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High Court of Gujarat, Sola, Ahmedabad

No.RC/1250/2019

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Que.

No.

Question Option A Option B Option C Option D Final

Answer

1 Which of the following writs literally

means “We command”?

Habeas Corpus Mandamus Quo Warranto Certiorari B

2 Which Article of the Constitution of

India is related to Equality before law?

Article 13 Article 14 Article 15 Article 16 B


India is for “Protection against arrest

and detention in certain cases”?

Article 24 Article 23 Article 22 Article 21 C

4 In issuing one of the writs, the

Supreme Court observes that: “The

respondent was not entitled to an

office he was holding or a privilege he

was exercising.”

This observation can be identified as

which of the following Writs?

Prohibition Quo Warranto Certiorari Habeas Corpus B

5 Which of the following Articles of the

Constitution of India, entrusts the

President of India to grant pardon?

Article 71 Article 72 Article 73 Article 74 B

6 Article 17 of the Constitution of India

provides for:

Abolition of

untouchability

Abolition of titles Protection of life and

personal liberty

Equality of

opportunity in

matters of public

employment

A

7 Which of the following is not the part

of the Preamble to the Constitution of

India?

Secularism Socialism Democratic Republic Federation D

Question with FINAL ANSWER of the Preliminary Examination based on Computer Based (Online) Examination System held on 16/06/2019

for the Direct Recruitment to the Cadre of District Judge 25% Quota.

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8 The Constitution names our Country

as:

Bharat India, that is, Bharat Hindustan India B

9 As per Article 80 of the Constitution of

India, how many members can be

nominated by the President of India to

the Rajya Sabha?

6 8 10 12 D


India provides for “Equal Justice and

Free Legal Aid”?

Article 39 Article 39A Article 43 Article 43A B

11 How many schedules are there in the

Constitution of India?

10 12 14 16 B

12 Which Indian artist decorated the

handwritten copy of the Constitution?

Mihir Sen S.N.Banerji Mukesh

Bandhopadhyay

Nandlal Bose D


India provides for appointment of

District Judges?

Article 233 Article 233A Article 234 Article 235 A

14 The executive power of the Union is

vested in whom from the following?

Prime Minister President Vice President Home Minister B

15 Under which of the following

circumstances, additional evidence

cannot be allowed to be produced in

appeal?

The trial court has

refused to admit

evidence which ought

to have been

admitted

The party seeking to

produce additional

evidence, establishes

that such evidence

was not within his

knowledge

The appellate court

requires any

document to be

produced

The party seeking to

produce additional

evidence contends

that the existence of

such evidence had

gone out of his mind

D

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16 Under Section 113 of the Code of Civil

Procedure, which Court may refer a

case to High Court?

District Court Civil Court Any Court Small Causes Court C

17 In a summary suit, within how many

days from the date of service of

summons for judgment, the defendant

may apply for leave to defend?

One month Ten days One week Fifteen days B

18 In an appeal under Section 100, what

should be precisely stated in the

memorandum of appeal?

Substantial question

of law

Arguable point of law Points for

determination

All of these A

19 No appeal shall lie, except on a

question of law, from a decree in any

suit of the nature cognizable by Courts

of Small Causes, when the amount or

value of the subject matter of the

original suit does not exceed_______.

Ten Thousand Rupees One Thousand Rupees Five Thousand Rupees Twenty Thousand

Rupees

A

20 Under Order 39 Rule 2A of CPC, what

order may the Court pass against the

party who is guilty of breach of

injunction?

Attachment of

property of the guilty

Payment of

compensation

Decreeing the suit

against the guilty

Payment of cost A

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21 Where property is transferred subject

to a condition absolutely restraining

the transferee from parting with or

disposing of his interest in the

property, the condition is _______.

