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Chon DT HSGQG 2012-2013.V1 1/11

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG QUỐC GIA QUẢNG TRỊ Khóa ngày: 18/9/2012

MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH (VÒNG 1) Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Họ và tên học sinh: …………………………………………..……. Số báo danh

Ngày sinh: …………………………………...………………………

Học sinh trường: ……………………………………..…………….

Họ tên và chữ ký GIÁM THỊ 1

Họ, tên và chữ ký GIÁM THỊ 2

Mã phách (dành cho Chủ tịch Hội đồng chấm thi

– Thí sinh không viết vào ô này)

HƯỚNG DẪN THÍ SINH LÀM BÀI THI (Giám thị hướng dẫn cho thí sinh 5 phút trước giờ thi)

• Thí sinh làm toàn bộ bài thi trên đề thi theo yêu cầu của từng phần. Thí sinh phải viết

câu trả lời vào phần trả lời được cho sẵn ở mỗi phần. Trái với điều này, phần bài làm của thí sinh sẽ không được chấm điểm.

• Đề thi gồm có 11 trang (kể cả trang phách). Thí sinh phải kiểm tra số tờ đề thi trước khi làm bài.

• Thí sinh không được ký tên hoặc dùng bất cứ dấu hiệu gì để đánh dấu bài thi ngoài việc làm bài theo yêu cầu của đề ra. Không được viết bằng mực đỏ, bút chì, không viết hai thứ mực trên tờ giấy làm bài. Phần viết hỏng, ngoài cách dùng thước để gạch chéo, không được tẩy xóa bằng bất kỳ cách gì khác. (Tuyệt đối không được sử dụng bút xóa.) Trái với điều này bài thi sẽ bị loại.

• Thí sinh nên làm nháp trước rồi ghi chép cẩn thận vào phần bài làm trên đề thi. Giám thị sẽ không phát giấy làm bài thay thế đề và giấy làm bài do thí sinh làm hỏng.

• Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất cứ tài liệu nào, kể cả từ điển.

• Giám thị không giải thích gì thêm về đề thi. Giám thị lưu ý: Đối với phần thi nghe: Sau khi tính giờ làm bài, Giám thị cho thí sinh đọc qua phần thi nghe 5 phút rồi tiến hành mở đĩa CD. Đĩa CD đã được chuẩn bị sẵn tất cả các phần của đề thi theo yêu cầu của bài thi. Mọi hướng dẫn đã có trong bài thi. Giám thị bỏ đĩa CD vào máy và đĩa sẽ tự chạy đến hết phần thi. Kết thúc và mở đầu phần thi nghe sẽ có phần nhạc đệm.

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ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

Chon DT HSGQG 2012-2013.V1 2/11

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG QUỐC GIA QUẢNG TRỊ Khóa ngày: 18/9/2012

MÔN THI: TIẾNG ANH (VÒNG 1) Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Điểm bài thi Giám khảo thứ nhất (Ký, ghi rõ họ tên)

Giám khảo thứ hai (Ký, ghi rõ họ tên)

Mã phách

Bằng số Bằng chữ

................

..................

...........................

...........................................

...........................................

Ghi chú: Học sinh làm bài trên đề thi này. Đề thi gồm có 11 trang, kể cả trang phách. Section I: LISTENING (6/20pts) Part 1: You will hear people talking in eight different situations. For questions 1-8, listen to the tape carefully and choose the best answer (A, B or C). Write your answers in the space provided. You will hear the recording TWICE. 1. You hear a mother talking about her baby. What has the baby just learnt to do?

A. count. B. walk. C. talk. 2. You hear a man buying some flowers. What colour does he buy?

A. red. B. yellow. C. white. 3. You hear a girl talking to her friend on the phone. What has happened?

A. She didn't remember to do her homework. B. She left her homework at home. C. She got bad marks for her homework.

4. You hear a man talking to a vet. What is the problem with his dog? A. She has become very aggressive. B. She keeps biting her paw. C. She doesn't walk properly.

5. You hear a woman talking to a plumber. Where is the problem in her house? A. the veranda. B. the kitchen. C. the bathroom.

6. You hear a man talking about a train journey. When did he travel? A. Tuesday. B. Wednesday. C. Thursday.

7. You hear a boy telling his mother about a football match. How many goals did his team score? A. two. B. three. C. one.

8. You hear a woman talking about going shopping. What did she buy? A. a pair of shoes. B. a pair of jeans. C. a pair of glasses.

1. ______ 2. ______ 3. ______ 4. ______ 5. ______ 6. ______ 7. ______ 8. ______ Part 2: You will hear part of a conversation between a journalist and the director of a new community college. For questions 9-18, listen carefully and complete the sentences. Write your answers in the space provided. You will hear the recording TWICE.

WOODLEY COMMUNITY COLLEGE 9. Summer school classes start on ____________. 10. People expressed interest in the college after it was advertised ____________. 11. The ____________ will declare the college open.

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC

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12. At the opening ceremony, Harry Watson, the famous ____________ will make a speech. 13. Local ____________ will be teaching courses at the college. 14. The emphasis will be on ____________ subjects. 15. The college will be ____________ about accepting students. 16. Students may not have the ____________ required by traditional colleges. 17. It is hoped that an ____________ office in the city centre will generate interest in the college. 18. You can refer to the college ____________ if you would like more information. 9. _____________ 10. ____________ 11. ____________ 12. ____________ 13. ____________ 14. ____________ 15. ____________ 16. ____________ 17. ____________ 18. ____________ Part 3: You will hear five different people talking about classical music. For questions 19-23, listen carefully and choose from the list (A-F) the reason each person gives for starting to play classical music. Use the letters only once. There is one extra letter which you do not need to use. Write your answers in the space provided. You will hear the recording TWICE.

