general operations 5 · chapter 8 – air operations chapter 9 – wildland fire operations ....
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VOLUME 5
FFS 2019 1
GENERAL OPERATIONS
5
VOLUME 5
FFS 2019 2
TABLE OF CONTENTS
Chapter 1 – Equipment, General
Chapter 2 – Tools and Equipment
Chapter 4 – Hydraulics
Chapter 7 – Radiation
Chapter 8 – Air Operations
Chapter 9 – Wildland Fire Operations
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CHAPTER 1 – EQUIPMENT, GENERAL
5.1.1 - EQUIPMENT INVENTORIES 4/15/94
• Every ____________, each work location shall take a physical inventory of all fixed assets equipment and portable
assets equipment. Inventory shall be on the ______ and _____ forms
September, 250A and 250B
• Property completed forms (250A and 250B) shall be submitted to Pacoima Warehouse Property Inventory Unit by
___________
October 1st
• Every October, each work location where appropriate, shall take a complete inventory of equipment items under the
standard inventory list for apparatus at that location. This inventory shall be completed by ________________
November 1st
• The standard inventory denotes the minimal required fire fighting and rescue equipment to be carried on specified
apparatus. Additional equipment that is desirable for specific type of apparatus or necessary for special conditions,
requires approval of the ________________
Deputy Fire Chief
• The __________ shall be immediately notified upon receipt of newly purchased or acquired outlay equipment and
upon the transfer of equipment from one location to another
Department Pacoima Warehouse
➢ Separate inventories shall be filled out for all of the following: (3)
1. All fixed assets
2. All portable fixed asset equipment,
3. All standard apparatus equipment assignments
• Transferring Property: The transfer shall be accounted for by the use of form ___, _________
47, Transfer of Property and Material
• Transferring Property: A copy of form 47 shall be filed in the "Site File - Equipment Inventory" for use in
Preparing the ______________
Annual Inventory
CHAPTER 2 – TOOLS AND EQUIPMENT
5.2.2 – FIRE EXTINGUISHERS 09/15/06
• ________ shall be responsible for coordinating in-service training for Department personnel in the operation, care,
and maintenance of portable fire extinguishers.
Training Services Section
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• How often shall Water, Dry chemical (ABC), Carbon dioxide (CO2), Dry powder, and Wet chemical extinguishers
be inspected ensuring they are charged, without damage to the cylinder, with all components connected according
to the manufacturer’s instructions, and affixed securely to the apparatus.
daily
• Water, Dry chemical (ABC), and Wet chemical extinguishers shall be inspected _____, ensuring the hose and
nozzle have not sustained any fraying or cracking, are unobstructed, and that the extinguisher is properly
pressurized with the safety pin and lock seal intact.
weekly
• Upon use, partial discharge, or a reduction in pressure outside of the operable range, extinguishers shall be tagged
and sent to the __________ for refilling, repair, and maintenance (exception: refilling water extinguishers)
Fire Extinguisher Shop
➢ Dry Chemical (ABC), Dry Chemical (BC), Carbon Dioxide (CO2), Dry Powder, and Wet Chemical Extinguishers.
The amount of extinguishing agent is based upon the size of the extinguisher as well as the extinguisher
classification. Classification ratings are determined by laboratory tests and the intent of the amount of fuel that can
be extinguished by the extinguisher and the person using the extinguisher.
WATER EXTINGUISHERS
• When filling the extinguisher with water. Inside the extinguisher is a “Fill To” line. (If used, at this time, add .025
gallons of Class “A” Foam Concentrate). Extinguisher shall be charged to _____ pounds per square inch (PSI).
100
DRY CHEMICAL (ABC)
• How often shall Dry Chemical extinguishers be turned upside down and shaken vigorously to prevent caking.
weekly
• Upon use, partial discharge, or a reduction in pressure outside of the operable range, the extinguisher shall be
tagged and sent to the _________ for refilling, repair, and maintenance.
Fire Extinguisher Shop
DRY CHEMICAL (BC)
• Dry chemical (BC) extinguishers shall be inspected _______, ensuring the cartridge is not charged, without damage
to the cylinder, with all components connected, and secured to apparatus.
daily
• Dry chemical (BC) extinguishers shall be inspected ______, ensuring the hose and nozzle have not sustained any
fraying or cracking, are unobstructed, and that the lock seal and tamper seal are intact. Ensure the CO2 cartridge is
secured to the cylinder and intact.
weekly
➢ If the CO2 cartridge cannot be removed under hand pressure. The cartridge may have a leak and the extinguisher
could be charged.
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• How often shall the extinguisher be turned upside down and shaken vigorously to prevent caking and packing of
the dry chemical agent in the cylinder.
weekly
CARBON DIOXIDE (CO2)
• Carbon dioxide (CO2) extinguishers shall be inspected _____, ensuring the hose and horn have not sustained any
fraying or cracking, are unobstructed, and that the extinguisher is properly pressurized with the lock seal and
tamper seal intact.
weekly
• Carbon dioxide (CO2) extinguishers shall be weighed every ________ with all components attached including the
hose and horn.
six months
• The 25 pound CO2 extinguisher must weigh exactly 25 pounds. If the weight of the extinguisher falls below ___
pounds, the extinguisher shall be considered out of its operational range, taken out of service and sent to the Fire
Extinguisher Shops
24
➢ Carbon dioxide (CO2) extinguishers display specific manufacturer in-service and maintenance weight
requirements. These requirements are stamped upon each extinguisher cylinder
DRY POWDER CLASS D
• Dry powder extinguishers shall be inspected _____, ensuring the hose and horn have not sustained any fraying or
cracking, are unobstructed, and that the extinguisher is properly pressurized with the lock seal and tamper seal
intact.
weekly
• How often shall the extinguisher be turned upside down and shaken vigorously to prevent caking and packing of
the dry powder agent in the cylinder.
weekly
WET CHEMICAL (if assigned to fire apparatus)
➢ Personnel sending fire extinguishers to the Fire Extinguisher Shop shall.
1. Affix a tag to the handle of the extinguisher indicating station or administrative site and problem or repair
2. Fill out a Form 47 and tape or otherwise attach it to the extinguisher.
• After ___ business days if the extinguisher is not returned, contact should be made with the Fire Extinguisher
Shops for the status of the extinguisher.
14
DISCHARGING A PORTABLE FIRE EXTINGUISHER
➢ P.A.S.S. stands for Pull, Aim, Squeeze, and Sweep.
➢ SWEEP the extinguishing agent at the base of the fire.
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WATER EXTINGUISHER
• Water extinguishers contain ____ gallons of extinguishing agent and are used to control and extinguish Class A
Fires.
2 ½
➢ There are two forms of extinguishing agent.
1. Water
2. Class “A” Foam Concentrate
• Class “A” Foam Concentrate is added at a rate of ____ gallons for each 2.5 gallon water extinguisher. This
additive achieves a 1.0% Foam Solution when the extinguisher is activated.
.025
• Water extinguishers weigh approximately ____ pounds.
27
• In cold weather areas, water extinguishers may contain loaded nozzles to protect from freezing. In this case, add
approximately ___ additional pounds to the total extinguisher weight.
5
DRY CHEMICAL (ABC)
➢ Dry Chemical (ABC) – Dry chemical extinguishers are used to control and extinguish Class A, B, and/or C Fires.
• Dry chemical (ABC) extinguishers contain a combination of ABC Dry Chemical, Ammonium Phosphate, or a
__________ Agent.
Sodium Bicarbonate
• Dry chemical (ABC) extinguishers weigh approximately ____ pounds.
37
• The ______ dry chemical (ABC) is the most common fire extinguisher found on fire department apparatus.
20-A:120-B-C
DRY CHEMICAL (BC)
➢ Dry Chemical (BC) extinguishers are used to control and extinguish Class B and/or C Fires.
• Extinguishers contain a combination of BC Dry Chemical and ___________ agents.
Ammonium Phosphate
• Dry chemical (BC) extinguishers weigh approximately ___ pounds. The Dry Chemical (BC) is activated with a
CO2 cartridge attached to the outside of the cylinder.
20
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CARBON DIOXIDE (CO2)
➢ Carbon Dioxide (CO2) extinguishers are used to control and extinguish Class B and/or C Fires.