Void Voidable Valid None of these A

22 Where the mortgagor binds himself to

repay the mortgage money on a

certain date and transfers the

mortgaged property absolutely to the

mortgagee, but subject to a proviso

that he will re-transfer it to the

mortgagor upon payment of the

mortgage money as agreed,the

transaction is called:

Usufructuary

mortgage

Simple mortgage English mortgage Mortgage be deposit

of title deeds

C

23 According to Transfer of Property Act,

instrument means;

A non testamentary

instrument

A testamentary

instrument

Both A & B none of these A

24 Under the Transfer of Property Act, an

unborn person acquires vested interest

on transfer for his benefit:

upon his birth 7 days after his birth 12 days after his birth none of these A

25 Which provision of the Transfer of

Property Act pertains to ‘Rule against

perpetuity’?

Section 14 Section 15 Section 12 Section 13 A

26 Section 52 of the Transfer of Property

Act provides for:

Lis pendens Actionable claim Vested interest Lease A

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27 Within what time, a person who is

dispossessed, without his consent, of

immovable property, should file a suit

for recovery of possession?

Six months from the

date of dispossession

Three months from

the date of

dispossession

One year from the


One month from the


A

28 Within what time, from the date of

service of summons to the defendant,

a suit filed under the provisions of the

Specific Relief Act, should be disposed

off?

Twelve months Six months Nine months Two years A

29 Section 8 of the Specific Relief Act can

be invoked

against a person who

has possession or

control over the

article

against a person who

is the owner of the

article

by a person not

entitled to the

possession of the

article

in respect of an

ordinary article

A

30 The general principles on which

perpetual injunction could be granted,

are contained in :

Section 37 of the

Specific Relief Act

Section 38 of the

Specific Relief Act

Section 39 of the

Specific Relief Act

Section 40 of the

Specific Relief Act

B

31 Section 11 of the Specific Relief Act

provides for:

Specific performance

of a part of the

contract

defences respecting

suits for relief based

on contract

specific performance

of contracts

connected with trusts

circumstances in

which specific

performance of a

contract is

enforceable

C

32 Partnership as defined in the Indian

Partnership Act, is the relation

between persons who have agreed to

share the ______ of a business carried

on by all or any of them acting for all.

Profit Loss Expenses Capital A

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33 The relation of partnership arises from

____________.

Contract Status Understanding All of these A

34 Who among the following are not the

partners?

A Hindu undivided

family carrying on a

family business

Burmese Buddhist

brothers carrying

business

A Muslim family

carrying on a family

business

Hindu brothers not

being a Hindu

undivided family

carrying on business

A

35 Under Section 2(b) of the Indian

Partnership Act, business includes:

every trade and

occupation

every occupation and

profession

every trade,

occupation and

profession

every trade and

profession

C

36 Where no provision is made by

contract between the partners for the

duration of their partnership, or for the

determination of their partnership, the

partnership is ______.

partnership at will particular partnership illegal partnership invalid partnership A

37 When one person signifies to another

his willingness to do or to abstain from

doing anything, with a view to

obtaining the assent of that other to

such act or abstinence, he is said to

make:

a proposal a promise an agreement a contract A

38 In order to convert a proposal into a

promise the acceptance must _______.

be absolute and

unqualified

be conditional be specific be qualified A

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39 Threatening to detain any property to

the prejudice of any person with the

intention of causing any person to

enter into an agreement, is ________

coercion undue influence fraud misrepresentation A

40 Under Contract Act, when consent to

an agreement is caused by undue

influence, the agreement is a

________ contract.

Voidable Void Valid Illegal A

41 Under the Contract Act, the

consideration or object of an

agreement is lawful, unless:

it is forbidden by law it is impracticable it is impossible all of these A

42 The principle of caveat emptor is

enunciated in the Sale of Goods Act

under:


43 Where there is an unconditional

contract for the Sale of Specific Goods

in a deliverable state, under Section 20

of the Sale of Goods Act, the property

in goods passes to the buyer when

the goods are

delivered

the price is paid the contract is made the parties intend C

44 Section 23 of the Sale of Goods Act

pertains to:

Sale of ascertained

goods

Sale of Specific goods Sale of unascertained

goods

All of these C

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45 What is the period of limitation for

preferring an appeal to the Sessions

Court against the order passed by the

Magistrate convicting the accused and

imposing punishment of imprisonment

for one year?

