general studies paper#1-full length paper#1
TRANSCRIPT
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow
https://targetpcslucknow.com/
Whatsapp/Call @ 7390023092
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 1
Time Allowed: 2 HoursMaximum Marks: 200
INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDITELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD
CHECK THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES OR
ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.
2. You have to enter your Roll Number on the Test
Booklet in the Box provided alongside. DO NOT
Write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 150 items (questions). Each item is printed only in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided. See directions
in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you with
your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination
has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to
take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE
QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong
answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that question will be
deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the
given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that question.
(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 2
HISTORY
1. Which of the following correctly represents 'Three gems of Kannada Poetry'?
A. Pampa, Aiyya, Lona
B. Kundu, Venkeyya, Ranna
C. Pampa, Ponna, Ranna
D. Kanna, Kanji, Penurama
Ans. C
Explanation: Under the western Chalukyas, Kannada literature reached great heights. The
three literary gems, Pampa, Ponna and Ranna, contributed to the development of Kannada
literature in the 10th century. Of the three, Ranna was the court poet of Satyasraya, while
the other two belonged to earlier decades. they also wrote on themes taken from the
Ramayana and the Mahabharata.
2. Which of the following describes correctly about ‘Bodhisattvas’?
A. It refers to holy persons who had lived on Earth before the Buddha.
B. It refers to any person who is on the path towards Buddha but has not attained yet.
C. It refers to the persons who had lived with Gautama Buddha in the search of
enlightenment.
D. Both A. and B.
Ans. D
Explanation: Bodhisattvas were not Buddha, they were the other holy persons called the
'Bodhisattvas', whom the Buddhists respected. The Bodhisattvas were holy persons who
had lived on earth before the Buddha and one who seeks awakening hence, an individual on
the path to becoming a Buddha.
3. ‘Ashtapradhan’ was a popular term used in medieval period of Indian History. What does
the term mean?
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 3
A. The term signifies 8 important literary and cultural court personalities during Great
Cholas.
B. The term was used for the most important court luminaries during the reign of Akbar.
C. The term was used for an administrative officer overseeing 8 departments during the
reign of Krishna Deva Raya.
D. The term was used for the 8 ministers during the reign of Shivaji.
Ans. D
Explanation: Shivaji’s system of administration was largely borrowed from the
administrative practice of the Deccani states. Shivaji designated eight ministers, sometimes
called the ‘Ashtapradhan’ (it was not in the nature of a council of ministers), each minister
being directly responsible to the ruler. The most important ministers were the ‘Peshwa’ who
looked after the finances and general administration, and the sari-i-naubat (senapati), which
was a post of honor and was generally given to one of the leading Maratha chiefs. The
majumdar was the accountant, while the waqenavis was responsible for intelligence post
and household affairs. Further, the surunavis or chitnis helped the king with his
correspondence. The dabir was master of ceremonies and also helped the king in his
dealings with foreign powers. The nyayadhish and panditrao were in charge of justice and
charitable grants.
4. Which among the following legislations brought separate electorate for Muslims?
A. Indian Council Act, 1892
B. Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909
C. Montagu-Chelmsford Reform, 1918
D. Government of India Act, 1935
Ans. B
Explanation: The Indian Councils Act 1909 was an act of the British Parliament that
introduced a few reforms in the legislative councils and increased the involvement of
Indians limitedly in the governance of British India. It was more commonly called the
Morley-Minto Reforms after the Secretary of State for India John Morley and the Viceroy of
India, the 4th Earl of Minto. It introduced separate electorates for the Muslims. Some
constituencies were earmarked for Muslims and only Muslims could vote their
representatives.
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 4
5. Which of the following was the immediate cause of the Revolt of 1857?
A. The use of greased cartridges that offended the religious sentiments of Hindu and Muslim
soldiers.
B. The position of peasants and artisans that had ruined under the new land system.
C. Fear of loss of religion and caste by the Christian missionaries.
D. The application of Doctrine of lapse brought discontent among the Indian rulers and
chiefs.
Ans. A
Explanation: In 1856, the government decided to replace the old fashioned muskets by the
Enfield rifles In order to load the Enfield rifle, the greased wrapping paper of the cartridge
had to be bitten off by the soldier. In January 1857, a rumor began to spread in the Bengal
regiments that the greased cartridges contained the fat of cows and pigs. The sepoys
became convinced that the introduction of the greased cartridge was a deliberate attempt
to defile their religion. The cow was sacred to the Hindus, and the pig was a taboo for the
Muslims. The sepoys refused to use these cartridges. The authorities regarded this act of
defiance of the sepoys as an act of insubordination. The action was taken against them.
6. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List I List II
(Author) (Book)
a. Hasan Nizami 1. Alamgir Nama
b. Gulbadan Begum 2. Nukkh-e-Dilkhusha
c. Muhammad Kazim 3. Humayunama
d. Bhimsen 4. Majul Maasir
Code :
a b c d
A. 4 3 2 1
B. 4 2 3 1
C. 4 3 1 2
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 5
D. 1 2 3 4
Ans. C
Explanation: Alamgirnamah the court history of Emperor aurangzeb (1658-1707) written
by Mirza Muhammad Kazim. Following the tradition of the Mughal emperors from the time
of akbar, Aurangzeb ordered his court historian Mirza Muhammad Kazim to record and
compile the history of his reign. Bhimsen, the author of Nukkh-e-Dilkhusha was in the
service of Mughal noble Daud Khan. His work is quite significant for knowing the Deccan
affairs. Gulbadan Begum was a Mughal princess and the daughter of Emperor Babur, the
founder of the Mughal Empire. She is best known as the author of Humayun-Nama, the
account of the life of her half-brother, Emperor Humayun, which she wrote on the request
of her nephew, Emperor Akbar. Tajul Maasir is first official history of the Delhi Sultanate.
Written in Persian by Sadruddin Hasan Nizami, it is the earliest among the historical
literature produced in India.
7. Assertion (A): Nagara, Dravida and Vesara are important temple architectures in India.
Reason (R): Dashavatara Temple in Deogarh, Uttar Pradesh is a panchayatana style temple.
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
Ans. B
Explanation: The Sun Temple at Konark is an example of Odisha school of Nagara style of
architecture. Dashavatara temple in Deogarh is an example of Panchayatana style.
Panchayatana is the one when the main shrine is surrounded by four subsidiary shrines.
Other notable examples are Kandariya Mahadeva Temple in Khajuraho, Brahmeswara
Temple in Bhubaneswar, Lakshmana Temple in Khajuraho and Lingaraja Temple in
Bhubaneswar.
8. Assertion (A): Gandhara School of Art form develops during the reign of Kushana dynasty.
Reason (R): This art is known for the sculptural representations of the Buddha in human
form.
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 6
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
Ans. B
Explanation: Gandhara school of art was one of the major schools of art in the history of
ancient India. Although being an intricate part of Indian history, it is uniquely associated
with the Greco-Roman style of art. The combination of these Greco-Roman and Indian ideas
along with the influence of other foreign traditions such as from China and Iran resulted in
the formation of a distinct style known as the Gandhara School of art. During Kushana rule
the Gandhara art prospered in India. Above all, Kanishka, the greatest of the Kushanas was a
famous backer of art and architecture. The Gandhara School of art flourished in his reign.
Gandhara School was profoundly influenced by Greek methodologies. This style of art was
closely associated with Mahayana Buddhism and hence the main theme of this art was Lord
Buddha and Bodhisattvas.
9. Consider the following statements about ‘Citadel’ in Harappan Civilisation:
1. Citadel was built on the lower ground of the city.
2. This includes granaries, religious building and professional building only.
3. This was an important feature of the civilization only in the city of Harappa.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. None of the above
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans. B
Explanation: The upper part built on the raised platform is described as the citadel. This part
includes the public buildings, the granaries, the more important workshops and the religious
buildings. The other part of the city, which was much larger, was the lower part where the
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 7
people lived and carried on their professional work. This was the important feature of Cities
of Harappa as well as of Mohenjo-Daro.
10. Identify the Governor-General based on the following statements:
1. He introduced Wood’s dispatch known as the Magna Carta of English education in India.
2. He was responsible for the introduction of post and telegraph system in India.
3. He passed Hindu Remarriage Act making widow re-marriage legal.
4. He started recruitment of the covenanted civil service through competitive examination.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below:
A. Lord Canning
B. Lord Dalhousie
C. Lord Hardinge
D. Lord William Bentinck
Ans. B
Explanation: Reforms under Dalhousie--
Telegraph: In 1852, Under superintendence of O’Shaughnessy 4000 miles of lines
were laid down, connected Calcutta, Peshawar, Bombay & Madras telegraphically
proved to be a boon for Britishers in revolt of 1857
Railway : Started “guarantee system” by which the railway companies were
guaranteed a minimum interest of five percent on their investment Government
retained the right of buying the railway mainly for Defense, Commercial &
Administrative reasons.
1st Railway line – Bombay to Thane 1853
2nd Calcutta to Raniganj coal fields 1854
3rd Madras to Arakkonam 1856
Postal System : Laid down foundation of Modern postal system in 1854 with
introduction of postal stamps (Postal system started in 1837)
IES: Created separate public work departments, allotted more funds for cutting
canals & roads. Upper Gangatic panel was cut in 1854 many bridges were
constructed. Hence laid foundation of Indian engineering services
Social & Educational - Passed Widow Remarriage Act (1856) and recommended the
setting up of universities in Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 8
Civil services: In 1853, competitive examination for the Indian Civil Services began –
Written exam started in 1854 in India. Educational reforms of Sir Charles wood
(1854) are considered intellectual charted of India which provided an outline for
Primary, Secondary & Collegiate levels of education. In 1854, Charles Wood prepared
a dispatch on an educational system for India. Considered as “Magna Carta of English
Education in India”. This document was the 1st comprehensive plan for the spread of
education in India.
RAJASTHAN HISTORY
11. Who among the following Kings had built the Fort of Chittor?
A. Chitrangad
B. Satadhanvan
C. Devavarman
D. Samprati
Ans. A
Explanation: Chitrangada Mori was Mori/Mauryan ruler and founder of Chittorgarh as
inscribed on the coins found belonging to that period. Chittorgarh's ancient name
was Chitrakuta after its founder Chitrangada Mori. The Chittor Fort or Chittorgarh is one of
the largest forts in India. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
12. Who among the following was responsible for throwing a Bomb to assassinate Lord
Hardings in Delhi?
A. Pratap Singh Baharat
B. Jorawar Singh Barhat
C. Kesari Singh Barhat
D. Both A & B
Ans. D
Explanation: Pratap Singh Barahat, who was an independence activist from Rajasthan.
He took prominent part in the revolutionary movement against British rule in India. Born on
24 May 1893 at Udaipur in Udiapur District in Indian state of Rajasthan he joined the
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 9
Revolutionary Party as a follower of Ras Bihari Bose. He participated in the revolutionary
plot to throw a bomb at Lord Hardinge, Viceroy of India on 3 December 1912. His
uncle Jorawar Singh Barhat was also in that group. He was arrested in Banaras Conspiracy
Case and was sentenced in Feb 1916 to five years RI. He was subjected to brutal torture
in Bareilly Central Jail to force him to divulge the names of his compatriots He refused. He
died in the jail on 7 May 1918 as an unsung hero. Jorawar Singh Baruth, uncle of Amar
Shaheed Pratapsingh Baruth and younger brother of the great freedom fighter Kesari Singh
Baruth was born on 12 September 1883 in Udaipur.
13. Who among the following was the founder of Marwar Prajamandal?
A. Megharam Vaidya
B. Subhash Chandra Bose
C. Jaynarayan Vyas
D.Manikya Lal Verma Hide Answer Jaynarayan Vyas
Ans. C
Explanation: The Praja Mandala movement was a part of the Indian independence
movement from the 1920s in which people living in the princely states, who were subject to
the rule of local aristocrats rather than the British Raj, campaigned against those feudatory
rulers, and sometimes also the British administration, in attempts to improve their civil
rights. In Rajasthan, Rajputana Desi Lok Parishad or Rajputana Native States Public Council
was established. These councils laid the foundation for Praja Mandal movement in
Rajasthan. The main demand of the Praja Mandal movements was the democratic
(fundamental) rights. Marwar Prajamandal was established by Jaynarayan Vyas in 1934.
14. The “Manmori Inscription” has been a source of knowledge about history of which
among the following areas of Rajasthan?
A. Mount Abu
B. Chittor
C. Udaipur & Mewar
D. Sirohi
Ans. B
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 10
Explanation: Manmori inscription is the famous Rock inscription of Rajasthan. It is in
the Sanskrit language. It gives historical facts about Raja Manbhanga. Colonel James
Todd once threw this inscription into the ocean.