• Carbon dioxide extinguishers contain pressurized, _______ gas.
carbon dioxide
• Carbon dioxide (CO2) extinguishers generally come in two sizes, one weighing approximately __ pounds and the
other approximately __ pounds.
25, 45
• The ____ is the most common fire extinguisher found on fire department apparatus.
10-B:C carbon dioxide (CO2)
DRY POWDER
• Dry Powder - Class D Fire Extinguishers are used to control and extinguish only Class __ Fires.
D
➢ Dry powder fire extinguishers contain specialized extinguishing agents specific to the fuel being consumed by fire.
Sodium Chloride and Copper blended powders are just a few of the extinguishing agents.
• The most common agent used in a Class D extinguisher is ______
Metal-X.
• Dry powder extinguishers weigh approximately ___ pounds. They contain a 10-D classification rating.
30
WET CHEMICAL
• Wet Chemical - Class K Fire Extinguishers are used to control and extinguish only Class ___ Fires.
K
➢ Wet chemical class K fire extinguishers contain specialized extinguishing agents specific to commercial kitchen
cooking oils, deep fryers, and grills.
• The most common sizes of portable extinguishers are ____ gallon and ___ gallon capacity units.
1.5, 2.5
CHAPTER 4 – HYDRAULICS
5.4.1 - FIREGROUND HYDRAULICS 11/1/04
• Equipment operators must be able to compute required engine pressure within (+) or (-) _____ psi for any given
hose lays.
5
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• Two facts must be obtained to initiate fireground hydraulics: __________(gpm) and _______ (fl).
gallons of water per minute (GPM), friction loss (FL)
• The formula developed to ascertain the gallons per minute flow through a smooth orifice is ________.
(29.7 D²)√P = GPM
• The formula used to determine friction loss in pounds per hundred feet of 2 1/2 inch is FL = ___ + ___. This
formula is used only when gpm is over 100.
FL = 2Q² + Q (Q = gallons in hundreds)
• The formula used to determine friction loss in pounds per hundred feet of 2 1/2 inch is FL = ___ + ___. This
formula is used only when gpm is less than 100.
FL = 2Q² + 1/2Q
• _____ pounds has been established as the desired nozzle pressure (NP) for handline operations with smooth bore
nozzles on 2 1/2 inch hose.
50
• Standards handlines - nozzle pressures.
Tip size 1” = NP ____
Tip size 1 1/8” = NP ____
Tip size 1 1/4” = NP ____
50, 50; 50
• Using the friction loss formula the friction loss per hundred feet of 2 1/2 inch hose is:
GPM-200 FL __
GPM-250 FL __
GPM-300 FL __
GPM-325 FL __
GPM-350 FL __
GPM-400 FL __
GPM-500 FL __
10, 15, 21, 25, 28, 36, 55
• The gallons per min. flowing through the 4 standard nozzles at a standardized NP and the friction loss per 100 feet
2 1/2 inch hose have been established:
Nozzle Size GPM NP FL
1" ___ 50 10
1 1/8 ___ 50 15
1 1/4 ___ 50 25
*Fog ___ 100 15
200, 250, 325, 250
• When the nozzle pressure and the friction loss are known, the engine pressure (EP) may be determined with the
formula ___ = ___ + ___.
EP = NP + TFL
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• What are the four standard nozzles that have been adopted for use on 2 1/2 inch handlines:
1"; 1 1/8"; 1 1/4"; Fog
• What is the engine pressure for an engine company pumping through 500 feet of single 2 1/2” inch hose with a 1
1/8 inch nozzle at 50 pounds nozzle pressure
Answer:
EP = NP + TFL
NP = 50 pounds
TFL = 75 (15*5)
EP = 50 + 75
= 125 pounds Engine Pressure
• For any fog nozzle on 1, 1 1/2, 1 ¾ or 2 1/2 inch hose lines use ___ pounds nozzle pressure.
100
• Smooth bore nozzles for heavy stream appliances range from ___ to ___ inches.
1 1/4 to 2
• ____ psi has been established as the standard pressure for heavy streams – smooth bore nozzles.
80
• The discharge of heavy stream appliances will be from ___ to ___ gpm.
400 to 1000
• Heavy streams - smooth bore nozzles - 80 psi.
Nozzle Size GPM NP
1 1/4" ___ 80
1 3/8" ___ 80
1 1/2" ___ 80
1 5/8" ___ 80
1 3/4” ___ 80
1 7/8" ___ 80
2" ___ 80
400; 500; 600; 700; 800; 900; 1000
• At 80 pounds nozzle pressure, each increase of 1/8-inch nozzle size increases the gpm by ___ gallons.
100
• Through practical test, ___ psi has been established as being the average loss by friction of water pressure entering
a heavy stream appliance, such as a monitor, deluge set, cellar pipes, and ladder pipes.
15
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BASIC FORMULA FOR MULTIPLE LINES
• When two or more lines are used to supply water to a desired point or appliance, calculations are simplified by
considering only the friction loss per 100 feet of _______.
one line
• When multiple lines are used to supply large volumes of water to heavy stream appliances, the engineer must know
the total number of lines supplying the appliance, the ____ of the lines being pumped, and the ____ and/or type of
tip being used.
length; size
• Determine the engine pressure for an engine pumping through 300 feet of dual 2 1/2 inch hoses into a monitor
using a 1 1/2 inch nozzle smooth bore nozzle.
Answer:
EP = NP + TFL (Hose + Appliance)
NP = 80 pounds
FL = 63 (21 * 3) (Hose)
FL = 15 pounds (Appliance)
EP = 80 + 63 + 15
= 158 pounds Engine Pressure
• A 1000 gallon per minute pumper can supply only ___ GPM at ___ pounds EP (at draft with a 10 foot lift).
700, 200
• For fast mental calculations in planning hose lays, the addition of a third line will cut the friction loss _____ thus
allowing the pumper to supply the problem from twice the distance.
in half
PUMP CAPABILITIES RELATED TO LARGE FLOWS
• The ability of a centrifugal pump to provide its rated GPM is directly related to the pressure in the pump. Up until
___ PSI, the pump maintains its rated capacity
150
• RATED PUMP CAPACITY AT PRESSURE
Pressure Rated Pump Capacity
150 psi 100%
200 psi ___%
250 psi ___%
70%, 50%
• A 1,000 gpm pump can supply only ___ gpm at 200 psi engine pressure (at draft with a __ foot lift)
700 gpm, 10
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• Calculate the pump pressure for one 2 ½” line, 1000’ long, to a 1 1/8” nozzle
Answer: EP = NP + TFL
NP = 50 pounds
FL = 15 PSI per 100’ of hose (250 GPM = 15 PSI FL per 100’ of 2 ½” hose)
TFL = 15 * 10 (Number of 100’ Lengths of Hose) = 150 psi
NP + TFL (50 + 150) = 200 psi
EP = 200 Pounds Engine Pressure
• Add a second like line:
The calculation for the second line is identical to the first; however, 250 gpm is being added to the total being
pumped by the engine. Total gpm now being pumped with two lines is ___ gpm
500 gpm
SIAMESE OR WYES
• A standard of ___ pounds friction loss in a Siamese and wye has been established.
10
• Determine the engine pressure for an engine pumping through two lines of 2 ½”, 400 feet in length, connected by a
Siamese and continued with 100 feet of 2 ½” hose to a 1 ¼” smooth bore tip.
Solution:
EP = NP + TFL (dual line +single line + Siamese)
NP = 50 pounds
FL = 28 (__ x __) dual;
FL = ___ single
FL = ___ Siamese
TFL = 63
EP = ___ + ___ + ___ + ___
= 113 pounds engine pressure.
Answer: (7 * 4), 25, 10, (50, 28, 25, 10)
HEAD PRESSURE
• When vertical distance, either above or below pumping equipment is involved, add or subtract ___ psi per foot for
head pressure.
1/2
• When water is pumped above or below grade in structures, add or subtract ___ psi for each story above or below
the first floor.
5
STANDPIPES
• An allowance of ___ pounds for friction loss in the standpipe is required.