Thirty days Sixty days Forty five days Ninety days A

46 Within what time should an application

for setting aside abatement under the

Code of Civil Procedure be filed?

Sixty days Thirty days Ninety days Ten days A

47 To which of the following proceedings,

the provision of Section 5 of Limitation

Act does not apply?

An application under

Order 21 of the Code

of Civil Procedure


Order 7 of the Code of

Civil Procedure



of Civil Procedure



of Civil Procedure

A

48 Section 15 of the Limitation Act applies

to:

suits and execution

applications

suits only execution applications

only

appeals A

49 Under Section 21 of the Limitation Act,

a suit is deemed to have been

instituted, in case of a new plaintiff

being impleaded_____

on the date on which

the new plaintiff is

impleaded


the suit was initially

instituted


application for

impleading a new

plaintiff is made

none of these A

50 Which section of the Indian Penal Code

will be invoked if a transgender lodges

a complaint for sexual harassment?

Section 354C Section 354D Section 354A Section 354B A

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51 As per Section 24 of Indian Penal Code,

who ever does anything with the

intention of causing wrongful gain to

one person or wrongful loss to another

person, is said to do that thing

________.

Dishonestly Fraudulently Mischievously Wrongfully A

52 Sexual acts by a man with his own wife,

the wife not being under ______ years

of age, is not rape.

twelve fifteen sixteen eighteen B

53 Section 397 of Indian Penal Code

provides for punishment for which

offence?

Robbery or dacoity

with attempt to cause

death or grievous

hurt.

Dacoity with murder Voluntarily causing

hurt in committing

robbery

Dacoity A

54 During the inquiry or trial of a

complaint case, if it comes to the

notice of the Magistrate that an

investigation by police into the offence

which is the subject matter of the

complaint case before him, is already

in progress, the Magistrate shall:

Stay the proceedings

of such inquiry or trial

and call for a report

on the matter from

the police officer

conducting the

investigation.

Proceed with such

inquiry or trial and

wait for the report of

the investigating

officer before finally

disposing off the

inquiry or trial

Stay the investigation

by police

Allow inquiry/trial and

investigation by police

to go on

simultaneously

A

55 Appeals filed under which of the

following section/s shall finally abate

on the death of the accused?

377 378 374 Both – 377 & 378 D

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56 For how many offences of the same

kind committed within the span of

twelve months from the first to the last

of such offences, the accused may be

charged with and tried at one trial?

Not exceeding two Not exceeding three Not exceeding four Not exceeding five B

57 While exercising revisional powers, the

revision Court is not authorised to:

order detention of the

accused

release the accused

on bail

convert a finding of

acquittal into one of

conviction

convert a finding of

conviction into one of

acquittal

C

58 To which of the following cases,

provision of Section 438 of Criminal

Procedure Code shall not apply?

in case of arrest of a

person for an offence

punishable under

Section 376 B of I.P.C.

in case of an arrest of

a person for an

offence punishable

under Section 376 C of

I.P.C.


a person for an

offence punishable

under Section 376(3)

of I.P.C.


a person for an

offence punishable

under Section 376 D

of I.P.C.

C

59 Under which provision of Criminal

Procedure Code, the Judge or

Magistrate is empowered to dispense

with the attendance of an accused?


60 Section 309 of Criminal Procedure

Code mandates completion of

inquiry/trail relating to offences

punishable under Section 376, 376 A,

Section 376 AB, Section 376 B, Section

376 C, Section 376 D, Section 376 DA,

Section 376 DB of I.P.C. within a period

of ____ months from the date of filing

of the charge sheet.

Three Six Two One C

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61 To which authority should the victim

apply for compensation under the

victim compensation scheme where

the offender is not traced or identified

and where no trial takes place?

