(i) All questions arecompulsory.
(ii) The question paper has four sections: Section A, Section B, Section C and Section D. There
are 33 questions in the questionpaper.
(iii) Section–A has 14 questions of 1 mark each and 02 case-based questions. Section–B has 9
questions of 2 marks each. Section–C has 5 questions of 3 marks each and Section–D has 3
questions of 5 markseach.
(iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some
questions. A student has to attempt only one of the alternatives in suchquestions.
(v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labeled diagrams should bedrawn.
SECTION A
Questions Marks
1. The male fruit fly and female fowl are heterogametic while the female fruit fly
and the male fowl are homogametic. Why are they called so?
1
3. Name the Antibody used in allergic response.
1
6. Draw a neat labeled diagram of nucleosome. 1
7. How Taq polymerase is different from other human DNA polymerase.
1
8. Name the first molecular scissor isolated. 1
9. If you squeeze the seed of orange you might observe many embryos of different
sizes. How it is possible. Explain. 1
10. List the two disadvantages of insulin obtained from the pancreas of slaughtered
cows and pigs.
Page 2of 9
11. Assertion: If pollen mother cells has 42 chromosomes, the pollen has only 21
chromosomes
Reason: Pollens are formed after meiosis in pollen mother cell.
a. Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation
ofassertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct
explanation ofassertion.
d. Both assertion and reason arefalse.
OR
Assertion: During fertilization only head of spermatozoa enters egg.
Reason: If several spermatozoa hit the egg at same time, all can enter the egg
a. Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct
explanation of theassertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct
explanation of theassertion.
d. Both assertion and reason arefalse
1
12. Assertion: Introduction of sex education in schools increased medical asistance.
Reason: Encouraging myths and misconceptions
a. Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct
explanation of theassertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct
explanation of theassertion.
d. Both assertion and reason arefalse
1
13. Assertion: The genetic constituent of an organism is called genotype.
Reason: Genotype is the type of hereditary properties of an organism.
a. Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct
explanation of theassertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not thecorrect
explanation of theassertion.
d. Both assertion and reason arefalse
1
14. Assertion: Replication and transcription occur in the nucleus but translation in the
cytoplasm.
Reason: m-RNA is transferred from the nucleus into the cytoplasm where ribosomes
and amino acids are available for protein synthesis.
a. Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct
explanation of theassertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct
explanation of theassertion.
d. Both assertion and reason arefalse
1
15. Read the following and answer any four questions from 15(i) to 15(v)
givenbelow:
Agrobacterium tumifaciens, a pathogen of several dicot plants is able to deliver a
piece of DNA known as ‘T-DNA’ to transform normal plant cells into a tumor and
direct these tumor cells to produce the chemicals required by the pathogen.
Similarly, retroviruses in animals have the ability to transform normal cells into
cancerous cells. A better understanding of the art of delivering genes by pathogens
in their eukaryotic hosts has generated knowledge to transform these tools of
pathogens into useful vectors for delivering genes of interest to humans. The
tumor inducing (Ti) plasmid of Agrobacterium tumifaciens has now been
modified into a cloning vector which is no more pathogenic to the plants but is
still able to use the mechanisms to deliver genes of our interest into a variety of
plants. Similarly, retroviruses have also been disarmed and are now used to
deliver desirable genes into animal cells. So, once a gene or a DNA fragment has
been ligated into a suitable vector it is transferred into a bacterial, plant or animal
host (where it multiplies)..
a. Bacteria
b. BaculoVirus
c. Yeast
d. Protozoa
b. Reverse type viruses
iv. Tumor cells are
d. Present in all plants
v. Assertion: Very small animals are rarely found in polar regions
Reason: Relative to their volume, small animals have large surface area. They
tend to lose energy very fast when in cold outside.
a. Both assertion and reason are true, and the reason is the correct explanation of
theassertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason is not the correct explanation
of theassertion.
d. Both assertion and reason arefalse
16. Read the following and answer any four questions from 16(i) to 16(v)
givenbelow:
- For plants, herbivores are the predators. Nearly 25 per cent of all insects are
known to be phytophagous (feeding on plant sap and other parts of plants).