15. Which among the following accounts of ancient Rajasthan provided an information upon
land revenue records?
A. Khareeta Bahi
B. Hukumatri Bahi
C. Adsatta
D. Patta Bahi
Ans. C
Explanation: Hakikat Bahi was an account for daily business of Kings, Patta Bahi was an
account of Patta of lands, Vivah Ri Bahi was an account of royal weddings, Kraeeta Bahi was
an acount of correspondence from VVIPs, Adsatta was an account of name of farmer, his
land, land revenue, details of crops etc.
16. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List I List II
(Inscription) (About)
a. Rock Inscription of Barli 1. Guhil dynasty of Mewar
b. Hathibada Ghosundi Inscription 2. Abhayadutta as Rajvanshiya ruler
c. Khand Inscription 3. Ashvamedha Yajna performed by King Sarvatata
d. Sambholi Inscription 4. Jain cult and Lord Mahavira
Code :
a b c d
A. 4 3 2 1
B. 4 2 3 1
C. 4 3 1 2
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 11
D. 1 2 3 4
Ans. A
Explanation: In ancient times, announcements, messages or instructions by King, were
carved into rocks or pillars. These rock edicts are deciphered by archaeologist and historians
in order to understand the belief and the system of administration of the kingdom. They are
considered as an authentic source.
1.Rock Inscription of Barli (443 B.C.) is first rock inscription in Brahmi script. It is found in
Ajmer, Rajasthan. It is about Jain cult and Lord Mahavira.
2. Hathibada Ghosundi Inscription (1st century B.C.) were found in Nagri village, near
Chittorgarh. Ghosundi inscription were found in Ghosundi village in Chittorgarh. It is written
in Brahmin script, both are part of one large inscription. Existence of Krishna and Balarama
have been mentioned in first three lines of Ghosundi inscription. It tells about Ashvamedha
Yajna performed by King Sarvatata.
3. Khand Inscription of Chittorgarh (6th century) is found in Chittorgarh. It is written in
Sanskrit. It tells about Vishnudatta as a good merchant and his son as a ‘Rajasthaniya’, an
officer deputed by the King. It mentions about Abhayadutta as Rajvanshiya ruler.
4. Sambholi Inscription (646 A.D.) is found in Sambholi, Bhomat in Mewar. It is written in
Sanskrit language. It gives information about Guhil dynasty of Mewar, victories of king
Shiladitya where he has been compared to moon for his qualities, economy, education,
mining and architecture during his time. Jetak, a man from Vat Nagar, set himself ablaze as a
religious tradition.
17. Assertion (A): Madho Singh founded the state of Kota.
Reason (R): Bhimsingh constructed AbaliMeeni Palace in Kota.
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
Ans. C
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 12
Explanation: Hada Chauhan were of Kota. In 1631, Madho Singh founded this state. Mukund
Singh constructed Abali Meeni Palace in Kota. Bhimsingh constructed Sawariyaji Temple in
Baran.
18. Assertion (A): Bagor is situated on the bank of river Kothari in Bhilwara District.
Reason (R): Kalibangan is located on the bank of river Ghaghhar in Hanumangarh District.
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
Ans. B
Explanation: Bagor is situated on the bank of river Kothari in Bhilwara District. A most
ancient source of animal husbandry is found here. Tools are excavated in large numbers.
Excavated by Virendranath Mishra. Biggest Mesolithic Site in India. Kalibangan Located on
the bank of river Ghaghhar in Hanumangarh District. Discovered by Amlanand Ghosh in
1953. Excavated by Brijvasilal in 1961. Evidence of ploughed field is found. Evidence of
growing Barley and Mustard are also found. Cylindrical seal of Mesopotamia is found here.
Houses were made from Raw bricks.
19. Consider the following statements about Banas Culture:
1. Important sites of Banas Culture are Gilund, Aahar, Ojiana, balathal, pachamta
2. Main crops of Banas Culture were wheat, barley, Millets , Bajra and Jawar.
3. Invention of first wheel industrial activities is important evidence in Banas Culture.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 1, 2 and 3
C. Only 2 and 3
D. All of the above
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 13
Ans. D
Explanation: Ahar - Banas Culture (3000 to 1500 BC.), also known as Banas Culture/
Tamravati and Dhoolkot. It lies mainly in the river valleys of Banas and its tributaries ; in
South Eastern Rajasthan About 90 sites of this culture have been discovered; important
among them are gilund, Aahar, Ojiana, balathal, pachamta. It provides the evidence of early
farming rural communities who were contemporary to the the Indus valley civilizations. A
small chopper made of thin sheet of copper is an important antiquity of Ahar culture.
Faience of Harappan type is also noteworthy to established relationship with other
contemporary cultures. They were rural farming communities also engaged in in livestock
keeping and hunting. Main crops were wheat, barley, Millets , Bajra and Jawar. There is
remakable refinement in Technology ; invention of first wheel industrial activities ; mass
production of ceramics ;Metal Works and development of Bead industries. Beads were
made in in Shell, bone, Ivory ,semi -precious stones, steatite and Terracotta Evidences of
terracotta bull; names as banasian bull. Houses were square shaped & largely made up of
stones; walls were made of mud\ mud bricks They carried on trade with Indus Valley
Civilization people. Evidence of rice has been noticed in the form of Impressions on
potsherds Technology. It is located in Rajsamand district and drained by three rivers that is
Kothari, Banaras and berach. Excavation carried out under BB Lal in 1959 -60.
20. Consider the following statements about life in India during Revolt of Rajasthan 1857:
1. Bithoda (Pali) was the first place in Rajasthan where the Revolt of 1857 began on 28 May.
2. During 1857 revolt George Lawrence was the Agent to Governor-General (AGG).
3. Kushal Singh Champavat led the revolt in Erinpura.
4. There were six cantonments in Rajasthan Naseerabad, Devali, Erinpura, Kota, Kherwara
and Beawar.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 1, 2 and 3
C. Only 2, 3 and 4
D. All of the above
Ans. C
Explanation: Revolt of Rajasthan 1857 - During 1857 revolt George Lawrence was the Agent
to Governor-General (AGG). Naseerabad was the first place in Rajasthan where the Revolt of
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 14
1857 began on 28 May. The news of revolt of Merrut reached A.G.G. George Lawerence and
he sent 15th Bengal Native Infantry located in Ajmer to Nasirabad due to which the
dissatisfaction among the soldiers was born. On 28 May 1857, Naseerabad was the first
place where the revolt began. Kushal Singh Champavat led the revolt in Erinpura. There
were six cantonments in Rajasthan Naseerabad, Devali, Erinpura, Kota, Kherwara and
Beawar. On 21 st August, revolt reached to Jodhpur region. Kota revolt was headed by
Mehrab Khan and Jadaya Kayashion. They killed Major Barton, his two sons and a doctor on
15 th October 1857 for which they were hanged on 3 rd March 1858. Reason for the failure
of revolt in Rajasthan: Lack of unity and organization, no support from rulers, no definite
leadership, no ammunition support, etc.
Geography
21. ‘Bardoli Chheerha’ refers to which of the following?
A. A local storm of hot whether season in Assam.
B. A blood oozing tree of Assam which recently got discovered.
C. A type of pesticide useful for blooming of coffee flowers in Assam.
D. A type of newly discovered species of Butterfly in Assam.
Ans. A
Explanation: Bardoli Chheerha is a local storm of hot whether season of Assam. Nor Westers
are dreaded evening thunderstorms in Bengal and Assam. Their notorious nature can be
understood from the local nomenclature of ‘Kalbaisakhi’, a calamity of the month of
Baisakh. These showers are useful for tea, jute and rice cultivation. In Assam, these storms
are known as “Bardoli Chheerha”.
22. ‘A situation when there is a prolonged period of inadequate rainfall marked with
maldistribution of the same over time and space.’
The above statement refers to which of the following drought?
A. Agricultural Drought
B. Hydrological Drought
C. Ecological Drought
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 15
D. Meteorological Drought
Ans. D
Explanation: Agricultural Drought is also known as soil moisture drought, characterised by
low soil moisture that is necessary to support the crops, thereby resulting in crop failures.
Moreover, if an area has more than 30 per cent of its gross cropped area under irrigation,
the area is excluded from the drought-prone category. Hydrological Drought results when
the availability of water in different storages and reservoirs like aquifers, lakes, reservoirs,
etc. falls below what the precipitation can replenish. Ecological Drought occurs when the
productivity of a natural ecosystem fails due to shortage of water and as a consequence of
ecological distress, damages are induced in the ecosystem. Meteorological Drought is a
situation when there is a prolonged period of inadequate rainfall marked with
maldistribution of the same over time and space.
23. ‘Majuli’, the largest inhabited riverine island in the world is located on which river?
A. Ganga
B. Teesta
C. Brahmaputra
D. Barak
Ans. C
Explanation: Majuli, in the Brahmaputra river, is the largest inhabited riverine island in the
world.
24. Which of the following countries does not borders Black Sea?
A. Romania
B. Turkey
C. Albania
D. Ukraine
Ans. C
Explanation: Six countries border with the Black Sea, including Ukraine to the north, Russia
and Georgia to the east, Turkey to the south, and Bulgaria and Romania to the west.
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 16
25. Which of the following are in ‘Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve’?
A. Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary, Bandipur National Park, Nagarhole National Park,
Mukurthi National Park and Sathyamangalam Wildlife Sanctuary.
B. Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary, Valleys of flower National Park, Nanda Devi National Park,
Mukurthi National Park and Sathyamangalam Wildlife Sanctuary.
C. Peppara Wildlife Sanctuary, Neyyar Wildlife Sanctuary, Kalakkad Mundanthurai Tiger
Reserve and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary.
D. Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary, Neyyar Wildlife Sanctuary, Mukurthi National Park and
Sathyamangalam Wildlife Sanctuary and Shendurney Wildlife Sanctuary.
Ans. A
Explanation: National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries of Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve:
Mudumalai National Park - The famous Mudumalai National Park and Wildlife
Sanctuary is situated at the northwestern side of the Nilgiri Hills near Coimbatore in
Tamil Nadu and interstate boundaries with Karnataka and Kerala. It is also a UNESCO
World Heritage Site.
Mudumalai wildlife sanctuaries is one of the first wildlife park established in India
and declared a Tiger Reserve. It is an important wildlife habitat and Wildlife Corridor
between Bandipur National Park,Nagarhole National Park and Wayanad Wildlife
Sanctuary.
The Bandipur National Park is a tiger reserve located in Chamarajanagar district of
Karnataka and known for its Biomes and dry deciduous forest. The tiger reserve is
one of the most famous national park in south India and along with
Mudumalai,Wynad and Nagarhole it is the largest protected area of south India.
The Nagarhole National Park is located between the Kodagu and Mysore district in
Karnataka state. Nagarhole National Park is heavily forested Project Tiger tiger
reserve and cover with small water streams, big mountain hills, deep valleys and
spectacular waterfalls. It is also known as Rajiv Gandhi National Park ranges from
foothills of the Western Ghats to down the Brahmagiri hills towards Kerala.
The Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary is a second largest wildlife park in Kerala and
declared a Project Elephant, Elephant Reserves.
The Mukurthi National Park is situated western part of Nilgiris Plateau in the
Western Ghats mountain range.
The Silent Valley National Park is the core area of the Nilgiri International Biosphere
Reserve and part of World Heritage Site the Western Ghats.
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 17
26. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List I List II
(Lake) (Location)
a. Wular 1. Rajasthan
b. Chilka 2. Orissa
c. Loktak 3. Manipur
d. Nakki 4. Jammu and Kashmir
Code :
a b c d
A. 4 3 2 1
B. 4 2 3 1
C. 4 3 1 2
D. 1 2 3 4
Ans. B
Explanation: Wular Lake is one of the largest fresh water lakes in Asia. It is sited in
Bandipora district in the Indian union territory of Jammu and Kashmir. The lake basin was
formed as a result of tectonic activity and is fed by the Jhelum River. The lake’s size varies
seasonally from 12 to 100 square miles. Chilika Lake is a brackish water lagoon, spread over
the Puri, Khurda and Ganjam districts of Odisha state on the east coast of India, at the
mouth of the Daya River, flowing into the Bay of Bengal, covering an area of over 1,100 km².
Loktak Lake is the largest freshwater lake in Northeast India and is famous for the phumdis
floating over it. The lake is located at Moirang in Manipur state, India. Nakki Lake is a lake
situated in the Indian hill station of Mount Abu in Aravalli range.
27. Assertion (A): Radial pattern develops where the river channel follows the slope of the
terrain and resembles the branches of tree.