State or the District

Collector

State or the

Superintendent of

Police

State or the District

Legal Services

Authority

The Governor of the

State

C

62 For the confession of an accused

caused by inducement, threat or

promise, to be irrelevant in criminal

proceedings, such inducement, threat

or promise must proceed from:

a person in authority a complainant a co-accused all of these A

63 For the Court to make the presumption

as mentioned in Section 90 of the

Evidence Act about the document

produced before it, such document

must be purported or proved to be

________ years old.

15 20 25 30 D

64 A is accused of murdering B at his

house. A raises the defense that he

was not in the town at the time when B

is alleged to have been murdered .

Under which of the following

provisions of the Evidence Act, burden

of proof would be on A to prove his

defense?


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65 Admissions are not conclusive proof of

the matters admitted, but they may

operate as _______.

Estoppels Confessions Res judicata Evidence A

66 A statement, oral or documentary or

contained in electronic form, which

suggests any inference as to any fact in

issue or relevant fact, and which is

made by any of the persons is

a/an_______.

Admission Confession Dying Declaration None of these A

67 A fact is said to be ___________ when,

after considering the matters before it,

the Court either believes that it does

not exist, or considers its non existence

so probable that a prudent man ought,

under the circumstances of the

particular case, to act upon the

supposition that it does not exist.

Proved Disproved Not proved Approved B

68 As per Section 64 of the Evidence Act,

documents must be proved by ______.

Primary Evidence Secondary Evidence Primary or Secondary

Evidence

Oral Evidence A

69 According to Section 65 of the Evidence

Act, the secondary evidence can be

admitted in _______ exceptional cases.

Three Five Seven Nine C

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70 The Negotiable Instruments Act

provides for payment of interim

compensation by the drawer of the

cheque to the complainant. Such

interim compensation should not

exceed _____ of the amount of the

cheque.

10 % 20 % 25 % 15 % B

71 What is the punishment prescribed for

the offence punishable under Section

138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act?

Imprisonment for a

term which may be

extended to two years

or with fine which

may extend to twice

the amount of the

cheque or with both.

Imprisonment for a

term which may be

extended to one year

or with fine which

may extend to the

amount equivalent to

the amount of the


Imprisonment for a

term which may be


or with fine which

may extend to the

amount equivalent to

the amount of the


Imprisonment for a

term which may be


or with fine which

may extend to thrice

the amount of the


A

72 Which provisions of the Negotiable

Instruments Act mandates that the

offences punishable under Section 138

of the Negotiable Instruments Act shall

be tried summarily?

Section 141 Section 142 Section 143 Section 144 C

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73 Under which provision of the

Negotiable Instruments Act, a person

who is nominated as a Director of a

company by virtue of his holding any

office or employment in the Central

Government or State Government or a

Financial Corporation owned or

controlled by the Central or State

Government, is not liable for

prosecution?

Section 140 Section 141 Section 143 Section 142 B

74 Within how much time from the date

on which cause of action arises, the

complaint for the offence punishable

under Section 138 of the Negotiable

Instruments Act should be filed?

one month thirty days three months six months A

75 Under which provision of the

Negotiable Instruments Act, the

Appellate Court may order the

appellant to deposit such sum which

shall be a minimum of twenty percent

of the fine or compensation awarded

by the trial Court?

Section 148 Section 143A Section 142 Section 143 A

76 How much quantity of Ganja has been

specified as commercial quantity by

the Central Government?

1 Kg & Above 10 Kg & Above 5 Kg & Above 20 Kg & Above D

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77 All offences under the NDPS Act which

are punishable with imprisonment for

a term of more than _____ years shall

be triable only by the Special Court.

One Five Seven Three D

78 Who among the following is not

qualified to be appointed as a Judge of

a Special Court under NDPS Act?

Sessions Judge Additional Sessions

Judge

Chief Judicial

Magistrate

None of these C

79 Which provision of the NDPS Act

empowers the Court to release certain

offenders on probation?

Section 38 Section 39 Section 37 Section 35 B

80 What is the term of imprisonment for

failure of an officer in duty or his

connivance at the contravention of the

provisions of the NDPS Act?