A. the influence of someone famous B. being introduced to a range of good music C. finding other types of music unexciting D. the encouragement of a teacher E. hearing it in an everyday situation F. realising the importance of starting young

19. SPEAKER 1: ____________ 20. SPEAKER 2: ____________ 21. SPEAKER 3: ____________ 22. SPEAKER 4: ____________ 23. SPEAKER 5: ____________ 19. ____________ 20. ____________ 21. ____________ 22. ____________ 23. ____________ Part 4: You will hear two friends discussing holiday options. For questions 24-30, listen carefully and decide which option each statement refers to. You write: J (for Jamaica), B (for Bali) or H (for Hawaii) in the boxes provided. You will hear the recording TWICE. 24. This destination is neither too expensive nor too cheap. 25. Margaret’s friends recommend this destination. 26. One may encounter severe weather conditions at this destination. 27. Tom isn’t impressed by this destination. 28. This destination is the least disturbed by tourism. 29. This destination is approximately ten hours away by plane. 30. Margaret is seriously considering this destination. 24. _______ 25. _______ 26. _______ 27. _______ 28. _______ 29. _______ 30. _______ Section II: VOCABULARY & GRAMMAR (5/20pts) Part 1: Choose the best answer to complete each of the following questions from 31 to 50. Write your answers in the space provided. 31. My friend has ____________ for a bargain.

A. a sharp ear B. a keen eye C. a strong head D. a keen ear 32. Ingrid broke ____________ in tears when we told her about the accident.

A. off B. through C. down D. for 33. He’s got plenty of ____________ experience as he’s worked in that field already.

A. second-hand B. first-hand C. primary D. tertiary 34. The feuding families have been ____________ enemies for years.

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A. sworn B. promised C. cursed D. blood 35. Here is an example of an ancient ____________ Chinese vase.

A. beautiful B. tiny C. patterned D. exotic 36. Owing to the fog, his flight from Karachi was ____________.

A. belated B. unscheduled C. overdue D. unpunctual 37. The Southeast Asian Games ____________ its origin to the Southeast Asian Peninsular Games.

A. has B. returns C. owes D. dates back 38. He was given a medal in ____________ of his service to the country.

A. gratitude B. knowledge C. recognition D. response 39. Stop fighting you two – shake hands and ____________ your peace with each other!

A. set B. do C. bring D. make 40. All the way along the winding street ____________.

A. he came B. came he C. did he come D. comes he 41. Don’t worry about making a noise. The children are wide ____________.

A. waking B. awake C. woken D. awoke 42. She’s always been one of your ____________ critics.

A. fiercest B. most violent C. wildest D. hardest 43. By appearing on the soap powder commercials, she became a ____________ name.

A. housewife B. housekeeper C. house D. household 44. It’s hard to do ____________ to such a masterpiece.

A. judgement B. justice C. fair play D. fairness 45. The military force numbered 14.000 at full ____________.

A. effort B. power C. energy D. strength 46. I’m afraid you’ve got the wrong end of the ____________.

A. loaf B. pot C. leg D. stick 47. I couldn’t hear what he said, because he was muttering ____________ his breath.

A. out of B. under C. in D. on 48. The magistrate ____________ his disapproval of the young man’s behaviour.

A. said B. told C. voiced D. spoke 49. Nobody would question the PM’s integrity. He is above ____________.

A. contempt B. suspicion C. average D. all 50. It is vital that we ____________ a change in people’s attitudes.

A. bring down B. bring back C. bring about D. look after 31. ___ 32. ___ 33. ___ 34. ___ 35. ___ 36. ___ 37. ___ 38. ___ 39. ___ 40. ___ 41. ___ 42. ___ 43. ___ 44. ___ 45. ___ 46. ___ 47. ___ 48. ___ 49. ___ 50. ___ Part 2: For questions 51-60, complete the sentences with the correct prepositions. Write your answers in the space provided. 51. I understand you will be eligible ____________ promotion soon. 52. We regret the delay ____________ dispatching your order. 53. It’s a strange smell, isn’t it? It’s peculiar ____________ this type of plant. 54. Despite her age, she takes pleasure ____________ pitting her wits against all comers. 55. Without the certificate, you won’t be sufficiently qualified ____________ the job. 56. There’s no question ____________ your leaving us so soon. 57. She’s convinced ____________ the justice of her case. 58. The landlord was very generous to us. All that we consumed in his inn was __________ the house. 59. ____________ length, the bus arrived, forty minutes late. 60. There were no ripe apples ____________ reach, so I moved the ladder. 51. ____________ 52. ____________ 53. ____________ 54. ____________ 55. ____________

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56. ____________ 57. ____________ 58. ____________ 59. ____________ 60. ____________ Part 3: In most lines of the following text there is ONE unnecessary word. It is either grammatically incorrect or does not fit in with the sense of the text. For each numbered line 61-70, find this word. Some lines are correct. Indicate those lines with a tick (P). The exercise begins with two examples (0 and 00). Write your answers in the space provided. 0. P 00. IT 61. ___ 62. ___ 63. ___ 64. ___ 65. ___ 66. ___ 67. ___ 68. ___ 69. ___ 70. ___

FRESHWATER FISH Freshwater fish have a similar life cycle to birds. The female fish lays eggs but very few species show any mother-care to their young. Fish are cold-blooded creatures, so it is left to the water temperature to give the heat that it encourages the egg to hatch into the 'fry', which is the name given to young fish. Small fish crowd together for protection and to learn all the other behaviour that is necessary for their survival. Only very few them learn to escape the attentions of larger fish or the many other predators who live alongside of water. Fish continue to grow throughout the most of their lives. Unlike animals or birds, there is no easily seen child or adult part to their growing up. Fish from healthy waters, where there is plentiful food, will reach to bigger sizes quicker than their less fortunate fellows, who strive to grow in a polluted stretch of water. The feeding style can be readily seen from the position of the each eyes and mouth on many freshwater fish. Generally, those from fish that feed on the bottom of the river or pond have mouths that curve downward. Surface feeders have a more longer lower jaw. Fish that move around any part of the water for their food, taking any kind small particle that comes their way, have no visible teeth. They suck the food that they find straight into their mouths.

61. ____________ 62. ____________ 63. ____________ 64. ____________ 65. ____________ 66. ____________ 67. ____________ 68. ____________ 69. ____________ 70. ____________ Part 4: For questions 71-80, read the text below. Use the word given in capitals to form a word that fits in the gap. Write your answers in the space provided.

