TEST - I: REASONING

Directions (Qs. 1 to 5) : In each of the questions below are given some statements followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given

statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of

the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer

(1) If only conclusion I follows. (2) If only conclusion II follows.

(3) If either conclusion I or II follows. (4) If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

(5) If both conclusions I and II follow.

1. Statements: Some circle are square No square are rectangle All rectangle are triangle

Conclusions : I. Some circle are rectangle II. No square is triangle

2. Statements : All row are column No row is cross All cross are puzzle

Conclusions : I. No row is puzzle II. Some column are cross is a possibility.

3. Statements : All north are east All east are west No east is south

Conclusions : I. No north is south II. Some west are not south

4. Statements : Some three are one Some one are two No one is four

Conclusions : I. some three are two II. No three are two

5. Statements : Some crome are mozilla No mozilla are safari Some safari are opera

Conclusions : I. Some crome are safari is a possibility II. No opera is mozilla.

Directions (Qs. 6 to 10) : Study the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow—

In a certain language, ‘proper practice gives base’ is coded as ‘pu do la po’, ‘proper class result is excellent’ is coded as ‘mo mu lu ha

po’, ‘revision gives result’ is coded as ‘ha du la’ and ‘class practice before exam’ is coded as ‘ma mu hu do’. 6. What can be the code for ‘exam need proper base’?

(1) ma do po ko (2) hu pu po lu (3) pu po ma ki (4) du mo pu po (5) po hu do ko

7. What is the code for ‘revision’?

(1) la (2) ha (3) du (4) Either ha or du (5) Either la or ha

8. Codes ‘mu do’ stand for ____________.

(1) practice class (2) base class (3) revision base (4) practice base (5) practice revision

9. What can be the code for ‘final class practice’?

(1) fu do la (2) mu fa do (3) mu fu lu (4) do hu mu (5) None of these

10. For how many words codes cannot be determined?

(1) four (2) five (3) six (4) seven (5) three

Directions (Qs. 11 to 15) : Study the following information carefully and answer the question given below-

Eight people viz. A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H live in a building on eight different floors. The ground floor is numbered 1, the floor just

above it is numbered 2 and so on till top floor which is numbered as 8 (but not necessarily in the same order).

Three persons live between C and G. A lives on an even numbered floor. E lives on floor number 4. H lives immediately below G. Two

persons live between A and D. B and F do not live on an even numbered floor. B does not live below F.

11. Who among the following lives on ground floor?

(1) A (2) B (3) F (4) G (5) None of these

12. Who among the following lives on top floor?

(1) G (2) C (3) D (4) A (5) None of these

13. How many persons live between A and G?

(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (5) None of these

14. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Who among the following does not belong to that

group?

(1) B (2) C (3) E (4) G (5) A

15. Who among the following lives immediately above G?

(1) A (2) B (3) E (4) F (5) None of these

Directions (Qs. 16 to 20) : Study the information and answer the following questions:

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Eight persons P, Q, R, S, T, U, V and W are sitting around a circle facing outside the centre (not necessarily in the same order). V sits

opposite to W. P is an immediate neighbor of V. Q is an immediate neighbor of W. S sits third to the right of Q. U sits opposite to T. S is not an

immediate neighbor of T.

16. Who among the following sit third to the left of V?

(1)T (2)U (3)Q (4)R (5)None of these

17. How many persons sit between P and Q?

(1)One (2)Two (3)Three (4)Four (5) Can’t be determined

18. Who sits opposite to S?

(1)R (2)Q (3)P (4)T (5)None of these

19. Who among the following sits second to the left of the one who is fifth to the right of U?

(1)T (2)R (3)W (4)P (5)None of these

20. Who sits to the immediate right of R?

(1)T (2)W (3)V (4)Q (5)None of these

21. Find the odd one out?

(1) TQR (2) TPQ (3) NJK (4) EAB (5) JFG

22. Rohan starts walking from his home in North direction for 10m. He then turns to his right and walks for 18m, then he walks for 5m

after turning right and reach his office. His office is in which direction with respect to his home?

(1) North-east (2) South-west (3) North (4) North-west (5) South-east

23. In a row of 30 students Ramesh is 22nd from the left end Mahesh is 3rd to the left of Ramesh. All of them are facing North Find

position of Mahesh from the right end?

(1) 10th (2) 13th (3) 11th (4) 12th (5) None of these

24. If in the number 8639726501, positions of the first and the second digits are interchanged, positions of the third and fourth digits are

interchanged and so on till the positions of 9th and 10th digits are interchanged, then which digit will be 6th from the left end?

(1) 7 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 9 (5) None of these

25. How many pairs of letters are there in the word” EARPHONE” which have as many letters between them in the word as in

alphabetical series?