Imprisonment for a

term which may

extend to one year

Imprisonment for a

term which may

extend to two years

Imprisonment for a

term which may

extend to six months

Imprisonment for a

term which may be

prescribed for the

contravention in

question

A

81 Audi alteram partem hear the other side no one is found to

accuse himself

the burden of proof

lies on the plaintiff

the act of God

prejudices no one

A

82 Sine Qua Non An indispensable

requisite

indefinitely without issue a cause without which

the effect would not

have been caused

A

83 Ubi Jus Ibi Remedium Where there is a right,

there is a remedy

Injury without

damage

Loss by an act is not

wrongful

A legal fiction does

not properly work loss

or injury

A

84 Res ipsa loquitur The thing speaks for

itself

All things done in the

course of transaction

A matter already

judicially decided

A matter not yet

decided

A

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85 Persona non grata An unacceptable

person

An acceptable person One described as an

individual

The interest of a man A

86 Quid pro quo Something for

something

Whatever is fixed to

the soil

When the law gives

someone anything

There shall be nothing

contrary to law

A

87 Ad Litem On a suit or action At length Disgusting Agreeing in the

essential point

A

88 Corpus delicti The body of facts

which constitute an

offence

The thing possessed One may waive a legal

right

before his peers A

89 Custodia Legis In the custody of the

law

With a grain of salt With the will annexed One confessing

willingly should be

dealt with leniently

A

90 Ejusdem Generis Of the same kind He is not in any fault,

who is bound to obey

He who has the

dominion or

advantage has the risk

Unmarried A

91 Ibid In the same place Disabled Children Heir appointed by will A

92 Ipse dixit Mere or bare

assertion

By the very fact By the law To go at large A

93 Femur : ? Thigh Bone Tibia Skull Bone Chest Bone A

94 Where is the hyoid bone situated in

the human body?

Neck Chest Head Lower limb A

95 Asphyxia is a condition of : deficient supply of

oxygen to the body

deficient supply of

blood to a part of the

body

injury to a vital organ none of these A

96 Fibula is a/an: leg bone rib bone upper limb bone none of these A

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97 Laceration is __________ the tearing or splitting

of the skin

the extravascular

collection

the breach of

continuity of bone

none of these A

98 An idol of Lord Krishna in a temple is: a natural person a legal person not a person in the

eye of law because

only the priest of the

temple will be a

person

not a person because

no personality can be

conferred on God

B

99 Ownership is “a right indefinite in point

of user unrestricted in point of

disposition-and unlimited in point of

duration over a determinate thing”.

This definition of ownership has been

given by :

Salmond Allen Paton Austin D

100 It has been said that the doctrine of

‘precedent’ is of antiquity while the

doctrine of ‘stare decisis’ is relatively

modern.

The emergence of the doctrine of

‘stare decisis’ was related to :

settled judicial

hierarchy of courts

and law reports

settled role of judges

with regard to

interpretation of law

the emergence of the

concept of

sovereignty of

parliament

growing authority and

prestige of a few

judges like Lord Coke,

whose decisions

carried a lot of weight

A

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General Knowledge Awareness]

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1 Dichotomy (Identify meaning of the

given words)

Complete rule Separatist tendencies Methodological Harmonix B

2 Avid (Give synonym) Stingy Rapid Eager Bitter C

3 Rustic (Give synonym) Charming Rusted Unrefined Easy going C

4 Abstain (Give synonym) Refrain Ingest Take in Consume A

5 Camouflage (Give synonym) Aggressive Deception Vigilant Honour B

6 Ambiguous (Give antonym) Auxiliary Responsible Salvageable Clear D

7 Rigid (Give antonym) Merciful Generous Flexible Intolerant C

8 Ancient (Give antonym) Repulsion Modern Disappear Departure B

9 Amicable (Give antonym) Hostile Friendly Haughly Pleasant A

10 The fire fighter saved the baby from

the burning building in the nick of

time. (Find the appropriate meaning

for the underlined part of the

sentence.)

at the earliest at the right time at the last possible

moment

at dusk C

11 I told Jessica my biggest secret, she

then spilled the beans to the whole

class. (Find the appropriate meaning

for the underlined part of the

sentence.)

to celebrate to reveal to conceal to enquire B

12 We had a whale of a time at the party.

(Find the appropriate meaning for the

underlined part of the sentence.)