25
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• Determine the E.P. for an Eng. pumping through a single 2 1/2", 100'in length, into a standpipe; 100'of 2 1/2" line
has been connected to the standpipe outlet on the 5th floor and advanced up the stairway to the 6th floor. A 1 1/8
inch nozzle is being used.
Solution:
EP = NP + H + TFL
NP = 50 Pounds
FL = ___ (___ x ___) Hose.
H = ___ (___ x ___) Head.
FL = ___ standpipe.
TFL = 80
EP = 50 + 80
= 130 pounds engine pressure.
Answer: 30 (2 x 15) Hose, 25 (5 x 5) Head, 25 Standpipe
• When two or more lines are connected to the standpipe outlet above ground, determine which line requires the
_________ pressure and pump to that line.
highest
HOSE CONVERSION – LARGE LINES
• The following are reasonable GPM limits for the following inch hose:
4” hose ____ gpm
3 ½” hose ____ gpm
3” hose ____ gpm
2 ½” hose ____ gpm
1 ¾” hose ____ gpm
1 ½” hose ____ gpm
1” hose ____ gpm
¾” hose ____ gpm
1,500, 1000, 700, 360, 200, 150, 50; 30
• 4 inch to 2 1/2 inch hose conversion factor is ___.
0.2
• 1,000 gpm are being delivered through 4” hose. The equivalent gallons per minute in 2 ½” hose will then be ____
* ___ = 200 gpm
1000, 0.2
• Determine the engine pressure for an engine pumping through 400 feet of 4” hose wyed into two 2 ½” hose lines
300 feet each with an 1 1/8” smooth bore nozzle
Solution:
EP = TFL (4”) + (2 ½”) + (Wye) + NP
FL = 12(3*4) 4” Hose
FL = 45(3*15) 2 ½” Hose
FL = 10 Wye
NP = 50 Pounds
EP = 12 + 45 + 10 + 50
= 117 Pounds Engine Pressure
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• 3 1/2 inch to 2 1/2 inch hose conversion factor is ___.
0.4
• 3-inch hose to 2 1/2 inch hose conversion factor ___.
0.6
HOSE CONVERSION – SMALL LINES
• 1 3/4 inch to 2 1/2 inch hose conversion factor ___.
2.0
• 1 1/2 inch to 2 1/2 inch hose conversion factor ___.
4.0
• 1-inch to 2 1/2 inch hose – Conversion Factor ____.
11
• Determine the EP for an engine pumping through 1000 feet of 1 inch hose with a barrel nozzle flowing 10 gpm
Solution
EP = NP + TFL
NP = 100 pounds
FL = 35 (3 ½ * 10)
EP = 100 + 35
= 135 Pounds Engine Pressure
• 3/4 inch to 2 1/2 inch hose conversion factor ___.
24
PUMP CAPABILITIES
• A pump is rated on its ability to discharge its rated capacity operating at draft with a vertical lift of not over _____
feet, at a net discharge pressure of ___ psi.
ten, 150
• The pump must discharge 70 percent of the rated capacity at ___ psi, and 50 percent of the rated capacity of ___
psi.
200, 250
• The maximum working pressure of ____ pounds has been established by the Department. A reserve of ___ psi is
desirable for changes in elevation or other provisions, therefore, ___ psi should be considered as the maximum
working pressure.
250, 50, 200
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RELAY PUMPING
➢ When establishing relay pumping operations the following items must be considered
a. GPM needed at the fireground
b. Distance water must travel from the source
c. Size of the hose
d. Maximum distance one pumper can deliver the gallons per minute
e. Number of pumpers
f. Topography
• The largest capacity pumper should be placed at the ____ of the supply and ensuing pumpers should be placed so
that the _______ capacity pump will be at the fire.
source; smallest
• The maximum distance that water can be delivered is accomplished in three ways by:
1. increasing the size of the hose
2. provide additional lines
3. using additional pumpers (use other two methods first)
• Calculating engine pressure to be pumped to a relay pumper or supply reservoir, a pressure of ___ pounds should
be used. This 25 pounds shall be identified as “Intake Pressure”
25
• The 25 pounds allowed for intake pressure is subtracted from the net working pressure of ___ pounds, leaving ___
pounds available for FL.
200, 175
• 1000 gpm are needed to supply a 1,000 gpm fog nozzle on a Stang Monitor 4,200 feet from the source of supply.
Using a single 4” line for relaying, we have a friction loss of 10 pounds per 100 feet, or a total of 420 pounds
(10*42). This, plus a nozzle pressure of 100 pounds, equals 520 pounds pressure. Determine the number of
pumpers needed,
Solution:
Divide 520 by the available working pressure of 175 pounds (200 pounds net working pressure less 25
pounds IP) which equals 2.9 or a total of 3 pumpers needed to deliver the required gallons per minute
• The distance between pumpers is calculated by dividing the ___ pounds of available pressure by __ pounds friction
loss per 100 feet; ___ ___ = 17.50 or 1,750 feet between pumpers.
175, 10
175, 10
FRICTION LOSS CONSTANTS – SMOOTH BORE NOZZLES USING OTHER THAN STANDARD NOZZLE
PRESSURE
• Any increase or decrease will be in increments of __ pounds nozzle pressure
5
• Any increase or decrease of nozzle pressure will be limited to __ pounds above or below the standard nozzle
pressure
10
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• For a 1-inch smooth bore nozzle the constant is ___
1
• For a 1 1/8 inch smooth bore nozzle the constant is ___ lbs.
1 1/2
• For a 1 1/4 inch smooth bore nozzle the constant is ___ lbs.
2
• For each five pound nozzle pressure above the standard nozzle pressure, ___ the "constant" to the friction loss per
100' of 2 1/2 inch hose. For each five pounds decrease in nozzle pressure, ____ the constant from the friction loss
per 100' of 2 1/2 inch hose.
add; subtract
• The EP for an Engine pumping through 600' of 2 1/2", using 1 1/8 inch nozzle, is 140 pounds EP. An increase of 10
lbs NP is desired. Determine EP
Solution:
With an increase of ten pounds NP, add 1 1/2 pounds for each 5 pounds NP increase per 100 feet of hose
being used. This totals ___ pounds (3*6), plus the ten pounds nozzle pressure increase, equals ___ + ___,
or ___ pounds to be added to the engine pressure.
18
18 + 10 or 28
140 + 28 = 168 Pounds Engine Pressure
• HEAVY STREAMS: Any increase or decrease will be in increments of ___ pounds nozzle pressure
5
• HEAVY STREAMS: Any increase or decrease will be limited to __ pounds above or below the standard nozzle
pressure with gallons per minute flow form approximately 360 to 1,100 gpm
15
• To calculate EP for all heavy stream smooth bore nozzles above or below the standard NP, the constant ___ is to be
used and considered ___ pound.
1/2, 1/2
• For each five pounds increase or decrease in NP, add or subtract __ pound per 100' of 2 1/2 inch hose.
1/2
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• Supplying a 1 1/2 inch tip with a standard NP through 300' of dual 2 1/2" to a monitor equals 158 lbs EP. A
decrease of 10 lbs NP is desired; determine the EP.
Solution
With a decrease of 10 lbs NP desired, __ pound for each 5 lbs NP decrease must be subtracted from the
EP. This totals ___ pound per 100 feet or __ pounds for 300 feet, plus __ pounds NP equals __ + __ or __
pounds to be subtracted from EP.
158 - 13 = 145 pounds engine pressure required.
½, 1, 3, 10, 3 + 10 or 13
AERIAL LADDER STREAMS
PRESSURE REQUIRED AT BASE OF AERIAL LADDER
60’ Elevation/100 Feet Hose/Master Stream Appliance/Siamese or Wye
NOZZLE GPM 3” Hose 3 ½” Hose 4” Hose
1 1/4 400 _ __ 142 137
1 3/8 500 156 ___ 138
1 1/2 600 165 149 ___
1 5/8 700 175 153 140
1 3/4 800 185 159 142
1 7/8 900 199 165 143
2 1,000 215 171 145
fog 500 176 165 158
fog 700 195 173 160
fog 1000 235 191 165
149, 145, 139
ESTIMATING AVAILABLE FLOW FROM HYDRANTS
• Available flow is calculated on the fireground by testing and noting the ___ pressure (water at rest) and the ______
pressure (water in motion) of fire hydrants.
static; residual.