The problem is particularly severe for plants because, unlike animals, they
cannot run away from their predators. Plants therefore have evolved an
astonishing variety of morphological and chemical defences against
herbivores. Thorns (Acacia, Cactus) are the most common morphological
means of defence. Many plants produce and store chemicals that make the
herbivore sick when they are eaten, inhibit feeding or digestion, disrupt its
reproduction or even kill it. You must have seen the weed Calotropis growing
in abandoned fields. The plant produces highly poisonous cardiac glycosides
and that is why you never see any cattle or goats browsing on this plant. A
wide variety of chemical substances that we extract from plants on a
commercial scale (nicotine, caffeine, quinine, strychnine, opium, etc.,) are
produced by them actually as defences against grazers and browsers.
4
a. Physical means of defence
b. Physiological means of defence
c. Behavioral means of defence
d. morphological means of defence
ii. Calotropis have mechanism of defence because of
a. Thorns
c. feeding on Cactus
d. feeding on plant like calotropis
iv. Defence mechanisms are evolved in plants or animals to protect themselves
against
a. herbivore sick when they are eaten
b. inhibit feeding
SECTION – B
17. A man with blood group O and his wife with blood group AB claim a child with
blood group AB as their son. With as Punnet square justify their statement.
2
18. Name the organism from which Cyclosporin A is obtained and write the
importance of this bioactive molecule.
2
19. Name the organic materials, the exine and intine of a pollen grain are made up of.
Explain the role of exine.
2
20. What were the two major approaches used to sequence human genes in Human
Genome Project?
OR
Draw a schematic diagram of the part of double strand dinucleotide DNA chain having all the four nitrogen bases and showing the correct polarity.
2
21. In black peeper remnants of nucellus are persistent. Name the term used for
persistentnucellus .Give one more example of such type of seed.
2
22. What is contact inhibition ? How is malignant tumors are different from benign
tumors?
OR
What is sewage treatment ? Differentiate between primary and secondary sludge
2
23. Explain how advanced ex-situ conservation techniques assist in preserving
threatened species of plants and animals.
2
24. According to HGP, almost 99.9 % nucleotides bases are exactly the same in all
humans .answers the following questions on the basis of this information:-
a) Do you think that the discrimination of the people on the basis of colour, caste,
creed and religion is correct? Why?
b) What percentage of human genome codes for proteins.
2
25. A Homozygous Tall pea plants with green seeds are crossed with dwarf pea plants
with yellow seeds.
What would be the phenotype and genotype of F1 generation?
Workout the phenotypic ratio of F2 generation
2
26. Angiosperms flowers may be monoecious, cleistogamous and self-incompatible.
Describe the characteristics features of each one of them and state which one of
these flowers promote outbreeding and inbreeding respectively.
3
Cuckoo lay her eggs in the nest of a crow
Abingdon tortoise and goats
3
Name the human
affected
Pneumonia c Alveoli of lungs
3
29. “Unambiguous”,“Degenerate “and “Universal” are some of the salient features of
genetic code .Explain.
3
30. Give reason, why it is that father never passes on the gene for haemophilia tohis
son?
OR
i) What are the transcriptional products of RNA polymerase III?
ii) Differentiate between ‘Capping’ and ‘Tailing’.
iii) Expand hnRNA.
31.
The following is the illustration of the sequence of ovarian events ‘a’ to ‘i’ in
human female:
i) Identify the figure that illustrates corpus luteum and name the pituitary hormone
that influences its formation.
ii) Specify the endocrine function of corpus luteum. Why is itessential?
iii)Draw a neat sketch of Graffian follicle with following labels: granulosa cells,
corona radiata and antrum.
iv)What is LH surge?
OR
(a) Draw a diagram of a fertilized embryo sac of a dicot flower. Label all
its cellular components.
(b) Explain the development of a mature embryo from the embryo sac.
5
a) ori
b) ampR
d)What do you mean by insertional inactivation
e) Why recognition site must be one for any restriction endonuclease enzyme?
OR
a.) A tobacco plant is damaged severely when infested with
Meloidegyneincognitia. Name and explain strategy that is adopted to stop this
infestation.
b. )Name the vector used for introducing the nematode specific gene in tobacco
plant.
5
33. How Meselson and Stahl didprove that DNA replication is semiconservative?
OR
How did Hershey and Chase prove that DNA is the genetic material?
5
MM:70 Time: 3 Hours
General Instructions. Read the following instructions carefully.
a) There are 33 questions in this question paper. All questions are compulsory.
b) Section A: Q. No. 1 to 2 are case-based questions having four MCQs or
Reason Assertion type based on given passage each carrying 1 mark.
c) Section A: Question 3 to 16 are MCQs and Reason Assertion type questions
carrying 1 mark each
d) Section B: Q. No. 17 to 25 are short answer questions and carry 2 marks each.
e) Section C: Q. No. 26 to 30 are short answer questions and carry 3 marks each.
f) Section D: Q. No. 31 to 33 are long answer questions carrying 5 marks each.
g) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided.
h) Use of calculators and log tables is not permitted.