a song a song and dance

sequence

a secret conversation enjoyed ourselves

very much

D



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13 His association with bad companions

got him into hot water. (Find the

appropriate meaning for the

underlined part of the sentence.)

in prison in worries in debts in trouble D

14 The police quickly _____________ her

disguise and arrested her.

saw across saw through saw away saw behind B

15 She has _______________ a career in

photojournalism.

carved in carved along carved through carved out D

16 The roof _________ because of the

weight of the snow.

caved out caved after caved in caved on C

17 It took them six months to _________

the house before they could actually

move in.

do in do up do along do ahead B

18 Choose the word which is spelt

correctly

recoment reccomend recommend reccomment C


correctly

Burial Buriral Burrial Bural A

20 The worship of idols or images (Give

one word)

Atheism Theism Idolatry Iconoclasm C

21 A remedy for all diseases (Give one

word)

Amnesia Panacea Intelligentsia Parasol B

22 A body of persons appointed to hear

evidence and give their verdict in trials.

(Give one word)

Association Council Bar Jury D

23 A person who doubts the truth of a

doctrine or theory is called :

Septic Sceptic Spectre Spectator B

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24 A person who breaks into a house in

order to steal (Give one word)

Poacher Bandit Intruder Burglar D


correctly

Occurence Occassion Occupancy Octogenarean C


correctly

Mischeivours Miscariage Misdemeanour Misnomar C


correctly

Capracious Auspicious Fallicious Dalicious B


correctly

Existence Entreprenure Dapandence Persistance A

29 All students of the college are

__________ members of the college

union.

facsimile sine die ipso facto suo moto D

30 The college has no open air auditorium

and _________ arrangements are

made when need arises.

ad vivum ad valorem ad patres ad hoc D

31 The legislature was adjourned sine

_______.

qua die non sans B

32 As our earlier plans have ended up in a

fiasco, we have decided to begin

__________.

de jure de lends de facto de novo D

33 Head I win, tail you lose (Find out the

correct meaning of the idiomatic

phrase)

to gain an advantage to toss the coin win, in any case,

always, somehow

to be always at the

tail end of things

C

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34 To be a thorn in one’s side (Find out

the correct meaning of the idiomatic

phrase)

to be incentive to

action

to wear a crown of

thorns

to tear to pieces to be constant source

of annoyance

D

35 To stand one’s ground (Find out the

correct meaning of the idiomatic

phrase)

to resist, not yield to stand steadily to stand on one’s own

feet

to stand on one’s own

soil

A

36 Where is the famous Notre-Dame

Cathedral situated?

Paris Berlin Rome London A

37 The Government of India recently

introduced _________% reservation

for EWS.

10 20 15 5 A

38 The book “281 and Beyond” is the

autobiography of :

Kapil Dev Sourav Ganguly Sachin Tendulkar VVS Laxman D

39 In which state the festival of Bihu is

celebrated?

Assam Rajasthan Manipur West Bengal A

40 The foundation day of which state is

known as “Utkal Divas”?

Assam Rajasthan Odisha Maharashtra C

41 Which Indian Short film won 2019

Oscar Award in the category “Best

Short Documentary”?

Jai Mata Di Period. End of

Sentence

Half Ticket 2 Juice B

42 What was the theme of the World

Earth Day-2019?

Environmental and

Climate Literacy

Protect our species End Plastic Pollution Trees for the Earth B

43 Which Country has elected an actor

who played the role of the President of

the Country in a TV Show, as its

President?

Ukraine Yugoslavia Armenia Uzbekistan A

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44 By what name is India’s Anti Satellite

Missile Test known?

Mission Shakti Mission Veerta Mission Ekta Mission Akash A

45 Which UN Agency has listed the 1984

Bhopal gas tragedy among World’s

major industrial accidents of the 20th

Century?

ILO WHO FAO ITU A

46 Ramakant Achrekar who passed away

recently, was associated with:

Cricket Theatre Cinema Literature A

47 Who from the following Indian

mountaineers has become the World’s

first female amputee to climb Mount

Vinson, the highest peak of Antarctica?