(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) Four

Directions (Qs. 26 to 30) : Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions.

Seven classes are scheduled to be held in a week, there is only one lecture on each of the seven days of the week, starting from

Monday and ending on Sunday.

Chemistry class is either on Wednesday or on Saturday. Three classes are schedule to be held between Chemistry and English. Two

classes are scheduled to be held between English and Computer. Class on Physics is scheduled on the day which is immediately next to the day

when class on Biology is scheduled. Class on Psychology is scheduled to be held after Mathematics. Class on Psychology is not scheduled for

Saturday or Sunday.

26. Which of the following classes is scheduled for Thursday?

(1) Mathematics (2) English (3) Physics (4) Biology (5) Computers

27. Which of the following combinations of day- class is correct?

(1) Saturday-Physics (2) Monday-Biology (3) Tuesday-English (4) Thursday-English

(5) Sunday-Computers

28. How many classes are scheduled between Chemistry and Physics?

(1) None (2) One (3) Two (4) Three (5) Five

29. If Chemistry is related to Biology and Psychology is related is related to Computers in a certain way based upon the given lecture

schedule, them Biology will be related to which of the following based upon the same relationship?

(1) English (2) Mathematics (3) Physics (4) Chemistry (5) None of these

30. On which of the following day is the class on Psychology scheduled?

(1) Friday (2) Monday (3) Tuesday (4) Thursday (5) None of these

Directions (Qs. 31 to 35) : In each of the question, relationships between some elements are shown in the statements. These statements are

followed by conclusions numbered I and II. Read the statements and give the answer.

(1)If only conclusion I follows. (2)If only conclusion II follows.

(3)If either conclusion I or II follows. (4)If neither conclusion I nor II follows.

(5)If both conclusions I and II follow.

31. Statements : P > T ≤ O ≤ R = S > V > L Conclusions : I. L < R II. T > V

32. Statements : A ≤ B ≤ C = D ≤ E ≥ F > G Conclusions : I. E > A II. A = E

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33. Statements : H ≥ I = T > B ≥ C > E < O Conclusions : I. O > I II. H > E

34. Statements : M = O ≥ P ≤ E ≤ D = R < S Conclusions : I. E ≤ M II. R ≤ O

35. Statements : W < Y > X ≥ Z ≥ V = U ≥ T Conclusions : I. U < Y II. T ≤ X

Directions (Qs. 36 to 40) : Study the following number sequence and answer the given questions.

9 8 7 6 5 4 6 7 8 2 1 3 4 6 8 5 5 7 3 2 1 2 3 4 5 9 8 7 6 5

36. How many odd number/s are there in the numeric series which is/are immediately followed by a number, which is a perfect square?

(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) More than three

(5) None of these

37. If all the even numbers are dropped from the series, which number will be eight to the left of the one which is fifth from the right

end?

(1) 1 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 7 (5) None of these

38. If all the even numbers are increased by one and all the odd numbers are decreased by one in the above numeric series, then

according to new arrangement which number will be 14th to the right of the one which is 22nd from the right end?

(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 (5) 4

39. How many even number/s are there in the given series which is/are immediately preceded by an odd number and immediately

followed by an even number?

(1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) More than three

(5) None of these

40. How many odd number/s are there in the given series which is/are immediately preceded by a ‘perfect cube’?

(1) Four (2) Five (3) Two (4) Three (5) None of these

TEST – II: NUMERICAL ABILITY Directions (Qs. 41 to 45) : What will come in the place of question (?) mark:

41. 43% of 500 + 250% of 60 = ? + 150% of 80

(1) 145 (2) 425 (3) 245 (4) 345 (5) 225

42.

(1) 14 (2) 12 (3) 16 (4) 18 (5) 10

43. 341.35 + 639.65 + 456.80 = ? + 746.80

(1) 491 (2) 591 (3) 961 (4) 691 (5) 791

44.

(1) 12,068 (2) 14,068 (3) 16,064 (4) 14,680 (5) 16,068

45.

(1) 60 (2) 46 (3) 64 (4) 72 (5) 54

46. Ratio between length of trains A and B is 3 : 5. Speed of train A is 72 km/h and that of train B is 54 km/h & they are running opposite

to each other. If train A crosses train B in 16 seconds then find length of train B.

(1)350 m (2)250 m (3)450 m (4)150 m (5)320 m

47. Ramesh and Ramu enter into a partnership with their initial sum Rs. 36000 and Rs. 48000 respectively. After 6 months, a third person

Keshav also joins them with his initial sum Rs. 24000. After a year if total profit is Rs. 6400 then find the profit share of Ramu.