VOLUNTEER PROJECT IN LESOTHO Lesotho is a small independent nation in the middle of southern Africa. The (71) ____________

(KING) of Lesotho lies more than 1,000 metres above sea level. With its wild (72) ____________ (SPOIL) landscapes, it is a paradise for nature lovers and outdoor (73) ____________ (ENTHUSIASM) and also offers the opportunity for visitors to gain (74) ____________ (PRACTICE) experience of African culture. This is particularly true in the rural areas, where the distinctive and (75) ____________ (COLOUR) traditions of the country are still very much alive.

Volunteers are now needed for two related projects for a community-based organisation in the Maletsunyane gorge, a remote and spectacular region in the highlands of Lesotho. One project will involve improving the (76) ____________ (HAZARD) track used by both visitors and locals to reach the base of a waterfall in the gorge. For the second project, volunteers are needed to (77) ____________ (TAKE) a biodiversity survey of the region. (78) ____________ (FORTUNE) much of this area is suffering from overgrazing, hunting and other activities which threaten the (79) ____________ (SUSTAIN) of the land.

Volunteers will be accommodated in shared rooms. There is a communal kitchen, and also a chance to experience the local restaurants. Special dietary (80) ____________ (REQUIRE) can be provided for if advance notice is given. 71. ____________ 72. ____________ 73. ____________ 74. ____________ 75. ____________ 76. ____________ 77. ____________ 78. ____________ 79. ____________ 80. ____________ Section III: READING COMPREHENSION (5/20pts) Part 1: For questions 81-90, read the following informal note you have received from a friend and use the information to complete the numbered gaps in the formal notice. USE NO MORE THAN

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TWO WORDS FOR EACH GAP. The exercise begins with an example (0). The words you need DO NOT OCCUR in the informal note. Write your answers in the space provided.

Example: 0. AVAILABLE INFORMAL NOTE

Jack, I've got that information you asked me to get about the Young Person's Railcard. It seems that you

can only buy one up to March 17th. It looks like a pretty good deal to me because it only costs £35 and you get a lot for that. It allows you to travel anywhere you want for six months and it also lets you pay less at some hotels and restaurants.

You can only get it at the Student Travel Office in Piccadilly and you have to go and get it yourself. It's for people under 26 and you have to prove your age and that you're doing a full-time course. You apply at the office and you have to give them a passport-sized photograph.

It's a really good offer and I think you should encourage any of the students who can do so to get one before it's too late. Glenn

FORMAL NOTICE

NOTICE TO STUDENTS THE YOUNG PERSON'S RAILCARD

The Young Person's Railcard is only (0) ____________ until 17th March and we advise you to get one because it is very good (81) ____________ money. It permits you (82) ____________ for six months and it also entitles you to price (83) ____________ at certain hotels and restaurants. It can only be (84) ____________ from the Student Travel Office in Piccadilly and it must be (85) ____________. The (86) ____________ is 26 and you will need to take (87) ____________ your age. You will also need to prove that you are in full-time (88) ____________. At the office, you fill in an (89) ____________ and provide a passport-sized photograph. The card is highly (90) ____________, so if you are eligible for one, remember that you do not have long in which to buy it.

81. ____________ 82. ____________ 83. ____________ 84. ____________ 85. ____________ 86. ____________ 87. ____________ 88. ____________ 89. ____________ 90. ____________ Part 2: For Questions 91-105, read the text below and decide which answer A, B, C or D best fits each space. Write your answers in the space provided.

COFFEE CULTURE The other day I wanted a cup of coffee, so I hopped into the bank. I sat in a soft armchair and

watched the world (91) ____________, which, in this case, was the (92) ____________ for the services of the bank clerks. I'm joking, of course, but this could soon be common in banks in big cities.

The (93) ____________ for 'real coffee' in Britain, like that for mobile phones, seems never-ending. However, the (94) ____________ is that the attraction for many British people (95) ____________ not so much in the coffee as in the 'coffee culture' that surrounds it. This is to do with big, soft sofas and the idea that if you sit on one, you too can (96) ____________ the actors in the American TV comedy Friends.

In London, the first café opened in 1652. Men would (97) ____________ there, often at (98) ____________ times during the day, to (99) ____________ news and gossip, discuss (100) ____________ of the day and (101) ____________ business. The cafés acted as offices and shops in which merchants and agents, clerks and bankers could carry out their (102) ____________.

In London today it is (103) ____________ that there are more than 2000 cafés and the number is (104) ____________. It won't be long before coffee is sold everywhere. You can already buy it in hospitals, motorway service stations, supermarkets and at tourist (105) ____________ throughout the country.

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91. A. fly past B. go by C. pass on D. walk along 92. A. queue B. line C. wait D. search 93. A. demand B. development C. claim D. supply 94. A. sense B. suspect C. suspicion D. style 95. A. leans B. lies C. occupies D. rests 96. A. be B. feel C. join D. contact 97. A. bring B. fetch C. take D. gather 98. A. regular B. right C. correct D. perfect 99. A. give B. exchange C. offer D. establish 100. A. thoughts B. issues C. feelings D. circumstances 101. A. make B. perform C. do D. form 102. A. trading B. transactions C. information D. works 103. A. estimated B. guessed C. taken D. told 104. A. raising B. growing C. succeeding D. remaining 105. A. scenes B. points C. attractions D. matters 91. ____________ 92. ____________ 93. ____________ 94. ____________ 95. ____________ 96. ____________ 97. ____________ 98. ____________ 99. ____________ 100. ___________ 101. ___________ 102. ___________ 103. ___________ 104. ___________ 105. ___________ Part 3: For Questions 106-115, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. Write your answers in the space provided.

FOLLOW YOUR NOSE Of the five senses, smell is probably the one that you value the least. Yet your sense of smell is

the most direct link (106) ____________ the brain and the outside world. It (107) ____________ two seconds for a smell to enter the nose and travel to the part of the brain that controls emotions and memories. Exactly (108) ____________ your sense of smell influences your emotions, however, is (109) ____________ fully understood.

Nevertheless, a sense of smell can even influence your relationships with other people. Apparently, you fall in love through your nose, not your eyes or your ears. Moreover, people tend to smell of what they eat and (110) ____________ can also influence what people think of you.

