D. none of the above

2. A convenient means of representing physical quantities that have magnitude and direction.

A. scalars

B. vectors

C. tensors

D. none of the above

3. The product of a scalar and a vector is a

A. scalar

B. vector

C. tensor

D. none of the above

4. It is simply a vector whose magnitude is 1

A. moment vector

B. tensor

C. unit vector

D. vector unity

5. It is sometimes called the scalar product.

A. dot product

B. vector product

C. cross product

D. unit scalar

6. To calculate for the force exerted on a charged particle by a magnetic field, _________ is

used.

A. vector product

B. scalar product

C. dot product

D. vector sum

7. It is sometimes called the vector product.

A. dot product

B. cross product

C. tensor product

D. unit vector

8. Which of the following statements is false?

A. The cross product is commutative.

B. The cross product is associative with respect to scalar multiplication.

C. The cross product is distributive with respect to vector addition.

D. The angle between two identical vectors placed tail to tail is zero.

9. When a force is represented by a vector, the straight line collinear with the vector is called the

________.

A. line of apsides

B. line of reaction

C. line of vector

D. line of action

10. A system of forces is __________ if the lines of action of the forces intersect at a point.

A. parallel

B. coplanar

C. concurrent

D. two-dimensional

11. A system of two forces is ___________ if the lines of action of the forces lie in a plane.

A. coplanar

B. two-dimensional

C. A or B

D. none of the above

12. Force acting on an object is called a ___________ if its acts on the volume of the object.

A. internal force

B. external force

C. body force

D. surface force

13. If each point on the object has the same constant velocity, this is referred to as __________.

A. continuum translation

B. discrete translation

C. finite translation

D. steady translation

14. The moment of a force about a point P is equal to the sum of the moments of its components

about P.

A. Cavalieri’s Theorem

B. Pascal’s Theorem

C. Varignon’s Theorem

D. Torricelli’s Theorem

15. It is the measure of the tendency of a force to cause rotation about a line or axis.

A. moment

B. momentum

C. impulse

D. torsion

16. A couple is composed of two forces that are

A. equal

B. equal and opposite

C. equal and different lines of action

D. equal, opposite and different lines of action

17. Which of the following statements is true about a couple?

A. A couple does not tend to cause a rotation of an object.

B. The vector sum of the force couple always has a value.

C. A couple tends to cause a rotation of an object.

D. The moment it exerts is not the same about any point.

18. If an object is on an inclined plane having an angle θ, the component of weight (w) parallel to

incline is __________.

A. w sinθ

B. w cosθ

C. w tanθ

D. w cotθ

19. A type of force acting on a body due to the acceleration of gravity.

A. load

B. shear

C. bear

D. mass

20. A type of force acting on a body caused by the friction between the body and the ground.

A. load

B. shear

C. bear

D. mass

21. The unit of force, Newton, is equivalent to

A. lbm-ft/s2

B. g-cm/s2

C. kg-m/s2

D. kgf

22. When a body is in contact with the ground, the force that is reflected back to the body is

called

A. ground reflected force

B. gravity reflected force

C. ground reaction force

D. gravity reaction force

23. The gravity in the moon is about

A. 1.6 m/s2

B. 2.6 m/s2

C. 3.6 m/s2

D. 0.6 m/s2

24. The ground reaction force on a body can be represented by a single force acting on a point

called

A. center of force

B. center of reaction

C. center of reflection

D. center of pressure

25. The tuning effect on a body is dependent on which of the following?

A. mass of the load

B. acceleration of gravity

C. moment arm

D. all of the above

26. The perpendicular distance of the force from the point about which the body will turn is

called

A. moment arm

B. moment distance

C. lever arm

D. A or C

27. If the force is moved in the direction parallel to the direction of the force, the moment exerted

by the force ___________.

A. increases

B. decreases

C. is unchanged

D. becomes zero

28. The moment of force is zero when

A. the applied force is zero.

B. the force is applied at the moment axis.

C. the line of action of the force is parallel to the axis.

D. all of the above

29. __________ is finding a single force which shall be equal to two or more given forces when

acting in given directions.

A. resolution of forces

B. integration of forces

C. composition of forces

D. quantization of forces

30. He is the father of the modern engineering mechanics

A. Gilbert Lewis

B. Stephen Timoshenko

C. J. Gordon

D. A. Cotrell

31. It is a method of applying mechanics that assumes all objects are continuous.

A. Discrete Mechanics

B. Finite Element Method

C. Continuum Mechanics

D. Contact Mechanics

32. Which of the following is an example of contact force?

A. gravitational force

B. magnetic force

C. air resistance force

D. electric force

33. It occurs when an object is moving across a surface.

A. dynamic friction

B. static friction

C. kinetic friction

D. sliding friction

34. Given µ = 0.35 between the object of mass 400 g and the floor, the object will __________ if

pulled with a force of 3 N.

A. remain at rest

B. move

C. accelerate

D. B and C

35. Which of the following statements is correct?

A. The coefficient of static friction is always less than 1.

B. The coefficient of static friction is typically greater than the coefficient of kinetic

friction.

C. The coefficient of kinetic friction is typically greater than the coefficient of static friction.

D. The coefficient of static and kinetic friction are always equal.

36. The equations that apply to bodies moving linearly (that is, one dimension) with uniform

accelerations are often referred to as

A. UVATS

B. SUVAT

C. UVATS

D. Either of the above

37. “Observed from an internal reference frame, the net force on a particle is proportional to the

time rate of change of its linear momentum”. This is known as Newton’s ___________ of

motion.

A. Zeroth Law

B. First Law

C. Second Law

D. Third Law

38. It is also known as quantity of motion.

A. momentum

B. force

C. mass

D. acceleration

39. This concept assumes that the substance of the body is distributed throughout and completely

fills the space it occupies.

A. Finite Element

B. Contact

C. Discrete

D. Continuum

40. In fluids, _________ is used to assess to what extent the approximation of continuity can be

made.

A. Brayton Number

B. Knudsen Number

C. Reynolds Number

D. Prandtl Number

41. It is the time rate of change of any property of a continuum for a specified group of particles

of the moving continuum body.

A. Material Derivative

B. Continual Derivative

C. Particle Derivative

D. Quantum Derivative

42. Material derivative is also known as __________.

A. substantial derivative

B. commoving derivative

C. convective derivative

D. all of the above

43. The vector connecting the positions of a particle in the undeformed and deformed

configuration is called the ________.

A. displacement vector

B. position vector

C. displacement field

D. position field

44. A __________ is a vector field of all displacement vectors for all particles in the body.

A. position field

B. action field

C. displacement field

D. path field

45. _________ is the study of the physics of continuous solids with a defined rest shape.

A. Continuum Mechanics

B. Solid Mechanics

C. Fluid Mechanics

D. Discrete Mechanics

46. It is an experimental method for visualizing and analyzing fluid flow.

A. Particle Image Velocimetry

B. Particle Image Accelerometry

C. Particle Image Flowmeter

D. Particle Image Viscosimetry

47. A fluid at rest has no

A. longitudinal stress

B. shear stress

C. tensile stress

D. compressive stress

48. A property of fluids which is the force generated by a fluid in response to a velocity gradient.

A. compressibility

B. plasticity

C. elasticity

D. viscosity

49. These equations state that changes in momentum of fluid particles depend only on the

external pressure and internal viscous forces acting on the fluid.

A. Navier – Stokes Equations

B. Torricelli Equations

C. Reynolds Equations

D. Lagrangian Equations

50. It is defined as, regardless of the forces acting on a fluid, the fluid continues to flow

A. Newtonian fluid

B. non-Newtonian fluid

C. Lagrangian fluid

D. non-Lagrangian fluid

51. Which of the following is an example of Newtonian fluid?

A. oobleck

B. pudding

C. water

D. paint

52. If an object is stationary or moving at a constant velocity, then

A. no forces are acting on the object.

B. the forces acting the object are balanced.

C. the object is in equilibrium state.

D. either of the above

53. It is an additional force that exactly balances a resultant force.

A. reactant

B. equilibrant

C. buoyant

D. reverse effective force

54. The equilibrant of the forces 10 N at 10° and 15 N at 100° is

A.18 N at 246°

B. 18 N at 66°

C. 25 N at -114°

D. 25 N at 66°

55. It is a point within an object from which the force of gravity appears to act

A. center of gravity

B. centroid

C. center of mass

D. all of the above are correct

56. If an area has one line of symmetry the centroid will

A. lie somewhere along the line symmetry

B. lie anywhere on the area

C. lie in the midpoint of the line of symmetry

D. not lie on the line of symmetry

57. The second moment of area is an important value which is used to __________. It can also

be called moment of inertia.

A. determine the state of stress in a section

B. calculate the resistance to buckling

C. determine the amount of deflection in a beam

D. all of the above

58. The __________ transfers the moment of inertia of a section or area from its own centroidal

axis to another parallel axis.

A. moment of axis theorem

B. transfer formula

C. parallel axis theorem

D. B or C

59. The moment of force is zero when

A. the applied force is zero

B. the force is applied at the moment axis

C. the line of action of the force is parallel to the moment axis

D. all of the above

60. The mass moment of inertia of a solid sphere about its diameter is

A. 1/5 mr2

B. 2/5 mr2

C. 3/5 mr2

D. 4/5 mr2

61. The mass moment of inertia of a thin spherical shell about its diameter is

A. 1/6 mr2

B. 1/3 mr2

C. 1/2 mr2

D. 2/3 mr2

62. It is a mathematical property of a section concerned with a surface area and how that area is

distributed about the reference axis.

A. moment of area

B. second moment of area

C. third moment of area

D. fourth moment of area

63. It is the material’s ability to resist twisting

A. mass moment of inertia

B. moment of area

C. second moment of area

D. polar moment of area

64. “Any object, wholly or partly immersed in a fluid, is buoyed up by a force equal to the

weight of the fluid displaced by the object”. This is known as the ____________.

A. Bernoulli’s Principle

B. Torricelli’s Principle

C. Archimedes’ Principle

D. Pascal’s Principle

65. It is the upward force on an object produced by the surrounding fluid in which it is fully or

partially immersed.

A. Archimedes’ force

B. fluid pressure

C. buoyancy

D. weight reaction

66. A rock of weight 10 N suspended by a string is lowered into water, displacing water of

weight 3 N. Determine the tension in the string.

A. 13 N

B. 7 N

C. 10 N

D. 3 N

67. If the buoyancy of an object exceeds its weight, the object __________.

A. tends to rise

B. tends to sink

C. A or B

D. none of the above

68. It is the rate of change of velocity

A. displacement

B. acceleration

C. momentum

D. impulse

69. Impulse is equal to ________.

A. force x time

B. change in momentum

C. A or B

D. none of the above

70. Collisions in which objects rebound with the same speed as they had prior to the collision are

known as __________.

A. elastic collisions

B. inelastic collisions

C. static collisions

D. plastic collisions

71. If a 10-kg object experiences a 20-N force for a duration of 0.05-second, then what is the

momentum change of the object?

A. 1 N-s

B. 400 N-s

C. 0.5 N-s

D. 200 N-s

72. When hit, the velocity of a 0.2 kg baseball changes from +25 m/s to -25 m/s. What is the

magnitude of the impulse delivered by the bat to the ball?