(1)Rs. 3000 (2)Rs. 2300 (3)Rs. 3200 (4)Rs. 2800 (5)Rs. 3600

48. The sum of present age of P and Q is 54 years. After 4 years, ratio of their ages will be 2 : 3. Find the present age of P.

(1)25.2 years (2)24.6 years (3)21.8 years (4)20.8 years (5)22.6 years

49. In how many different ways the letters of the word ‘GAGUAR’ can be arranged?

(1)220 (2)180 (3)60 (4)120 (5)160

50. A dice is thrown up find the probability of getting an odd no. on the upper face.

(1)3/4 (2)2/3 (3)1/2 (4)5/6 (5)1/3

Directions (Qs. 51 to 55) : What will come in place of (?) in the following number series?

51. 3, 4, 10, 33, ?, 685

(1) 140 (2) 136 (3) 154 (4) 156 (5) 144

52. 8, 4, 6, 15, ? , 236.25

(1) 46.5 (2) 48.5 (3) 50.5 (4) 52.5 (5) 54.5

53. 13, 31, 52, 79, 115, ?

(1) 163 (2) 153 (3) 160 (4) 167 (5) 175

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54. 119, 167, 287, 359, ?, 839

(1) 523 (2) 627 (3) 623 (4) 527 (5) 529

55. 4, 7, 13, 25, 49, ?

(1) 79 (2) 97 (3) 93 (4) 89 (5) 127

Directions (Qs. 56 to 60) : Study the following line graph carefully and answer the following questions.

The line graph shows the no. of questions asked from different topics of quantitative aptitude in two shifts of SBI clerk prelims exam.

56. No. of questions asked in shift 1 from SI & CI is what percent of no. of questions asked from time and work in the same shift?

(1)60% (2)50% (3)55% (4)64% (5)75%

57. Find the average no. of questions asked from all the given sections in shift 2.

(1)46 (2)64 (3)48 (4)68 (5)74

58. What is the ratio of no. of questions asked from profit & loss and percentage together in shift 1 to the questions asked from profit &

loss and time & work together in shift-2?

(1)6 : 5 (2)5 : 7 (3)7 : 5 (4)5 : 6 (5)8 : 7

59. What is the difference between total no. of questions asked in both shifts from all the given sections together?

(1)45 (2)40 (3)35 (4)30 (5)60

60. Total no. of questions asked from DI in shift 2 are what percent less than that of DI in shift 1?

(1)5 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 8% (5) 3

Directions (Qs. 61 to 65) : Simplify the following problems.

61.

(1)88 (2)81 (3)84 (4)78 (5)72

62.

(1)24 (2)12 (3)8 (4)16 (5)416

63. 343 + 243 + 512 = 20% of ?

(1)4590 (2)5490 (3)6490 (4)6140 (5)5290

64.

(1)0 (2)1 (3)2 (4)3 (5)4

65.

(1)86 (2)68 (3)74 (4)72 (5)64

66. The average age of Megha and Ritu is 18 years. Six years hence, Megha’s age will be two times of Ritu’s age. Find present age of

Megha.

(1) 24 years (2) 26 years (3) 10 years (4) 32 years (5) 18 years

67. Compound interest and simple interest on a certain sum for two years are Rs. 1100 and Rs. 1000 respectively. If rate of interest for

both S.I. and C.I is 20% p.a., then find the sum.

(1) Rs. 2500 (2) Rs. 2000 (3) Rs.3000 (4) Rs. 1800 (5) Rs. 2200

68. If average of five consecutive odd numbers is 33, then the least odd number is:

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(1) 27 (2) 31 (3) 29 (4) 23 (5) 33

69. Ramesh invests certain sum into two schemes A & B in the ratio of 2 : 3 for 3 years. Scheme A and B offered S.I. at the rate of 10% and

8% per annum respectively. If total S.I. obtained from both schemes after 3 years was Rs. 3300, then find amount invested by Ramesh

in scheme A was?

(1) Rs. 5000 (2) Rs. 6000 (3) Rs. 7500 (4) Rs. 8000 (5) Rs. 2500

70. Rahul got 76 marks in physics out of 100, 88 in Math out of 100, 96 in chemistry out of 120 and 114 in Geography out of 120. Find his

overall percentage marks in all the four subjects?

(1) 76% (2) 85% (3) 75% (4) 69% (5) 89%

Directions (Qs. 71 to 75) : In each of these questions, two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give

answer.

(1) If x > y (2) If x y (3) If x < y (4) If x y

(5) If x = y or relationship between x and y cannot be established.