In one famous study, 84 per cent of people taking (111) ____________ said they were more (112) ____________ to buy a particular brand of trainers, when they (113) ____________ placed in a room smelling of flowers. This kind of knowledge can be (114) ____________ to influence people's spending habits at a sub-conscious level, and could obviously be useful in (115) ____________ all sorts of things from clothing to cars. 106. ___________ 107. ___________ 108. ___________ 109. ___________ 110. ___________ 111. ___________ 112. ___________ 113. ___________ 114. ___________ 115. ___________ Part 4: You are going to read a newspaper about careers advice. For Questions 116-123, choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you thinks fits best according to the text. Write your answers in the space provided.

FINDING THE CAREER THAT FITS YOUR PERSONALITY ‘If you’ve finished your exams and have absolutely no idea what to do next, you’re not alone,’ says Sheridan Hughes, an occupational psychologist at Career Analysts, a career counselling service. ‘At 18, it can be very difficult to know what you want to do because you don’t really know what you’re interested in.’ Careers guidance, adds Alexis Hallam, one of her colleagues, is generally poor and ‘people can end up in the wrong job and stay there for years because they’re good at something without actually enjoying it.’

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To discover what people are good at, and more fundamentally, what they will enjoy doing, Career Analysts give their clients a battery of personality profile questionnaires and psychometric tests. An in-depth interview follows, in which the test results are discussed and different career paths and options are explored with the aid of an occupational psychologist. Career Analysts offers guidance to everyone, from teenagers to retirees looking for a new focus in life. The service sounded just what I needed. Dividing my time as I do between teaching and freelance journalism, I definitely need advice about consolidating my career. Being too ancient for Career Analysts’ student career option guidance and not, unfortunately, at the executive level yet, I opted for the career management package. This is aimed at people who are established in their jobs and who either want a change or some advice about planning the next step in their careers.

Having filled in a multitude of personality indicator questionnaires at home, I then spent a rather gruelling morning being aptitude-tested at Career Analysts’ offices. The tests consisted of logical reasoning followed by verbal, mechanical and spatial aptitude papers. Logical reasoning required me to pick out the next shape in a sequence of triangles, squares and oblongs. I tried my best but knew that it was really a lost cause. I fared rather better when it came to verbal aptitude – finding the odd one out in a series of words couldn’t be simpler. My complacency was short-lived, however, when I was confronted with images of levers and pulleys for the mechanical aptitude papers. My mind went blank. I had no idea what would happen to wheel X when string Y was pulled.

At home, filling in questionnaires, I had been asked to give my instinctive reaction (not an over-considered one) to statement like: ‘It bothers me if people think I’m being odd or unconventional’, or ‘I like to do my planning alone without interruptions from others.’ I was asked to agree or disagree on a scale of one to five with ‘I often take on impossible odds’, or ‘It is impossible for me to believe that chance or luck plays an important role in my life.’ I was told to indicate how important I consider status to be in a job, and how important money and material benefits.

The questions attempt to construct a picture of the complete individual. Using aptitude tests alongside personality profiling, occupational psychologists will, the theory goes, be able to guide a client towards a rewarding, fulfilling career. Some questions are as straightforward as indicating whether or not you would enjoy a particular job. Designing aircraft runways? Preparing legal documents? Playing a musical instrument? Every career going makes an appearance and, as I was shown later, the responses tend to form a coherent pattern.

Having completed my personality and aptitude tests, I sat down with Sheridan Hughes, who asked me fairly searching personal and professional questions. What do my parents and siblings do for a living? Why had I chosen to do an English degree? ‘I need to get a picture of you as a person and how you’ve come to be who you are,’ she explained. ‘What we do works because it’s a mixture of science and counselling. We use objective psychometric measures to discover our clients’ natural strengths and abilities and then we talk to them about what they want from file.’

There were no real surprises in my own test results, nor in the interview that followed it. ‘We’re interested in patterns,’ Mrs Hughes explained, ‘and the pattern for you is strongly verbal and communicative.’ This was putting it rather kindly. I had come out as average on the verbal skills test and below average in logic, numerical, perceptual and mechanical reasoning. My spatial visualization was so bad it was almost off the scale. ‘A career in cartography, navigation, tiling or architecture would not be playing to your strengths,’ she said delicately.

Mrs Hughes encouraged me to expand the writing side of my career and gave me straightforward, practical suggestions as to how I could go about it. ‘Widen the scope of your articles,’ she said. ‘You could develop an interest in medical and psychological fields.’ These latter, she said, would sit comfortably with an interest in human behaviour indicated on my personality-profiling questionnaires. She suggested that I consider writing e-learning content for online courses, an avenue that would never have occurred to me. 116. Which of the following is mentioned in the first paragraph?

A. People underestimating their own abilities.

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B. People accepting inappropriate advice. C. People being unwilling to take risks. D. People constantly changing their minds.

117. What does the writer say about Career Analysts in the second paragraph? A. It is about to offer a service for people at executive level. B. The range of services it offers is unique. C. She was initially doubtful that it could be useful to her. D. Only one of its services was relevant to her.

118. What happened when the writer took the aptitude tests? A. She found two of the papers extremely difficult. B. She put in very little effort on any of them. C. She didn’t understand what she was required to do on one of them. D. The papers were not what she had been expecting.

119. What does the writer say about the statements on the questionnaires? A. She thought about them for longer than she was supposed to. B. She found some of them rather strange. C. One of them focused on her attitude to risk. D. One of them concerned her current situation only.

120. The writer says that the idea behind the questionnaires is that ____________. A. people will find some of the questions quite hard to answer B. the answers to them and the aptitude tests will provide all the necessary information C. they will encourage people to have new ideas about possible careers D. they will give a more accurate picture of people than the aptitude tests

121. Some of the questions Sheridan Hughes asked concerned the writer’s ____________. A. opinions of the tests and questionnaires B. relationships with family members C. main regrets D. progress through life

122. The writer felt that during the interview, Mrs Hughes ____________. A. was keen not to upset her concerning her test results B. seemed surprised at how badly she had done in the tests C. was being honest about her strengths and weaknesses D. preferred to avoid talking about her test results

123. The advice Mrs Hughes gave to the writer included the suggestion that she should ____________. A. think about taking a course on writing B. concentrate only on writing and not on any other kind of work C. increase the number of subjects she writes about D. do something she had previously considered unappealing

116. _____ 117. _____ 118. _____ 119. _____ 120. _____ 121. _____ 122. _____ 123. _____ Part 5: You are going to read an article about a language. Seven sentences have been removed from the article. Choose from the sentences A-H the one which fits each gap (124-130). There is one sentence you do not need to use. Write your answers in the space provided.