A. 1 N-s

B. 5 N-s

C. 10 N-s

D. 20 N-s

73. It is defined as the integral of force with respect to time.

A. momentum

B. impulse

C. velocity

D. acceleration

74. The SI unit for angular velocity is

A. degrees per second

B. revolutions per second

C. mils per second

D. radians per second

75. The angular momentum of a rotating object can be calculated by the formula

A. mass moment of inertia x linear velocity

B. mass x linear velocity

C. mass moment of inertia x angular velocity

D. mass x angular velocity

76. The time derivative of angular momentum is called

A. angular velocity

B. angular acceleration

C. work

D. torque

77. It defines limits on how accurately the momentum and position of a single observable system

can be known at once.

A. Heisenberg uncertainty principle

B. particle momentum principle

C. particle position principle

D. Bohr’s uncertainty principle

78. The SI unit for polar moment of inertia is

A. kg-m2

B. kg-m4

C. m4

D. m2

79. A structure is _________ when the static equilibrium equations are not sufficient for

determining the internal forces and reactions on that structure.

A. statically determinate

B. statically indeterminate

C. dynamically determinate

D. dynamically indeterminate

80. It is an equation used to find the final velocity of an object moving with a constant

acceleration without having a known time interval.

A. Bernoulli’s equation

B. Torricelli’s equation

C. Newton’s equation

D. Cavendish’s equation

81. Torricelli’s equation of motion is

A. Vf 2 = Vi

2 + 2as

B. Vf = Vi + at

C. Vf 2 = Vi

2 + at

D. Vf = Vi + 2as

82. Which of the following is true about centripetal force?

A. It is directed toward the center of the circular path.

B. It appears to act outward the body.

C. It is directly proportional to the radius of the circular path.

D. It is inversely proportional to the square of the tangential velocity.

83. Centripetal acceleration

A. changes the direction of the velocity.

B. changes the magnitude of the velocity.

C. changes the magnitude of angular velocity.

D. changes nothing about velocity.

84. Tangential acceleration

A. changes the direction of the velocity.

B. changes the magnitude of the velocity.

C. changes the magnitude of the centripetal acceleration.

D. changes nothing about velocity.

85. The _________ is the primary force from which gravity, electromagnetic and electrostatic

force manifest.

A. Eforce

B. Tforce

C. Kforce

D. Gforce

86. The value of Gforce is equal to

A. 1.211 x 1041

N

B. 1.211 x 1042

N

C. 1.211 x 1043

N

D. 1.211 x 1044

N

87. The gravitational force constant has the units

A. m3 kg

-1 s

-2

B. N kg-1

s-2

C. m2 kg

-1 s

-2

D. N kg-1

m-1

88. The gravitational force between an electron and a proton 1 meter apart is

A. 1.02 x 1057

N

B. 1.02 x 10-57

N

C. 1.02 x 10-67

N

D. 1.02 x 1067

N

89. The value of the standard gravitational parameter for Earth is

A. 4 x 1011

m3 s

-2

B. 4 x 1014

m3 s

-2

C. 4 x 108 m

3 s

-2

D. 4 x 1010

m3 s

-2

90. Given that the radius of the moon is 1,730 km and mass is 7.34 x 1022

kg, determine the

acceleration due to gravity on the moon.

A. 1.6 m/s2

B. 2.6 m/s2

C. 3.6 m/s2

D. 0.6 m/s2

91. It is the resistance that occurs when a round object such as a ball or a tire rolls on a flat

surface.

A. rolling resistance

B. rolling friction

C. rolling drag

D. either of the above

92. Which of the following affects the magnitude of rolling resistance an object generates?

A. type of material

B. dimensions

C. both A and B

D. none of the above

93. Rolling resistance coefficient is a dimensionless quantity also known as

A. coefficient of rolling friction

B. coefficient of friction

C. coefficient of resistance

D. rolling friction constant

94. The rolling resistance coefficient of rail road steel wheel on steel rail is

A. 0.0002 – 0.0010

B. 0.005

C. 0.02

D. 0.3

95. The rolling resistance coefficient of ordinary car tires on concrete is

A. 0.0002 – 0.0010

B. 0.1 – 0.2

C. 0.01 – 0.015

D. 0.05 – 0.06

96. It is the factor by which a mechanism multiplies the force put into it.

A. factor of safety

B. mechanical factor

C. mechanical advantage

D. mechanical coefficient

97. It is the study that describes the motion of macroscopic objects.

A. quantum mechanics

B. classical mechanics

C. discrete mechanics

D. continuum mechanics

98. Determine the magnitude of the force vector F = 20i + 60j – 90k (N).

A. 130 N

B. 120 N

C. 100 N

D. 110 N

99. Determine the dot product of the two vectors U = 8i – 6j + 4k and V = 3i + 7j + 9k.

A. 18

B. 16

C. 14

D. 12

100. Two perpendicular vectors are given in terms of their components by U = Uxi – 4j + 6k and

V = 3i + 2j – 3k. Determine the component Ux.

A. 5.67

B. 6.67

C. 7.67

D. 8.67

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

PHYSICS General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

1. “At any point along a streamline in an ideal fluid in steady flow, the sum of the pressure,

the potential energy per unit volume and the kinetic energy per unit volume have the

same value.” The concept is known as

A. Bernoulli’s Energy Principles

B. Fluid theorem

C. Pascal’s theorem

D. Hydraulic theorem

2. The work done by all forces except the gravitational force is always equal to the one of

the system.

A. Total mechanical energy

B. Total potential energy

C. Total kinetic energy

D. Total momentum

3. When the two waves of the same frequency, speed and amplitude traveling in opposite

directions are superimposed,

A. the phase difference is always zero

B. distractive waves are produced

C. standing waves are produced

D. constructive interference always results to zero

4. According to this law, “The force between two charges varies directly as the magnitude

of each charge and inversely as the square of the distance between them.”

A. Law of Universal Gravitation

B. Newton’s Law

C. Inverse Square Law

D. Coulomb’s Law

5. It describes the luminous flux incidence per unit area and is expressed in lumens per

square meter.

A. Illuminance

B. Luminance

C. Luminous Intensity

D. Radiance

6. The fluid pressure is the same in all directions. This is known as

A. Pascal’s Principle

B. Bernoulli’s Theorem

C. Ideal Fluid Principle

D. Archimedes Principle

7. The amount of heat needed to change solid to liquid is

A. condensation

B. cold fusion

C. latent heat of fusion

D. solid fusion

8. At the boiling point of liquid, the vapor pressure

A. is equal to external pressure on the surface of the liquid

B. is greater than the atmospheric pressure

C. is less than the atmospheric pressure

D. can have any value

9. Which of the following thermometers is best suited for measuring a temperature of nearly

1500oC?

A. Gas thermometer

B. Platinum resistance thermometer

C. Thermo couple thermometer

D. Mercury thermometer

10. The energy stored in a starched elastic material such as spring is

A. Mechanical energy

B. Elastic potential energy

C. Internal energy

D. Kinetic energy

11. In physics, if LF and LV are the latent heat of fusion and vaporization, respectively,

which of the following equations apply in determining the amount of energy needed to

freeze a liquid?

A. Q = -mif

B. Q = -miv

C. Q = mif

D. Q = miv

12. Which of the following is true? The density of water

A. Is maximum at 4oC

B. Decreases as the temperature is increased

C. Is minimum at 4oC

D. Increases with temperature

13. When the pitch of a note is raised then, its

A. frequency decreases

B. wavelength is increased

C. frequency increases

D. None of the above is true

14. Cohesion is the attraction between like

A. atom

B. element

C. compound

D. molecule

15. The quality known as specific heat is based on:

A. the increase in temperature due to induction

B. the heat needed for one pound of water to boil

C. the heat needed to increase the temperature to one gram of a substance one

degree Celsius

D. the amount of heat required to melt one kg of lead

16. On decreasing the pressure, the boiling point of water will

A. increase

B. remain unaffected

C. decrease

D. may increase/decrease depending on the pressure

17. When sugar is added to water, its boiling point

A. increases

B. remains unaffected

C. decreases

D. Any of the above is possible

18. Which one of the following processes of heat transfer requires the presence of a fluid?

A. conduction

B. convection

C. radiation

D. none of the above

19. When salt is added to water, its boiling point

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains unaffected

D. may increase/decrease depending on the pressure

20. Which one of the following propagates with the same speed as speed of light?

A. The sound waves

B. The heat waves

C. The shock waves

D. The Beta rays

21. Which of the following is not true about sound waves?

A. They transmit the energy

B. They are propagated as a series of compressions and the rare fractions

C. They travel faster in air than in solids

D. They produce interference

22. Sound waves in air are

A. longitudinal

B. neither longitudinal nor transverse

C. transverse

D. stationary

23. Normal range of the frequency of sound, which the human beings can hear, is

A. Less than 20 Hz

B. More than 25,000 Hz

C. 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz

D. All of these

24. The loudness of sound depends upon its

A. Wavelength

B. Frequency

C. Amplitude

D. All of the above

25. Sound above the frequency of 20000 Hz is called

A. Supersonic sound

B. Intrasonic sound

C. Hypersonic sound

D. Ultrasonic sound

26. The surface of the thermos flask is silvered for minimizing heat transfer by what process?

A. conduction

B. radiation

C. convection

D. vaporization

27. Water starts boiling when

A. Its temperature reaches 100oC

B. Its vapor pressure equals 76cm of mercury

C. Its saturated vapor pressure equals the external pressure on its surface

D. Its saturated vapor pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure

28. 500 gm of water at 4oC occupies a certain volume V. Which of the following statements

is correct?

A. It will weigh less than one pound of water at 0oC

B. It will weigh more than 500 gm of water at 0oC

C. Its volume will decrease when its temperature is lowered

D. Its volume will increase when its temperature is lowered or raised

29. Heat will flow from one body to another in thermal contact with it, when they differ in

A. mass

B. specific mass

C. density

D. temperature

30. The amount of heat which is absorbed during the change of state of a substance without

rise in its temperature is called its

A. Specific heat

B. Latent heat

C. Thermal conductivity

D. Water equivalent

31. The scientist who systematically demonstrated the equivalence of mechanical energy and

heat was

A. Joule

B. Boltzmann

C. Faraday

D. Kelvin

32. On a sunny day at the beach, the sand gets so hot and the water stays relatively cool is

due to the difference in of water and sand.

A. density

B. specific heat

C. depth

D. thermal conductivity

33. The instrument, which measures temperature by radiation, is called

A. thermopile

B. thermometer

C. pyrometer

D. hydrometer

34. When the temperature of an ideal gas is increased at constant pressure,

A. the potential energy of molecules increases

B. the potential energy of molecules decreases

C. the kinetic energy of molecules increases

D. the kinetic energy of molecules decreases

35. The root mean square speed of the molecules of a gas is

A. independent of its pressure P

B. directly proportional to square root of P

C. directly proportional to the square of its temperature T

D. proportional to T

36. At what temperature do both the centigrade and Fahrenheit thermometers show the same

reading?