Arunima Sinha Malavath Purna Shivangi Pathak Sangeeta Bahl A

48 Who is the Chairperson of the National

Green Tribunal (NGT)?

Justice Umesh

Dattatreya Salvi

Justice Adarshkumar

Goel

Justice Swatanter

Kumar

Justice Ranjan Gogoi B

49 An activist for female education and

the youngest Nobel Prize laureate,

Malala Yousafzai, originally belongs to

which Country?

Afghanistan Pakistan Iran Iraq B

50 Which Indian personality has been

honoured with Croatia’s highest

Civilian award – The Grand Order of

The King of Tomislav?

Narendra Modi Ramnath Kovind Sushma Swaraj Arun Jaitely B

51 Kandhamal Haldi, which recently got

geographical indication (GI) tag, is

produced in which of the following

states?

Odisha West bengal Jharkhand Assam A

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52 Which two banks of India recently had

a merger with Bank of Baroda?

Dena Bank and Vijaya

Bank

Dena Bank and Canara

Bank

Vijaya bank and Bank

of Maharashtra

Bank of Maharashtra

and Indian Bank

A

53 From which constituency did former

Indian Cricketer Gautam Gambhir

contest the latest Lok Sabha election?

East Delhi New delhi North Delhi Chandni Chowk A

54 Who among the following is part of the

Mediation Committee appointed by

the Hon’ble Apex Court for resolution

of the Ram Janmabhoomi-Babri Masjid

dispute?

Sriram Panchu Prashant Bhushan Aryama Sundaram Rajeev Dhavan A

55 What was the date when the Indian

War planes struck on the town in

Khyber Pakhtunkhwa, Pakistan?

14th

February 2019 26th

February 2019 28th

February 2019 15th

February 2019 B

56 Which of the following telescopes has

captured the first ever Black hole

image?

James Weff Space Hubble Event Horizon

Telescope

Spitzer space C

57 Who is the first Indian wicket keeper to

have taken 20 catches in a test series?

Rishabh Pant Nayan Mongia Dinesh Kartik M.S.Dhoni A

58 Mankading, sometimes seen in the

news, is associated with which of the

following sports?

Basketball Cricket Football Hockey B

59 Who ruled Goa before it was liberated

by India on 19th

December, 1961?

British Portuguese Mughals None of these B

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60 The only Muslim Woman to sit on the

throne of Delhi was:

Noor Jahan Razia Sultana Mumtaj Mahal Hamida banu Begum B

61 Who alongwith Ramprasad Bismil,

executed the famous Kakori train

robbery?

Ashfaqulla Khan V.D. Savarkar Bhagat Singh Madanlal Dhingra A

62 Dr.Annie Besant was of _______ origin. Irish English American German A

63 Who is the only Indian to have

received Bharat Ratna and Nishan-e-

Pakistan?

Khan Abdul Gaffar

Khan

Morarji Desai Jawaharlal Nehru Atal Bihari Vajpayee B

64 Asia’s largest Tulip garden is situated in

which city?

Srinagar Jammu Simla Dehradun A

65 Which of the following was the first

Indian product to have got protected

Geographical Indicator?

Indian rubber Basmati rice Malabar coffee Darjeeling tea D

66 Rama Setu is located in which among

the following straits?

Bering Strait Palk Strait Cook Strait Strait of Tebrau B

67 The Sabarmati river originates in which

among the following ranges?

The Satpuras The Vindhyas The Aravallies The Western Ghats C

68 For what Gujarat’s Pipavav is best

known?

India’s first Private

Port

India’s first Greenfield

Refinery

India’s first Ship

Breaking Yard

None of these A

69 In which year was the first Indian

Satellite Aryabhatta launched?

1974 1975 1976 1977 B

70 Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC) is

at :

Ahmedabad Mumbai Hyderabad Thiruvananthapuram D

71 In context with the connective tissues,

which among the following connects

bones to bones?

Ligament Tendons Reticular fibers Raphe A

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72 Which organ of the human body

produces fluid known as bile?