I'M THE LAST SPEAKER OF MY LANGUAGE I come from Chile and I've always been interested in my country's history and culture. It all started

when I was about eight and I started to learn about the Mapuches, the indigenous inhabitants of central and southern Chile. My friends thought I was strange. But I didn't mind that they weren't interested.

When I first found out about the native people of Patagonia, in the far south, I had no idea that my mother's family was from there and that her grandfather had been a Selk'nam. The last speaker of Selk'nam died in 1974. I really wanted to learn Selk'nam, so relatives on my father's side who live in Punta Arenas, the southernmost town in mainland Chile, sent me dictionaries. (124) ____________. But I had no

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idea what these sounded like. Then, when I was about eleven, I saw a television programme about the Yagan people who lived

on the island of Tierra del Fuego, the southernmost tip of South America. The programme interviewed two sisters, Cristina and Ursula Calderon, and said they were the only two speakers of their language left. (125) ____________. Only later did I discover that the two languages are quite different; that the two peoples couldn't communicate with each other.

One day, my mother told me that although she was born in the capital, Santiago, her grandfather was a Selk'nam from the north of Tierra del Fuego. (126) ____________. When I asked why, she said that when she was young she had been teased for looking different, and so she had just kept quiet about it.

When I was thirteen, I went to the south for the first time on my own to meet Cristina Calderon. (127) ____________. I discovered that there used to be four thousand Selk'nam in Tierra del Fuego. They were hunters of wild cats and foxes. The Yagan lived further south and travelled by canoe all the way down to Cape Horn, but the Selk'nam moved on foot.

Settlers from the north arrived in the nineteenth century and introduced diseases like measles and typhoid, which affected the local people very badly. Now, there's no way back. I got hold of some recordings of a Selk'nam shaman from the 1960s and started to study them. (128) ____________. Gradually, however, I began to understand how the words sounded and began to reproduce them.

The Selk'nam express themselves using lots of prefixes and suffixes, and the sounds are guttural, nasal and tonal. (129) ____________. For example, it has lots of different words for the weather. The hardest thing in Selk'nam, however, is the verbs – they all sound a bit the same. There are some English loanwords, such as 'bread' and 'money'. Others are descriptive: 'read' translates as 'playing with words' and 'drum' as 'vibrating leather'. Then there are words for modern things – for 'telephone', you have to say 'speak from afar', and 'car' is 'go on four wheels'. I speak the language well now. Cristina's husband spoke Selk'nam and apparently I sound just like him.

Because music is something that reaches lots of people, I started composing traditional songs in Selk'nam and formed a band with two friends. This meant that they had to learn some words, too. (130) ____________. I need to teach my language to more people because if something happened to me, it would die out all over again.

A. I felt a sudden desire to learn that one too. B. It was slow because I had no one to talk to. C. Nobody had ever told me anything about this before. D. This meant that I was able to start learning words, verbs and expressions. E. This was good because I didn't want to be the only one. F. These turned out to be rather hard for me to pronounce, however. G. The trip seemed the best way to find out about my roots. H. Yagan is quite different, however, because it has more vocabulary.

124. ______ 125. ______ 126. ______ 127. ______ 128. ______ 129. ______ 130. ______

Section IV: WRITING (4/20pts) Part 1: Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means the same as the printed one. 131. She is certainly not a good cook. @ She is by ________________________________________________________________________. 132. His colleagues were shocked to hear of Ahmed’s illness. @ The news of Ahmed’s illness came ____________________________________________________. 133. She’ll probably win first prize. @ She stands _______________________________________________________________________. 134. The policeman pointed out the speed limit sign to us. @ The policeman drew ________________________________________________________________.

Chon DT HSGQG 2012-2013.V1 11/11

135. The star was surrounded by screaming fans as soon as he arrived at the stage door. @ On his ___________________________________________________________________________. 136. I haven't lent my new lawnmower to anybody. F Nobody _________________________________________________________________________. 137. Although she seems to be very courteous, she can also be very impolite. F Courteous _______________________________________________________________________. 138. The value of sterling has fallen considerably in the past week. C There has ________________________________________________________________________. 139. Nobody expected her to lose, but she did. C Against __________________________________________________________________________. 140. If Cathy hadn't been so mean, we'd have had a really good time. C But _____________________________________________________________________________. Part 2: Rewrite the following sentences using the words in capital. Do not alter these words. 141. When the assembly line was introduced, five hundred workers were dismissed. ADVENT F ________________________________________________________________________________. 142. The store should definitely give you your money back. REFUND F ________________________________________________________________________________. 143. The tourists were most impressed with the castle. IMPACT F ________________________________________________________________________________. 144. Juliet simply couldn’t wait for his return. LONG F ________________________________________________________________________________. 145. By the time we all sat down to dinner, the Morrises still hadn’t arrived. SIGN F ________________________________________________________________________________. 146. Mr Thompson's opinion of these innovations is rather low. MUCH OF F ________________________________________________________________________________. 147. Michael works overtime because he wants to pay off his debts. VIEW F ________________________________________________________________________________. 148. Each of us has tried to comfort the depressed patient. ATTEMPT F ________________________________________________________________________________. 149. I was just going to leave my office when the phone rang. ABOUT F ________________________________________________________________________________. 150. Dickens' last novel was unfinished when he died. WITHOUT F ________________________________________________________________________________.