A. -38oC

B. -40oC

C. -42oC

D. -50oC

37. A mercury thermometer is constructed at

A. room temperature

B. a temperature higher than the maximum range of the thermometer

C. a temperature lower than the minimum range of the thermometer

D. atmospheric pressure

38. The boiling point of water on plains is 100oC. At hills it will be

A. 100oC

B. Less than 100oC

C. More than 100oC

D. May be any of the above

39. It is hotter over the top of a fire than at the same distance on the sides because of:

A. convection of heat

B. conduction of heat

C. radiation of heat

D. convection, conduction and radiation of heat

40. The density of water is

A. same at all temperature

B. maximum at 4oC

C. minimum at 4oC

D. maximum at 0oC

41. When a substance is heated, its

A. molecules move more slowly

B. molecules move more rapidly

C. there is no change in the speed of its molecules

D. its temperature always increases

42. When common salt is sprinkled on ice the temperature of ice

A. increases

B. decreases

C. remains unchanged

D. none of these

43. The minimum temperature which can be measured with a mercury thermometer is

A. 0oC

B. -273oC

C. -39oC

D. -143oC

44. A wave in which the particles of the material move up and down as the waves goes from

left is called a

A. Longitudinal wave

B. Transverse wave

C. Standing wave

D. None of these

45. When waves go from one place to another they transport

A. Energy and matter

B. Wavelength and matter

C. Frequency only

D. Energy only

46. The phenomenon of damping results in decrease in

A. frequency

B. velocity

C. wavelength

D. amplitude

47. Echo is formed as a result of

A. refraction of sound

B. diffraction of sound

C. interference of sound

D. reflection of sound

48. The characteristic of sound which enables us to distinguish two musical notes having the

same frequency and loudness is called

A. pitch

B. intensity

C. timber

D. decibel

49. Which of the following could be a longitudinal wave?

A. electromagnetic waves

B. a sound wave in air

C. a water wave

D. waves on vibrating string

50. A Decibel is a

A. musical instrument

B. highest frequency emitted by a tuning fork

C. a measure of intensity level

D. a measure of clarity of sound

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

STRENGTH OF

MATERIALS General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

1. Strength of materials can most aptly be described as “statics of deformable _______

bodies”.

A. elastic

B. rigid

C. compressible

D. thermal

2. It states that the elongation is proportional to the force

A. Pascal’s Law

B. Hooke’s Law

C. Young’s Theorem

D. Farrell’s Law

3. The modulus of elasticity is also known as

A. Young’s modulus

B. Modulus of rigidity

C. Hooke’s ratio

D. Yield strength

4. A ________ material is one having a relatively large tensile strain up to the point of

rupture

A. malleable

B. brittle

C. conductible

D. ductile

5. A ________ material has a relatively small strain up to the point of rupture

A. brittle

B. malleable

C. ductile

D. conductible

6. The maximum stress that may be developed during a simple tension that the stress is a

linear function of strain.

A. elastic limit

B. proportional limit

C. yield point

D. rupture point

7. The maximum stress that may be developed during a simple tension test such that there is

no permanent or residual deformation when the load is entirely removed

A. elastic limit

B. proportional limit

C. yield point

D. rupture point

8. The region of the stress-strain curve extending from the origin to the proportional limit is

called

A. rigid range

B. malleable range

C. elastic range

D. plastic range

9. The region of the stress-strain curve extending from the proportional limit to the point of

rupture is called

A. rigid range

B. malleable range

C. elastic range

D. plastic range

10. The ordinate of the point at which there is an increase in strain with no increase in stress

is known as

A. elastic limit

B. proportional limit

C. yield point

D. rupture point

11. The maximum ordinate to the curve

A. yield strength

B. ultimate strength

C. tensile strength

D. both B and C are correct

12. The ratio of the strain in the lateral direction to that in the axial direction

A. Pascal’s Number

B. Factor of Safety

C. Young’s Modulus

D. Poisson’s ratio

13. Defined as the ratio of the ultimate strength to the specific weight

A. Specific Strength

B. Specific Rigidity

C. Specific Modulus

D. Specific Gravity

14. Defined as the ratio of the Young’s modulus to the specific weight

A. Specific Strength

B. Specific Rigidity

C. Specific Modulus

D. Specific Gravity

15. One of the same elastic properties at all points in the body

A. heterogeneous material

B. multistate material

C. homogenous material

D. monostate material

16. One of having the same elastic properties in all directions at any one point of the body

A. Orthotropic

B. Isotropic

C. Anisotropic

D. Monotropic

17. Material that does not possess any kind of elastic symmetry

A. Orthotropic

B. Isotropic

C. Anisotropic

D. Monotropic

18. Material that has three mutually perpendicular planes of elastic symmetry

A. Orthotropic

B. Isotropic

C. Anisotropic

D. Monotropic

19. The change of volume per unit volume is defined as the

A. Convection

B. Dilatation

C. Expansion

D. Mutation

20. A measure of the resistance of a material to change of volume without change of shape or

form

A. Young’s modulus

B. Modulus of rigidity

C. Bulk modulus

D. Shear modulus

21. Stresses arising when a change in temperature affects the original length of a body

A. Kelvin stress

B. Thermal stress

C. Hydraulic stress

D. Humid stress

22. The typical Young’s modulus of steel is

A. 145-170 GPa

B. 195-210 GPa

C. 225-240 GPa

D. 275-310 GPa

23. Poisson’s ratio of glass

A. 0.16

B. 0.19

C. 0.23

D. 0.27

24. The yield strength of pure aluminum is

A. 7-11 MPa

B. 7-11 GPa

C. 2-5 MPa

D. 2-5 GPa

25. One Newton per square meter is one

A. Joule

B. Watt

C. Pascal

D. Kelvin

26. Stress on an object is _________ its cross sectional area

A. directly proportional to

B. inversely proportional to

C. less than

D. greater than

27. The condition under which the stress is constant or uniform is known as

A. Shearing stress

B. Tangential stress

C. Torsion

D. Simple stress

28. Tensile and compressive stress are caused by forces _________ to the areas on which

they act

A. perpendicular

B. parallel

C. angled

D. skew

29. Which of the following is/are known as tangential stress?

A. Circumferential stress

B. Hoop stress

C. Girth stress

D. All of the above

30. The maximum safe stress a material can carry

A. Optimum stress

B. Working stress

C. Differential stress

D. Partial stress

31. It is the change in shape and / or size of a continuum body after it undergoes a

displacement between an initial and a deformed configuration

A. Deformation

B. Distortion

C. Deflection

D. Dilation

32. Expressed as the ration of total deformation to the initial dimension of the material body

in which forces are being applied.

A. Elasticity

B. Dislocation

C. Stress

D. Strain

33. Engineering strain is also known as

A. Hooke strain

B. Cauchy strain

C. Couch strain

D. Pascal strain

34. When a material is stretched in one direction and the other direction tends to contract, the

Poisson’s ratio is

A. Positive

B. Negative

C. Zero

D. Cannot be determined

35. When a material is stretched in one direction and the other direction tends to expand, the

Poisson’s ratio is

A. Positive

B. Negative

C. Zero

D. Cannot be determined

36. Which of the following is known to have no contractions or expansion when stretched in

the other direction?

A. Cast iron

B. Sand

C. Auxetics

D. Cork

37. Which of the following materials is known to expand instead of contracting when

stretched in the other direction?

A. Cast iron

B. Sand

C. Auxetics

D. Cork

38. Is the twisting of an object due to an applied torque.

A. Torsion

B. Radial distortion

C. Circumferential shear

D. Centrifugal force

39. The angle of twist is measured in

A. Mils

B. Gradians

C. Radians

D. Degrees

40. It is the rotational force down a shaft

A. Pressure

B. Torque

C. Torsion

D. Tangential load

41. It is made of elastic material formed into the shape of a helix which returns to its natural

length when unloaded

A. Autumn

B. Spring

C. Spiral

D. Beam

42. The form of deformation of a spring is

A. Twisting

B. Volume expansion

C. Elongation

D. None of the above

43. A 6mm bar is subjected to a tensile force of 4000 N. Find the stress.

A. 333.33 MPa

B. 70.74 MPa

C. 435.34 MPa

D. 43.30 MPa

44. If the circumference of the cross section of a cylindrical bar is 25mm, what maximum

axial load can it handle if the stress is not to exceed 100 MPa?

A. 4973.59 N

B. 4932.43 N

C. 4901.53 N

D. 4892.43 N

45. What is the minimum diameter of a bar subjected to an axial load of 6.5 kN if its ultimate

stress is 140 MPa

A. 2.43 mm

B. 4.24 mm

C. 6.34 mm

D. 7.69 mm

46. A hollow cylindrical baris subjected to an axial load of 4.5 kN. If the inner diameter is

3mm, what should the outer diameter be if it is not to exceed 125 MPa?

A. 4.34 mm

B. 8.53 mm

C. 7.41 mm

D. 5.34 mm

47. Determine the outside of a hollow steel tube that will carry a tensile load of 500 kN at a

stress of 140 MPa. Assume the wall thickness to be one tenth of the outside diameter.

A. 104 mm

B. 113 mm

C. 134 mm

D. 153 mm

48. A 20 m bar with a square cross section of 9 mm2 is subjected to a tensile force without

exceeding its ultimate stress. If the bar is to be replaced by cylindrical one, what should

the diameter be?

A. 4.34 mm

B. 8.32 mm

C. 3.39 mm

D. 1.24 mm

49. Two plates are being pulled at opposite directions with a load of 20 kN. If the plates are

secured by two bolts 75 mm in diameter, what is the shearing stress applied to each bolt?

A. 4.23 MPa

B. 3.21 MPa

C. 2.26 MPa

D. 1.28 MPa

50. Three plates, secured by a 60 mm bolt, are being pulled at opposite directions alternately.

What pulling force is needed to shear off the bolt if it can withstand a stress of up to 175

MPa?

A. 434 kN

B. 242 kN

C. 495 kN

D. 272 kN

51. What force is required to punch off a 5 mm hole out of a 4 mm thick plate if the ultimate

punching stress is 200 MPa?

A. 15.53 kN

B. 17.45 kN

C. 14.43 kN

D. 12.57 kN

52. A hole is to be punched out of a plate having an ultimate shearing stress of 300 MPa. If

the compressive stress in the punch is limited to 400 MPa, determine the maximum

thickness of plate from which a hole, 100 mm in diameter can be punched.

A. 33.3 mm

B. 17.9 mm

C. 13.4 mm

D. 26.9 mm

53. A cylindrical vessel with wall diameter of 15 mm containing gas holds pressure of 30

MPa. If the thickness is 10% of the inner diameter, what is the longitudinal stress?

A. 150 MPa

B. 125 MPa

C. 100 MPa

D. 75 MPa

54. What is the tangential stress in question 51?

A. 150 MPa

B. 125 MPa

C. 100 MPa

D. 75 MPa

55. If the tensile stress of a spherical vessel is limited to 17 MPa, what is the minimum

thickness allowed if its inner radius is 7 mm containing gas with 20 N/mm2 of pressure?

A. 2.06 mm

B. 4.12 mm

C. 6.24 mm

D. 8.75 mm

56. What is the bearing stress if a 15kN force is applied to plates 9 mm thick secured by a

bolt 8 mm in diameter?

A. 453.32 MPa

B. 321.43 MPa

C. 431.43 MPa

D. 208.33 MPa

57. What is the elongation if a steel bar 7m long is subjected to a temperature change of

17oC? Use α = 11.7 x 10

-6 / C

o.

A. 1.34 mm

B. 13.44 mm

C. 134.44 mm

D. 1.34 m

58. By how much will a 15m steel rod with diameter of 3mm elongate if it is subjected to a

tensile load of 26 kN. Use E=200 GPa

A. 293.34 mm

B. 67.34 mm

C. 275.87 mm

D. 69.34 mm

59. At temperature of 25oC, a 17 m rod 8 mm in diameter is subjected to a tensile load of 24

kN. At what temperature without the load will the bar have the same elongation? Use α =

13.8 x 10-6

/ Co and E = 180 GPa.

A. 115 oC

B. 217 oC

C. 245 oC

D. 287 oC

60. A cylindrical bar 75 m long is attached to the ceiling atone end. At what new length could

be expected if it has a unit mass of 5000 kg/m3? Use E = 750 MPa.