SECTION A (OBJECTIVE TYPE)
1. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
(1x4=4)
Aldehydes and ketones are reduced under controlled condition to form alcohol.
Aldehyde gives primary alcohol while ketone gives secondary alcohol .
The reducing agents are
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate answer:
(i) Primary and secondary alcohols prepared by controlled reduction of aldehydes and ketones can be distinguished by:
(a) Tollen’s test (b) Fehling’s test (c) Carbylamine test (d) Lucas test
(ii) The compound in dehydrogenation gives a ketone. The original compound is:
(a) Carboxylic acid (b) 30 Alcohol (c) 10 Alcohol (d) 20 Alcohol
OR
The IUPAC name of the reduction product of butane-2-one will be:
(a) Butane -2-ol . (b) Butane-1-Ol.
(c) Butanal.
(d) Butene.
(iii) Which of the following is a secondary Allylic alcohol?
(a) But-3-en-2-ol
(b) But-2-en-2-ol
(c) Prop-2-enol
(d) Butan-2-ol
(a) Propanal
(b) Ethanal
(c) Bute-2-ene-1-al
(d) None of the above
2. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
Adsorption is the adhesion of atoms, ions or molecules from a gas, liquid or dissolved
solid to a surface. This process creates a film of the adsorbate on the surface of the adsorbent. This process is different from the absorption in which a fluid is dissolved
by or permeates a liquid or solid respectively.
In these questions (a statement of assertion followed by a statement of
reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
(i) Assertion: Adsorption is a surface phenomenon. Reason: The process of removing an adsorbed substance from a
surface on which it is adsorbed is called desorption.
(ii) Assertion: . H of adsorption is always negative. Reason: . S of adsorption is always positive.
(iii) Assertion: The extent of adsorption decreases with an increase in temperature.
Reason: The extent of adsorption decreases with an increase of surface
area of the adsorbent.
temperature are readily adsorbed.
Reason: Van der Waal’s forces are always near the critical
temperature.
OR
Assertion: Physical adsorption is reversible.
Reason: The forces of attraction between adsorbate and adsorbent in physical
adsorption is weak van der Waal’s force
Following questions (No. 3 -11) are multiple choice questions carrying 1 mark each
3. The difference between the electrode potential of two electrodes when no current is drawn through the cell is called _?
a) Cell potential b) Cell EMF
c) Potential difference
a) F2
b) Cl2
c) Br2
d) I2
5. A solution of chloroform in diethyl ether : a) Obeys Raoult’s law.
b) Shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law. c) Shows negative deviation from Raoult’s law. d) Behaves ideally.
6. Which of the following oxidation state is common for all lanthanoids?
a) +2
b) +3
Which of the following is not coloured in the solution?
a) Fe+3
b) V+2
c) Zn+2
d) Ti+3
7. The reaction between primary amine , chloroform and few drops od alcoholic KOH is known as;
a) Hoffmann’s reaction. b) Reimer-Tiemann’s reaction
c) Carbylamines reaction. d) Kolbe’s reaction.
OR
Gabriel Pthalamide synthesis reaction is used in the preparation of;
a) Primary amine
b) Secondary amine. c) Tertiary amine. d) Quaternary amine.
8. Coordination number of Ni in [Ni(C2O4)2]-4 is; a) 3
b) 6
a) OH-
b) H2N-CH2-CH2-NH2
c) Cl-
d) CN-
9. The properties of Zr and Hf are similar because; a) Both have same atomic radii.
b) Bothe belongs to d-block.
c) Both belongs to same series. d) Both have same numbers of electrons.
10. SN2 mechanism proceeds through the formation of:
a) Carbocation b) Transition state. c) Free radical. d) Carbanion.
11. Packing efficiency in simple cubic lattice is:
a) 68 %
b) 52.5 %
c) 74 % d) 54.5 %
In the following questions (Q. No. 12 - 16) a statement of assertion followed by a
statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following
choices.
a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement. 12. Assertion: Triclinic system is most unsymmetrical system.
Reason: No axial angle is equal to 90 degree in triclinic system. 13. Assertion: Nitrogen does not form compound in +5 oxidation state with halogen.
Reason: Nitrogen do not have vacant d- orbital to expand its covency.