71. I. 676 - 1 = 0 II. y =

72. I. 2 + 5x - 33 = 0 II. - y – 6 = 0

73. I. + 12x + 36 = 0 II. + 15y + 56 = 0

74. I. 2 - 3x – 35 = 0 II. - 7y + 6 = 0

75. I. 12 - 47x + 40 = 0 II. 4 + 3y – 10 = 0

Directions (Qs. 76 to 80) : What value should come in place of question mark (?) in the following equations?

76. 12% of 885 = ? 6

(1) 1248.4 (2) 1292.2 (3) 1312.6 (4) 1357.2 (5) None of these

77.

(1) 312 (2) 264 (3) 248 (4) 196 (5) None of these

78. 5.35 + 4.43 + 0.45 + 45.34 + 534 = ?

(1) 597.27 (2) 589.57 (3) 596.87 (4) 596.67 (5) None of these

79. 3251 + 587 + 369 - ? = 3007

(1) 1250 (2) 1300 (3) 1375 (4) 1400 (5) None of these

80. 0.08% of 55500 – 16.4 = ?

(1) 26.6 (2) 28 (3) 29.2 (4) 30.4 (5) 32

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ANSWER KEY

HINTS & SOLUTIONS

1. (4) For I – Since, there is no direct relation between elements circle and

rectangle. Hence, Conclusion I cannot be concluded. For II – Since, there is no direct relation between elements square

and triangle . Hence, Conclusion II cannot be concluded.

2. (2) For I – Since, there is no direct relation between elements row and

puzzle . Hence, Conclusion I cannot be concluded. For II – Since, there is no direct relation between elements column

and cross. So, possibility case will hold true. Hence, Conclusion II can be concluded.

3. (5)

For I – Since All north are east and No east are South. Therefore, No north is South. Hence, Conclusion I is true.

For II – From venn diagram it is clear that some west are not south. Hence, Conclusion II will hold true.

4. (3) For I – Since, there is no direct relation between elements Three and

two. Hence, Conclusion I cannot be concluded. For II – Since, there is no direct relation between elements three and

two. Hence, Conclusion II cannot be concluded. Since the elements are same and some and no case is mentioned.

Therefore, either and or will be concluded.

5. (1) For I – Since, there is no direct relation between elements crome and

safari. So, possibility case will hold true. Hence, Conclusion I can be concluded.

For II – Since, there is no direct relation between elements opera and mozilla. Hence, Conclusion II cannot be concluded.

6-10. 6. (3) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (1) 11-15. E lives on floor number 4. A live on an even numbered

floor. Two persons live between A and D

Three persons live between C and G. H lives immediately below G. B

and F does not live on an even numbered floor. This will eliminate Case 2 and Case 3 as two odd floors for B and F will not be left. B does not live below F. So the final arrangement will be

11. (5) 12. (4)

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13. (5) 14. (1) 15. (4) 16-20. V sits opposite to W. Q is an immediate neighbor of W. S

sits third to the right of Q. P is an immediate neighbor of V. We get two possibilities

U sits opposite to T. This will eliminate Case 2. S is not an immediate

neighbor of T. So the final arrangement will be:

16. (2) 17. (3) 18. (1) 19. (5) 20. (4) 21. (1)

22. (1)

23. (4)

24. (1) Series after performing operations is shown above. 6th element

from left end is 7.

25. (5)

26-30. 26. (5) 27. (1)

28. (3) 29. (1) 30. (3) 31. (1) I. L < R (True) II. T > V (False) 32. (3) I. E > A (False) II. A = E (False) 33. (2) I. O > I (False) II. H > E (True)

34. (4) I. E M (False) II. R O (False)

35. (5) I. U < Y (True) II. T X (True) 36. (4) 5 4, 3 4, 5 9, 3 4 37. (4) 7 38. (3) 2 39. (3) Three - 5 4 6, 7 8 2, 3 4 6 40. (1) Four- 8 7, 1 3, 8 5, 8 7

41. (3)

42. (2) 43. (4) ? = 1437.8 – 746.8 = 691

44. (2) 45. (3) ? = 11 + 29 + 36 – 12 = 64

46. (1)

47. (3)

48. (4)

49. (2)

50. (3)

51. (2)

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52. (4)

53.(1)

54. (4)

55. (2)

56.(1)

57. (2)

58. (3)

59. (4)

60. (2)

61. (3)

62. (4)

63. (2)

64. (1)

65. (2)

66. (2)

67. (1)

68. (3)

69. (1) 70. (2) Total marks obtained by Rahul in all the four subjects

= 76 + 88 + 96 + 114 = 374

71. (3)

72. (5)

73. (1)

74. (5)

75. (2)

76. (5) 77. (2) ?2 = 69696 ? = 264 78. (2) 589.57 79. (5) ? = 4207 – 3007 ? = 1200 80. (2) 44.4-16.4=28

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Prepared byRACE Institute Hyderabad.