A. 75.023 m

B. 75.104 m

C. 75.184 m

D. 75.245 m

61. A 7mm bar 9 m long is attached to the ceiling at one end. If a weight of 40 kN is hung on

its lower end, what is the total elongation? Use E = 200 GPa and unit mass of kg/m3.

A. 46.78 mm

B. 45.34 mm

C. 48.33 mm

D. 52.23 mm

62. A steel wire 10 m long, hanging vertically supports a tensile load of 2000 N. Neglecting

the weight of the wire, determine the required diameter if the stress is not to exceed 140

MPa and the total elongation is not to exceed 5 mm. Assume E = 200 GPa.

A. 4.26 mm

B. 3.12 mm

C. 5.05 mm

D. 2.46 mm

63. A steel rod having a cross-sectional area of 300mm2 and length of 150 m is suspended

vertically from one end. It supports a load of 13 kN at the lower end. If the unit mass of

steel is 5120 kg/m3 and E=200 GPa, find the total elongation of the rod.

A. 33.45 mm

B. 54.33 mm

C. 53.44 mm

D. 35.33 mm

64. What is the torsion on a solid cylindrical shaft whose diameter is 6 mm subjected to a

rotational force of 27 N-m?

A. 434.31 MPa

B. 542.46 MPa

C. 255.44 MPa

D. 636.62 MPa

65. What is the maximum torque allowed if a 12 mm shaft is allowed torsion of up to 40 MPa

only?

A. 13.57 N-m

B. 15.34 N-m

C. 18.34 N-m

D. 23.43 N-m

66. How many degrees of rotational deformation would occur on an 8 m cylindrical bar 8

mm in radius if it subjected to torque of 95 N-m?

A. 56.34o

B. 35.62o

C. 92.32o

D. 43.53o

67. What is the torque if the power transmitted by a shaft rotating at 30 rev/s is 1 MW?

A. 8.342 kN-m

B. 3.532 kN-m

C. 7.453 kN-m

D. 5.305 kN-m

68. A cylindrical solid shaft 7 mm in diameter is rotating at 18 rev/s. What is the maximum

allowable power transmitted if the stress should not exceed 380 MPa?

A. 3.43 kW

B. 5.23 kW

C. 1.53 kW

D. 2.89 kW

69. Determine the length of the shortest 2-mm diameter bronze wire which can be twisted

through two complete turns without exceeding a shearing stress of 343 MPa. Use G=35

GPa.

A. 6280 mm

B. 3420 mm

C. 1280 mm

D. 1658 mm

70. A solid steel shaft 5 m long is stressed to 60 Mpa when twisted through 4o. Using G=83

GPa, compute the power that can be transmitted by the shaft at 20 rev/s.

A. 1.21 MW

B. 1.67 MW

C. 3.21 MW

D. 1.26 MW

71. A helical spring with mean radius of 40 mm has wire diameter of 2.7 mm. What is the

shearing stress if there is a 22 N load? Use the approximate formula.

A. 325.32 MPa

B. 231.54 MPa

C. 432.43 MPa

D. 154.67 MPa

72. Solve question 69 using the exact formula.

A. 238.29 MPa

B. 431.32 MPa

C. 365.35 MPa

D. 153.64 MPa

73. By how much will a spring with 9 turns elongate if it supports a weight of 400 N? The

wire diameter is 6 mm and the mean radius is 28 mm. Use G=150 GPa.

A. 64.35 mm

B. 42.43 mm

C. 26.02 mm

D. 16.65 mm

74. A helical spring is made by wrapping steel wire 20 mm in diameter around a forming

cylinder 150 mm in diameter. Compute number of turns required to permit an elongation

of 132 mm without exceeding a shearing stress of 184.8 MPa. Use G=83 GPa.

A. 15.43 turns

B. 13.83 turns

C. 18.24 turns

D. 12.36 turns

75. Determine the maximum shearing stress in a helical steel spring composed of 20 turns of

20-mm diameter wire on a mean radius of 80 mm when the spring is supporting a load of

2kN. Use the exact formula.

A. 120.6 MPa

B. 117.9 MPa

C. 132.4 MPa

126.9 MPa

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

ENGINEERING

MATERIALS General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

1. The property of metals that allows them to be drawn into thin wires beyond their elastic

limit without being ruptured is called

A. ductility

B. malleability

C. elasticity

D. hardness

2. Interaction between the surface of two closely adjacent bodies which causes them to cling

together is known as

A. Friction

B. Cohesion

C. Adhesion

D. Viscosity

3. Solids which break above the elastic limit are called

A. Brittle

B. Ductile

C. Plastic

D. Malleable

4. The property of some elementary particles that causes them to exert force on one another

I known as

A. Potential difference

B. Charge

C. Specific change

D. Nucleon interaction

5. The property which permits the flow of current under the action of a potential difference

is called

A. Resistance

B. Permeance

C. Impedence

D. Conductance

6. When a body is resistant to heat, it is called

A. Thermoscopic

B. Thermotropic

C. Thermoduric

D. Thermoplastic

7. The property of fluids by virtue of which they offer resistance to flow is known as

A. Gummosity

B. Glutinosity

C. Viscidity

D. Viscosity

8. The tendency of a body to return to its original size or shape after having been deformed

is called

A. Elastance

B. Elasticity

C. Elastivity

D. Anelastivity

9. The emission of light by a material because of its high temperature is known as

A. Incandescence

B. Luminescence

C. Scintillation

D. Phosphorescence

10. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the passage of white light into a

glass prism?

A. The violet color travels faster than the red color

B. The violet color travels slower than the red color

C. All the colors of white light travels the same speed

D. Greater the wavelength, slower the speed of color

11. The property by virtue of which a body resists any attempt to change its state of rest or

motion is called

A. Torpidity

B. Passivity

C. Inactivity

D. Inertia

12. The property of an isolated conductor to store electric charge is

A. Capacitance

B. Conductance

C. Permeability

D. Accumulation

13. If the properties of a body are the same in all directions, it is called

A. Isodynamic

B. Isotropic

C. Isogonic

D. Isotopic

14. The property of an object that determines the direction of heat flow when in contact with

another object is called

A. Calidity

B. Pyxeria

C. Caloric

D. Temperature

15. The rate of flow of thermal energy through a material in the presence of a temperature

gradient is called

A. Thermal capacity

B. Thermal conductivity

C. Thermal radiation

D. Thermal convection

16. The property of some crystals of absorbing light difference extents, thereby giving to the

crystals different colors according to the direction of the incident light is known as

A. dichroism

B. dichromatism

C. diastrophism

D. chromaticity

17. Emission of radiations from a substance during illumination by radiations of higher

frequency is called

A. illuminance

B. fluorescence

C. radioluminescence

D. incandescence

18. If a materials is feebly repelled by a magnet it is

A. diamagnetic

B. paramagnetic

C. ferromagnetic

D. ferromagnetic

19. The progressive decrease of a property as a result of repeated stress is called

A. debility

B. rigidity

C. elastic deformation

D. fatigue

20. Property of some pure metals and their alloys at extremely low temperatures of having

negligible to the flow of an electric current is called

A. supercharging

B. supercooling

C. superfluidity

D. superconductivity

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

LAWS & ETHICS - 1 General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

1. A juridical necessity to give, to do, or not to do.

A. Contracts

B. Obligation

C. Quasi-delicts

D. Condition

2. Obligation comes from the latin word _______ which means to bind.

A. Obligum

B. Obligate

C. Obligare

D. Obligus

3. A legal wrong, committed through fault or negligence, on a person or property,

independent of contract.

A. Contracts

B. Obligation

C. Quasi-delicts

D. Condition

4. A nature of obligation under civil code which is legally demandable and the courts of

justice may compel their performance.

A. Civil Obligations

B. Natural Obligation

C. Pure Obligation

D. Condition

5. A nature of obligation under civil code based on morality, natural law and conscience,

they are not legally demandable.

A. Civil Obligations

B. Natural Obligation

C. Pure Obligation

D. Condition

6. Requisites of obligations which is the vinculum or the link that binds the party

A. Juridical or legal tie

B. Prestation

C. Active subject

D. Passive subject

7. Requisites of obligation consist in giving, doing or not doing something

A. Juridical or legal tie

B. Prestation

C. Active subject

D. Passive subject

8. Requisites of obligation that refers to a person who can demand the performance of the

obligation or known as the creditor or oblige

A. Juridical or legal tie

B. Prestation

C. Active subject

D. Passive subject

9. Requisites of obligation that refers to a person from whom prestation is demandable or

known as the debtor or obligor

A. Juridical or legal tie

B. Prestation

C. Active subject

D. Passive subject

10. One of the following is not considered as a source of obligation.

A. Law

B. Contracts

C. Quai-delicts

D. Work

11. The following are requisites of Quasi-delicts except

A. An act or omission

B. Accompanied by fault or negligence

C. There must be no pre-existing contractual relation between the parties

D. Acts or omissions punished by law

12. An obligation which is not subject to conditions or burdens nor does it mention a specific

date for its fulfillment and as such it is immediately demandable.

A. Pure obligation

B. Condition obligation

C. Reciprocal obligation

D. Alternative obligation

13. An uncertain event which wields an influence on a legal relation.

A. Pure obligation

B. Condition

C. Reciprocal obligation

D. Alternative obligation

14. An obligation which is a subject to a condition.

A. Pure obligation

B. Condition obligation

C. Reciprocal obligation

D. Alternative obligation

15. A kind of condition which suspends the demandability of the obligation until the

fulfillment of the condition.

A. Suspensive Condition

B. Alternative obligation

C. Reciprocal obligation

D. Resolutory obligation

16. A kind of condition that produces the extinguishment of an obligation upon the

happening of the event.

A. Suspensive Condition

B. Alternative obligation

C. Reciprocal obligation

D. Resolutory Condition

17. An obligation whose consequences are subjected in one way or the other to the expiration

of said term.

A. Pure obligation

B. Obligations with a period

C. Reciprocal obligation

D. Alternative obligation

18. “A” borrowed money from “B” in the amount of P50.00 promising to pay the amount “as

soon as possible”. If later on, they cannot agree on the specific date of payment, the

remedy of “B” is to go to court and ask the court to fix the date when the debt is to be

paid. This illustrates:

A. Pure obligation

B. Obligations with a period

C. Reciprocal obligation

D. Alternative obligation

19. A kind of period with suspensive effect.

A. Ex die

B. In diem

C. Legal period

D. Voluntary period

20. A kind of period with a resolutory effect and the validity of obligation is up to a certain

date

A. Ex die

B. In diem

C. Legal period

D. Voluntary period

21. A period established by law.

A. Ex die

B. In diem

C. Legal period

D. Voluntary period

22. A period agreed to by the parties.

A. Judicial period

B. In diem

C. Legal period

D. Voluntary period

23. A period authorized by the court.

A. Judicial period

B. In diem

C. Legal period

D. Voluntary period

24. An obligation where two parties are mutually obliged to do or to give something.

A. Pure obligation

B. Condition

C. Reciprocal obligation

D. Alternative obligation

25. Marc obliged himself to deliver to Edwin either a piano or a refrigerator. The delivery of

the piano or the refrigerator is sufficient compliance with the obligation. Marc could not

compel Edwin to accept only a part of the piano or a part of the refrigerator because this

illustrates:

A. Pure obligation

B. Condition

C. Reciprocal obligation

D. Alternative obligation

26. An obligation wherein various things are due, but the payment of one of them is

sufficient, determined by the choice which as a general rule belongs to the obligor.