14. Assertion. The boiling point of 0.1 M urea solution is less than that of 0.1 M KCl.
Reason: Elevation of boiling point is directly proportional to the number of species
present in solution. 15. Assertion: Carboxylic acids are more acidic than phenols.
Reason: Phenols are ortho and para directing.
16. Assertion: Picric acid contains carboxylic group. Reason: 2, 4, 6-teinitrophenol is called as picric acid.
SECTION-B
The following questions, Q.No 17 – 25 are short answer type and carry 2
marks each. 17. Convert
OR
Which of following compound will react faster in SN1 reaction with the OH- ion?
CH3CH2Cl or C6H5Cl. Give reason. 18. What mass of NaCl ( molar mass= 58.5 g/mol) must be dissolved in 65 g of water to
lower the freezing point by 7.50C? The freezing point depression constant , Kf, for water is 1.86KKg/mol. Assume vant’s Hoff factor for NaCl is 1.87
19. Write the IUPAC name of given coordination complex with coordination number of central metal ion. [Co(en)2(NO2)Cl]+
OR Write IUPAC name and hybridization of the complex [CoF6]-3 .
20. After 24 hours, only 0.125 gm out of the initial quantity of 1 gm of a radioactive isotope remains behind, what is the half-life period?
[log2= 0.301 , log3= 0.422, log5= 0.6989 , log6=0.7781 ] OR
For a reaction the rate law expression is represented as follows;
Rate= K [A] [B]1/2
a) Interpret whether the reaction is elementary or complex. Give support your answer.
b) Write the unit of rate constant for this reaction if concentration of A and B is expressed in mol/lit.
21. A first order reaction has rate constant 1.15 X 10-3 s-1. How long will 5g of this
reactant take to reduce to 3g? [ log2= 0.301 , log3= 0.422, log5= 0.6989 , log6=0.7781 ]
22. Write the mechanism of acid catalysed hydration of Ethene to Ethanol.
23. Write the structure of the major organic product in each of the following reactions:
a) CH3-CH2-Br + KCN aq. ethanol
b) C6H5-ONa + C2H5Cl 24. Account for the following
a) Ozone is thermodynamically unstable.
b) Ozone is powerful oxidizing agent.
25. An element has atomic mass 93 g/mol and density 11.5 g/cm3. If the edge length of its unit cell is 300 pm, identify the type of unit cell.
SECTION C
Q.No 26 -30 are Short Answer Type II carrying 3 mark each.
26. Account for the following
1) Transition metals shows variable oxidation states.
2) Zn,Cd and Hg are soft metals.
3) E0 valve of Mn+3/ Mn+2 couple is highly positive (+1.57V) as compared to Cr+3/
Cr+2.
Explain giving reasons. 1) The transition metals generally forms coloured compounds.
2) Transition metals and their many compounds are good catalysts.
3) Transition metals and their many compounds are Paramagnetic behaviour.
27. Give one chemical test to distinguish between following pair of compounds
1) Methylamine and Dimethyl amine.
2) Secondary and Tertiary amine.
3) Aniline and N- methyl aniline. OR
Write following Chemical reactions:
2) Gabriel Pthalamide reaction. 3) Hoffmann bromamide reaction
28. A metal crystallizes into two cubic system-face centered cubic (fcc) and body centred
cubic (bcc) whose unit cell lengths are 3.5 and 3.0Å respectively. Calculate the ratio of densities of fcc and bcc.
29. Define following.
30. Account for following:
a) ICl is more reactive than I2.
b) H2S is less acidic than H2Te. c) Thermal stability decrease from H2O to H2Te.
SECTION D
Q.No 31 to 33 are long answer type carrying 5 marks each.
31. 1) Draw structure of ClF3, name the shape of its structure. (2+2+1) 2) What happens when (support your answer with equation)
a) Chlorine has is passed through hot and concentrated NaOH solution? b) Xenon hexafluoride is subjected to complete hydrolysis.
3) Complete the reaction
OR
1) Draw structure of ICl3, name the shape of its structure. 2) Explain following observations.
a) Oxygen is gas but sulphur is solid.
b) The halogens are coloured.
c) Despite having greater polarity, HF boils at low temperature than water.
32. An organic compound A on treatment with CHCl3 /KOH gives two compounds B and C. Both B and C gives the same product D when distilled with zinc dust. Oxidation of
D gives E having molecular formula C7H6O2. The sodium salt of E on heating with soda lime gives F which may also be obtained by distillation of A with zinc dust.