Liver Pancreas Gall bladder Kidney A

73 How many bones are there in an adult

human skeleton?

204 206 208 214 B

74 Which of the following is the heaviest

metal?

Silver Gold Mercury Platinum D

75 Who was the first Indian in the space? Ravish Malhotra Rakesh Sharma Kalpana Chawla Suneeta Williams B

76 Which of the following is not a planet

of the Solar system?

Mercury Florida Venus Saturn B

77 Who was the first Indian sports person

to boycott the olympic torch relay in

support of the Tibetan independence

movement?

Bhaichung Bhutia Dhanraj Pillai Chandu Borde Dibyendu Barua A

78 Magnus Carlsen is the player of which

among the following sports/games?

Cricket Carrom Chess Tennis C

79 Which of the following games were

previously known as British Empire

Games?

East Asian Games South East Asian

Games

Olympic Games Commonwealth

Games

D

80 Which among the following is

considered to be the National Sport of

USA?

Bowling Base Ball Table Tennis Tennis B

81 Which Indian Cricketer was given the

nickname “Colonel”?

Sunil Gavaskar Gundappa

Vishwanath

Dilip Vengsarkar Sandip Patil C

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82 In a row, A is in the 11th

position from

the left and B is in the 10th

position

from the right. If A and B interchange,

then A becomes 18th

from the left.

How many persons are there in the

row other than A and B?

27 26 25 24 C

83 Poles : Magnet :: ______ : Battery Energy Power Terminals Cells C

84 Six members of a family A,B,C,D,E and

F are travelling together. B is the son of

C but C is not the mother of B. A and C

are married couple. E is the brother of

C. D is the daughter of A. F is the

brother of B. How many male member

are there in the family?

4 3 2 1 A

85 Find the odd one out: Debit Deposit Deduction Withdrawal B

86 If ROBUST is coded as QNATRS in a

certain language, which word would be

coded as ZXCMP?

AWDLQ AYDNQ BZEOR YYBNO B

87 The average temperature for

Wednesday, Thursday and Friday was

400C. The average for Thursday, Friday

and Saturday was 410C. If temperature

on Saturday was 420C, what was the

temperature on Wednesday?

390 C 44

0C 38

0C 41

0C A

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88 The ratio between the length and the

breadth of a rectangular park is 3:2. If a

man cycling along the boundary of the

park at the speed of 12km/hour

completes one round in 8 minutes,

then the area of park (in sq.m.) is:

15360 153600 30720 307200 B

89 If a quarter kg. of potato costs 60 paise,

how much will 200gm of it cost?

48 paise 54 paise 56 paise 72 paise A

90 If one third of one fourth of a number

is 15, then three tenth of that number

is:

35 36 45 54 D

91 In an examination, 80% candidates

passed in English and 85% passed in

Mathematics. If 73% candidates passed

in both these subjects, then what

percent of candidates failed in both the

subjects?

8 15 27 35 A

92 Find the inappropriate number in the

following series:

8, 27, 100, 125, 216, 343

27 100 125 343 B

93 The main page of the website is known

as:

Home Page Book Mark Page Content Page Navigation Page A

94 What is the full form of PDF? Printed Document

Format

Public Document File Portable Document

Format

Published Document

File

C

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95 MS-Office’s personal information

manager is:

Outlook Internet Explorer Organizer Access A

96 A hyperlink means: text connected to

page

plain text coloured text none of these A

97 In computers, firewall is used for: Security Data transmission Authentication Monitoring A

98 1 MB = ___________ 1024 Bytes 1024 KB 1024 GB 1024 Bits B

99 In Ms-Word, which function key is used

to check spellings ?

F2 F5 F7 F11 C

100 In Ms-Word, by pressing which key, we

can move to the beginning of a line?

Windows key Shift key Tab key Home key D

Since, the High Court has not received any objection within the prescribed time i.e. 21/06/2019,

the Provisional Answers uploaded on 18/06/2019 are treated as the Final Answers.Date : 27/06/2019 NOTE :

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