A. Pure obligation

B. Condition

C. Reciprocal obligation

D. Alternative obligation

27. One in which each of the debtors is answerable only for a proportionate part of the debt,

and each one of the creditors is entitled to a proportionate part of the credit

A. Joint obligation

B. Solidary obligation

C. Divisible obligation

D. Indivisible obligation

28. One in which each of the debtors is liable for the whole obligation and each of the

creditors may demand compliance of the entire obligation.

A. Joint obligation

B. Solidary obligation

C. Divisible obligation

D. Indivisible obligation

29. A kind of solidarity when it exists among the creditors only.

A. Active Solidarity

B. Passive Solidarity

C. Mixed Solidarity

D. Solo Solidarity

30. When the solidarity takes place among the debtors only, it is called

A. Active Solidarity

B. Passive Solidarity

C. Mixed Solidarity

D. Solo Solidarity

31. When the solidarity exists both among the creditors and the debtors at the same time, this

is called

A. Active Solidarity

B. Passive Solidarity

C. Mixed Solidarity

D. Solo Solidarity

32. An obligation which is capable of partial performance.

A. Joint obligation

B. Solidary obligation

C. Divisible obligation

D. Indivisible obligation

33. Juan obliged himself to deliver to Pedro six sacks of rice as follows: Three sacks of rice

to be delivered by Juan on May 1st, and Pedro to pay Juan the amount of P150.00.

Another three sacks of rice to be delivered by Juan on June 1st, and Pedro to pay Juan the

same amount of P150.00. This illustrates:

A. Joint obligation

B. Solidary obligation

C. Divisible obligation

D. Indivisible obligation

34. A type division that depends on quality rather than quantity

A. Qualitative

B. Quantitative

C. Ideal

D. Moral

35. A type of division that depends on quantity rather than quality

A. Qualitative

B. Quantitative

C. Ideal

D. Mental

36. A type of division also known as moral, intellectual or mental division

A. Qualitative

B. Quantitative

C. Ideal

D. All of the above

37. It is an accessory undertaking to assume greater liability in case of breach.

A. Law

B. Penal clause

C. Stipulation

D. Preceding

38. “A” binds himself to deliver to “B” a Honda Civic car at the end of the current year. They

agree in writing that should “A” fail to deliver the car on a specified date, “A” shall pay

“B” as penalty P10,000.00. “A” fails to make the delivery. “B” could demand the

payment of P10,000.00 against “A”. “B”, however could not compel “A” to deliver the

car and pay the penalty at the same time. This is _______ type of penal clause:

A. Joint

B. Subsidiary

C. Solo

D. Partial

39. A classification of penal clause when both the principal contract and the penal clause can

be enforced.

A. Joint

B. Subsidiary

C. Solo

D. Partial

40. An obligation can be extinguished by the following except

A. By Payment or Performance

B. By the condition or remission of the debt

C. By altering the signature

D. By the loss of the thing due

41. An obligation which is not capable of partial performance.

A. Joint obligation

B. Solidary obligation

C. Divisible obligation

D. Indivisible obligation

42. A kind of remission when the enforcement of the obligation is waived or renounced

totally.

A. Partial

B. Complete

C. Express

D. Implied

43. A remission when the waiver or renunciation refers only to a part of the obligation.

A. Partial

B. Complete

C. Express

D. Implied

44. A remission when it is shown by words or declaration of the obligee.

A. Partial

B. Complete

C. Express

D. Implied

45. A remission when it is inferred from the acts or conduct of the obligee.

A. Partial

B. Complete

C. Express

D. Implied

46. A type of compensation that takes place when compensation extinguishes the two debts

in their concurrent amounts even without the express agreement of the parties. Judicial

compensation

A. Legal compensation

B. Voluntary compensation

C. Judicial compensation

D. Partial compensation

47. A type of compensation that takes place when there is compensation by agreement of the

parties as in the case of mutual set off of accounts.

A. Legal compensation

B. Voluntary compensation

C. Judicial compensation

D. Partial compensation

48. A type of compensation that takes place when the court permits the counterclaim of the

defendant as against the claim of the plaintiff.

A. Legal compensation

B. Total compensation

C. Judicial compensation

D. Partial compensation

49. A type of compensation that takes place when the two obligations are of different

amounts and a balance remains unextinguished after the compensation.

A. Legal compensation

B. Total compensation

C. Judicial compensation

D. Partial compensation

50. A type of compensation that takes place when the obligations are of the same amount and

compensation extinguishes the obligations entirely.

A. Legal compensation

B. Total compensation

C. Judicial compensation

D. Partial compensation

51. A novation where the principal conditions of the obligation is change.

A. True novation

B. Real novation

C. Personal novation

D. Substitute novation

52. “A” obliged himself to deliver to “B” a car. Subsequently, they entered into another

contract whereby instead of “A” delivering a car, “A” would deliver a truck. This

illustrates:

A. True novation

B. Real novation

C. Personal novation

D. Substitute novation

53. A novation where another person is sustained in place of the debtor or he is subrogated to

the rights of the creditor.

A. True novation

B. Real novation

C. Personal novation

D. Substitute novation

54. A novation where there is a change in the person of the parties and the objects or

modification of principal condition.

A. Mixed novation

B. Real novation

C. Personal novation

D. Substitute novation

55. It is the meeting of minds between two persons whereby one binds himself with respect

to the other to give something or to render some services.

A. Contracts

B. Obligation

C. Quasi-delicts

D. Condition

56. A contract comes from the Latin word _______ which signifies an agreement.

A. Kontrus

B. contractus

C. Tractum

D. Contractumus

57. The following are considered to be the essential elements of contracts except

A. consent of the parties

B. object or subject matter

C. cause or consideration

D. effects to the subject

58. An element of contracts which refers to those the existence of which is presumed by law

unless there is an agreement to the contrary

A. Essential element

B. Natural elements

C. Accidental elements

D. Unnatural elements

59. Refers to an element of contracts that consist of the unusual stipulation of the parties such

as conditions, terms, etc.

A. Essential element

B. Natural elements

C. Accidental elements

D. Unnatural elements

60. A stage of contract that includes all the initial stages up to the time the parties agree upon

the terms of the contract.

A. Preparation or Conception

B. Perfection or Birth

C. Consummation or Termination

D. Deliberation

61. A stage of contract that refers to the time when the minds of the parties meet in

agreement upon the object or subject matter as well as to the price or consideration.

A. Preparation or Conception

B. Perfection or Birth

C. Consummation or Termination

D. Deliberation

62. Juan agrees to receive P2,000.00 for his horse and Pedro agrees to take the horse for the

amount. This refers to what stage of the contract

A. Preparation or Conception

B. Perfection or Birth

C. Consummation or Termination

D. Deliberation

63. Juan delivers the horse to Pedro and the same is accepted. Pedro gives the amount

P2,000.00 as purchase price and the latter receives it.

A. Preparation or Conception

B. Perfection or Birth

C. Consummation or Termination

D. Deliberation

64. A contract wherein the intent of the parties is shown by words, oral or written.

A. Express contract

B. Implied contracts

C. Executed contracts

D. Executory contracts

65. A contract wherein the intent of the parties is shown by conduct.

A. Express contract

B. Implied contracts

C. Executed contracts

D. Executory contracts

66. A contract that has already been performed.

A. Express contract

B. Implied contracts

C. Executed contracts

D. Executory contracts

67. A contract that has not yet performed.

A. Express contract

B. Implied contracts

C. Executed contracts

D. Executory contracts

68. A contract that is perfected by mere consent, such as a contract of sale.

A. Consensual contract

B. Bilateral contract

C. Real contract

D. Unilateral contract

69. A contract that is perfected by delivery of the thing which is the object of the contract.

A. Consensual contract

B. Bilateral contract

C. Real contract

D. Unilateral contract

70. A contract wherein only one of the parties has an obligation such as in commodatum or

gratuitous deposit.

A. Consensual contract

B. Bilateral contract

C. Real contract

D. Unilateral contract

71. A contract that creates reciprocal obligations.

A. Consensual contract

B. Bilateral contract

C. Real contract

D. Unilateral contract

72. “A”, for and in consideration of P1,000.00, entered into a contract with “B” whereby the

latter agreed to murder “C”. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to

A. Contrary to law

B. Against moral

C. Contrary to good customs

D. Contrary to public order

73. “A” entered into a contract with “B” whereby for and In consideration of P100,000.00 the

latter agrees to live with “A” without the benefit of marriage. This limitation upon the

right to contract that refers to

A. Contrary to law

B. Against moral

C. Contrary to good customs

D. Contrary to public order

74. Pedro and Maria decided to get married on October 10, 2007. Invitations were printed

and distributed to relatives and friends and apparel were purchased including matrimonial

bed. Pedro, however walked out of it and was never heard of again. This limitation upon

the right to contract that refers to

A. Contrary to law

B. Against moral

C. Contrary to good customs

D. Contrary to public order

75. “A” entered into a contract with “B” whereby “A” will not enter into any enterprise

whatever in the Philippines. This limitation upon the right to contract that refers to

A. Contrary to law

B. Against moral

C. Contrary to good customs

D. Contrary to public order

76. The following are requisites of contracts except

A. Consent

B. Object of contract

C. Cause of contract

D. Effect of contract

77. A classification of contracts as to its “cause” where the cause is the pure liberality of the

giver.

A. Gratuitous Contract

B. Remunetory Contract

C. Onerous Contrary

D. Liberation Contract

78. A classification of contracts as to its “cause” where the cause is the service or benefit for

which the remuneration is given.

A. Gratuitous Contract

B. Remunetory Contract

C. Onerous Contract

D. Liberation Contract

79. A classification of contracts as to its “cause” where the cause is the mutual undertaking

or promise of either of the contracting parties.

A. Gratuitous Contract

B. Remunetory Contract

C. Onerous Contract

D. Liberation Contract

80. Remedy in equity by means of which a written instrument is made or constructed so as to

express or confirm to the real intention of the parties when some error or mistake has

been committed.

A. Reformation

B. Novation

C. Defect

D. Erroneous

81. Which of the following cannot be considered as a requisite of reformation?

A. There is a valid contract;

B. The contract is in writing;

C. The oral contract expresses the true intention of the parties

D. The failure of the written contract to express the true intention is due to mutual

mistake, fraud, inequitable conduct, or accident.

82. A defective contract where it has all the essential requisites of a damage to third persons,

such as creditors, the contract may be rescinded.

A. Rescissible Contract

B. Voidable Contract

C. Unenforced Contracts

D. Void or Inexistent Contracts

83. A damage or injury suffered by the party seeking rescission by reason of the fact that the

price is unjust or inadequate.

A. damage

B. effect

C. lesion

D. payment

84. A contract which possesses all the essential requisites of a valid contract, namely,

consent, object and cause or consideration. It is a valid contract until it is annulled.

A. Void or Inexistent Contract

B. Unenforceable Contract

C. Voidable Contract

D. Negotiorum Gestio

85. A contract which is absolutely without legal force or effect.

A. Void or Inexistent Contract

B. Unenforceable Contract

C. Voidable Contract

D. Negotiorum Gestio

86. When a contract cannot be sued upon or enforced in court unless it is ratified is said to be

A. Void or Inexistent Contract

B. Unenforceable Contract

C. Voidable Contract

D. Negotiorum Gestio

87. It is the voluntary administration of the abandoned business or property belonging to

another without the consent of the latter.

A. Void or Inexistent Contract

B. Unenforceable Contract

C. Voidable Contract

D. Negotiorum Contract

88. It is the sum of money which the law awards or imposes as the pecuniary compensation,

recompense, or satisfaction for an injury done or a wrong sustained as a consequence

either of a breach of a contractual obligation or a tortuous act.