Identify A to F
1. Write equations for following reactions.
a) Bromine in CS2 with phenol. b) Treating phenol with CHCl3 in NaOH (aq). c) Anisole reacts with HI.
2. Distinguish between
b) Ethanol and phenol.
33. A) State Kohlrausch law of independent migration of ions, write an expression for the molar conductivity of acetic acid at infinite dilution according to Kohlrausch law.
B) Calculate limiting molar conductivity for acetic acid , given that
Limiting molar conductivity of HCl= 426 Scm2/mol Limiting molar conductivity of NaCl= 126Scm2/mol
Limiting molar conductivity of sodium acetate= 91Scm2/mol OR
a) Define molar conductivity. b) Represent the cell in which following reaction takes place
2 Al(s) + 3Ni+2(0.1M) 2Al+3(0.01M) +3Ni
Calculate the EMF if E0 cell= 1.41V

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Class- 12
General instruction
- all questions are compulsory
- answer to question 1 to 20 carrying 1 marks are multiple choice question.
- answer to question 21 to 25 carring 3 mark should be in approximately 80 to 200 words.
- answer to question 26 to 32 carrying 5 marks should be in approximately 1500 to 2000 words.
Section A
Choose the correct answer (1marks)
1. How many method can be used by preparing fixtures in league tournament?
A)2 B)4 C)3 D)5
2. In most of carbohydrates the ratio of hydrogen atoms to oxygen atoms is?
A)2:1 B)1:2 C)1:3 D) none of these
3. Which of the following asana is not performed in standing position
A) tadasan B) ardhachakrasana C) sukhasan D) none of the above
4. Which is the cause of sensory processing disorder
A) genetic B) low birth weight C) environmental factor D) all the above
5. In which Olympics PT Usha secured 4th place in 400 metre hurdles race
A) 1980 Olympics B)1984 Olympics C)1988 Olympics. D) 1992 Olympics
6.which one of the following items is included in barrow general motor ability test?
A) Jag Jag run B)medicine ball put. C) standing broad jump. D) all the above
7. White muscle fibres are better adapted to perform?
A)Slow contraction B)fast contraction C)medium contraction. D) no contraction
8. Which one of the following is an example of the law of inertia?
A)starting in rowing B) starting on Roman Reigns C)raising an opponent in wrestling. D)all the above
9. Which one of the categories is included under the Jung's classification of personality?
A)Introverts B)extroverts. C) ambiverts D) all the above
10. Tournaments are helpful for the development of?
A)Social qualities B)selectionof players C) sports kills D)all the above
11. Trypsin helps in the digestion of
A)Vitamins B)fats C) protein D)carbohydrates
12. Which asana is a meditative asanas?
A) vajrasan B) trikonasan. C) bhujangasan D)chakrasan
13.in which disorder children find it difficult to pay attention to things and are always restless?
A)OCD B)ADHD C)ODD D) SPD
14. Which one of the following test was developed by Wells and Dillon?
A)Standing broad jump B)medicine ball put C)chair stand test D) none of these
15. Which one of the following is included in soft tissues injuries?
A)Contusions B)strain C)Abrasion D) all the above
16) in which game related to BabitaPhogat?
A)Kabaddi B)hockey C)wrestling D)khokho
A)Kabaddi B) hockey C)khokho D)badminton
18. In which game related to DeepaKarmakar?
A)Gymnastic B)T.T. C) volleyball D) khokho
19. In which game related to Mary Kom?
A) Boxing B) T.T. C)Kabaddi
20. Which related to P T Usha
A) Boxing B)athletics C)Kabaddi
21. What do you understand by planning in sports?
22. Explain about the procedure and advantages of bhujangasana?
23. What is the role of yoga in preventing lifestyle diseases?
24. What are the cause of osteoporosis?
25. Write briefly about the technique of stress management?
Section C
26. Explain micro nutrition and their role in our diet?
27.what are the effects of exercise on respiration system write in detail?
28. What do you mean by fracture how can fracture be classified? explain?
29. What do you mean by intellectual disability?
30. Write a short notes on prevention of injuries in sports?
31.mention the achievement of five sports personalities of your choice with specific reference to the award
received by them?
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA BALRAMPUR
SUBJECT- COMPUTER SCIENCE (XII-083)
Time- 3hrs M.M. 70
1 a) Which of the following is valid operator in python :
I ) % 2) **= 3) < 4) not
1
1) for 2)_fn
1
c) Nam the python library modules which need to be imported to invoke the
following functions:
1
d) Given the lists L=[1,3,6,82,5,7,11,92] , write the output of print(L[2:5])
1
e) Rewrite the following code in python after removing all syntax error(s).underline
each correction done in code.