Reason (R): Narmada, Son and Mahanadi are good examples of radial pattern.
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 18
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
Ans. B
Explanation: The dendritic pattern develops where the river channel follows the slope of the
terrain. The stream with its tributaries resembles the branches of a tree, thus the name
dendritic. The radial pattern develops when streams flow in different directions from a
central peak or dome like structure. A good example of a radial drainage pattern is provided
by the rivers originating from the Amarkantak Mountain. Rivers like Narmada, Son and
Mahanadi originating from Amarkantak Hills flow in different directions and are good
examples of radial pattern.
28. Assertion (A): Coriolis force is maximum at the equator and minimum at the poles.
Reason (R): Absence of coriolis force would not result in the formation of a tropical cyclone.
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
Ans. D
Explanation: The Coriolis force is directly proportional to the angle of latitude. It is maximum
at the poles and is absent at the equator. At the equator, the Coriolis force is zero and the
wind blows perpendicular to the isobars. Presence of the Coriolis force is one of the pre-
requisite for the formation and intensification of the tropical storm.
29. Arrange the following seas from South to North:
1. North Sea
2. Black Sea
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 19
3. Baltic Sea
4. Mediterranean Sea
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A. 1 – 2 – 3-– 4
B. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
C. 4 – 2 – 3 – 1
D. 4 – 2–1 – 3
Ans. D
Explanation: Please refer Map to locate.
30. Identify the type of vegetation based on the following characteristics:
1. It is found in the higher latitudes of Northern Hemisphere and also in the higher altitudes.
2. They are tall, softwood evergreen trees.
3. The woods of these forests are very useful for making pulp which is used in paper and
newsprint.
4. Chir, Pine, Cedar etc are important varieties of trees.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
A. Tropical Deciduous Forests
B. Mediterranean Forests
C. Temperate Deciduous Forests
D. Temperate Coniferous Forests
Ans. D
Explanation: These are the characteristics of Coniferous Forests which are also called Taiga
which means pure or untouched in Russian Language.
Rajasthan Geography
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 20
31. Which city is called as Purple City?
A. Kota
B. Tonk
C. Jhalawar
D. Bharatpur
Ans. C
Explanation: Rajasthan has colour-coordinated cities like Jodhpur is blue, Udaipur is white,
Jaipur is Pink and Jhalawar is purple. It is solely famous for the large numbers of temples
and religious sites. Jhalawar was named after its founder, Jhala Zalim Singh in 1838. He was
the Dewan of Kota State and established the town as a cantonment, then known as Chaoni
Umedpura near the existing Jhalrapatan Fort.
32. Which district of Rajasthan has the highest Literacy percentage?
A. Bikaner
B. Kota
C. Jaipur
D. Tonk
Ans. B
Explanation: Jalore had lowest literacy rate in state at 55.58%. The highest male literacy was
reported in Jhunjhunu at 87.88% followed by Kota (87.65%) and Jaipur (87.27%). The overall
literacy percentage in the state of Rajasthan, combining female and male literacy rates,
is 69.7%. The male literacy rate in the state is 80.8%.
33. In Which district of Rajasthan Mica mixed hematite iron ore is found?
A. Bhilwara
B. Jodhpur
C. Jaipur
D. Kota
Ans. A
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 21
Explanation: Rajasthan is the richest state in terms of availability and variety of minerals in
the country and produces about 30 different minerals. Rajasthan is the sole producer of lead
& zinc ores and conc., calcite, selenite and wollastonite. The Iron-Ore Deposits are located in
the district of Jaipur, Udaipur, Jhunjhunu, Sikar, Bhilwara, Alwar, Bharatpur, Dausa and
Banswara. About 2621 million tones resources of Iron–Ore (Both Hematite & Magnetite) are
estimated in the State. Iron ore (hematite) is found in in Alwar, Dausa, Jaipur, Jhunjhunu,
Sikar & Udaipur districts; iron ore (magnetite) is found in Bhilwara, Jhunjhunu & Sikar
districts.
34. The popular Jaswant animal fair is conducted in which district of Rajasthan?
A. Kota
B. Karoli
C. Bharatpur
D. Jaisalmer
Ans. C
35. The Tropic of Cancer passes through which Rajasthan district?
A. Udaipur
B. Baran
C. Dholpur
D. Banswara
Ans. D
Explanation: Rajasthan is placed in the north-western division of India. The Tropic of Cancer
passes through its South tip in its Banswara district. The total length of tropic of cancer
is 26KM in the Rajasthan state.
36. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List I List II
(Dance) (Tribe)
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 22
a. Ghoomar Dance 1. Kanjar tribe
b. Kathputli Dance 2. Kamada tribes
c. Terah Taali 3. Bhati community
d. Chakri Dance 4. Bhil Tribe
Code :
a b c d
A. 4 3 2 1
B. 4 2 3 1
C. 4 3 1 2
D. 1 2 3 4
Ans. A
Explanation: Ghoomar Dance is traditional as well as enthusiastic folk dance. It was basically
developed by Bhil tribe and later accepted by other Rajasthani community. The Kachhwaha
Clan of Rajputs who ruled Jaipur defeated the Bhils and later acceded to peaceful
coexistence with them. Now it is performed all over Rajasthan but especially in Udaipur,
Jodhpur and Kota Bundi. It is dedicated to “Gauri” or Parvati, wife of Lord Shiva. Kathputli
Dance is world-famous and well known as Puppet Dance. It shows and explains the social
problems of society and mythological stories, folktales, etc. In the ancient period this art
was practised by Bhati community and might have originated from present-day Nagaur and
surrounding areas. Terah Taali It begins with the women, who sit on the floor and her body
parts are joined with the Manjeeras which are fixed on their wrists, elbows, waists, arms
and a pair in their hands as well and her accompanists sing slowly in the beat. This dance is
performed by the Kamada tribes who are traditional snake charmers and it is also
performed by the tribes of Mirasi, Bhand, Dholi, Bhat and Nat. Male artists sing local
Rajasthani folk songs as background music and play different instruments like pakhawaj,
dholak jhanjhar, sarangi, harmonium etc. Chakri Dance is the most popular folk dance of
Kanjar tribe inhabited in some parts of Kota and Buran district and this dance is also their
main source of livelihood. It is performed in almost all the occasion of Haroti region of
Rajasthan. It is believed to be same as the Raai dance of ‘Beriya’ tribe of Madhya Pradesh.
Main Instruments includes Dholak and Nagada with vocals.
37. Assertion (A): The Thar Desert or the Great Indian Desert is known as the "Desert State
of India."
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 23
Reason (R): The Thar Desert or the Great Indian Desert encompasses about 90% of total
landmass of Rajasthan.
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
Ans. C
Explanation: The Thar Desert or the Great Indian Desert encompasses about 70% of total
landmass of Rajasthan and hence it is identified as the "Desert State of India". The Rajasthan
desert which forms a major portion of the Thar Desert is the biggest desert in India and
encompasses the districts of Jaisalmer, Barmer, Bikaner and Jodhpur. In fact the Rajasthan
Desert comprises the desert triangle of three cities - Jaisalmer, Bikaner and Jodhpur. The
desert becomes very hot during the summer and it experiences extreme climate with an
average annual rainfall less than 25 cm. Days are hot and the nights are cold.
38. Assertion (A): the Banas River, rises in the Aravallis near the great Kumbhalgarh hill fort
and collects all the drainage of the Mewar plateau.
Reason (R): The Luni is the only significant river west of the Aravallis.
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
Ans. B
Explanation: The Aravallis form Rajasthan’s most-important watershed. To the east of the
range, the Chambal River—the only large and perennial stream in the state—and other
waterways generally drain toward the northeast. The principal tributary of the Chambal,
the Banas River, rises in the Aravallis near the great Kumbhalgarh hill fort and collects all the
drainage of the Mewar plateau. Farther north, the Banganga, after rising near Jaipur, flows
east toward the Yamuna before disappearing. The Luni is the only significant river west of
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 24
the Aravallis. It rises near the city of Ajmer in central Rajasthan and flows some 200 miles
(320 km) west-southwest into the Rann of Kachchh in Gujarat state. Northeast of the Luni
basin is an area of internal drainage characterized by salt lakes, the largest of which
is Sambhar Salt Lake.
39. Consider the following statements about plains of Rajasthan:
1. Luni-Jawai Basin is a semi-arid plain.
2. Pali, Jalor, Jodhpur and Nagaur are included in Luni-Jawai Basin.
3. Jhunjhunu, Sikar and Churu and Northern part of Nagaur are Ghaghhar River Basin.
4. Ganganagar and Hamumangarh are formed by the Shekhawati Region Basin.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 1, 2 and 3
C. Only 2, 3 and 4
D. All of the above
Ans. A
Explanation: Shekhawati Region It is also called ‘Banger Region’. Jhunjhunu, Sikar and Churu
and Northern part of Nagaur are included in it. This is a sandy region having sand dunes of
less height. Here the sand dunes are of the transverse type. Luni-Jawai Basin is a semi-arid
plain. Luni and its tributaries rivers flow in this region. Pali, Jalor, Jodhpur and Nagaur are
included in this region. It is a river-based plain; hence it is called Luni Basin. Shekhawati
Region It is also called ‘Banger Region’. Jhunjhunu, Sikar and Churu and Northern part of
Nagaur are included in it. This is a sandy region having sand dunes of less height. Here the
sand dunes are of the transverse type. Plain of Ghaghhar Plains of Ganganagar and
Hamumangarh are formed by the flow of Ghaghhar River. Presently, this river is considered
dead because it doesn’t have a flowing way. Ghaghhar River is the ancient river Saraswati
which has disappeared. Thus it became a plain suitable for agriculture.
40. Consider the following statements about lakes of Rajasthan:
1. Some famous Salt Water Lakes are Faloda, Kuchaman, Kovaad, Kachhor, Rewasa, etc.
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 25
2. Some famous fresh water lakes are Navlakkha Lake (Bundi), Kolayat Lake (Bikaner), Shaiv
Sagar (Dungarpur), Galata and Ramgarh (Jaipur), Balsamand Lake (Jodhpur), Kailana Lake.
3. Sambhar Lake lake receives water from five rivers Medtha, Samaod, Mantha, Rupangarh
and khandel.
4. Kakani river is also known as Dead River.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 1, 2 and 3
C. Only 2, 3 and 4
D. All of the above
Ans. B
Explanation: In Rajasthan, Lakes are divided into two categories - Saltwater Lake and Fresh
(Sweet) Water Lake. Sambhar Lake is India’s largest inland Salt Water Lake. It has been
designated as a Ramsar site because this wetland is a favourite spot for migratory birds like
Pink Flamingo. The total area of the lake is 150 km2 . The lake receives water from five rivers
Medtha, Samaod, Mantha, Rupangarh and khandel. Ghaghhar River is considered as the
oldest river of India, i. e. Saraswati. It flows from Harayana to Hanumangarh, Ganganagar,
Suratgarh, Anupgarh and enters in Pakistan. It is also called Dead River. Kakani or Kakneya
River Originates from Kotari village and disappear after travelling some distance.
Polity
41. Which of the following amendments had enabled the High Courts to issue writs to any
person or authority even outside its territorial jurisdiction, if the cause of action arises
within its territorial limits?
A. 9th Amendment Act
B. 15th Amendment Act
C. 24th Amendment Act
D. 42nd Amendment Act
Ans. B
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 26
Explanation: Constitutional (15th Amendment) Act, 1963 --
1. Enabled the High Courts to issue writs to any person or authority even outside its
territorial jurisdiction, if the cause of action arises within its territorial limits.
2. Increased the retirement age of the High Court judges from 60 to 62 years.
3. Provided for the appointment of retired judges of the High Courts as acting judges of the
same court.
4. Provided the compensatory allowance to judges who are transferring from one High
Court to another.
5. Enabled the retired judge of High Court to act as ad hoc judge of the Supreme Court.
6. Provided for the procedure for determining the age of the Supreme Court and High Court
judges.
42. Deputy Speaker can resign from his office by writing to the:
A. President
B. Speaker
C. Chief Justice of India
D. Vice President
Ans. B
Explanation: Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker remains in office usually during the life of
the Lok Sabha. However, he may vacate his office earlier in any of the following three cases:
1. if he ceases to be a member of the Lok Sabha;
2. if he resigns by writing to the Speaker; and
3. if he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the members of the Lok Sabha.
Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days’ advance notice.
43. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts introduced a new provision to
put restraint on the power of the Parliament to extend a Proclamation of the President’s
Rule beyond one year?