A. Payment

B. Injury

C. Damages

D. Compensation

89. Damages that cover actual injury or economic loss. It typically includes medical

expenses, lost wages and the repair or replacement of property.

A. Actual or Compensatory Damages

B. Nominal Damages

C. Moral Damages

D. Temperate and Moderate Damages

90. Damages that includes physical suffering, mental anguish, fright, serious anxiety,

besmirched reputation, wounded feelings, moral shock, social humiliation and similar

injury.

A. Actual or Compensatory Damages

B. Nominal Damages

C. Moral Damages

D. Temperate or Moderate Damages

91. Damages which are small and trivial sums awarded for a technical injury due to a

violation of some legal right, and as a consequence of which some damages must be

awarded to determine the right.

A. Actual or Compensatory Damages

B. Nominal Damages

C. Moral Damages

D. Temperate or Moderate Damages

92. Damages that are reasonable compensation for the injury.

A. Actual or Compensatory Damages

B. Nominal Damages

C. Moral Damages

D. Temperate or Moderate Damages

93. “Damages” where the amount of which has been agrees upon by the parties or fixed by

the judgment of a competent court.

A. Liquidated Damages

B. Exemplary Damages

C. Corrective Damages

D. Compensatory Damages

94. Damages which are given in enhancement merely of the ordinary damages on account of

wanton, reckless, malicious, or oppressive character of the acts complained of.

A. Actual or Compensatory Damages

B. Nominal Damages

C. Moral Damages

D. Exemplary or Corrective Damages

95. Branch of the unwritten law which was originally founded on the customs of merchants,

mariners and business men generally in their dealings with one another throughout the

civilized countries of the world.

A. Law of merchants

B. Law of businessmen

C. Law of mariners

D. Law of people

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

LAWS & ETHICS - 2 General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

1. An electrical discharge which occurs between clouds and also from cloud to earth.

A. Thunder

B. Lightning

C. Corona

D. Aurora

2. Results from abnormally high sound level, the physical effects of which may vary from

minor discomfort to serious injury.

A. Electrical Shock

B. Super Sonic

C. Acoustic Shock

D. Sonic Boom

3. The factor that determines the intensity of electrical shock is

A. Current

B. Voltage

C. Resistance

D. Conductance

4. The average resistance of a dry adult human body is approximately:

A. 10,000 ohms

B. 100,000 ohms

C. 1,000,000 ohms

D. 100 ohms

5. Ventricular fibrillation is likely to occur when a 60Hz rms current of _________

amperes and above passes through one’s chest cavity.

A. 0.010

B. 0.11

C. 0.030

D. 0.33

6. The minimum voltage value that is considered hazardous is:

A. 45V RMS AC

B. 12V RMS AC

C. 24V RMS AC

D. 50V RMS AC

7. The minimum voltage value that is considered hazardous is:

A. 150V DC

B. 45V DC

C. 135V DC

D. 160V DC

8. The potential difference at any time between two points on the floor or earth surface

separated by a distance of one pace, or about one meter, in the direction of maximum

potential gradient shall be no greater than __________.

A. 45 volts rms AC or 135 volts DC

B. 25 volts rms AC or 115 volts DC

C. 15 volts rms AC or 105 volts DC

D. 55 volts rms AC or 145 volts DC

9. It is the provision of a grounded electrical conducting material located such that foreign

potential will be intercepted and surge currents diverted to ground with the least damage

to plant equipment possible.

A. Grounding

B. Shielding

C. Bonding

D. Current Limiting

10. Prevents development of hazardous potential difference in communication plant by direct

bonding, when permissible or by use of surge arresters, discharge gaps, diodes, etc. which

operate under abnormal voltage condition.

A. Current limiting

B. Resistance limiting

C. Grounding

D. Voltage limiting

11. The current in a circuit can be kept from rising above predetermined value by the use of a

fuse in series with a circuit.

A. Current limiting

B. Resistance limiting

C. Grounding

D. Voltage limiting

12. This is used to divert undesired currents before they reach the equipment being protected

and often are installed both at and some distance away from the protected equipment.

A. Current limiting

B. Resistance limiting

C. Grounding

D. Voltage limiting

13. It is the resistance path of a ground connection which includes the ground wire and its

connection to ground electrode.

A. Ground Resistance

B. Grounde Electrode

C. Ground Path

D. Resistance Path

14. For equipment locations, antenna towers, and all allied installations, the ground resistance

must never exceed __________.

A. 25 ohms

B. 3 ohms

C. 43 ohms

D. 5 ohms

15. For outside plant telephone poles and manholes as well as customer premises, the ground

resistance must never exceed __________.

A. 25 ohms

B. 3 ohms

C. 43 ohms

D. 5 ohms

16. It is an electrode buried in the ground for the purpose of establishing a low resistance

electrical contact with the earth.

A. Ground pole

B. Lightning Rods

C. Guy

D. Made Ground

17. It is a metal strip or rod, usually of copper or similar conductive material, designed to

protect tall or isolated structures (such as the roof of a building or the mast of a vessel)

from lightning damage.

A. Ground pole

B. Lightning Rods

C. Guy

D. Made Ground

18. A device used in electrical systems to protect against excessive current.

A. fuse

B. Lightning rod

C. Surge arrester

D. Grounding

19. These are normally open circuited devices and pass no significant current at normal

operating potentials.

A. fuse

B. Lightning rod

C. Surge arrester

D. Grounding

20. Provides certain level of safety to humans and property in case of equipment damages.

A. fuse

B. Lightning rod

C. Surge arrester

D. Bonding or Grounding

21. The simplest way to make an earth resistance test is to use:

A. Direct Method or two terminal test

B. Voltmeter-Ammeter Method

C. Triangulation Method

D. Three terminal test

22. It is the resistance of parallel faces of a one cubic centimeter of soil expressed in ohm-

centimeter.

A. Ground resistance

B. Earth resistivity

C. Cubic resistance

D. Earth density

23. The following are ways to improve grounds except:

A. Lengthen the ground-electrode in the earth

B. Use multiple rods

C. Treat the soil when 1 & 2 are not feasible

D. Place stones near the rod

24. Ground resistance shall be tested when installed and periodically afterwards, at least

__________ during the dry or non-rainy months and ALL VALUES OBTAINED

SHALL BE NO GREATER THAN THE RULE REQUIRED.

A. 3 times per year

B. twice a year

C. once a year

D. 12 times a year

25. All ground connections, be it solderless or soldered, shall be checked at least __________

to be sure they are tight.

A. 3 times per year

B. twice a year

C. once a year

D. 12 times a year

26. This loading shall be taken as the resultant stress due to wind and dead weight for 240

kph wind velocity.

A. Heavy Loading Zone

B. Medium Loading Zone

C. Light Loading Zone

D. Extra Heavy Loading Zone

27. This loading shall be taken as the resultant stress due to wind and dead weight for 200

kph wind velocity.

A. Heavy Loading Zone

B. Medium Loading Zone

C. Light Loading Zone

D. Extra Heavy Loading Zone

28. This loading shall be taken as the result ant stress due to wind and dead weight for 160

kph wind velocity.

A. Heavy Loading Zone

B. Medium Loading Zone

C. Light Loading Zone

D. Extra Heavy Loading Zone

29. Batteries should be located where temperatures range between __________ degrees

Celsius.

A. 12.5 and 25.2

B. 15.5 and 32.2

C. 15.2 and 52.2

D. 55.5 and 60.3

30. Lead acid or similar gas emitting battery installations where the aggregate power exceeds

__________ 5 kilowatts shall be located in a properly ventilated room separated from the

equipment room or location where people are staying.

A. 5 kW

B. 10 kW

C. 1 kW

D. 15 kW

31. Smoking and storing of inflammable materials is prohibited in battery rooms and “NO

SMOKING” signs should be posted ___________.

A. inside the room only

B. before entering battery rooms

C. outside the room only

D. Both A and C

32. An acid neutralizing agent such as __________ should be stored and available in battery

rooms for use in accidental electrolyte or acid spillage.

A. oil

B. kerosene

C. flour

D. Caustic soda

33. A low resistance electrical connection between two cable sheaths, between two ground

connections or between similar parts of two circuits.

A. Bond

B. Short

C. Fuse

D. Guy

34. The vertical space reserved along the side of a pole or tower to permit ready access for

linemen to equipment and conductors located thereon.

A. Stairway

B. Climbing Space

C. Guy

D. Pole

35. Insulated wires, used to run a subscriber’s line from the terminal on the pole to the

protector at the house or building.

A. main line

B. main cable

C. dropline

D. dropwire

36. a physical condition that causes a device, a component or an element to fail to perform in

a required manner.

A. damaged

B. hazard

C. fault

D. short

37. A current that flows from one conductor to ground or to another conductor owing to any

abnormal connection (including an arc) between the two.

A. Fault current

B. Dark current

C. Leakage current

D. Dead short

38. An apparatus so treated such that it will not maintain a flame or will not be injured

readily when subjected to flame.

A. Flame Proof

B. Flame Retarding

C. Burn Proof

D. Anti Flame

39. A property of materials or structures such that they will not convey flame or continue to

burn for longer times than specified in the appropriate flame test.

A. Flame Proof

B. Flame Retarding

C. Burn Proof

D. Anti Flame

40. A discharge through air, around or over the surface of solid, liquid or other insulation,

between parts of different potential of polarity, produced by the application of voltage

such that the breakdown path becomes sufficiently ionized to maintain an electric arc.

A. Aurora

B. Corona

C. Washover

D. Arc

41. A conducting connection, whether intentional or accidental, by which an electric circuit

or equipment is connected to earth, or to some conducting body of relatively large extent

that serves in place of the earth.

A. short

B. jumper

C. ground

D. ink

42. A tension member (of solid or stranded wires) used to withstand an otherwise unbalanced

force on a pole or other overhead line structures.

A. Bond

B. Short

C. Fuse

D. Guy

43. A guy extending from a pole or structure or tree is sometimes called a span guy.

A. Overhead guy

B. Anchor guy

C. Bla guy

D. Guy post

44. An opening in an underground run or system into which workers reach, but do not enter.

A. Manhole

B. Rathole

C. Handhole

D. Finger hole

45. A device designed to protect apparatus from high transient voltage, by diverting surge

current to ground and capable of repeating this function as specified.

A. Lightning ball

B. Lightning Arrester

C. Fuse

D. Lightning Protector

46. A subsurface chamber, large enough for a person to enter, in the route of one or more

conduit runs, and affording facilities for placing and maintaining in the runs, conductors,

cables and any associated apparatus.

A. Manhole

B. Rathole

C. Handhole

D. Finger hole

47. Stranded steel wires in a group which generally is not a part of the conducting system, its

primary function being to support wires or cables of the system.

A. guy

B. support

C. conduit

D. messenger

48. A general term applied to the whole or portion of the physical property of a

communication company which contributes to the furnishing of communication service.

A. zone

B. area

C. plant

D. division

49. A metallic rod, driven into the ground to provide an electrical connection to the earth.

A. Lightning rod

B. Ground rod

C. Drop ground

D. Radials

50. A metallic rod carried above the highest point of a pole or structure and connected to

earth by a heavy copper conductor intended to carry lightning currents directly to earth.

A. Lightning arrester

B. Lightning rod

C. Breaker

D. Lightning gap

51. The installation from the terminal on the pole to the protector at the customer’s premises.

A. Service drop

B. Subscriber’s loop

C. Main line

D. Local drop

52. The horizontal displacement of a point on the tower axis from its no-wind load position at

that elevation.