• A drop of ___ percent or less indicates an availability of __ more like volumes.
An __ to __ percent drop indicates two more like volumes are available.
A ___ to ___ percent drop indicates that only one more like volume can be handled.
10; 3
11 to 15
16 to 25
• Static pressure is 60 psi. The engineer then opens the discharge supplying a 250 GPM fog nozzle. The residual
pressure now showing on the compound gauge is 51 psi, a drop of nine pounds. This is a 15 percent drop pressure
and means that the hydrant can supply an additional 500 gallons per minute
Solution:
The percentage of drop is ___ / ___ or ___ percent; therefore, __ or more like volumes is the est. available
flow, or a total est. flow of __ like volumes.
9/60 or 15 percent, 2, 3
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• Residual pressure is 68 lbs. A test nozzle delivering the same GPM is placed into operation and the RP is now 44
lbs. Estimate the remaining flow.
Solution
Divide the difference in RP by __, which equal 12 lbs. this is added to RP with one line in operation.
Combining ___ + ___ equals an estimate static pressure of 80 lbs. The % of drop is ___ ___ or ___
percent. Therefore, __ more like volumes is the estimate available flow, or a total estimate available flow
of __ like volumes.
2, 68 + 12, 12/80 or 15%, 2, 3
AUTOMATIC SPRINKLER SYSTEMS
• When using an automatic sprinkler system, an engine company shall lay a minimum of one ___ inch hose line to
the sprinkler connection inlet and maintain an engine pressure of ___ pounds.
2 ½, 150
• The minimum allowance for efficient coverage by a sprinkler head is __ GPM. The minimum acceptable efficient
range is __ to ___ GPM.
15, 15 to 25
• A 750 GPM pumper will need more than two lines if located more than ___ feet from the sprinkler connection, as it
can supply approx. __ heads.
200 feet, 35 heads
• A 1000 GPM pumper will need more than __ lines if located more than ___ feet away from the sprinkler
connection since it can supply approximately __ heads.
3 lines, 200 feet, 50 heads
WEIGHT OF WATER DELIVERED
• A standard fire stream, 250 gallons per minute, represents approximately (in weight) ___ of water per minute
delivered into a building.
one ton
• WEIGHT OF WATER DELIVERED
NOZZLE WATER PER MINUTE
1 1/8 ______
1 3/8 ______
1 5/8 ______
2 ______
1 Ton, 2 Tons, 3 Tons, 4 Tons
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CAPACITY OF CYLINDRICAL TANKS
• For a cylindrical tank the following formula may be used:
Q = ___ x ___.
Q = __________
D = __________
H = __________
Q = 6D² x H
Q = Quantity in gallons
D = Diameter in feet
H = height of water in feet.
• A tank 20 feet in diameter has 5 feet of water in the tank. Determine the gallons of water in the tank.
Solution:
Q = 6 (20)² x 5
Q = 12,000 gallons
• For greater accuracy, subtract ___ percent from the quantity. This approximates the nation ____________
gallonage tables for cylindrical tanks.
2; Fire Protection Association's
• When the flow of water is suddenly stopped by shutting down a hose line, a pressure wave is created. This pressure
wave is commonly referred to as a __________
Water Hammer
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• Cubic foot of water = ______ US Gallons
7.481
• Cubic foot of water = ______ Pounds
62.4
• US Gallon of Water = _____ Pounds
8.335
• US Gallon of Water = ______ Cubic inches
231
CHAPTER 7 – RADIATION
5.7.1 – RADIOLOGICAL RECOGNITION AND SAFETY 9/14/07
➢ It is the policy of the Los Angeles County Fire Department to provide mitigation of threat and damage to life,
environment, and property caused by a radiological incident while ensuring the safety of Department personnel.
RADAITION TYPES
• _____________ - Radiation that has enough energy to remove electrons from any material it passes through.
Ionizing radiation
• Types of ionizing radiation:
1. ______ are heavy radioactive particles that quickly lose energy and travel only a few inches through air.
They have limited penetrating power and can be stopped by a piece of paper.
2. ______ are short-range radioactive particles that travel about 10-15 feet and have greater penetrating
energy. Materials such as thin sheet metals, plastic, and glass can stop beta radiation.
3. ______ radiation is rays of pure electromagnetic radiation similar to light and x-rays. Gamma and x-rays
can travel hundreds of meters and can penetrate most material. Exposure is reduced by heavy, dense
material such as steel, concrete, earth, or lead.
4. X-rays are high-energy electromagnetic radiation used for imaging and diagnostic purposes.
5. Neutron radiation are non-charged particles and are only encountered in very set circumstances. Their
presence is more commonly found in the fission process through nuclear detonation or nuclear reactor
operations.
Alphas, Betas, Gamma
• ___________ – Radiation that does not have enough energy to remove electrons from neighboring atoms. Some
examples of non-ionizing radiation include radio waves, lasers, and microwaves. These types of radiation present
hazards different from ionizing radiation.
Non-ionizing radiation
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Fig. 1: Common Types of Radiation
CLASSES OF RADIATION HAZARDS
• Radiation hazards fall into two basic classes: internal and external.
1. Alpha radiation, involving fine dusts, liquids, or vapors, is considered an _______ hazard: a poison that
can enter the body by inhalation, ingestion, or through wounds in the skin.
2. _____ radiation’s penetrating power is greater than alpha radiation. It is considered both an internal and
external hazard. Like alpha radiation, beta radiation can be dangerous if inhaled or ingested.
3. Gamma rays are _______ hazards generally associated with the biological effects of cutaneous (skin) and
local tissue irradiation with an increased probability of internal contamination.
Internal, Beta, external
UNITS OF MEASURE
• The _________ (R) is a special unit to measure radiation exposure in a quantity of air.
Roentgen
• The amount of energy deposited on any material by ionizing radiation is the Radiation Absorb Dose, or ______.
The RAD represents a measure of energy absorbed per gram of material.
RAD
• The Roentgen Equivalent Man, or _____, is a unit that measures the effects of ionizing radiation on humans. One
Roentgen of penetrating external radiation produces one REM of body damage.
REM
➢ For the purpose of emergency response, these units are considered equal: 1R ≈ 1RAD = 1REM
Expression of smaller doses of radiation
Roentgen milli-Roentgen micro-Roentgen
.002 R 2 mR 2,000 µR
CONCEPT OF HALF LIFE
• Radioactivity decays with time. The time required for radioactive material to lose half of its activity is its _____.
Some isotopes have less than 0.50 seconds of half-life, others, billions of years.
half-life
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WHERE RADIATION IS FOUND
• Background radiation – All living things are exposed to radiation from natural sources on earth and from space. An
average person in the U.S. is exposed to an effective dose equivalent of about _____mrem (whole-body exposure)
per year from all sources.
360
➢ Other sites and situations where radiation may be found are:
Industrial plants Industrial laboratories
Medical facilities Universities and colleges – Research/classroom studies.
Nuclear power plants/companies Military bases
Transportation shipments Terrorism – Weapon of Mass Destruction (WMD).
• _________ accidents are the most likely radiation incidents that firefighters will encounter.
Transportation
ACUTE EXPOSURE VS CHRONIC EXPOSURE
• Acute exposure refers to a significant exposure received in a “short space of time,” usually a period of ____hours or
less.
24
➢ Chronic exposure, on the other hand, refers to a long-term exposure – months to years – from smaller doses of
radiation.
BIOLOGICAL EFFECTS OF ACUTE RADIATION EXPOSURE
Dose in rem Effects
0-50 No obvious effect, except minor blood changes
270 – 325
LD 50
Nausea and vomiting in all individuals on the first day. Up to 50% deaths
within 60 days if untreated.
550 –750
LD 100
Nausea and vomiting in all individuals within 4 hours. About 100% deaths
within 2 weeks if untreated.
*Note: LD 50 refers to Lethal Dose in 50% of the cases. LD 100 refers to Lethal Dose in 100% of the cases.
SEE BIOLOGICAL EFFECTS OF ACUTE RADIATION EXPOSURE IN MANUALS FOR COMPLETE TABLE IF
INTERESTED: Table 1.5:
SOMATIC EFFECTS
➢ Somatic (or physical) effects of radiation exposure occur as a result of damaged or dead cells in the body.