A. 44th Constitutional Amendment Act
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 27
B. 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act
C. 46th Constitutional Amendment Act
D. 56th Constitutional Amendment Act
Ans. A
Explanation: The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 introduced a new provision to put restraint
on the power of the Parliament to extend a Proclamation of the President’s Rule beyond
one year.
44. Which of the following statements related to the State Legislature is correct?
A. The Constitution provides for the mechanism of joint sitting of two Houses of the State
Legislature to resolve a deadlock between them over the passage of a Bill.
B. The Legislative Assembly can override the Legislative Council by passing the Bill for the
second time and vice versa.
C. If a Bill originated in the Legislative Council and sent to the Legislative Assembly, is
rejected by the latter, the Bill ends and becomes dead.
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Explanation: The Constitution provides for the mechanism of joint sitting of two Houses of
the Parliament, not State Legislature to resolve a deadlock between them over the passage
of a Bill. The Legislative Assembly can override the Legislative Council by passing the Bill for
the second time and not vice versa. The mechanism of passing the Bill for the second time
to resolve a deadlock applies to a Bill originating in the Legislative Assembly only. When a
Bill, which has originated in the Legislative Council and sent to the Legislative Assembly, is
rejected by the latter, the Bill ends and becomes dead.
45. ‘It is the duty of the state to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living and to
improve public health.’ It is mentioned in which Part of the Constitution?
A. Fundamental Rights
B. Fundamental Duties
C. Directive Principles of State Policy
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 28
D. Preamble
Ans. C
Explanation: Article 47- It is the duty of the state to raise the level of nutrition and the
standard of living and to improve public health.
46. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List I List II
(Items) (List of Seventh Schedule)
a. Banking 1. Union List
b. Prison 2. State List
c. Forest 3. Concurrent List
d. Cyber Laws 4. Residuary powers
Code :
a b c d
A. 4 3 2 1
B. 4 2 3 1
C. 4 3 1 2
D. 1 2 3 4
Ans. D
Explanation: List of Seventh Schedule---
Union List includes subjects’ like- Defense, Atomic Energy, Foreign Affairs, War and
Peace, Banking, Railways, Post and Telegraph, Airways, Ports, Foreign Trade,
Currency & Coinage.
State List includes subjects’ like- Agriculture, Police, Prison, Local Government, Public
Heath, Land, Liquor, Trade and Commerce, Livestock and Animal Husbandry, State
Public Services.
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 29
Concurrent List includes subjects’ like - Education, Transfer of Property other than
Agricultural land, Forests, Trade Unions, Adulteration, Adoption and Succession.
Residuary Powers include all other matters not mentioned in any of the Lists. On
Cyber Laws Union Legislature alone has the power to legislate.
47. Assertion (A): The Zonal Councils are extra constitutional bodies.
Reason (R): The States have been divided into four zones.
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
Ans. C
Explanation: The Zonal Councils provide a forum where irritants between the Centre and the
States and among the States themselves can be resolved through free and frank discussions
and consultations. The States have been divided into five zones and each zone has its
Council comprising the Chief Minister, two Ministers and the Chief Secretary of each State.
The Zonal Councils are headed by the Union Home Minister and each zone nominates one
Chief Minister as its Vice-Chairman on rotation basis. The Zonal Councils are statutory (and
not constitutional) bodies. They are established by an Act of the Parliament, that is, the
States Reorganisation Act of 1956.
48. Assertion (A): Voting of demands for grants is done in both the Rajya Sabha and Lok
Sabha.
Reason (R): Guillotine is resorted to pass demands for grants on the last day.
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 30
Ans. D
Explanation: the voting of demands for grants is the exclusive privilege of the Lok Sabha,
that is, the Rajya Sabha has no power of voting the demands. Second, the voting is confined
to the votable part of the budget — the expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of
India is not submitted to the vote (it can only be discussed). Each demand is voted
separately by the Lok Sabha. During this stage, the members of Parliament can discuss the
details of the budget. They can also move motions to reduce any demand for grant. In total,
26 days are allotted for the voting of demands. On the last day the Speaker puts all the
remaining demands to vote and disposes them whether they have been discussed by the
members or not. This is known as ‘guillotine’.
49. Consider the following statements regarding the territorial extent of the Central and
State Legislation:
1. The laws made by a State Legislature can never be applied outside the state.
2. The Parliament can make ‘extraterritorial legislation’.
3. The President may repeal or amend any act of the Parliament in relation to the Andaman
and Nicobar Islands.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans. C
Explanation: The Constitution defines the territorial limits of the legislative powers vested in
the Centre and the states in the following way:
1. The Parliament can make laws for the whole or any part of the territory of India. The
territory of India includes the states, the union territories and any other area for the time
being included in the territory of India.
2. A State Legislature can make laws for the whole or any part of the state. The laws made
by a State Legislature are not applicable outside the state, except when there is a sufficient
nexus between the state and the object.
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 31
3. The Parliament alone can make ‘extraterritorial legislation’. Thus, the laws of the
Parliament are also applicable to the Indian citizens and their property in any part of the
world.
The President can make regulations for the peace, progress and good government of the
four Union Territories — the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra and Nagar
Haveli and Daman and Diu. A regulation so made has the same force and effect as an Act of
the Parliament. It may also repeal or amend any Act of the Parliament in relation to these
union territories.
50. Which of the following Committees and their recommendations is/are correctly
matched?
1. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee - Recommended the establishment of the scheme of
‘democratic decentralisation’.
2. G.V.K. Rao Committee- Recommended for official participation of political parties at all
levels of panchayat elections.
3. Thungon Committee – Recommended that the Panchayati Raj bodies should be
constitutionally recognized.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans. A
Explanation: Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommended the establishment of the scheme
of ‘democratic decentralisation’, which ultimately came to be known as Panchayati Raj.
Ashok Mehta Committee recommended that there should be an official participation of
political parties at all levels of panchayat elections. Thungon Committee recommended that
the Panchayati Raj bodies should be constitutionally recognized.
Rajasthan Polity
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 32
51. Rajasthan State Formation day is celebrated on -
A. 05, October
B. 17, August
C. 01, November
D. 01, August
Ans. C
Explanation: The present State of Rajasthan was created on 30 January 1949 by merging the
earlier state of Rajputana and a number of princely states. After 1947 the princely states
and chiefships were integrated into India in stages, and the state took the name Rajasthan.
It assumed its present form on November 1, 1956, when the States Reorganization Act came
into force.
52. What is the total Number of districts in Rajasthan?
A. 28
B. 33
C. 38
D. 24
Ans. B
Explanation: As of 2021, there are a total of 33 districts in Rajasthan with 7 divisions.
Jaisalmer District is the largest while Dholpur is the smallest district in terms of area.
53. Total Number of Assembly seats in Rajasthan?
A.198
B. 200
C. 204
D. 210
Ans. B
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 33
Explanation: The Rajasthan Legislative Assembly is the unicameral state legislature
of Rajasthan state in India. The assembly meets at Vidhana Bhavan situated in Jaipur, the
capital of Rajasthan. Members of the Legislative assembly are directly elected by the people
for a term of 5 years. Presently, the legislative assembly consists of 200 members.
54. Who was the first Chief Minister of the Rajasthan?
A. Pandit Hiralal Shastri
B. Mohan Lal Sukhadia
C. Hira Lal Devpura
D. Shiv Charan Mathur
Ans. A
Explanation: The present State of Rajasthan was created on 30 January 1949 by merging the
earlier state of Rajputana and a number of princely states. These latter were further
regrouped in 1956. Hiralal Shastri, a prominent politician and educationist, the serving
‘Prime Minister’ of the princely Jaipur State, was appointed as the 1st Chief Minister of this
state. (General election in India came into effect in 1952).
55. Which state first started the Panchayat Raj System in India?
A. Rajasthan
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Bihar
Ans. A
Explanation: The system later came to be known as Panchayati Raj, which was inaugurated
by the then Prime Minister Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru on 2 October 1959 at Nagour
in Rajasthan. The first elections under the Rajasthan Panchayat Samitis and Zilla Parishads
Act, 1959 were held in September-October 1959.
56. The Chairman of the Rajasthan Public Service Commission may be suspended—
A. By the Chief Minister of Rajasthan
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 34
B. By the Chief Secretary of Rajasthan
C. By the Governor of Rajasthan
D. By Chief Justice of Rajasthan High Court
Ans. C
Explanation: Rajasthan Public Service Commission is the premier commission of the
government of Rajasthan, for organizing recruitment exams, procedures for recruiting
employees, officers to various departments of the government. The RPSC office is located
at Jaipur road, Ajmer, Rajasthan.
57. Assertion (A): The Advocate General office of Rajasthan came into existence on the
formation of the State of Rajasthan as per the State Re-Organization Act 1956 when the
High Court of Rajasthan was established.
Reason (R): Late Shri G.C. Kasliwal became the first Advocate General for the State of
Rajasthan.
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
Ans. B
Explanation: Advocate General is the Highest Law Officer and is part of state executive. It is
a Constitutional post and Article 165 in Constitution of India is about it. The Advocate
General office of Rajasthan came into existence on the formation of the State of Rajasthan
as per the State Re-Organization Act 1956 when the High Court of Rajasthan was
established. On the formation of the new State of Rajasthan, Late Shri G.C. Kasliwal became
the first Advocate General for the State of Rajasthan. The AG's office presents all the cases
in which the Govt. of Rajasthan is one of the parties, in the High Court of Rajasthan at
Principal Seat at Jodhpur and Bench at Jaipur.
58. Assertion (A): Article 39-A came to be inserted in the constitution by amendment Act
1976 with effect from 3.1.1977.
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 35
Reason (R): The headquarters of Rajasthan State Legal Services Authority is located at
Jodhpur.
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
Ans. C
Explanation: Article 39-A came to be inserted in the constitution by amendment Act 1976
with effect from 3.1.1977. It enjoins upon the state to secure that the operation of legal
System promotes justice on the basis of equal opportunity and in particular to provide free
legal aid by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way and to ensure that
opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or
other disabilities. Equal justice to all and free legal aid are hallmark of Article 39-A. The
headquarters of Rajasthan State Legal Services Authority is located at Jaipur.
59. Consider the following statements about Rajasthan High Court:
1. Before inauguration of the new State, a committee consisting of Shri B.R.Patel, the then
Chief Secretary to the Government of PEPSU, Lt. Col. T.C.Puri, Director of Health Service and
Shri S.P. Sinha, Superintending Engineer, CPWD, was constituted to resolve the issues
relating to location of the capital and the seat of the High Court.
2. The committee submitted its report on March 27, 1949 with a recommendation that
Jaipur should be made capital of the new State and the High Court should be located at
Jodhpur.
3. In the newly created State, five High Courts were functioning at Jaipur, Jodhpur, Bikaner,
Udaipur (being capital of United Rajasthan with a bench at Kota) and Alwar (being capital of
Matsya State) with a total strength of 20 judges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 1 and 3
C. Only 2 and 3
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 36
D. All of the above
Ans. D
Explanation: The High Court was duly inaugurated on August 29, 1949. In an impressive
function, presided by Rajpramukh His Highness Maharaja Sawai Man Singh, oath was
administered to Hon'ble Justice Kamal Kant Verma (former Chief Justice of Allahabad High
Court and former Chief Justice of Udaipur High Court) as Chief Justice along with 11 other
judges. These 11 judges represented most of the princely States.
60. Consider the following statements about House of people’s representatives in Rajasthan
:
1. As per the provisions of Article 168 of the newly framed Constitution of India, Rajasthan
opted for unicameral character and its legislature is known as the Rajasthan Legislative
Assembly.
2. The legislature, which is running its Fifteenth term, was first elected by adult franchise in
1952 and this process is continuing with the exceptions of 1967, 1977, 1980 and 1992 when
the Presidential Rule was in force.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Both 1 and 2
B. Only 1
C. Only 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. A
Explanation: The evolution of the House of people's representatives in Rajasthan has an
important place in the constitutional history of India as it was the outcome of the merger of
22 princely States of the erstwhile Rajputana with the Union of India. As per the provisions
of Article 168 of the newly framed Constitution of India, every state had to establish a
legislature consisting of one or two Houses. Rajasthan opted for unicameral character and
its legislature is known as the Rajasthan Legislative Assembly. The strength of the Rajasthan
Legislative Assembly which is determined by delimitation Commission, was 160 in 1952 and
presently stands as 200 after many more recommendations of the same Commission.
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 37
Economics
61. Economic growth in India is measured by change in GDP at:
A. Constant market prices
B. Current market prices
C. Factor Cost at constant prices
D. Factor Cost at market prices
Ans. A
Explanation: Real gross domestic product (Real GDP) is an inflation-adjusted measure that
reflects the value of all goods and services produced by an economy in a given year
(expressed in base-year prices) and is often referred to as constant-price GDP, inflation-
corrected GDP, or constant dollar GDP.