A. Tower displacement

B. Tower sway

C. Tower twist

D. Tower bend

53. The angular displacement of a tangent to the tower axis at the elevation from its no-wind

load position at that elevation

A. Tower displacement

B. Tower sway

C. Tower twist

D. Tower bend

54. The horizontal angular displacement of the tower from its no-wind position at that

elevation

A. Tower displacement

B. Tower sway

C. Tower twist

D. Tower bend

55. Refers to communication facilities installed below the surface of the earth.

A. underneath

B. underground

C. earth mat

D. under earth

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

LAWS & ETHICS - 3 General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

1. Define as wires or cables entering the building, terminated to the main cross

connecting point within the building from the nearest telephone facility.

A. drop wire

B. local loop

C. service entrance

D. subscribers loop

2. A type of service entrance that serves as means of providing service aerially from a

pole to a building.

A. Aerial entrance

B. Underground entrance

C. Overhead entrance

D. Handhole

3. The size of the aerial entrance conduit shall not be less than __________ in diameter.

A. 20mm

B. 30mm

C. 40mm

D. 50mm

4. The maximum span from telephone pole to a building used in aerial entrance should

be ___________.

A. 20m

B. 30m

C. 40m

D. 50m

5. In aerial entrance, the minimum clearances between telephone cable and power

entrance must be __________ radial distance.

A. 2m

B. 3m

C. 4m

D. 1m

6. In aerial entrance, the minimum clearance from ground level when crossing the street

must be ___________.

A. 4.4m

B. 3.3m

C. 5.5m

D. 6.6m

7. In aerial entrance, minimum clearance over areas accessible to pedestrians only, must

be __________.

A. 3.5m

B. 5.5m

C. 4.5m

D. 6.1m

8. A type of service entrance that provides mechanical protection and minimizes the

need for possible subsequent repairs to the property.

A. Aerial entrance

B. Underground entrance

C. Overhead entrance

D. Handhole

9. An underground entrance’s minimum depth under areas used for vehicular traffic

inside private property is

A. 800 mm

B. 600 mm

C. 900 mm

D. 700 mm

10. For underground entrance, conduits should be separated from power conduits by not

less than __________ in well-tamped earth:

A. 300 mm

B. 100 mm

C. 50 mm

D. 150 mm

11. For underground entrance, conduits should be separated from power conduits by not

less than __________ of concrete.

A. 300 mm

B. 100 mm

C. 50 mm

D. 150 mm

12. The size of underground entrance conduit within the building shall be no case smaller

than __________ in diameter when the service entrance does not require use of a

service box.

A. 50 mm

B. 75 mm

C. 65 mm

D. 45 mm

13. The use of handholes will be permitted for entrance cable not exceeding __________

pairs.

A. 20

B. 40

C. 30

D. 50

14. The minimum size for vehicular handholes is

A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m

B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m

C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m

D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m

15. The minimum size for non-vehicular handholes is

A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m

B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m

C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m

D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m

16. The use of service box will be permitted for entrance cable exceeding __________

pairs. The minimum size for service box is

A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m

B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m

C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m

D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m

17. The minimum size for service-box is

A. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.91m

B. 0.61m x 0.91m x 0.73m

C. 0.19m x 1.23m x 1.21m

D. 0.91m x 1.22m x 1.19m

18. The minimum size for an entrance conduit is

A. 20mm

B. 30mm

C. 40mm

D. 50mm

19. The minimum number of entrance conduit is

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

20. It is a point where cable from TELCO and the in-building distribution system are

terminated.

A. drop wire

B. terminal wire

C. main terminals

D. service box

21. The location of the main terminal must be equipped with adequate lighting, and

located at a minimum distance of __________ above floor finish.

A. 1.3 m

B. 2.3 m

C. 1.6 m

D. 2.6 m

22. The location of the main terminal should have enough working space in front of all

terminations. Normally __________ away from all hazards.

A. 800 mm

B. 800 mm

C. 1000 mm

D. 700 mm

23. A main terminal required for terminating entrance cables using one or more terminal

blocks.

A. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)

B. Main Distributing Frame (MDF)

C. Riser System

D. Service Box

24. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used other

special services is:

A. white

B. yellow

C. black

D. blue

25. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used as an

entrance is:

A. white

B. yellow

C. black

D. blue

26. The backboard color for Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC) used for risers

is:

A. white

B. yellow

C. black

D. blue

27. A main terminal generally recommended when entrance cable requirements will

exceed 300 pairs.

A. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)

B. Main Distributing Frame (MDF)

C. Riser System

D. Service Box

28. Defined as the vertical and horizontal distribution of telephone communication lines

between two or more floors or adjoining premises on the same floor of a building

generally originating at or near the cabinet up to the Telephone Terminal or outlet.

A. Main Telephone Terminal Cabinet (MTTC)

B. Main Distributing Frame (MDF)

C. Riser System

D. Service Box

29. A riser system usually extends from the ground to the roof top of the building with no

floor separation to a ventilating shaft. Telephone cable is not permitted in unless

placed in metallic conduit.

A. Open Riser

B. Elevated Riser

C. Closed Riser

D. Underground Riser

30. A riser system that consists of a series of telephone terminal cabinets/closets

vertically or non-vertically aligned, usually beginning at the ground floor and

extending throughout the height of the building.

A. Open Riser

B. Elevated Riser

C. Closed Riser

D. Underground Riser

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

LAWS & ETHICS - 4 General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

1. RA 9292 is known as

A. Electronics Engineering Law of 2004

B. Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of the Philippines

C. Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of 2004

D. Electronics Engineering Law of the Philippines

2. The science dealing with the development and application of devices and systems

involving the flow of electrons or other carriers of electric charge, in a vacuum, in

gaseous media, in plasma, in semiconductors, in solid-state and/or in similar devices,

including, but not limited to, applications involving optical, electromagnetic and other

energy forms when transduced or converted into electronic signals.

A. Electronics

B. Communications

C. Electricity

D. Physics

3. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed

Professional Electronics Engineer under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters

“PECE”.

A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer

B. Professional Electronics Engineer

C. Electronics Engineer

D. Electronics and Communications Engineer

4. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed

Electronics Engineer under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters “ECE”.

A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer

B. Professional Electronics Engineer

C. Electronics Engineer

D. Electronics and Communications Engineer

5. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed

Electronics Technician under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters “ECT”.

A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer

B. Professional Electronics Engineer

C. Electronics Engineer

D. Electronics Technician

6. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed

Electronics and Communications Engineer under Republic Act No. 5734.

A. Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer

B. Professional Electronics Engineer

C. Electronics Engineer

D. Electronics and Communications Engineer

7. Any of a variety of electronic devices that is capable of accepting data, programs and/or

instructions, executing programs and/or instructions to process the data and presenting

the results.

A. Computer

B. ICT

C. ATM

D. Laptop

8. The acquisition, production, transformation, storage and transmission/reception of data

and information by electronic means in forms such as vocal, pictorial, textual, numeric or

the like; also refers to the theoretical and practical applications and processes utilizing

such data and information.

A. Information and Communications Technology

B. Communications

C. Telecommunications

D. Information Technology

9. The process of sending and/or receiving information, data, signals and/or messages

between two (2) or more points by radio, cable, optical wave guides or other devices and

wired or wireless medium.

A. Information and Communications Technology

B. Communications

C. Telecommunications

D. Information Technology

10. Any transmission, emission or reception of voice, data, electronic messages, text, written

or printed matter, fixed or moving pictures or images, words, music or visible or audible

signals or sounds, or any information, intelligence and/or control signals of any design/or

format and for any purpose, by wire, radio, spectral, visual/optical/light, or other

electronic, electromagnetic and technological means.

A. Information and Communications Technology

B. Communications

C. Telecommunications

D. Information Technology

11. An undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio, video, text, images or other

signals or messages for reception of a broad audience in a geographical area via wired or

wireless means.

A. Communications

B. Broadcasting

C. Transmission

D. Paging

12. Includes all a manufacturing establishments and other business endeavors where

electronic or electronically-controlled machinery or equipment are installed and/or being

used, sold, maintained, assembled, manufactured or operated.

A. Industrial Plant

B. Commercial Establishment

C. Production Area

D. Power Plant

13. Shall include but not be limited to office buildings, hotels, motels, hospitals,

condominiums, stores, apartments, supermarkets, schools, stadia, parking areas,

memorial chapels/parks, watercraft and aircraft used for business or profit, and any other

building/s or area/s for business purposes, where electronic or electronically-controlled

machinery or equipment are installed and/or are being used, sold, maintained, assembled,

manufactured or operated.

A. Industrial Plant

B. Commercial Establishment

C. Production Area

D. Power Plant

14. Shall include services requiring adequate technical expertise, experience and professional

capability in undertaking advisory and review, pre-investment or feasibility studies,

design, planning, construction, supervision, management and related services, and other

technical studies or special studies in the field of electronics engineering.

A. Consulting services

B. Primary services

C. Secondary services

D. Technical services

15. The integrated and accredited national organization of Professional Electronics

Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technician.

A. IECEP

B. Accredited Professional Organization

C. PIECEP

D. Organization of PECE

16. To be qualified as a Member of the Board, he/she mustbe a citizen and a resident of the

Philippines for at least __________ consecutive years prior to his/her appointment.

A. 7 years

B. 10 years

C. 5 years

D. 3 years

17. The members of the board shall hold office for a term of __________ years from date of

appointment or until their successors shall have been appointed and qualified and may be

re-appointed once for another term.

A. 7

B. 10

C. 5

D. 3

18. To pass the licensure examination, a candidate for Electronics Engineer or Electronics

Technician must obtain a passing rating of in each subject given during the examination:

A. 50%

B. 60%

C. 70%

D. 80%

19. One shall be allowed to take one removal examination on the subject/s where he/she has

failed to obtain the passing rating. Provided, however, that a candidate who obtains a

passing rating in the majority of the subjects but obtains a rating in the other subject/s.

A. Below 70% but not lower than 60%

B. Below 70% but not lower than 50%

C. Below 60% but not lower than 50%

D. Below 75% but not lower than 60%

20. Certified experience record of active self-practice and/or employment either in

government service or in the private sector, in the format to be prescribed by the Board,

indicating the inclusive dates, companies worked for, description of specific

responsibilities, relevant accomplishments and name, position of immediate supervisors

for a period of at least __________ years (inclusive and/or aggregate), at least

___________ years of which are in responsible charge of significant engineering work,

from the date applicant took his/her oath as an Electronics and Communications Engineer

or Electronics Engineer.

A. 10 years; 3 years

B. 7 years; 2 years

C. 5 years; 2 years

D. 10 years; 2 years

21. RA 9292 is a consolidation of House Bill No. __________ and Senate Bill No. _______.

A. 5224; 2683

B. 5447; 458

C. 5734; 109

D. 5533; 4552

22. RA 9292 was finally passed by the House of Representatives and the Senate on

A. February 2, 2004

B. March 2, 2007

C. April 17,2004

D. March 5, 2005

23. RA 9292 was approved on

A. April 17, 2004

B. April 27, 2004

C. March 17, 2005

D. March 27, 2004

24. The effectivity of RA 9292 was on

A. April 17, 2004

B. April 27, 2004

C. May 24, 2004

D. May 28, 2004

25. To qualify in the registration to be PECE, one must provide __________ certification/s

signed by __________ PECEs attesting that the experience record submitted by the

applicant is factual.

A. 1; 3

B. 1; 2

C. 3; 3

D. 2; 2

26. Under the exception proviso stipulated in the particular Section 18, Article III of RA No.

9292 those who have been registered and licensed as Electronics and Communications

Engineer under Republic Act No.5734 for at least __________ years upon the effectivity

of RA No. 9292 are qualified to register as PECE.