• _________ – is caused by a massive overdose of gamma radiation to the whole body or a substantial portion of the
body. This is referred to as Acute Radiation Syndrome or ARS. Symptoms include nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and
hemorrhaging.
Radiation Sickness
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• _________ – is an overdose of short range, less penetrating type of external radiation to a localized portion of the
body. Sources of radiation injury can be either beta or gamma radiation. Symptoms include burns, loss of hair, and
skin lesions.
Radiation Injury
• _________ – is excessive amounts of alpha or beta types of radioactive material – usually in the form of fine dusts,
liquids, or gases – that when introduced into the body by inhalation, ingestion, or absorption can cause diseases
such as anemia and cancer. Symptoms include nausea, vomiting, and blood changes.
Radiation Poisoning
PROTECTIVE ACTION GUIDES FOR RADIOLOGICAL EMERGENCIES
➢ Protective Action Guides (PAGs) provide firefighters with information on the degree of exposure as it relates to the
importance of a given task.
➢ The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) has published protective action guides for limiting doses to
workers under emergency conditions. These exposure limits apply to each 24-hour period of an incident and is
based on the low statistical probability of a radiological incident during an individual’s career.
Protective Action Guides for Radiation Exposure (Per EPA 400)
Dose Limit Activity Condition
5 rem All Doses to all workers to the extent practical
10 rem Protecting valuable property When a lower dose limit is not practical
25 rem Life saving or protection of large populations When a lower dose limit is not practical
>25 rem Life saving or protection of large populations Only on a voluntary basis to persons fully
aware of the risks involved
➢ Any exposure limits to Department personnel during a radiological emergency shall include the following factors:
A) The individual’s previous exposure to radiation
B) The intensity of the radiation at the scene
C) The urgency of the assignment
D) The proper steps taken to shield against exposure
E) Subsequent decontamination
• All radiation exposures to emergency response personnel shall be reported to the County of Los Angeles Office of
Environmental Health within _____ hours of exposure.
48
• The time and date of notification and the name of the person notified shall be logged into ____
NFIRS
EXTERNAL RADIOLOGICAL PROTECTION
• External radiation protection measures for personal safety can be summed up in the following major principles:(3)
TIME, DISTANCE, SHIELDING
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• Measurements of exposure: Dose is the quantity of radiation exposure measured in terms of ionizations
(Roentgens) or energy absorbed, termed ____ or ____.
RAD, REM
• ______ rate refers to the amount of radiation absorbed over a quantity of time – usually expressed in REM per hour
(REM/hr or R/hr) or smaller.
Dose
➢ Time is one safety principle used in keeping radiation exposures to firefighters at a minimum. Decreasing the
amount of time near a radiation source will decrease the amount of radiation exposure received.
ESTIMATING EXPOSURES
➢ The total estimated dose can be calculated by multiplying the time spent in each radiation field by the dose rate
metered in that field. Time in minutes is converted to hours by dividing by 60.
➢ An example of obtaining the estimated exposure: If a firefighter spends nine minutes in a radiation field that reads
a dose rate of 100 mR/hr, then the calculated dose is 15 millirem.
Time in area X Dose Rate = Calculated Dose
60 minutes
9 minutes X 100 mR/hr = 15 mr
60 minutes
➢ For the responder’s safety, all exposures to radiation shall be considered cumulative.
• ______ is a term associated with allowable time firefighters may remain in a radiation area before accumulating
their permissible dose according to the EPA’s Protective Action Guides.
Stay-time
➢ Scenario: A victim is trapped in an area where the radiation level reads 200 roentgens per hour. Rescuers estimate
an hour for removal of the victim. It has been determined that no more than three firefighters can work in the
debris area at a time. If firefighter permissible exposure limits for rescue are held at 25 rem, what would be the
stay-time for each fire fighter before reaching maximum dose of 25 rem?
Calculation # 1:
Max Dose (REM) = Time allowed X dose rate ( R/hr) 60 minutes
25 REM = 7.5 min. X 200 R/hr 60 min.
Each firefighter has a stay-time of 7.5 minutes before reaching a 25 REM dose.
DISTANCE
• The principle of distance as a safety measure against radiation exposure is this: the intensity of radiation decreases
with the increased distance from the source of radiation. This intensity-distance relationship can be calculated
mathematically and is known as the ______________
Inverse Square Law
➢ INVERSE SQUARE LAW: Radiation decreases with the square of the distance from the source. Source Reading
at 1 ft. ÷ (D)2
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• A person standing one foot from a source of radiation that was emitting 1,000 roentgens per hour would receive
1,000 REM per hour of penetrating radiation. By simply moving to a two-foot distance from the same source that
person would receive only _____REM/hr.
250 R/hr = 1,000 R/hr ÷ (2)2
SHIELDING:
➢ Internal Protection from Radiation Hazards: Since radiation can enter the body through inhalation, ingestion, or
skin absorption, it becomes critical to protect these body systems with PPE that can be used to reduce or avoid
exposure.
PPE:
• The immediate PPE available to protect Department personnel against radiation exposure is structural firefighting
gear. This includes turnout coat, pants, boots, helmet, hood, gloves, _______, and SCBA.
dosimeter
➢ Turnouts provide considerable protection. If all enclosures on the turnout coat and pants are not properly utilized,
the wearer may be exposed through gaps in the garment. To protect the skin as best as possible using turnouts,
ensure that all enclosures on the turnout coat and pants are fully utilized.
• Personnel shall be aware that radiological contaminants may not be effectively removed from structural firefighting
gear during the decontamination process. Therefore, it is important to keep the SCBA on and operating while
participating in decontamination. The SCBA should be removed only after the _________ have been removed.
turnouts
➢ Personnel shall be aware that the reuse of contaminated clothing may cause a chronic exposure to radiation.
PROTECTION LEVEL OF (PPE)
Protection Level Summary
Level A
When the highest level of respiratory, skin, and eye protection is desired. All
encapsulated suit with SCBA, inner and outer gloves, and rubber boots. Specific training
for use by those acquainted with its use during a HazMat entry.
Level B
When the same high level of respiratory protection is required but a lesser skin
protection requirement will be adequate. These types of suits have built-in bootie, hood,
and over-cuffs to protect hands and feet. Employ double glove protection and rubber
boots. This apparel is recommended for the first responder.
Level C
Is the same level of skin protection as Level B, but lesser respiratory protection because
of the choice of the air purifying respirator (APR) over a SCBA. The same double glove
and rubber boot protection applies. Considered a first responder PPE.
Level D Is minimum protection. Turn-outs fall into this category.
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RESPIRATORY PROTECTIVE EQUIPMENT.
Respiratory Type Summary
Positive-pressure
SCBA
The highest respiratory protection for emergency responders because a positive pressure of
supplied air is maintained in the face piece during both inhalation and exhalation.
Supplied Air
Breathing
Apparatus
(SABA)
Provides air to a positive pressure mask via an air supply hose. An escape bottle is required in
the event of an interruption of air supply from the manifold. This device is typically used in
confined space situations and some HazMat settings. OSHA respiratory regulations limits air
supply hose to 300’ from each manifold.
Air Purifying
Respirator (APR)
A neutral to negative pressure mask utilizing a canister filter instead of bottled air. APR’s are
limited to atmospheres with the appropriate level of oxygen in air (19.5%) and the absence of
any contaminants at or above their scheduled “immediately dangerous to life and health” (IDLH)
concentration.
Powered Air
Purifying
Respirator
(PAPR)
An APR with a power assist pump to help the wearer operate in contaminated environments for
longer periods of time. The power unit filters the atmosphere but is restricted to the same
limitations as the APR: 19.5% oxygen concentration in air and absence of any contaminants at or
above their scheduled IDLH concentration.
MONITORING FOR RADIATION
➢ Humans cannot feel, see, hear, smell, or taste radiation. As it penetrates the body it can cause damage without
producing immediate pain. Therefore, personnel must rely on radiological instruments to determine the presence of
radiation.
• The Department uses ______ meters that have the ability to detect alpha and beta radiation as well as gamma ray
radiation.
survey
• Survey meters are utilized to: Establish the three zones of the operational area.