----- THE END -----

Đề thi chọn đội tuyển HSG văn hóa THPT_Môn Tiếng Anh Page 1 of 10

SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG QUỐC GIA QUẢNG TRỊ Khoá ngày: 18/09/2012 Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (VÒNG 2)

Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Họ, tên chữ ký Mã phách

Giám thị 1:

Giám thị 2:

HỌ VÀ TÊN THÍ SINH:

SỐ BÁO DANH

TRƯỜNG:

PHÒNG THI SỐ:

* Lưu ý:

- Đề thi gồm có 10 trang.

- Thí sinh làm bài trực tiếp vào đề thi.

- Thí sinh viết câu trả lời vào đúng vị trí quy định trên bài thi.

- Thí sinh không được sử dụng bất kỳ tài liệu nào.

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC


SỞ GIÁO DỤC VÀ ĐÀO TẠO KỲ THI CHỌN ĐỘI TUYỂN HSG QUỐC GIA QUẢNG TRỊ Khoá ngày: 18/09/2012 Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH (VÒNG 2) Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)

Giám khảo 1:

Giám khảo 2:

Điểm bằng số:

Điểm bằng chữ:

Paper 1: Listening (30/200 points) Part 1: You will hear a lecturer talking to students at the beginning of their course. For questions 1-10, fill in the missing information. You will hear the recording twice

Course information Course name:__________________________ (1) People not present will receive a __________________________ (2) This will be forwarded by __________________________ (3) The two topics for discussion today are the __________________________ (4) and how to study for the course. How many TMAs are these? __________________________ (5) TMAs must not be __________________________ (6) You can treat specified word length as __________________________ (7) If possible, TMAs should be __________________________ (8) Tutors will make comments on the TMAs and in a __________________________ (9) At the end of the TMA students should include__________________________ (10) Part 2: You will hear a radio announcement about travel problems on the railway. For questions 11-20, complete the notes according to the information you hear, using one or two words or a time. You will hear the recording twice

Travel News Kind of accident: __________________________ (11) Time of accident: __________________________ (12) Type of train involved: __________________________ (13) Name of the blocked line: __________________________ (14) People injured: __________________________ (15) Cause of accident: __________________________ (16) Trains subject to delay: Travellers from South Wales will arrive __________________________ (17) For travellers from Gloucester to Swindon, everything is ________________________ (18) Travellers from Bath to Paddington will arrive __________________________ (19) Travellers to Wales will find the journey takes __________________________ (20) Write your answers here: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20

MÃ PHÁCH:

ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC


Paper 2: Use of English (50/200 points) Part 1: For questions 1-15, read the text below and look carefully at each line. If a line is correct, put a tick (v). If a line has a word which should not be there, write the word in the corresponding boxes.

There are examples at the beginning (O and 00). Example: (0)__for___; (00)__ü__

0……. 00……. 1……. 2……. 3……. 4……. 5……. 6……. 7……. 8……. 9……. 10……. 11……. 12……. 13……. 14……. 15…….

As you were not able to come to London for to see the open-air concert, I am sure you are looking forward to be hearing all about it from me. I am sorry that to have to disappoint you, but the truth is that I did also watched it on television. As you know, I bought my ticket months ago because I knew they would be sold out of very quickly. Let me tell you what has happened that day. I wanted to be one of the first person to arrive at the concert hall to get a good seat right in front, near from the stage, so I took up an early train. But when I got there, I realised that I had left my ticket at home. So I had to go all the way back to get it, which it took at least an hour. But then, believe it or not, the organisers would not let me in because the concert had already started! I was so much angry with them. They simply refused to listen to my explanations. In the end, I went back to home and switched on the TV!

Write your answers here: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

Part 2: For questions 16-25, read the text below. Use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the numbered space in the same line. Write your answers in the corresponding boxes There is an example at the beginning (0).

Life on Mars The planet Mars is, at present, (0) uninhabitable. Dust hangs in the air like a light fog. The temperature can (16) _____ 100 degrees below zero, the habitat is barren and humans cannot breathe (17) _______. But Dr Robert Zubnn, an astronautical (18) ___________ , believes that one day this will all change. Although it could take hundreds of years to turn Mars into a viable arena for the development of life. Dr Zubnn is (19) _______ by this timescale. He believes that we need the challenge. (20)______ are like people, they develop in response to challenges and a human mission to Mars would encourage every child to learn science, develop their mind and become part of a (21 ) ______ new world.

More importantly Zubnn (22) ______ the political benefits that life on Mars could bring to those on Earth. He sees Mars as an open frontier where the rules have not yet been written. He believes the most profound (23) _______ that people can have is to make their own world - one which may even have a direct (24) ______in which everyone will vote on (25) _____ via e-mail.

(0) HABITABLE (16) EXCESS (17) AID (18) ENGINE (19) PERTURB (20) CIVIL (21) PIONEER (22) LIGHT (23) FREE (24) DEMOCRATIC (25) LEGISLATE


Write your answers here: 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25

Part 3: Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete the sentence. 26. At last he had found someone on whom he could vent his_________. A. anger B. love C. happiness D. trust 27. The dampness of the walls caused the paint to_________ off. A. crumble B. splinter C. flake D. scale 28. That’s the last______! I’m leaving. A. straw B. pain C. limit D. nuisance 29. I shall do the job to the best of my _________. A. capacity B. ability C. knowledge D. talent 30. Unfortunately our local cinema is on the _________of closing down. A. verge B. hint C. edge D. threat 31. The ______of his first novel appeared in The Times yesterday. A. survey B. inspection C. appraisal D. review 32. I ______you that I had no intention of offending you. A. convince B. persuade C. assure D. guarantee 33. In ______, I must acknowledge that we were guilty of errors of judgement. A. hindsight B. review C. experience D. retrospect 34. “But son,” I told him, “you’re my own_________”. A. heart to heart B. body and soul C. flesh and blood D. skin and bone 35. We hire our bicycle _________. A. by hours B. by the hour C. by an hour D. for hours 36. With a _________of thankfulness, he finished the last of his letters. A. sigh B. shudder C. shiver D. groan 37. The life of a spy is _________with danger. A. fraught B. intense C. stressful D. heavy 38. The union advised its members to resume _________working. A. regular B. ordinary C. normal D. usual 39. He was at the _________ of his career when he was assassinated. A. pride B. height C. glamour D. power 40. Whether the sports club survives is a matter of complete _________to me. A. disinterest B. importance C. indifference D. interest Write your answers here: 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40

Paper 3: READING (60/200) Part 1: For questions 1-15, read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in each space. Write your answers in the corresponding boxes provided below the passage. The first one has been done for you.