62. According to the Economic Survey 2020-21, what was the per capita income of
Rajasthan in 2019-20?
A. Rs 1, 57,192
B. Rs 82,072
C. Rs 1, 18,159
D. Rs 68,048
Ans. C
Explanation: Per Capita Income is the mean income of the people in an economic unit such
as a country a state or a city. To know per capita income, the total income of a unit is
divided by the population of that unit. The Per Capita Income of Rajasthan at current prices
is estimated to be Rs 1,18,159 for year 2019-20 as compared to Rs 57,192 for the year 2011-
12.
63. What is the index of industrial production in Rajasthan at present?
A. 2000-01
B. 2010-11
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 38
C. 2011-12
D. 2004-05
Ans. C
Explanation: The Index of Industrial Production (IIP) is a short-term micro economic
indicator widely used in measuring the industrial growth of the State. The index indicates
the relative change over time in the volume of production in industrial sector and it is an
effective tool to measure the trend of current industrial production. At present state
compiled IIP on a monthly basis under base year 2004-05. The current IIP series based on
294 items. It has now been decided to shift the base year of comparable state level IIP’s also
for 2004-05 to 2011-12 for new base year 2011-12 the weight selection of item basket and
selection of units list has been provided by C.S.O. Kolkata. New base year IIP series based on
156 items/product groups for manufacturing sector, NIC 2008 Divisions 10 to 32 are
considered. Shifting of base year 2011-12 are in process to get monthly Production data
from April 2011 on wards for selected item for selected units in prescribed format given by
C.S.O.
64. Who has been appointed as the chairman of the 6th Finance Commission of Rajasthan
on 12th April 2021?
A. Ashok Lahoti
B. Niranjan Arya
C. Pradyuman Singh
D. CP Joshi
Ans. C
Explanation: Governor Kalraj Mishra appointed former finance minister Pradyuman Singh as
chairman of the state finance commission while Laxman Singh Rawat and Ashok Lahoti as
members.
65. According to the Gross State Domestic Product of the Economic Survey 2020-21, what
was the economic growth rate of Rajasthan?
A. 7.10%
B. – 7.22%
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 39
C. 7.4%
D. 5.03%
Ans. D
Explanation: The Gross State Domestic Product of Rajasthan for 2020-21 (at current prices)
is projected to be Rs 11,33,298 crore. This is an 11% increase over the revised estimate for
2019-20. Total expenditure for 2020-21 is estimated to be Rs 2,25,731 crore, a 0.4% increase
over the revised estimate of 2019-20. GDP growth is 5% (2019-20 est.).
66. Postponing the "Fiscal Deficit" target or Fiscal Slippage may result in which of the
following:
A. Decrease in bond prices
B. Increase in bond yield
C. Increase in market interest rates
D. Decrease in market interest rates
Ans. D
Explanation: When government postpones its fiscal deficit target or when fiscal deficit
increases then interest rate in the economy goes up because government borrows more
(demand supply concept). When interest rate in the economy goes up bond prices comes
down and the return/yield on bonds goes up.
67. Assertion (A): Insurance penetration is measured as the percentage of insurance
premium to GDP.
Reason (R): Insurance density is measured as the ratio of premium (in US dollar) to total
population.
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 40
Ans. B
Explanation: Life Insurance penetration is 2.74% and Life insurance density is $55.
68. Assertion (A): Employment elasticity measures the percentage change in economic
growth with respect to 1% increase in employment.
Reason (R): Agriculture sector has more employment elasticity as compared to other sectors
of the economy.
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
Ans. D
Explanation: Employment Elasticity (of growth) is a measure of percentage change in
employment associated with 1 percentage change in economic growth.
Employment elasticity = % change in employment/ % change in economic growth
69. Which of the following will be the impact of rupee depreciation?
1. Exports will become more competitive
2. Exporters will fetch more dollars for the same amount of goods exported
3. Demand for domestic goods and services will increase
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1. only
B. 2. only
C. 1. & 3. only
D. All of the above
Ans. C
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 41
Explanation: When a country devalues its currency, then exporters are able to sell their
product in the international market at a lesser price without compromising their earnings.
So, we also say that exporters become more competitive and demand for domestic goods
and services increases as the price gets reduced.
70. Which of the following statements are true with reference to Special Economic Zones
(SEZ)?
1. SEZ units may import/procure goods and services from Domestic Tariff Area (DTA)
without payment of customs/import duty
2. Customs duty is imposed on sale from SEZ to DTA
3. SEZ units should be net foreign exchange earners
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1. only
B. 1. & 3. only
C. 3. only
D. All of the above
Ans. D
Explanation: “Domestic Tariff Area” (DTA) means the whole of India (including the territorial
waters and continental shelf) but does not include the areas of the Special Economic Zones
(SEZs). “Special Economic Zone” (SEZ) is a specifically delineated duty-free enclave and shall
be deemed to be foreign territory for the purposes of trade operations and duties and
tariffs. SEZ units may be set up for manufacture of goods and rendering of services.
Environment and Ecology
71. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A. The organisms which can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of temperature are called as
eurythermal.
B. The organisms which can tolerate and thrive in a narrow range of temperatures are called
as stenothermal.
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 42
C. The organisms which can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of salinity are called as
euryhaline.
D. None of the above
Ans. D
Explanation: A few organisms can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of temperatures (they
are called eurythermal), but, a vast majority of them are restricted to a narrow range of
temperatures (such organisms are called stenothermal). The levels of thermal tolerance of
different species determine, to a large extent, their geographical distribution. Some
organisms are tolerant of a wide range of salinities (euryhaline), but others are restricted to
a narrow range (stenohaline). Many freshwater animals cannot live for long in sea water and
vice versa, because of the osmotic problems they would face.
72. Tehran Convention is related to which of the following?
A. Iran Nuclear Deal Framework
B. Protection of Caspian Sea’s environment
C. Protection of Baltic Sea’s environment
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Explanation: The understanding of the necessity to protect and preserve the Caspian Sea’s
natural resources for future generations and that this goal can only be achieved through
international co-operation was at the heart of the intent to create the Framework
Convention for the Protection of the Marine Environment of the Caspian Sea, the Tehran
Convention. By ratifying the Convention, the five parties Azerbaijan, Iran, Kazakhstan, Russia
and Turkmenistan confirmed their readiness to go the path of sustainable development and
to take environmental concerns into account in their development planning. Having
entered into force in 2006, the Tehran Convention is the first regional legally binding
instrument signed by all five Caspian littoral states.
73. The Sailesh Nayak Committee Report is related to which of the following?
A. Green Gross Domestic Product
B. Coastal Zone Regulation
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 43
C. Biodiversity of the Western Ghats
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Explanation: The Sailesh Nayak Committee was commissioned in 2014 after states
expressed dissatisfaction regarding the limitations set by the Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ)
notification of 2011. The Report was submitted in 2015 after rounds of stakeholders
meetings with the representatives from the coastal states.
74. Which one of the following is the best description of the term “ecological niche”?
A. The area in which organism or a population of organisms is adapted to live and grow.
B. That part of the earth which is inhabited by living organisms.
C. The flora and fauna of a geographical area.
D. The physical position in the food chain and the functional role of a species in the
environment.
Ans. D
Explanation: Each organism has an invariably defined range of conditions that it can
tolerate, diversity in the resources it utilizes and a distinct functional role in the ecological
system, all these together comprise its niche. The ecological niche of an organism consists of
all the physical, chemical and biological conditions it needs in order to live in the habitat.
The niche includes the organism’s food habits, way of nesting and reproduction, etc.
75. Keoladeo national park, Rajasthan was placed on the Montreux Record in which of the
following year?
A. 1990
B. 1991
C. 1992
D. 1993
Ans. A
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 44
Explanation: Due to the water shortage and an unbalanced grazing regime around Keoladeo
national park which is located in the Bharatpur district of Rajasthan, it was placed on the
Montreux Record in the year 1990.
76. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List I List II
(National Park) (Location)
a. Inderkilla 1. Chhattisgarh
b. Mukundra Hills 2. Maharashtra
c. Indravati 3. Rajasthan
d. Gugamal 4. Himachal Pradesh
Code :
a b c d
A. 4 3 2 1
B. 4 2 3 1
C. 4 3 1 2
D. 1 2 3 4
Ans. C
77. Assertion (A): BirdLife international is a Global Partnership of Conservation
Organizations.
Reason (R): The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ originated from this organization.
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 45
Ans. C
Explanation: BirdLife international is a global partnership of conservation organisations that
strives to conserve birds, their habitats and global biodiversity. It is working with people
towards sustainability in the use of natural resources. It is the World’s largest partnership of
conservation organisations, with over 120 partner organizations. An Important Bird and
Biodiversity Area (IBA. is an area recognized as being globally important habitat for the
conservation of bird populations. The program was developed and sites are identified by
BirdLife International.
78. Assertion (A): National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting the Indian
agriculture.
Reason (R): Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic/biological
resources cannot be made without the approval of NBA.
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
Ans. A
Explanation: National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) checks the biopiracy and protects the
indigeneous and traditional genetic resources. It directly monitors and supervises the
scientific research on genetic modification of crop plants application for intellectual
property Rights related to genetic biological resources cannot be made without the
approval of NBA.
79. Consider the following statements about wetlands:
1. Wetlands are transitional lands between terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems.
2. They are among the most diverse and productive ecosystems, compared to rainforests
and coral reefs.
3. They are also called as ‘kidneys of the landscape’.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 46
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans. D
Explanation: Wetlands are lands transitional between terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems,
where the water table is usually at or near the surface, or the land is covered by shallow
water. Wetlands are vital for earth ecosystem for several reasons:
They are among the most diverse and productive ecosystems, compared to
rainforests and coral reefs.
They are called as ‘the kidneys of the landscape’, because they clean polluted
waters, prevent floods, protect shorelines and recharge aquifers.
They are also called as ‘biological supermarkets’, because of their extensive food
webs, rich biodiversity and unique habitats.
80. Consider the following statements about the Mediterranean forests:
1. They are considered to be a bridge between the tropical and the temperate forests.
2. They are also called as woodland shrub.
3. They have cold-dry winters and mildrainy summers.
4. They are observed in Australia, South Africa and California.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1, 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. B
Explanation: The Mediterranean forests are considered to be a bridge between the tropical
and the temperate forests. They are also called as woodland shrub or chaparral. The five
Mediterranean climate zones include not only the forests that are scattered around the
Mediterranean, but also those in California, parts of Chile, South Africa and Australia. It has
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 47
hot- dry summers, and mild and rainy winters. All the rainfall occurs in winters and spring.
Precipitation is less than 100 cm per year.
Science
81. Which of the following statements correctly describes the Elastocaloric effect?
A. Reversible thermal response to changes, induced by an applied electric field.
B. Cooling effect produced by twisting and untwisting of rubber bands.
C. Heating or cooling of materials under external pressure variation.
D. Energy released in a fuel or food by the complete combustion of a specified quantity of it.
Ans. B
Explanation: When rubbers bands are twisted and untwisted, it produces a cooling effect.
This is called the “elastocaloric” effect. In the elastocaloric effect, the transfer of heat works
much the same way as when fluid refrigerants are compressed and expanded. When a
rubber band is stretched, it absorbs heat from its environment and when it is released, it
gradually cools down. The level of efficiency of the heat exchange in rubber bands “is
comparable to that of standard refrigerants and twice as high as stretching the same
materials without twisting”. So, it can be a potential alternative for fluid refrigerants used in
fridges and air-conditioners. The barocaloric effect is the heating or cooling of materials
under external pressure variation.
82. Scuba Rice, relates to which of the following?
A. Flood-resistant rice
B. Rice fortified with Vitamin A
C. Another name for seaweed
D. Pest-resistant rice
Ans. A
Explanation: Scuba Rice is a variety of rice that is able to withstand floods up to two weeks.
It is now being grown by the farmers in India, Bangladesh, the Philippines and Indonesia.
Farmers in China are also growing a variety, called “sea rice”, that is able to withstand high
levels of alkalinity.
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 48
83. The Lunar Reconnaissance Orbiter (LRO), a multipurpose spacecraft to make a
comprehensive atlas of the Moon’s features and resources, was launched by which of the
following organizations/ institutions?
A. ISRO
B. NASA
C. Roscosmos
D. SpaceX
Ans. B
Explanation: The Lunar Reconnaissance Orbiter, or LRO, is a multipurpose NASA spacecraft,
launched in 2009, to make a comprehensive atlas of the Moon’s features and resources.