1. The exclusion zone line shall be established at __ mR/hr (millirem per hour). It will be assumed that
beyond this line readings will be higher than __ mR/hr.
2. The contamination reduction zone (CRZ) will be the site for surveying persons for contamination,
specialized decontamination, and post-decontamination survey. This area shall be monitored for readings
of __ mR/hr or less.
3. The support zone shall be monitored for readings of background radiation or slightly higher but no more
than __ mR/hr.
2, 2, 2, 2
• The Department has issued personal _______________ (PRMs) and _______________-personal (PEDs) as part of
the Department’s personal protective equipment (PPE). These PRMs and PEDs detect and measure photon
radiation (i.e., gamma and x-rays). They do not detect alpha and beta radiation.
radiation monitors
electronic dosimeters
➢ PRMs and PEDs record total dose of gamma radiation exposure in millirems or rems and the dose rate in millirems
or rems per hour.
• Accurate documentation of the radiation _____ rate received by entry personnel, plus the amount of time spent in
each radiation field, is paramount to accurately estimate radiation dosage.
dose
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5.7.6 – RADIOLOGICAL DECONTAMINATION PROCEDURES 9/14/07
➢ Decontamination is a systematic removal of contaminants from persons and objects to reduce the effects of
contamination and to prevent the possibility of cross-contamination among emergency responders and the
community.
➢ The primary difference between the mechanics of radiological decontamination and chemical decontamination is
the addition of radiation monitoring throughout the process
• The Department encourages the use of _____ decontamination at radiological incidents.
dry
➢ Dry decontamination is the removal of subatomic particles of alpha and beta radiation by the methodical removal of
the outer layers of clothing, starting from the top down, followed by the use of materials such as damp sponges,
hand wipes, towels, and brushes in a dabbing or brushing motion to remove radiological contaminates.
➢ In dusty conditions, the use of a light water spray (i.e., Hudson sprayer application) in limited amounts to reduce
the spread of radioactive dusts as individuals disrobe can be effective.
• Wet decontamination, on the other hand, requires water in a multi-step process of disrobing, and repeated washing
and rinsing, coupled with the use of a radiological ______ meter.
survey
DECONTAMINATION
➢ Individual decontamination – is decontamination of an individual that assures thoroughness prior to the individual’s
release or further medical attention.
• ______– is an interim measure of decontamination aimed at large numbers of the public (11 or greater).
MCMD
• _______ decontamination (a.k.a. technical decontamination) – procedures aimed at providing thorough
decontamination of all emergency personnel.
Responder
➢ All personnel shall wear appropriate personal PPE at all radiological incidents. PPE shall include turnout coat and
pants, boots, helmet, hood, gloves, dosimeter, and self contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)
➢ General safety considerations during decontamination operations to be considered by the first responder shall
include, but are not limited to:
1. Approach upwind, uphill, and upstream.
2. Keep a safe distance.
3. Isolate and deny entry.
4. Wear appropriate PPE.
5. Establish and preserve all perimeters and zones.
• The exclusion, contamination reduction (CRZ), and support zones should be secured with __________
control access points
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• Use ______ meters and ________ to establish and maintain the zones.
Survey, dosimeters
• Exclusion zone shall be established at readings of ___ mR/hr or greater.
2
• Contamination reduction zone (CRZ) shall be established at readings that represent background readings (usually
11 to 25 µR/hr), but no higher than ___ mR/hr.
2
• Support zone shall be established at readings that represent background readings (11 to 25 µR/hr), but in no case,
higher than ___ mR/hr.
2
➢ Both CRZ and support zones shall be of sufficient size as to accommodate the projected number of victims,
responders, and equipment to accomplish the tasks involved in a radiological incident.
• Designate a Safe Refuge area within the _____ perimeter of the exclusion zone.
outer
➢ Other decontamination considerations
A) Run-off – Containment of the run-off should be established
B) Plume – Changes in wind direction that may cause a directional change of the radioactive plume.
C) Background readings – Is the general level of natural and man-made radiation existing in an area.
BACKGROUND READINGS
• Background readings usually range from 11µR/hr to 25 µR/hr or ___to ___cpm (counts per minute) but can be
somewhat higher depending on the area use.
40, 60
• Prior to making an entry, scanning individuals, or establishing perimeters and zones, establish and record the
background reading as a reference point over a ___-second period.
60
• An area may be considered contaminated when survey meter readings reach or exceed ___ times the background
reading.
three
• An individual may be considered contaminated when the survey meter readings reach or exceed ___ times the
background reading.
two
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• Contaminated material – Containers and bags of contaminated articles shall be removed to a safe location in the
______ zone at frequent intervals to decrease the overall dose rate in the decon corridors.
exclusion
DOCUMENTATION
➢ Document radiological background readings
Prior to entry, from dosimeters and/or survey meters
To establish existing readings against possible contamination readings
➢ Document radiological readings above background
To establish the various zones.
To determine contamination of individuals and/or responders.
➢ Document in and out times for responders
To limit exposure time for possible radiation contamination
To record radiation exposure
NOTIFICATION AND EXPOSURE REPORTS
• Department personnel shall notify the _________ (NRC) at any radiological incident through the Los Angeles
County, Department of Health Services, Radiation Management.
Nuclear Regulatory Commission
• Exposure reports shall be written and communicated to the NRC through the Los Angeles County,
______________, Radiation Management.
Department of Health Services
CUSTODIAL RESPONSIBILITIES
• Custodial responsibilities of clothing and personal for radiological incidents are under the control of the
_______________
Los Angeles County, Department of Health Services, Radiation Management
• Custodial responsibilities of clothing and personal for acts of terrorism are under the control of _______ and the
Los Angeles County, Department of Health Services, Radiation Management.
law enforcement
DECONTAMINATION PROCEDURES - AMBULATORY
• Decontamination procedures – Ambulatory from the exclusion zone (2 mR/hr or greater), triage and direct the
individuals towards the ___________
decontamination corridor.
• Monitor the individuals for contamination using either the ____ 2241 or the 2241-2 survey meter.
Ludlum
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• When shall individuals be monitored (3)
Monitor individuals prior to the beginning of decontamination
Continue to monitor individuals during completed phases of decontamination
Monitor individuals as a final survey of decontamination effectiveness
➢ When monitoring systematically survey potential victims from head to toe.
• Have the individual methodically remove their valuables and outer clothing from the top down, this will remove
approximately ____% of the contaminants. The responder will then monitor the individual and valuables for
contamination.
70-80
• Place all valuables (wallet, keys, rings, glasses, etc.) into a small, sealed bag with the corresponding triage tag
number for identification purposes. Place all clothes into a large bag with the corresponding _____ number for
identification purposes.
triage tag
• In dusty conditions, the use of ______ spray in limited amounts, will help to reduce the spread of radioactive dusts
as individuals disrobe.
light water
• Monitor the individual’s second layer of clothing, hands, feet, and especially the head/hair area for contamination.
A) Any radiation reading found above __ times the established background, needs to be decontaminated
B) Use a limited amount of water, damp cloth, or handy wipes to remove any subatomic particles of alpha or
beta radiation on the individual’s body
C) Provide an opportunity for the individual to wash their head/hair area, hands, and feet
D) Scan the individual with the survey meter probe to see if radiation has been removed.
2
• If no contamination is found or after the individual is considered clean:
A) Provide a final monitoring survey for decontamination effectiveness and record findings on the
individual’s triage tag or EMS form.
B) Direct the individual to a ________ (CCP) or the medical area in the support zone to provide for the
individual’s welfare to the greatest extent possible.
casualty collection point
DECONTAMINATION PROCEDURES – NON AMBULATORY
➢ Decontamination procedures – Non-ambulatory responders shall methodically peel the outer clothing from the
individual while continuing to monitor.
A) Responders shall place all valuables (wallet, keys, etc.) into a small, sealed bag with a triage tag for
identification purposes.
B) Responders shall place all clothes into a large bag with a triage tag for identification purposes.
C) In dusty conditions, the use of light water spray will help to reduce the spread of radioactive dust.