The Map Thief

For a couple of years, Gilbert Bland was a unique figure in the privileged world of antique map dealing. He made a 100% profit (0) _____on____ every map he sold, (1) _____because he was a clever businessman, but because he was a thief. In the mid-1990s, Bland crept around libraries in the USA, armed (2) _____ a sharp razor and a baggy shirt and sliced out those ancient maps which


took (3) _____ fancy. Some were worth tens of thousands of dollars, and he (4) _____ on to sell them through both mail-order catalogues and his shop in Florida.

(5) _____ Bland's historical knowledge of maps was patchy at best, his knowledge of (6) _____ exact location in the rare book stacks was second to (7) _____. When he heard that early maps of, (8) _____, Seattle were becoming popular, he would know precisely (9) _____ to start slicing.

His crimes only came (10) _____ light when a researcher in a Baltimore library noticed that a man appeared to be tearing a page from a 200-year-old book (11 ) _____ if it were a newspaper. At (12) _____, it was assumed that this was an isolated case, and the library and police were happy to (13) _____ Bland off with a warning. (14) _____ later did they (15) _____ across his notebooks, which contained elaborate details of all his thefts. Write your answers here:

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15

Part 2: Questions 16-21, read the following passage and choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings below. Write your answers (i-x) in the corresponding numbered boxes. There are three extra ones which you do not need to use.

There is an example at the beginning (0).

List of Headings i Legislation brings temporary improvements ii The increasing speed of suburban development iii A new area of academic interest iv The impact of environmental extremes on city planning v The first campaigns for environmental change vi Building cities in earthquake zones vii The effect of global warming on cities viii Adapting areas surrounding cities to provide resources ix Removing the unwanted by-products of city life x Providing health information for city dwellers

A While cities and their metropolitan areas have always interacted with and shaped the natural environment, it is only recently that historians have begun to consider this relationship. During our own time, the tension between natural and urbanized areas has increased, as the spread of metropolitan populations and urban land uses has reshaped and destroyed natural landscapes and environments.

B The relationship between the city and the natural environment has actually been circular, with cities having massive effects on the natural environment, while the natural environment, in turn, has profoundly shaped urban configurations. Urban history is filled with stories about how city dwellers contended with the forces of nature that threatened their lives. Nature not only caused many of the annoyances of daily urban life, such as bad weather and pests, but it also gave rise to natural disasters and catastrophes such as floods, fires, and earthquakes. In order to protect themselves and their settlements against the forces of nature, cities built many defences including flood walls and dams, earthquake-resistant buildings, and storage places for food and water. At times, such protective steps sheltered urbanites against the worst natural furies, but often their own actions – such as building under the shadow of volcanoes, or in earthquake-prone zones – exposed them to danger from natural hazards.

C City populations require food, water, fuel, and construction materials, while urban industries need natural materials for production purposes. In order to fulfill these needs, urbanites increasingly had to reach far beyond their boundaries. In the nineteenth century, for instance, the demands of city dwellers for food produced rings of garden farms around cities. In the twentieth century, as urban populations increased, the demand for food drove the rise of large factory farms. Cities also require


fresh water supplies in order to exist – engineers built waterworks, dug wells deeper and deeper into the earth looking for groundwater, and dammed and diverted rivers to obtain water supplies for domestic and industrial uses. In the process of obtaining water from distant locales, cities often transformed them, making deserts where there had been fertile agricultural areas.

D Urbanites had to seek locations to dispose of the wastes they produced. Initially, they placed wastes on sites within the city, polluting the air, land, and water with industrial and domestic effluents. As cities grew larger, they disposed of their wastes by transporting them to more distant locations. Thus, cities constructed sewerage systems for domestic wastes. They usually discharged the sewage into neighbouring waterways, often polluting the water supply of downstream cities.

The air and the land also became dumps for waste disposal. In the late nineteenth century, coal became the preferred fuel for industrial, transportation, and domestic use. But while providing an inexpensive and plentiful energy supply, coal was also very dirty. The cities that used it suffered from air contamination and reduced sunlight, while the cleaning tasks of householders were greatly increased.

E In the late nineteenth and early twentieth centuries, reformers began demanding urban environmental cleanups and public health improvements. Women's groups often took the lead in agitating for clean air and clean water, showing a greater concern than men in regard to quality of life and health-related issues. The replacement of the horse, first by electric trolleys and then by the car, brought about substantial improvements in street and air sanitation. The movements demanding clean air, however, and reduction of waterway pollution were largely unsuccessful. On balance, urban sanitary conditions were probably somewhat better in the 1920s than in the late nineteenth century, but the cost of improvement often was the exploitation of urban hinterlands for water supplies, increased downstream water pollution, and growing automobile congestion and pollution.

F In the decades after the 1940s, city environments suffered from heavy pollution as they sought to cope with increased automobile usage, pollution from industrial production, new varieties of chemical pesticides and the wastes of an increasingly consumer-oriented economy. Cleaner fuels and smoke control laws largely freed cities during the 1940s and 1950s of the dense smoke that they had previously suffered from. Improved urban air quality resulted largely from the substitution of natural gas and oil for coal and the replacement of the steam locomotive by the diesel-electric. However, great increases in automobile usage in some larger cities produced the new phenomenon of smog, and air pollution replaced smoke as a major concern.

G During these decades, the suburban out-migration, which had begun in the nineteenth century with commuter trains and streetcars and accelerated because of the availability and convenience of the automobile, now increased to a torrent, putting major strains on the formerly rural and undeveloped metropolitan fringes. To a great extent, suburban layouts ignored environmental considerations, making little provision for open space, producing endless rows of resource-consuming and fertilizer-dependent lawns, contaminating groundwater through leaking septic tanks, and absorbing excessive amounts of fresh water and energy. The growth of the outer city since the 1970s reflected a continued preference on the part of many people in the western world for space-intensive single-family houses surrounded by lawns, for private automobiles over public transit, and for the development of previously untouched areas. Without better planning for land use and environmental protection, urban life will, as it has in the past, continue to damage and stress the natural environment. Example: 0 Section A iii Write your answers here:

16 Section B 17 Section C 18 Section D 19 Section E 20 Section F 21 Section G

Questions 22-27, do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage?