Since launch, LRO has measured the coldest temperatures in the solar system inside the
Moon’s permanently shadowed craters, detected evidence of water ice at the Moon’s South
Pole, seen hints of recent geologic activity on the Moon, found newly-formed craters from
present day meteorite impacts, tested space borne laser communication technology and
much more.
84. Spiders have no wings, but they can take to the air. They can climb to an exposed point,
raise their abdomens to the sky, extrude strands of silk and float away.
Which of the following terms correctly describes this behaviour?
A. Ratooning
B. Ballooning
C. Floating
D. Air swimming
Ans. B
Explanation: Spiders have no wings, but they can take to the air nonetheless. They will climb
to an exposed point, raise their abdomens to the sky, extrude strands of silk and float away.
This behavior is called ballooning. It might carry spiders away from the predators and
competitors, or toward new lands with abundant resources. The spiders, which are
ballooning, work within the electric field of the Earth. When the silk strands leave its body, it
takes up a negative charge, which helps the spider repel the negative charge present on the
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 49
surface and creates sufficient energy to lift the spider in the air. This force can be further
increased if the spider climbs on to twigs, leaves, or blades of grass.
85. What do you understand by the term Kibble Balance?
A. The new way to measure a centimetre.
B. The new temperature measurement system.
C. The new weather prediction system.
D. The new way to measure the kilogram.
Ans. D
Explanation: The Kibble Balance is a self calibrating electro-mechanical balance and provides
the measurements of mass, traceable in terms of electrical parameters and provides linkage
of macroscopic mass to the Planck constant(h).
86. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer from the code given below:
List I List II
(Energy Storage System) (Category)
a. Compressed Air Energy Storage 1. Mechanical Storage
b. Superconducting Magnetic Energy Storage 2. Electrical Storage
c. Chilled Water Storage 3. Thermal Storage
d. Power-to-Gas Storage 4. Chemical Storage
Code :
a b c d
A. 4 3 2 1
B. 4 2 3 1
C. 4 3 1 2
D. 1 2 3 4
Ans. B
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 50
Explanation: Compressed-air energy storage (CAES) is a way to store energy for later use
using compressed air. At a utility scale, energy generated during periods of low demand can
be released during peak load periods. Superconducting Magnetic Energy Storage is a novel
technology that stores electricity from the grid within the magnetic field of a coil comprised
of a superconducting wire with a near-zero loss of energy. Chilled water is the most
common and simplest form of TES, using concrete or steel tanks to store chilled water at 40
F to 42 F (4.4 C to 5.6 C) that is generated with conventional chillers. Under normal
conditions a chilled-water storage tank is always filled with water. Power-to-Gas is a
technology that converts energy, mainly electricity, into hydrogen and oxygen through
electrolysis and then into methane through a chemical reaction called methanation. The
process functions as an efficient energy storage system.
87. Assertion (A): c (MATD. is a hologram that can be seen, heard and felt.
Reason (R): It works by using ultrasound waves to trap and move a two-millimeter-wide
polystyrene bead around in mid-air.
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
Ans.
Explanation: Multimodal Acoustic Trap Display is a cutting-edge holograms that can be seen,
heard and felt, and they pulled it off by drawing on some vintage tech. Its name is the
Multimodal Acoustic Trap Display (MATD). The device works by using ultrasound waves to
trap and move a two-millimeter wide polystyrene bead around in mid-air. The bead traces
out an object’s shape in three dimensions, while LEDs shine red, green and blue light on it.
Because the bead is moving so fast, the human eye sees only the completed shape a
compelling illusion not entirely unlike the way a rapid series of still frames looks like a
moving image.
88. Assertion (A): Chromosomes are bundles of tightly coiled DNA located outside the
nucleus of almost every cell in our body.
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 51
Reason (R): Out of 23 pairs of chromosomes, one pair is of sex chromosomes, which
determines the sex of the offspring.
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
Ans. D
Explanation: Chromosomes are bundles of tightly coiled DNA located within the nucleus of
almost every cell in our body. Humans have 23 pairs of chromosomes, i.e., 46
chromosomes. In plant and animal cells, DNA is tightly packaged into thread-like structures,
called chromosomes. In contrast, in bacteria, DNA floats freely around the cell. One set
comes from the mother and one set comes from the father. Of these 23 pairs, one pair is of
sex chromosomes, which determines the sex of the offspring, X and Y chromosomes. The
other 22 pairs are autosomes (non-sex chromosomes), are same for both males and
females. Genes on X and Y chromosomes are not the same. X chromosome has more genes
than Y and is larger too.
89. Consider the following statements regarding the “Hydrogen cell technology”:
1. Hydrogen fuel cells convert chemical energy into electrical energy.
2. Fuel cells generate electricity through an electrochemical process and it does not store
energy.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. C
Explanation: At the heart of the fuel cell electric vehicles (FCEVs) is a device that uses a
source of fuel, such as hydrogen and an oxidant to create electricity by an electrochemical
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 52
process. Like conventional batteries under the bonnets of automobiles, hydrogen fuel cells
convert chemical energy into electrical energy. Fuel cells generate electricity through an
electrochemical process, it does not store energy. It relies on a constant supply of fuel and
oxygen in the same way that an internal combustion engine relies on a constant supply of
petrol or diesel and oxygen.
90. Consider the following pairs:
1. Cerebrum - Receives all sensory impulses
2. Medulla – Controls voluntary actions
3. Cerebellum – Controls involuntary actions
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans. A
Explanation: The brain has three major parts or regions, namely the forebrain, midbrain and
hind-brain. The forebrain is, by far, the largest brain division. It includes the cerebrum,
which accounts for about two-thirds of the brain's mass and covers most other brain
structures. The fore-brain is the main thinking part of the brain. It has regions that receive
sensory impulses from various receptors. Separate areas of the forebrain are specialized for
hearing, smell, sight and so on. Our mouth waters when we see food we like, without our
meaning to. Our hearts beat without our thinking about it. All these involuntary actions
including blood pressure, salivation and vomiting are controlled by the medulla in the
hindbrain. Think about activities like walking in a straight line, riding a bicycle, picking up a
pencil. These are possible due to a part of the hindbrain called the cerebellum. It is
responsible for precision of voluntary actions and maintaining the posture and balance of
the body.
Reaoning and Maths
91. If JAIPUR is coded as KBJQVS then how PATNA is coded as ?
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 53
A. RTCNB
B. QBUOB
C. QCORB
D. RDUOE
Ans. B
Explanation: The correct answer is QBUOB
Here every letter moves forward by adding one i.e., P+1=Q.
This follows respectively.
92. Find the product of middle digit of the highest number and the middle digit of smallest
number of the below series?
345,678,654,768,986
A. 28
B. 32
C. 54
D. 52
Ans. B
Explanation: The middle digit of highest number is 8
And lowest digit of smallest number is 4
Therefore, required product =8*4=32
93. Nepotism : Favouritism :: Despotism : ?
A. Democracy
B. Absolutism
C. Humane
D. Idealistic
Ans. B
Explanation: The first pair is Synonym of the words. The same follows with second pair. The
correct answer is Absolutism.
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 54
94. When the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right then what will be
the product of the first and last digit of the number which is third from right end?
667,986,546,875,359,765
A. 30
B. 40
C.42
D.35
Ans. C
Explanation: By applying the given condition we get
986,875,765,667,546,359
Here, the number third from the right is 667
So, the product of first and last digit = 6x 7 = 42
95. If Angle radians : then Temperature : ..... ?
A. Pascal
B. Watts
C. Kelvin
D. Ohm
Ans. C
Explanation: If Angle is measured in Radians, then the Temperature is measured in Kelvin.
96. Find the missing one:
BYN,DWP,FUR,...?
A. XYZ
B. HST
C. UTV
D. RON
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 55
Ans. B
Explanation: The pattern is as follows,
B + 2 = D + 2 = F + 3 = H
Y - 2 = W - 2 = U - 2 = S
N + 2 = P + 2= R + 2 = T
So, the missing series is HST
97. P’s father is Q’s son. M is the paternal uncle of P and N is the brother of Q. How is N
related to M?
A. Brother
B. Nephew
C. Cousin
D. Uncle
Ans. D
Explanation: From first statement,
Q is P’s Grandfather.
N is brother of Q. So, N is M’s Uncle.
98. What is the 9th position when first half of the alphabets are written in reverse
alphabetical order?
A. R
B. E
C. G
D. Y
Ans. B
Explanation: The 9th position in the aplhabetical order is E when first half of the alphabets
are written in reversed.
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 56
99. Pointing to a boy, Sunitha said “He is the son of my grandfather’s only son.” How is the
boy related to Sunitha?
A. Son
B. Nephew
C. Brother
D. Uncle
Ans. C
Explanation: Sunitha’s Grandfather has only one son and he is her father. And Son of her
father is her brother.
100. Find the next term in the series:
FGE JIH MLK OPN ?
A. UVT
B. TUV
C. RST
D. RSQ
Ans. D
Explanation: The missing letter is RSQ
The series is,
FGE JIH MLK OPN RSQ
101. A certain sum becomes Rs.20000 in six years and 24000 in eight years at simple
interest. Find sum and rate of interest?
A. Rs.14000; 14% p.a.
B. Rs.8000; 25% p.a
C. Rs.10000; 10% p.a.
D. Rs.16000; 16% p.a.
Ans. B
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 57
Explanation: S.I. for 2 years = Rs. (24000-20000) =4000
S.I for 1 year = Rs 2000
S.I for 6 years = Rs 6*2000 = 12000
Principal = Rs. (20000 - 12000) = Rs. 8000
Now, P = 8000, T =6, and S.I. = 12000, Rate =(100*12000)/(8000*6)=25%
So Anwser is Rs 8000, 25%p.a.
102. 700 ÷ 70 ÷ 0.5 = ?
A. 10
B. 2.5
C. 1.5
D. 20
Ans. D
Explanation: 700 / 70 = 100
100 / 0.5 = 20
103. crazy monkey in a forest crosses a bridge of length 900 meters in 6 minutes. At what
speed monkey is running?
A. 7 km/hr
B. 9 km/hr
C. 13 km/hr
D. 11 km/hr
Ans. B
Explanation: Speed = Distance/time
Distance = 900 meters
Time = 6 minutes = 6 x 60 = 360 seconds
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 58
Speed = 900/360 m/s = 2.5 m/s
We need answer in km/hr:
Speed in km/hr=25/10 * 18/5 = 9 km/hr
104. Nishant can swim at 15 km/hr in still water. It takes him double time to reach the
destination when he swims up the ganga river as it takes when he swims down the ganga
river. At what speed the ganga river is flowing?
A. 7
B. 5
C. 10
D. 8
Ans. B
Explanation: Let the speed of the river = X km/hr
So, speed of man with the flow (downward speed) = 15 + X
Similarly speed of man against the flow (upward speed) = 15 - X
Let the man covers a distance Y.
So time taken to cover the distance Y when he swims up the river would be double of the
time taken to cover the distance Y when he swims down the river.
So, Y⁄15-X = 2 * Y⁄15+X
15Y + XY = 30Y -2XY
3XY= 15Y
X = 5 km/hr.
105. An amount was lent for one year at the rate of 18% per annum compounding annually.
Has the compounding been done half yearly, the interest would have increased by Rs. 324.
What was the amount (in Rs.) lent?
A. 36000
B. 40000
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 59
C. 62000
D. 70000
Ans. D
Explanation: Let the principal be 'x'.
Amount lent for 1 yr at 18% per annum compounding annually,
WKT, Amount = P (1 + r/100) n
Amount = x (1 + 18/100) = 1.18x
When compounding been done half yearly, r = 9%; n = 2 yr
Amount = x (1 + 9/100)2 = 1.1881x
As per the question, 1.1881x - 1.18x = 324
0.0081x = 324
x = 324/0.0081
x = Rs. 40,000
Hence, the principal amount is Rs. 40,000.
106. Shekar's and Jani's shares in a business are in the ratio of 10:6. If Shekar has invested
Rs. 140000 for 24 months, for what period Jani has invested Rs. 120000?
A. 16.8
B. 8.4
C. 4.2
D. 2.1
Ans. A
Explanation: Shekar's capital be C1 = 140000
Jani's capital be C2 = 120000
A's time be T1= 24 months
Let B's time be T2 = X months
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 60
A's share: B's share = 10:6 = 5:3
Apply formula: (Profit of A/Profit of B) = C1*T1/C2*T2
5/3 = 140000*24/120000*X
300000 X = 5040000
X = 16.8 months
107. The surface area of a cube is 14406 cm2. The length of its diagonal is?
A. 49/√3 cm
B. 49√3 cm
C. 49.32 cm
D. 49√2 cm
Ans. B
Explanation: Surface area of cube = 6a2
14406 = 6a2
a2 = 2401
a = 49 cm
Diagonal of cube = √3a = √3 × 49 = 49√3 cm
108. A, B, C can do a job in 10, 20 and 40 days respectively. In how many days A can
complete the job if he is assisted by B and C on every third day?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 8
D. 18
Ans. C
Explanation: A's one day work = 1/10
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 61
B's one day work = 1/20
C's one day work = 1/40
(A+B+C.'s one day work = 1/10 + 1/20 +1/40 = 7/40
Work done in three days will be the sum of A's two-day work and (A+B+C)'s one day work.