➢ Monitor the individual’s second layer of clothing, head/hair, hands, and feet, and if no contamination is found, or
after the individual is considered clean, move the individual to the medical area for evaluation and disposition.
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Recommended Contamination Screening Levels
Readings Actions
Before
Decontamination
<2x background • Unconditional release
>2x background • Decontaminate
After Dry Decon
<2x background • Unconditional release
>2x background • Decontaminate
After Wet Decon
<2x background • Unconditional release
>2x background • Re-Decontaminate
<0.5 mR/hr • Release animals and equipment
After Full Decon
<2x background • Unconditional release
>2x background • Special evaluation needed
<0.5 mR/hr • Release animals and equipment
>0.5 mR/hr • Seek advice on animals and equipment
➢ The decontamination process shall never take precedence over life-threatening conditions. Do not delay urgent
medical care to carry out decontamination. Notify the closest receiving facility of the arrival of a possibly
contaminated patient.
DECONTAMINATION PROCEDURES - RESPONDERS
➢ Responder decontamination is much the same as individual decontamination, with some additional requirements.
Whenever possible, all responders shall be decontaminated separate from the public for:
A) Personnel accountability
B) Health issues
C) Documentation of exposure
D) Debriefing
• From the exclusion zone, direct the responder towards the ___________ corridor rather than the corridor employed
for the public.
technical decontamination
➢ Provide a triage tag to record all exposure rates and times, and monitor the responder and equipment for
contamination before, during and after the decontamination process.
• The responder shall methodically remove their equipment and outer clothing from the top down, with the assistance
of the decontamination team. This will remove approximately _____% of the contaminants.
70-80
➢ Firefighter will leave the contaminated area, keeping the SCBA on and operative. With SCBA mask still on and
operative and with the assistance of the decontamination crew, the SCBA harness will be removed and place in one
hand. The decontamination crew begins removing the turnout coat and than pants. Note: It will be necessary to
cut the hood open to remove it from the SCBA mask and hose
➢ Firefighter will be monitored for evidence of contamination from head to toe and front and back. If evidence of
contamination is found, then a repeat wash/rinse should be performed.
➢ Decontamination crew shall bag all of the firefighter’s PPE. Label the bag and set aside to be held for further
examination. The SCBA ensemble shall be bagged separately for further decontamination.
➢ Upon return to the fire station, the firefighter shall shower thoroughly using detergent or soap and scrubbing from
head to toe
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• When the responder is considered clean
A) Provide a final monitoring survey for decontamination effectiveness
B) Direct the responder to a rehabilitation area within the support zone.
C) After decontamination, all responders shall be rested and debriefed.
D) Review triage tag information on exposure rates and times to determine the accumulated ______ and
responder’s ability to return to the area.
E) Equipment may be returned at this time if considered clean.
exposure rates
DECONTAMINATION PROCEDURES - MCMD
• A MCMD condition requires responders to quickly assess and decontaminate multiple victims (___or more) at a
radiological incident such as an industrial accident or a terrorism event
11
• Radiological contamination in a multi-causality situation requires responders to employ the ____ system and
MCMD procedures
START
➢ While the decontamination process must be completed properly, it shall never take precedence over life-threatening
conditions. Do not delay urgent medical care in favor of decontamination.
EMERGENCY GROSS DECONTAMINATION
• Emergency decontamination is an interim measure of decontamination of victims, until such time as medical
decontamination is in operation and is usually conducted in the ______ by the first arriving company.
exclusion zone
➢ Procedures
A) Evacuate the victims from the high risk area as soon as possible.
B) Provide a water source to remove gross contaminates. Wet down the victims to reduce the risk of
contaminated materials becoming airborne or ingested. Containment of the run-off should be established
as time and personnel availability allows.
C) Direct the individuals to methodically remove their outer clothing from the top, down.
D) Flush any contamination from exposed skin and hair.
E) Direct victims to further decontamination procedures through medical decontamination or to a medical
treatment area.
MEDICAL DECONTAMINATION
➢ Medical decontamination, when established, is a formal decontamination procedure separate from emergency
decontamination by the use of set procedures, designed equipment and the evaluation of the effects of
decontamination through a decontamination corridor.
➢ Medical Decontamination
A) Is a systematic head to toe washing with soap and water.
B) Includes monitoring for contamination. If clean, the victims are sent to the medical group area for medical
evaluation.
C) Is a process requiring numerous resources and is very time consuming.
➢ After medical decontamination is fully operational, emergency decontamination operations can be terminated.
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➢ Medical decontamination procedures
A) The location of the MCMD corridor must accommodate apparatus, equipment, a number of personnel, and
the estimated number of victims appropriate for the incident.
B) Position the MCMD corridor uphill, upwind, and upstream from the exclusion zone.
C) From the exclusion zone (>2 mR/hr), direct individuals to the MCMD corridor.
D) Monitor the individual for contamination. Consider modesty issues for victims.
• If contamination is still found, re-decontaminate the individual. If no contamination is found on the individual,
then direct ambulatory individual to a ________ (CCP) or the medical area in the support zone to provide for the
individual’s welfare to the greatest extent possible. If the individual is non-ambulatory, have the responders move
the individual to the medical area for evaluation and disposition.
causality collection point
CHAPTER 8 – AIR OPERATIONS
5.8.3 - HELICOPTER WATER SUPPLY OPERATIONS 2/01/88
• ___________________ of the first in helicopter shall be the Helispot Manager and shall be in charge of firefighting
helispot operations
Air Operations Crewmember
• ______________ or ______________ is responsible for the overall operation and safety of the helispot or helibase
Helispot Manager & Helibase Manager
➢ Helispot Manager is responsible for: (5)
1. Logistical support
2. Helispot personnel
3. Personnel and vehicle Movements
4. Dust abatement
5. helispot evacuation plans
• Helispot evacuation plans for use in the event of fire overrun. Two plans are required, one of which shall not be
dependent on the use of _____________
Helicopters
• T.O.L.C. is responsible for coordinating all aircraft movements through the issuance of takeoff and landing
clearances. Airspace is defined as the airspace within a _____ mile radius and _____ feet above the helispot
elevation
one, 1000
• A _________ fire extinguisher is to be placed at the wye and remain there during the time the helispot is in
operation.
dry chemical
• The Company Officer of the engine assigned to the helispot shall transmit the following information to the pilot: (4)
1. Wind direction and velocity
2. Wire Hazards
3. Location of other aircraft
4. _______________
Other Flight Hazards
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➢ Note: Following arrival of the first in helicopter this shall become the responsibility of the Helispot Manager
• A qualified Air Operations Crewmember shall be assigned to the position of TOLC at any helispot where more than
___ helicopters or more than ___ agency are operating. The Helispot manager will assume the responsibilities until
TOLC can be assigned as a separate position
2, 1
• For initial attack, it may sometimes be preferable to fly a bit further if __ minutes or more may be saved in set up
time to get that first water on the fire. A closer spot can be set up later
ten
• Halfing the distance between the helispot and the fire has the effect of ____ the water delivery rate
doubling
• The landing pad(s) shall be located in the downwind _______ of the available area on a flat surface free of
obstacles and debris.
one third
• The engine assigned to supply water to the helicopters should be positioned at the _________ after laying a 2 ½”
inch hose line to each landing pad on the helispot. ______ lays work best whenever possible
Water source, Reverse
• The helicopter fill hose will arrive with the helicopter and consists of a 15 foot section of rubber hose with a
pyrolite "D"-handle shut-off on the supply end and a ______ fitting on the other end.
Kam-lok
• ________ of 1 3/4 inch hose with a fog nozzle is then connected to the other side of the wye and is charged.
Two hundred feet
• To one side of the wye, connect an open butt ____ foot section of 2 1/2” inch hose to which the helicopter fill hose
will be attached.
50
• Additional protector lines will be required if the operations expands beyond _____ pads
2
• The desired flow of 360 GPM at the Kam-Lok may be obtained by pumping _______psi per 100 feet of 2 1/2 inch
hose line plus ______psi for the wye, the 50 feet of 2 1/2” inch hose and helicopter fill hose.