A. 5

B. 10

C. 3

D. 7

27. Registration with and without Examination for Electronics Technicians (ECT) will start

within __________ years from the effectivity of RA No. 9292.

A. 5

B. 3

C. 10

D. 7

28. To register for Electronics Technicians (ECT), he/she must have rendered at least

___________ years (inclusive or aggregate) of active self-practice and/ or employment

either in the Government or private sector.

A. 5

B. 3

C. 10

D. 7

29. To register for Electronics Technicians (ECT),one must provide individual certification/s

from at least __________ registered PECEs vouching for the integrity, technical

capability and good moral character of the applicant in a format to be prescribed by the

Board.

A. 5

B. 3

C. 10

D. 7

30. The Board may, __________ years after the revocation of a Certificate of Registration

and Professional Identification Card, upon application of the party concerned and for

reasons deemed proper and sufficient, reinstate the validity of a revoked Certificate of

Registration and Professional Identification Card, subject to compliance with the

applicable requirements of the Commission and the Board.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

31. Exemptions for examination and registration can be possibly given to

A. A Filipino PECEs, ECEs or ECTs with at least 20 years of experience in the

Philippines

B. A Filipino PECEs, ECEs or ECTs with at least 25 years of experience abroad

C. A foreign national that are PECEs, ECEs or ECTs and equivalent who are

temporarily employed by the Philippine Government or by private firms in the

Philippines

D. A foreign national with at least 20 years of experience in ECE field here in the

Philippines

32. The official seal/logo of the Board which is circular in shape, consisting two concentric

circles, with the outside circle measuring __________ in diameter.

A. 28 mm

B. 45 mm

C. 48 mm

D. 32 mm

33. The official seal/logo of the Board which is circular in shape, consisting two concentric

circles, with the inner circle measuring __________ in diameter.

A. 28 mm

B. 45 mm

C. 48 mm

D. 32 mm

34. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the upper part of the annular space bear the words

A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING

B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION

C. NAME OF THE MEMBER

D. LICENSE NO.

35. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the lower half part of the annular space bear the

words

A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING

B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION

C. NAME OF THE MEMBER

D. LICENSE NO.

36. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the inner circle space has the symbol of a/an

A. atom

B. electron

C. radar transceiver

D. computer

37. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom symbol contains

A. 1 electron

B. 2 electrons

C. 3 electrons

D. 4 electrons

38. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom symbol contains

A. 1 nucleus

B. 2 nuclei

C. 3 nuclei

D. 4 nuclei

39. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the outer and inner ring is filled with

A. grey with boundaries in black color

B. orange with boundaries in navy color

C. white with boundaries in black color

D. yellow with boundaries in black color

40. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the text is

A. black with white background

B. white with black background

C. black with grey background

D. white with grey background

41. in the official seal/logo of the Board, the inner ring is filled with

A. orange background

B. navy blue background

C. black background

D. white background

42. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom is colored with ___________ and the

nucleus and electrons in __________ color.

A. Black ; red

B. White; orange

C. White; red

D. Black; orange

43. The seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of

RA No. 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal consisting of two concentric circles with the

outer circle measuring __________ in diameter.

A. 28 mm

B. 45 mm

C. 48 mm

D. 32 mm

44. The seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of

RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal consisting of two concentric circles with the inner

circle measuring ___________ in diameter.

A. 28 mm

B. 35 mm

C. 48 mm

D. 32 mm

45. The Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of

RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal containing the appearance of ___________ in the

upper part of the inner circle

A. atom

B. electron

C. radar transceiver

D. computer

46. The Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV of

RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal with a horizontal space bearing the word

A. BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING

B. PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION

C. NAME OF THE MEMBER

D. LICENSE NO.

47. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, below the words LICENSE NO. is the

A. license number

B. the word “PHILIPPINES”

C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license

D. the words “PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER”

48. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the portion of the inner circle below the

diametral space shall bear

A. license number

B. the word “PHILIPPINES”

C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license

D. the words “PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER”

49. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the upper portion of the annular space

bear

A. license number

B. the word “PHILIPPINES”

C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license

D. the words “PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER”

50. In the Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer, the lower portion of the annular space

bear

A. license number

B. the word “PHILIPPINES”

C. name of the person holding the Professional Electronics Engineer license

D. the words “PROFESSIONAL ELECTRONICS ENGINEER”

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS IN

LAWS & ETHICS - 3 General Engineering and Applied Sciences

By

Randy O. Allado

Emmylou R. Edulan

Jerick D. Lee

Adrian S. Paala

Woodrow B. Pino

1. In KBP radio standards, each station is required to schedule a minimum of __________

of news per day (from 5:00 a.m. to 10:00 p.m.) on Monday-thru-Saturday basis.

A. 30 min.

B. 60 min.

C. 45 min.

D. 75 min.

2. The minimum length/s of a daily radio news can be __________

A. 1 minute

B. 5 minutes

C. 10 minutes or 15 minutes

D. All of the above

3. A distinct unit of a program with minimum news content of one (1) minute excluding

intro, extro, headline and commercial load.

A. Newsbreak

B. Flash report

C. Newscast

D. all of the above

4. A __________ is a person from whom a piece of news originates

A. Primary source

B. Secondary source

C. 1st person source

D. 2nd

person source

5. A __________ is normally a recorded material (print or audio) from which a piece of

news is extracted or attributed to, or may be a person who acts as a conduit.

A. primary source

B. secondary source

C. 1st person source

D. 2nd

person source

6. The cancellation or revocation of accreditation of individual employee, and

recommendation for expulsion from KBP membership and, recommendation to the NTC

for the cancellation of permit to operate the station, for improper placement of

advertisement shall be given for:

A. first offense

B. third offense

C. second offense

D. fourth offense

7. These are announcements requested by private individuals or groups either through the

KBP or directly with the broadcast station.

A. Public Service Announcements

B. Private Announcements

C. Private Service Announcements

D. Public Announcements

8. All stations shall actively promote the growth and development of Filipino music. Radio

stations are encouraged to schedule _________ OPM’s every clockhour.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

9. The principal source of revenue of the free, competitive system of commercial

broadcasting is:

A. Advertising

B. Donation

C. Fund

D. All of the above

10. A commercial preceding the opening of the program is called

A. cow-catcher

B. hitch-hiker

C. lead commercial

D. sweeper

11. A commercial following the close of the program is called:

A. cow-catcher

B. hitch-hiker

C. lead commercial

D. sweeper

12. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed __________ for one hour program in Metro

Manila

A. 15 min

B. 17 min

C. 18 min

D. 20 min

13. A half-hour program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes within

Metro Manila

A. 15

B. 7 minutes and 30 sec

C. 3 minutes and 30 sec

D. 1 minute and 15 sec

14. A quarter-hour program shall not exceed __________ commercial minutes within Metro

Manila

A. 15

B. 7 minutes and 30 sec

C. 3 minutes and 30 sec

D. 1 minute and 15 sec

15. A five-minute program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes

within Metro Manila

A. 15

B. 7 minutes and 30 sec

C. 3 minutes and 30 sec

D. 1 minute and 15 sec

16. Commercial load for radio shall not exceed __________ for one hour program outside

Metro Manila

A. 15 min

B. 17 min

C. 18 min

D. 20 min

17. 17. A half-hour program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes

outside Metro Manila

A. 17

B. 8 min and 30 sec

C. 4 min

D. 1 min and 30 sec

18. A quarter-hour program shall not exceed __________ commercial minutes outside Metro

Manila

A. 17

B. 8 min and 30 sec

C. 4 min

D. 1 min and 30 sec

19. A five-minute program shall have a maximum of __________ commercial minutes

outside Metro Manila

A. 17

B. 8 min and 30 sec

C. 4 min

D. 1 min and 30 sec

20. Program interruption for the airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not exceed

__________ breaks in every program hour

A. 5

B. 7

C. 6

D. 8

21. Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside Metro Manila shall not exceed

__________ breaks in every program hour

A. 5

B. 7

C. 6

D. 8

22. In international sports events, the commercial load may be increased upon the approval of

the Board of Directors but in no case to exceed __________ commercial minutes per

hour.

A. 20 min

B. 15 min

C. 30 min

D. 25 min

23. Commercial placements of competing products, services or firms in radio standards:

A. shall not be placed within the same cluster

B. can be placed in the same time cluster

C. can be placed in the same time cluster given there is a different product in between

D. A and B

24. The following advertisements shall not be allowed:

A. Advertising which do not use superlatives, false claims and other misleading

expressions

B. Advertisements without violent scenes or messages which describe or condone these

acts

C. Advertisements which deliberately encourage wrong pronunciation and

grammar

D. All of the above

25. Any product and/or service that is sold or a service rendered within a province

A. Local product

B. Local account

C. Local merchandise

D. Local goods

26. The following are considered local accounts except:

A. Bowling Alleys

B. Painting shops

C. Barber shops

D. Drugstores with branches in another radio area or province

27. Within Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in AM radio is within:

A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM

B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM

C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight

D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM

28. Within Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in AM radio is within:

A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM

B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM

C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight

D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM

29. Within Metro Manila, Class C airtime classification in AM radio is within:

A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM

B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM

C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight

D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM

30. Within Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification in AM radio is within:

A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM

B. 9:00 AM to 4:00 PM / 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM

C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight

D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM

31. Within Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in FM radio is within:

A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM

B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM

C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight

D. 12 midnight to 5:00 AM

32. Within Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in FM radio is within:

A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM

B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM

C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight

D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM

33. Within Metro Manila, Class C airtime classification in FM radio is within:

A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM

B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM

C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight

D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM

34. Within Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification in FM radio is within:

A. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM

B. 5:00 AM to 6:00 AM / 8:00 PM to 9:00 PM

C. 9:00 PM to 12 midnight

D. 12:00 midnight to 5:00 AM

35. Outside Metro Manila, Class A airtime classification in AM radio is within:

A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM

B. 12 noon to 2:00 PM

C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM

D. all of the above

36. Outside Metro Manila, Class B airtime classification in AM radio is within:

A. 9:00 AM to 12 noon

B. 7:00 PM to 9:00 PM

C. 2:00 PM to 4:00 PM

D. All of the above

37. In Metro Manila, AM radio prime time is the time

A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM

B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM

C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM

D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM

38. In Metro Manila, FM radio prime time is the time

A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM

B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM

C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM

D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM

39. For provincial stations, AM radio prime time is the time

A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM

B. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM

C. 12 noon to 2:00 PM

D. all of the above

40. For provincial stations, AM radio prime time is the time

A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM

B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM

C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM

D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM

41. For provincial stations, FM radio prime time is the time

A. 5:00 AM to 9:00 AM / 4:00 PM to 8:00 PM

B. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM

C. 4:00 PM to 7:00 PM

D. 6:00 AM to 8:00 PM

42. It is required that during prime time only __________ hours of the airtime SHALL be

allowed for block time programs under station responsibility and supervision.

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

43. In TV standards, every station shall schedule at least a minimum of _________ newscast

(aggregate total including advisories) per day from Monday to Friday.

A. 30 min

B. 60 min

C. 45 min

D. 75 min

44. Text crawls, either electronic or manual, shall not be used for any other purpose like:

A. news bulletins

B. last minute program changes

C. advisories in the public interest

D. advertisements

45. Commercial load for television in Metro Manila shall not exceed __________ minutes

per hour in foreign or local programs, inclusive of breakspots.

A. 15

B. 18

C. 17

D. 20