A's two-day work = 1/10 * 2 = 1/5
Therefore, the work is done in three days = 1/5 + 7/40 = 75/200 = 3/8
3/8 part of the job is done in 3 days.
The entire job will be done by A in = 3 x 8/3 = 8 days
109. Two pipes can fill a drum in 30 minutes and 24 minutes. The outlet pipe can empty the
drum in 40 minutes. If all the pipes are opened when, the drum is empty, then in how many
minutes will it take to fill the drum?
A. 5
B. 10
C. 15
D. 20
Ans. B
Explanation: Part of drum filled by all three pipes in one minute =
1/15 + 1/12 – 1/20 = 8+10-6/120 = 18-6/120
= 1/10
So, the tank becomes full in 10 minutes.
110. Find the length of the rod that can be used in a room of measurement 48m long, 36m
broad and 24m high is?
A. √(4176) metres
B. √(5287) metres
C. √(6398) metres
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 62
D. none of the above
Ans. A
Explanation: Length of room = 48 m
Breadth of room = 36 m
Height of room = 24 m
length of the rod = diagonal of room = √(l2+b2+h2) units = √(482+362+242) =
√(2304+1296+576) = √(4176) metres.
Statement Based Questions
Directions: Study the statements A, B, C,and D then answer the following questions:
A. ‘ weapons hidden in town ’ written as ‘ white black yellow red ’
B.‘ ready weapons for attack ’ written as ‘ grey indigo red green ’
C.‘ hidden for own safety’ written as ‘ silver grey violet white ’
D.‘ own town under attack’ written as ‘ violet blue indigo black’
111. What is the code for ready ’?
A. red
B. indigo
C. green
D. grey
Ans. C
Explanation: ready weapons for attack ’ written as ‘ grey indigo red green ’
‘ weapons hidden in town ’ written as ‘ white black yellow red ’
In both these statements, only WEAPONS is a common word and in code RED is common, So
code for WEAPONS is RED.
hidden for own safety’ written as ‘ silver grey violet white ’
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 63
weapons hidden in town ’ written as ‘ white black yellow red ’
In both these statements, only HIDDEN is a common word and in code WHITE is common,
So code for HIDDEN is WHITE.
own town under attack’ written as ‘ violet blue indigo black’
ready weapons for attack ’ written as ‘ grey indigo red green ’
In both these statements, only ATTACK is a common word and in code INDIGO is common,
So code for ATTACK is INDIGO.
ready weapons for attack ’ written as ‘ grey indigo red green ’
hidden for own safety’ written as ‘ silver grey violet white ’
In both these statements, only FOR is a common word and in code GREY is common, So
code for FOR is GREY.
ready weapons for attack ’ written as ‘ grey indigo red green ’
Now in this statement, code for weapons for attack is red, grey and indigo respectively.
So code for READY is GREEN.
112. What does ‘silver ’ stand for?
A. safety
B. own
C. hidden
D. for
Ans. A
Explanation: hidden for own safety’ written as ‘ silver grey violet white
Code for hidden is WHITE.
Code for FOR is GREY.
From above statement and
‘ own town under attack’ written as ‘ violet blue indigo black’
Code for OWN is VIOLET.
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 64
So, SILVER is Code for SAFETY.
113. ‘black pink yellow ’ could be a code for which of the following?
A. town under attack
B. hidden for safety
C. attack in town
D. risk in town
Ans. D
Explanation: From - ‘ weapons hidden in town ’ written as ‘ white black yellow red ’;
black yellow is Code for- in town.
In town is given in 2 options – C and D.
But code for attack is Indigo.
So answer is D.
114. Which of the following represents ‘all hidden weapons’?
A. White red orange
B. Brown grey red
C. indigo white red
D. red violet white
Ans. A
Explanation: Code for hidden is WHITE.
Code for Weapons is RED.
Violet and Indigo is Code for OWN and ATTACK.
So answer is A.
Study the statement then answer the following questions:
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 65
H T 6 # E 7 $ K I L % 3 P @ 2 A J > R U 4 * V D
115. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement, each of which is
immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a vowel?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. More than three
Ans. A
Explanation: 6 # E
116. Which element is fifth to the right of thirteenth from the right end?
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct.
A. F
B. >
C. 1
D. None of these
Ans. D
Explanation: 3 is thirteenth from the right end. $ is fifth to the right of thirteenth from the
right end.
Directions: In each of the questions given below, two statements are followed by two
conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take both the statements to be true even if they
seem to be at variance with the commonly known facts and then decide which of the given
conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known
facts.
117. Statements: All volcanoes are craters.
No crater is a mountain.
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 66
Conclusions: I. Some volcanoes are mountains.
II. No mountain is a volcano.
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct
A. If only conclusion I follow
B. If only conclusion II follows
C. If either conclusion I or II follows
D. If neither conclusion I nor II follows
Ans. B
Explanation:
118. Statements: Some glasses are tablets.
All machines are tablets.
Conclusions: I. All tablets being machines is a possibility.
II. All machines being glasses is a possibility.
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct
A. If only conclusion I follow
B. If only conclusion II follows
C. If either conclusion I or II follows
D. If neither conclusion I nor II follows
Ans. A
Explanation:
Crater
Volcano
Mountain
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 67
119. Statements: All villages are cities.
All cities are countries.
All countries are towns
Conclusions: I. All towns are villages.
II. Some cities are not towns.
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct
A. If only conclusion I follow
B. If only conclusion II follows
C. If either conclusion I or II follows
D. If neither conclusion I nor II follows
Ans. D
Explanation:
120. Statements: No air is wind.
All winds are typhoons.
Conclusions: I. No air is typhoon.
II. All airs being typhoons is a possibility.
Tablets
Machines Glasses
Towns
Countries
Cities
Villages
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 68
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct
A. If only conclusion I follow
B. If only conclusion II follows
C. If either conclusion I or II follows
D. If neither conclusion I nor II follows
Ans. B
Explanation:
Rajasthan Governance and Government Schemes
121. How many cities in Rajasthan are included in 100 cities of India selected under the
Smart Cities Mission?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 5
D. 6
Ans. A
Explanation: Four cities from the state, Udaipur, Kota, Ajmer and Jaipur, found spots in the
ranking of 100 cities. While Udaipur came 8th, Kota stood at 11th, Ajmer 29th and Jaipur
36th in the 100 city rankings.
Typhoon
Winds
Air
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 69
122. Where is the sugar factory operated in the cooperative system located?
A. In Udaipur
B. In Sriganganagar
C. In Bhupalsagar
D. In Keshoraipatan
Ans. D
Explanation: Keshoraipatan is a city located in the state of Rajasthan, India.
123. The pan-India expansion of flagship programme “Beti Bachao-Beti Padhao (BBBP)” will
be start from which district of Rajasthan?
A. Baran
B. JhunJhun
C. Karauli
D. Pratapgarh
Ans. B
Explanation: Prime Minister Narendra Modi will inaugurate the pan-India expansion of
flagship programme–Beti Bachao-Beti Padhao (BBBP)–from JhunJhun district of Rajasthan
on March 8 to mark the International Women’s Day (IWD-2018). The BBBP is an initiative to
save and educate the girl child. The programme will be expanded from the present 161
districts to 640 all over the country. In another landmark initiative, the Prime Minister will
also launch the National Nutrition Mission (NNM). He will also launch NNM- ICDS Common
Application Software.
124. Assertion (A): Unnat Bharat Abhiyan is inspired by the vision of transformational
change in rural development processes by leveraging knowledge institutions to help build
the architecture of an Inclusive India.
Reason (R): Unnat Bharat Abhiyan (UBA) will be launched in 11 Districts of Rajasthan.
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 70
B. both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
Ans. B
Explanation: The 11 districts of Rajasthan where UBA is all set for a launch are Ajmer, Alwar,
Bharatpur, Bundi, Dausa, Dhaulpur, Jaipur, Karauli, Sawai Madhopur, Tonk and Sikar.
125. Consider the following statements regarding different old schemes of Education Sector
of Rajasthan Government.
1. Utsav Bhoj This is Rajasthan Government extension of Union’s Mid Day Meal (MDM)
Scheme.
2. For Adult Education a Centrally Sponsored scheme called, 'Sakshar Bharat Abhiyan' was
launched on 8 September, 2009.
3. The Gyan Sankalp Portal will allow corporate houses and donors to support government
schools in Rajasthan.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Only 1 and 2
B. Only 1 and 3
C. Only 2 and 3
D. All of the above
Ans. D
Explanation: There are many programs that State and Central Government have been
implementing to improve the education sector and achieve the target of universal primary
education and quality education at all level Sakshar Bharat Program is covering 31 District
except Kota and Pratapgarh districts. Hence, Special literacy and vocational camps are
organized for illiterate women of Kota and Pratapgarh districts. The Gyan Sankalp Portal will
allow corporate houses and donors to support government schools in Rajasthan. A
prominent feature of the initiative is the ‘Mukhyamantri Vidyadaan Kosh’ (chief minister’s
fund for educational donations), which is aimed at reducing the funding gap in education.
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 71
Current affairs –General and Rajasthan specific (September 2020)
126. World Pharmacist Day is observed globally on _______________ every year.
A. 22 September
B. 23 September
C. 24 September
D. 25 September
Ans. D
Explanation: World Pharmacist Day is observed globally on 25th September every year. This
day is celebrated to create awareness about the role of a pharmacist in improving health.
The day was an initiative of the International Pharmaceutical Federation (FIP) along with the
council of this organization. Theme 2020: “Transforming global health“.
127. Which of the following organization has approved $300 million loan to develop
Rajasthan's towns?
A. World bank
B. International Monetary fund
C. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank
D. Asian Development Bank
Ans. D
Explanation: The Asian Development Bank (ADB) has approved a 300 million dollar (about Rs
2,200 crore) loan to finance inclusive water supply and sanitation infrastructure and services
in secondary towns of Rajasthan. The project is expected to build citywide access for
improved water supply services for about 5.7 lakh people and enhanced sanitation services
for about 7.2 lakh people in at least 14 secondary towns. These localities have 20,000 to one
lakh residents.
128. Name the motor company which is going to shut sales and manufacturing operations in
India.
A. Ducati
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 72
B. Triumph Motorcycles
C. Kawasaki
D. Harley-Davidson
Ans. D
Explanation: Harley-Davidson Inc said on 25th September it would discontinue its sales and
manufacturing operations in India, effectively abandoning the world’s biggest motorcycle
market after a decade of unsuccessful efforts to gain a foothold. It will retain only a scaled-
down sales office in Gurgaon, south of New Delhi.
129. What was the rank of India in World risk index (WRI) 2020?
A. 8th
B. 48th
C. 89th
D. 117th
Ans. C
Explanation: According to the World Risk Index (WRI) 2020, India is ‘poorly prepared’ to deal
with ‘climate reality’, due to which it is vulnerable to extreme natural disasters. World Risk
Report 2020 released by the United Nations University Institute for Environment and
Human Security (UNU-EHS), Bundnis Entwicklung Hilft and the University of Stuttgart in
Germany. Vanuatu (South Pacific Ocean) is the country with the highest disaster risk
worldwide. It is followed by Tonga (South Pacific Ocean) and Dominica (Caribbean Sea).
India has ranked 89th among 181 countries on the WRI 2020 and is fourth-most-at-risk in
South Asia, after Bangladesh, Afghanistan and Pakistan.
130. World Environmental Health Day is observed globally on _________________ every
year.
A. 23 September
B. 24 September
C. 25 September
D. 26 September
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 73
Ans. D
Explanation: World Environmental Health Day is being observed globally on 26th
September. The day is celebrated to throw the light on important works being done on the
environmental health around the world. It has been targeted towards preventing the
disease and creating health-supportive environments. Theme 2020: Environmental health, a
key public health intervention in disease pandemic prevention.
131. Name the Formula1 race driver who has won Russian Grand Prix 2020.
A. Sebastian Vettel
B. Charles Leclerc
C. Max Verstappen
D. Valtteri Bottas
Ans. D
Explanation: Valtteri Bottas has won Russian Grand Prix 2020. Valtteri Bottas won the
Russian Grand Prix in Sochi as Lewis Hamilton was left frustrated after a 10-second time
penalty denied him the chance to equal Michael Schumacher’s record tally of 91 Formula
One race wins.