30 psi, 30 psi
• Usually, pilots will start with _____ load of water ( 30 seconds ). 60 gallons per 10 seconds
1/2
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• Filling requires two positions on each landing pad, a _______ and ______
Shut off man, Kan lok man
• The ______________ is responsible for the accurate timing of the helicopter tank filling operation and assurance
that all equipment and personnel are clear of the helicopter before signaling an all clear
shut off man
➢ Kamlok man shall make the connection and disconnects between the kam-lok and the helicopter drop tank
• Ten seconds too long will result in a significant overload of about ______ pounds
500
➢ The minimum clearance between helicopter pads (center to center) is 150 feet
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CHAPTER 9 – WILDLAND FIRE OPERATIONS
5.9.2 - FIRE SHELTERS 4/28/11
• Personnel shall inspect their fire shelters every ___ days during fire season; from May 1 to December 31.
14
➢ Personnel shall inspect their fire shelters on the first of each month for January, February, March, and April.
➢ All personnel working within the operational area of a wildland or grass fire shall wear their fire shelter on their
wildland web gear.
• The fire shelter shall be worn ______ if carried on the side of the body or ______ if worn in the small of the back.
vertically, horizontally
➢ Fire shelters which have been deployed, either accidently or during an emergency situation, shall not be reused.
They may be used for training purposes, but must be clearly marked “FOR TRAINING PURPOSES ONLY.”
• Fire shelters that have been deployed or show signs of being unserviceable shall be removed from service. Signs
indicating a shelter should be removed from service include:
A) Holes in the poly vinyl bag; more than ___ holes, or any hole or tear greater than ___ in length.
B) Aluminum dust inside the poly vinyl bag; dark gray material is visual and you cannot read the _____.
C) Water vapor inside the poly vinyl bag generally indicated by a white film or dust inside the poly vinyl bag
D) Significant dirt or debris inside the poly vinyl bag
Three, ½”, packing label
• All safety personnel, and those civilian personnel that may be required to work within the operational area of a
wildland fire, shall train _______ (at a minimum) on the deployment and use of a fire shelter.
annually
5.9.2 - FIRE SHELTERS - Appendix I - The New Generation Fire Shelter 4/28/11
• The fire shelter has been required equipment for wildland firefighters since 1977. Since that time, shelters have
saved the lives of more than ____ firefighters
300
➢ The fire shelter should be used as a last resort if planned escape routes or safety zones become inadequate and
entrapment is imminent.
• The new generation fire shelter protects primarily by reflecting. The outer layer of foil reflects about ___ percent
of the radiant heat. Only ___ percent is absorbed into the shelter materials,
95, 5
• When the fire shelter material reaches about ___f, the glue that bonds the layers begins to break down.
500
➢ In a true safety zone, you do not need your shelter to protect you from heat and smoke
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➢ If you are in an entrapment, protect your lungs and airway at all costs. Most firefighters who perish in fires die from
heat that damages their airway, not from external burns. Once you are inside your shelter, stay there. Conditions
outside the shelter will be far worse than those inside.
• As soon as you realize your escape may be compromised drop your gear. Keep your tool if there is a chance you
may need it to clear a deployment site. Drop packs, chain saws, or anything else that might slow you down. You
can move up to ___ percent faster without your gear.
30
• Fusees are the most dangerous items you carry and ignite at ____ degrees
375
• keep in mind that it takes 15 to ___ seconds to deploy a shelter under ideal conditions, longer in turbulent winds or
while wearing a pack (another reason to toss the pack)
20
➢ When deploying a fire shelter keep away from and avoid narrow draws (even when deploying on a road), saddles
on ridgetops, chutes, and chimneys that can funnel smoke, flames, and hot gases
➢ When deploying a fire shelter try to pick natural firebreaks such as wet meadows, wide streambeds, swampy areas,
and rockslides.
➢ Flat areas on slopes, such as benches or road cuts, offer some protection from radiant and convective heat. The lee
side of a ridgetop can be an effective deployment site
• Ground fuels, such as grass or tree litter, can ignite rapidly. Clear the deployment site to mineral soil if at all
possible. Clear an area ___ by ___ feet (larger if you have time) down to mineral soil
4, 8
➢ When deploying a fire shelter lie face down so your feet are toward the oncoming flames. Keep your nose and
mouth on the ground. Breathing through a dry bandanna or a shroud will help reduce the heat and smoke you
inhale
• The optimal survival zone with or without a fire shelter is within a ____ of the ground. Once you are entrapped,
your highest priority is to protect your lungs and airway.
foot
➢ Do not use your water to wet your clothing or your bandanna inside the fire shelter. The best way to use your water
is to drink it.
• When sharing a shelter always enter from the side away from the flames or hot air, so you don’t expose the
occupant to the full force of the wind and heat. Your head should be by the other occupant’s ______
head
➢ If you are with a group, deploy your shelters close together. Adjacent shelters can provide added protection from
radiant heat. In addition, it will be easier to communicate when the shelters are close together
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➢ Once you are in your shelter, you must focus on two things: staying on the ground in the shelter no matter what,
and protecting your lungs and airway by keeping your mouth as close to the ground as possible.
• Typical entrapments have lasted from 10 to longer than ___ minutes.
90
• Practice should allow you to deploy the new fire shelter in 15 to ___ seconds
20
➢ Check the plastic bag to ensure that the quick opening strip is unbroken and the two red pull rings are intact.
• ________ is the most common damage to a fire shelter and can be spotted through the plastic bag.
Abrasion
➢ Remove fire shelters from service if you see extensive edge abrasion, if aluminum particles have turned the clear
plastic bag dark gray or black, or if the bottom of the bag has debris.
• Look for tears along the folded edges. Remove shelters from service when tears are longer than ___ inch.
1/4
➢ The shelter is an important piece of protective equipment.
A) Always keep the shelter in its hard plastic liner
B) Avoid rough handling. Do not lean against objects when you are wearing the shelter.
C) Don’t load heavy objects on top of the shelter.
D) Keep your shelter away from sharp objects that puncture it.
5.9.2 - FIRE SHELTERS - Appendix II - Fire Tech Tips – Large New Generation Fire Shelter 4/28/11
➢ Large shelter provides better protection for larger individuals by
A) Reducing body contact with the hot shelter material during deployment
B) Providing more insulating air space between the shelter material and the occupant
C) Preventing the shelter form being damaged when a larger person stretches out inside the shelter material
• The large shelter is longer, wider, and taller than the regular shelter. The large shelter weighs 5.2 pounds,
compared to ____ pounds for the regular shelter.
4.6
• The large shelterʼs deployment strap is _____, rather than yellow, the color of the strap on the regular shelter
orange
• Any firefighter taller than 6 feet 1 inch should carry the large shelter. Any firefighter whose girth is larger than ___
inches at any point also should carry the large shelter.
53
• Firefighters shorter than ______ should carry the regular shelter.
5 feet 7 inches
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➢ Firefighters who are shorter than 5 feet 7 inches, but whose girth is larger than 53 inches, should practice with the
large practice shelter in a strong wind before deciding whether to carry a large shelter on the fireline.
Large fire shelter(inches) Regular fire shelter(inches)
Length 96 86
Height 19.5 15.5
Width 33 31
5.9.2 - FIRE SHELTERS - Appendix III – Fire Tech Tips – Fire Shelter Inspect. Guide and Rebag Direction 4/28/11
➢ Fire shelters do not have a specified shelf life; their serviceability depends on their condition
• Inspections of shelters revealed a correlation between the condition of a shelter and wear shown on the PVC bag.
Three signs in particular show wear on the PVC bag pointing to excessive shelter wear: (3)
1. dark gray bag (aluminum rubbed off the shelter indicating shelter damage)
2. holes in the bag (allowing debris)
3. water in the bag (a white film or dust on the aluminum foil is a sign of corrosion, indicating water)
➢ Fire shelters have two layers: the outer layer is silica laminated to aluminum foil, the inner layer is fiberglass
laminated to aluminum foil
➢ Shelters that show evidence of moisture inside the bag (water drops, condensation, or corrosion) should be taken
out of service
• Shelters with so much aluminum rubbed off that the ______ inside the bag is not readable should be taken out of
service
paper label
➢ PVC bag clear with 0 to 3 holes less than ½ inch return to service
➢ PVC bag light to moderate gray, label readable and 0 to 3 holes less than ½ inch return to service.