In the corresponding boxes 22-27, write


TRUE if the statement agrees with the information FALSE if the statement contradicts the information NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

22 In the nineteenth century, water was brought into the desert to create productive farming land. 23 Women were often the strongest campaigners for environmental reform. 24 Reducing urban air and water pollution in the early twentieth century was extremely expensive. 25 The introduction of the car led to increased suburban development. 26 Suburban lifestyles in many western nations fail to take account of environmental protection. 27 Many governments in the developed world are trying to halt the spread of the suburbs. Write your answers here:

22 23 24 25 26 27

Part 3: For questions 28- 33, read the texts below and choose the correct answer A, B, C or D.

INTO THE GAP

I am led into a large, whitewashed room to face a jury of 99. They are arranged in rows, and we look at each other through a cloud of yellow chalk dust. They have never met a foreigner before and eye me nervously as I step forward. I am in China for a year to work with 20-year-old students learning English. It felt odd being younger than my students, but I never felt too inexperienced to cope. It had not been an easy choice to take the opportunity of doing a gap year. I was afraid of not being able to settle down to a life of studying when I returned and of losing touch with my friends. But once the decision was made, I looked for somewhere challenging to live and work, with the possibility of travelling around the country at the end of my work placement. I worked at a huge, concrete institute in a city with a million inhabitants and I grew to love it. The size of the class which could sometimes include up to 99 students, of very mixed ability and enthusiasm, left me feeling exhausted, but rewarded. One of the best things about the work was that I met hundreds of people, and felt appreciated and welcomed by them -people who had had practically no contact with the West. In China,

everyone wants to be your friend. My best Chinese mate was Mr Chow, a 35-year-old electronics teacher with a son, wife, and a cheerful face like a full moon. I helped him with his English and he coached me at table tennis, and taught me how to ride a motorbike. Best of all, he was a great storyteller, and some of my best nights were spent eating with him and his family. In China I learnt that fun takes on different forms. In the more remote areas of China where life and landscape have changed little in hundreds of years, you can really feel like a cross between a celebrity and a creature from outer space. I've been on train journeys when kids have asked me to sign their clothes, been on television a few times - and just what do you say when Chinese men are stroking your legs, amazed by the fact that they are so hairy? So, what have I come away with? I had no choice but to adapt, budget, bargain and become more independent. There's no faster way to grow up than having to stand in front of those 99 students, all older than yourself and tell someone off for turning up late again to a lesson. Most of all I loved the experience of living in a different country and the challenge of trying to understand it.

28 What does the use of the word “jury” suggest about the writer's feelings? A He thinks he has committed a crime. B The students already find him boring. C He cannot understand their behaviour. D He knows they want to see what he is like.

29 What does the word “decision” refer to? A going to university B returning home C going abroad D contacting friends

30 Which phrase best sums up the writer's feelings about his job? A concerned and nervous B tired but fulfilled


C enthusiastic but worried D successful and excited 31 How do the 'hundreds of people' react to the writer?

A They were suspicious of him. B They were amused by him. C They were sociable to him. D They were puzzled by him.

32 What does the writer suggest by saying “fun takes on different forms”? A He was surprised at his enjoyment of simple things. B He got more fun from learning than teaching. C He missed Western forms of entertainment. D He enjoyed meeting his students outside lessons.

33 What does the writer conclude about his gap year? A It enabled him to learn Chinese. B He learnt how to control a class. C He learnt to cope with foreigners. D It helped him become more mature.

Write your answers here:

28 29 30 31 32 33

Part 4: For questions 34-40, read through the following text and then choose from the list A-J below the best phrase to fill each of the spaces. Write one letter (A-J) in the corresponding numbered boxes. Some of the suggested answers do not fit at all.

Staying Healthy in Space

The range of foods available to astronauts is vast, and great care is taken to ensure that it looks and smells appetising. Meals are organised to provide an average of 3,000 calories a day, (34)______. But astronauts can expend a great deal of energy in doing the simplest things. For example, if they try to turn a handle, they turn themselves as well. If they bend down to do up a shoelace, (35)______. Finding unusual ways of doing such ordinary things uses up the excess calories. The space diet is balanced rather differently from a terrestrial diet. This is to try and compensate for changes that take place in the body during space flight. Bodily changes begin as soon as astronauts go into space (36)______. Among the most serious is calcium loss, which causes a marked reduction in the mass and strength of bones. There is also a progressive loss of red blood cells. What causes these effects is not known, (37)______. The heart muscles, with no gravity to battle against, start to waste away. The leg muscles start to waste too, since walking, as done on Earth, (38)______. Exercise also helps to reduce muscle wastage (39)______. No one yet knows the limit of human endurance in space. If astronauts can withstand two years or more of continuous weightlessness, then mankind’s dream of visiting other planets (40)______. A and the question must be answered before long-duration space flight is really safe B and are quite noticeable after even a week C they start turning somersaults D and will never be known E which is rather more than astronauts really need F and is vital on very long flights G could become reality in the early decades of the next century H can only be done if astronauts put on their heavy spacesuits I which seems high for living in an enclosed environment in which there is no gravity

J but they do not seriously threaten the health of astronauts Write your answers here:

34 35 36 37 38 39 40


Paper 4: Writing section (60/200 points) Task 1: The chart below shows information about Heart Attacks by Age and Gender in USA. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main features, and make comparisons where relevant.

• You should write at least 150 words.

Heart attack per year, USA (000s) th

ousa

nds

123

0

424

136

440

374

050

100150200250300350400450

29-44 45-64 65+

MenWomen

Age-group

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Task 2: Write about the following topic “The only way to reduce the amount of traffic in cities today is by reducing the need for people to travel from home to work, education, or shopping”. To what extent do you agree or disagree? Give reasons for your answers and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience. Write at least 250 words.


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…………………..The end…………………..

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