132. With which country, India has recently signed an MoU on Intellectual Property
cooperation?
A. Norway
B. Singapore
C. Denmark
D. Brazil
Ans. C
Explanation: Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), Ministry of
Commerce and Industry signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) in the field of
Intellectual Property Cooperation with the Danish Patent and Trademark Office, Ministry of
Industry, Business and Financial Affairs, Kingdom of Denmark. Exchange of best practices,
experiences and knowledge on IP awareness among public, authorities, businesses and
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 74
research and educational institution of both countries. Collaboration in training
programmes, exchange of experts, technical exchanges and outreach activities.
133. Under which section of the Information Technology Act, 2000 the Indian government
has banned PubG and 118 other apps?
A. Section 53B
B. Section 21A
C. Section 68C
D. Section 69A
Ans. D
Explanation: After India China clash in Ladhak, Indian government has decided to ban PubG
mobile game and other 118 Chinese Apps. As per the official news, on 02 September 2020
Ministry of Information & Technology bans PUBG and 118 other mobile applications. The
Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, Government of India invoking it’s
power under section 69A of the Information Technology Act read with the relevant
provisions of the Information Technology (Procedure and Safeguards for Blocking of Access
of Information by Public) Rules 2009.
134. National Nutrition Week is conducted every year from
A. 30th August – 5 th September
B. 31st August – 6 th September
C. 1st September - 7 th September
D. 2nd September - 8 th September
Ans. C
Explanation: National Nutrition Week was launched by Food and Nutrition Board in 1982.
National Nutrition Week is conducted every year from September 1 to September 7 to
provide knowledge among people about the importance of nutrition for better health.
135. Who among the following has co-chaired the 17th ASEAN-India Economic Ministers’
consultations along with Vietnam’s Tran Tuan Anh?
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 75
A. Prakash Javadekar
B. Piyush Goyal
C. Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank
D. S Jaishankar
Ans. B
Explanation: Minister of Commerce and Industry & Railways Piyush Goyal and Minister of
Industry and Trade of Vietnam Tran Tuan Anh co-chaired the 17th ASEAN-India Economic
Ministers Consultations held virtually on 29th August. The Ministers reaffirmed their
commitment to take collective actions in mitigating the economic impact of the pandemic
and resolved to ensure macroeconomic and financial stability and resilient supply chain
connectivity, particularly the unimpeded flow of essential goods and medicines in the region
in compliance with the WTO rules.
136. Railway Ministry has proposed to amend which legislation pertaining to begging in
railway properties?
A. Railways Act
B. Prevention of Begging Act
C. Indian Penal Code
D. Transport Act
Ans. A
Explanation: The Railway Ministry has proposed to amend Sec 144 of Railways Act 1989. As
per the present provision in the act, begging in Railway property is an offence and makes it
liable for imprisonment or a fine of Rs.2000/-. The section is proposed to be changed by
stating that begging will not be allowed in properties of Railways including Trains and
Railway premises.
137. Assertion (A): The 74th United Nations General Assembly proclaimed on 15th October
2019 that 28th September 2020 would observe the International Day for Universal Access to
Information.
Reason (R): 2020 edition of the day is focusing on the right to information in the times of
crisis.
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 76
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
Ans. B
Explanation: International Day for Universal Access to Information is observed on28th
September. It is celebrated to showcase the advantages of statutory and constitutional
policies in order to provide public access to information.
138. Assertion (A): Moctar Ouane has been appointed as the new prime minister of Eritrea.
Reason (R): The appointment of a civilian prime minister was a major condition imposed by
the West African regional economic bloc, ECOWAS.
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
Ans. D
Explanation: Mali’s transitional president appointed former minister of foreign affairs,
Moctar Ouane, on 27th September as the West African nation’s prime minister days after
being sworn into office. The appointment of a civilian prime minister was a major condition
imposed by the West African regional economic bloc, ECOWAS, on Mali to lift sanctions that
were imposed after an Aug. 18 coup. ECOWAS had closed borders to Mali and stopped
financial flows to put pressure on the junta to quickly return to a civilian government.
Former Defense Minister and retired Col. Maj. Bah N’Daw was inducted Friday as the new
transitional president.
139. Assertion (A): Rajasthan Chief Minister has launched Jala Kala scheme.
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 77
Reason (R): The scheme is estimated to bring in five lakh acres under cultivation through
groundwater irrigation.
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
Ans. D
Explanation: To benefit the small and medium farmers who have no open water source for
irrigation, Andhra Pradesh Chief Minister YS Jagan Mohan Reddy launched YSR Jala Kala on
28th September. Under the scheme, borewells will be dug free of cost to the needy farmers.
The scheme is estimated to bring in five lakh acres under cultivation through groundwater
irrigation. Around three lakh farmers will be benefitted from YSR Jala Kala, which is
estimated to cost Rs 2,340 crore in four years.
140. Assertion (A): International Day of Peace is observed every year on September 21.
Reason (R): Theme for 2020 is "Shaping Peace Together."
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true.
Ans. B
Explanation: Being the country of Mahatma Gandhi, India has a huge legacy of contributing
to world peace. In a world troubled with conflict, a day dedicated to peace reminds us of
Mahatma Gandhi's philosophy of Ahimsa or non-violence. International Day of Peace is
observed every year on September 21. It is a United Nations-designated day, established in
1981. Theme 2020: "Shaping Peace Together."
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 78
141. Assertion (A): PM Narendra Modi has launched 9 highway projects and “Ghar tak fibre”
scheme in Bihar.
Reason (R): The Optical Fibre Services project is to be implemented GoI’s Ministry of
Electronics and Information Technology under the Ghar Tak Fibre Scheme (GTFD).
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
Ans. B
Explanation: PM Narendra Modi has launched 9 highway projects and Ghar tak Fiber
scheme in Bihar on 21 September 2020. Under the Ghar tak fibre Scheme, optical fibre
services will be provided to every households. Bihar Highway projects will construct 350
kilometers of road. The roads will be built at a cost of Rs 14,250 crores (Rs 142.5 Billions).
The Optical Fibre Services project is to be implemented GoI’s Ministry of Electronics and
Information Technology under the Ghar Tak Fibre Scheme (GTFD). It will connect 45,945
villages inter-state.
142. Assertion (A): Global Alliance for Vaccines and Immunizations (GAVI) brings together
the public and private sectors to create equal access to vaccines for children.
Reason (R): India is a beneficiary of a global vaccine alliance.
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
Ans. B
Explanation: The Global Alliance for Vaccines and Immunization (GAVI) has in many ways
been remarkably successful in revitalizing the international coalition of institutions and
organizations concerned with getting vaccines to the children of the poorest countries.
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 79
Many have seen this high-profile venture in public–private cooperation as a model for other
groups concerned with more effectively helping to solve health problems in the developing
world. Earlier in May 2020, Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare was also elected as
the Chair of the World Health Organization’s Executive Board. As part of its mission to save
lives, reduce poverty and protect the world against the threat of epidemics, GAVI has helped
vaccinate more than 822 million children in the world’s poorest countries, preventing more
than 14 million future deaths.
143. Assertion (A): InvITs are mutual funds like instruments that are designed to pool small
sums of money from a number of investors.
Reason (R): InvITs are regulated by the Real Estate Regulatory Authority (RERA..
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
Ans. C
Explanation: Real estate investment trusts (REITs) and infrastructure investment
trusts (InvITs) are innovative vehicles that allow developers to monetise revenue-generating
real estate and infrastructure assets, while enabling investors or unit holders to invest in
these assets without actually owning them. In India, InvITs are governed by SEBI
(Infrastructure Investment Trusts) (Amendment) Regulations, 2016.
144. Assertion (A): India has fallen 26 spots to the 105th position on the Global Economic
Freedom Index 2020.
Reason (R): The Heritage Foundation's Index of Economic Freedom is an annual guide
published to measure the progress made in advancing economic freedom which it claims
brings greater prosperity.
In the context of the above which one of the following is correct.
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 80
C. A is true but R is false.
D. A is false but R is true
Ans. B
Explanation: India has fallen 26 spots to the 105th position on the Global Economic Freedom
Index 2020 according to Canada's Fraser Institute. The country was at the 79th spot in last
year's rankings. According to the report, based on 2018 data, Hong Kong and Singapore
once again topped the index, continuing their streak as first and second ranked,
respectively. India has been ranked higher than China, which stands at the 124th position.
145. With reference to the Phosphine, consider the following statements:
1. It acts as a bio signature.
2. It is only made naturally by aerobic bacteria.
3. It is also used as a chemical weapon.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans. C
Explanation: Phosphine is a colourless, flammable, very toxic gas compound with the
chemical formula PH₃, classed as a pnictogen hydride. Pure phosphine is odourless, but
technical grade samples have a highly unpleasant odour like rotting fish, due to the
presence of substituted phosphine and diphosphane. On 14 September 2020, scientists
revealed that they had found phosphine in Venus’s atmosphere, about 55 kilometres above
the surface1, using the Atacama Large Millimeter/submillimeter Array in Chile and the
James Clerk Maxwell Telescope in Hawaii. The radio data showed that light was being
absorbed at millimetre wavelengths that corresponded to a phosphine concentration of 20
parts per billion in the atmosphere.
146. India has signed a Free Trade Agreement with which of the following countries?
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 81
1. Japan
2. South Korea
3. Sri Lanka
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans. D
Explanation: A Free trade Agreement (FTA) is an agreement in September 2020 between
two or more countries where the countries agree on certain obligations that affect trade in
goods and services, and protections for investors and intellectual property rights, among
other topics. The UK–Japan Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) is the
first deal that the UK has struck as an independent trading nation.
147. Which of the following GI Tagged Products belong to Kerala?
1. Chendamangalam Saree
2. Nilambur Teak
3. Tirur Betel Leaf
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Ans. D
Explanation: The Care 4 Chendamangalam (C4C) initiative is supporting the 2018 Kerala
flood-affected weavers. The Indian government has identified three clusters in Kerala -
Balaramapuram, Chendamangalam and Kuthampully - that have been given a Geographical
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 82
Indication (GI) tag. Other GI Tagged Products from Kerala: Kasaragod Sarees, Pokkali Rice,
Nilambur Teak, Wayanad Robusta Coffee, Tirur Betel Leaf, etc.
148. Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)
in India:
1. The highest number of PVTGs are found in Madhya Pradesh.
2. Absence of written language is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
3. There are 75 PVTGs officially notified by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.
4. Bondas and Didiayis Tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 2, 3 and 4
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. B
Explanation: One member of the Bonda tribe and five from the Didayi tribe in Odisha tested
positive for the novel coronavirus in the last week of August 2020. A Particularly Vulnerable
Tribal Group (earlier, Primitive tribal group) is a Government of India classification for tribes
based on their relative physical isolation, stagnant or declining population, low levels of
literacy and pre-agricultural stage of economy, such as hunting, food gathering, shifting
cultivation and terrace cultivation. The classification was adopted by the GOI after the
Dhebar Commission (1960-1961) stated that within the Scheduled Tribes there existed an
inequality in the rate of development.
149. With reference to Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development, which
of the following is/ are correct?
1. It is the award accorded biennially by Indira Gandhi Memorial Trust.
2. The prize is awarded to Indian citizens only.
Choose the correct answer from the codes given below.
A. 1 only
General Studies Paper#1-Full Length Paper#1
Target PCS Lucknow Page 83
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. D
Explanation: Sir David Attenborough has been conferred with Indira Gandhi Peace Prize for
2019 at a virtual ceremony on 8 September 2020. The Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace,
Disarmament and Development is an annual prestigious award named after former prime
minister Indira Gandhi. It is conferred every year by Indira Gandhi Memorial Trust since
1986. It consists of a citation and a monetary award of Rs. 25 lakh.
150. With reference to PRASHAD scheme, consider the following statements:
1. Its objective is rejuvenation and spiritual augmentation of important national pilgrimage
and heritage sites.
2. The projects identified under this scheme are implemented by the Ministry of Tourism.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. A
Explanation: The full form of the PRASAD scheme is 'Pilgrimage Rejuvenation And Spiritual
Augmentation Drive'. This scheme focuses on developing and identifying pilgrimage sites
across India for enriching the religious tourism experience. The growth of domestic tourism
hugely depends on pilgrimage tourism. The Ministry of Tourism launched the PRASAD
scheme that aims at integrated development of pilgrimage destinations in a prioritised,
planned, and sustainable manner in order to provide a complete religious tourism
experience.