O,P= 10=20
print(p*4)
def solve(s1):
k=len(s1)
if s1[j].isupper():
elif s1[j].islower():
else:
print(s2)
solve('WeLcoMe')
2
g) Find and write the output of the following python code:
def update(p,q=10):
p=p+q
q1=update(q1)
h) What possible outputs are expected to be displayed on the screen at the time of
execution of theprogram from the following code? Also specify the minimum and
maximum values that can be assigned to the variable c
import random
temp=[10,20,30,40,50,60]
c=random.randint(0,4)
print(temp[I],'#',end='')
(i) #10#20 (ii) 10#20#30#40#50# (iii). 10#20#30# (iv) 50#60#
2
2 a Suppose a tuple T is declared as T = (10, 12, 43, 39), which of the following is incorrect? a) print(T[1]) b) T[2] = -29 c) print(max(T)) d) print(len(T))
1
b Which is the correct form of declaration of dictionary?
i) Day=(1;’mon’, 2;’tue’, 3:’wed’)
ii) Day=[1:’ONE’, 2:’TWO’,3:’THREE’]
iii) Day={1:’APPLE’, 2:’ORANGE’, 3:’GRAPES’}
iv) Day={1’green’, 2’red’,3’blue’]
1
L = [1, 23, ‘hi’, 6]
(i) List
(ii) Dictionary
(iii) Array
(iv) Tuple
1
d Find and write the output of the following python code:
x=['5 3 2 1']
y=['8 7 9 10']
z=y+x
print(z)
1
e Find and write the output of the following python code :
def come(n):
print(P)
1
f Expand the following terms: a. SMTP b. XML c. LAN d. IPR 2
g Differentiate between actual parameter(s) and a formal parameter(s) with a suitable example for each.
2
OR Explain the use of global key word used in a function with the help of a suitable example.
h Write a function in python to count the number of vowels in a text file data.txt?
OR.
Write a function DISPLAY() in python to read and count the word ‘THIS’ from
“NOVEL.TXT”.
2
i Write a function “perfect()” that determines if parameter number is a perfect
number. Use this function in a program that determines and prints all the perfect
numbers between 1 and 100.
[An integer number is said to be “perfect number” if its factors, including 1(but
not the number itself), sum to the number. E.g., 6 is a perfect number because
6=1+2+3].
OR.
Differentiate between Bubble shot and Insertion sort. Which one is better?
3
j Write a function in python, SPush(package) and SPop(package) to add a new
Package and delete a Package from a List of Package Description, considering
them to act as push and pop operations of the Stack data structure.
4
SECTION-B
b ………………….. is a network of physical objects embedded with electronics,
software, sensors and network connectivity.
1
c ………………….. is a device to connect two dissimilar network. 1
d ………………….. describes the measuring unit of data transfer rate . 1
e Give the full forms of the following :
(i) SMTP
(ii) SIM
(iii) Lifi
(iv) GPRS
2
f How many pair of wires are there in a twisted pair cable (Ethernet)? What is the
name of the port, which is used to connect Ethernet cable to a computer or a
laptop?
2
g Differentiate between actual parameter(s) and a formal parameter(s) with a suitable example for each. OR Explain the use of global key word used in a function with the help of a suitable example.
2
h Sharma Medicos Center has set up its new center in Dubai. It has four buildings
as shown in the diagram given below:
Distance between various building are as follows:
4
As a network expert, provide the best possible answer for the following queries:
i) Suggest a cable layout of connections between the buildings.
ii) Suggest the most suitable place (i.e. buildings) to house the server of this
organization.
iii) Suggest the placement of the following device with justification:
i. a) Repeater b) Hub/Switch
iv) Suggest a system (hardware/software) to prevent unauthorized access to
or from the network.
SECTION-C
Q4. a Which command is used to open the database? 1
b Which clause is used to sort the records of a table? 1
c Which command is used to delete the table? 1
d Which clause is used to remove the duplicating rows of the table? 1
e Differentiate between fetchone() and fetchall() methods with suitable examples for each.
2
f Define degree and cardinality. Based upon given table write degree and
cardinality.
2
g
I. To increase the price of “Amlodipine” by 50.
II. To display all those medicines whose price is in the range 100 to 150.
III. To display the Maximum price offered by pharmacy located in “Gurgaon”
IV. To display sum of price for each PharmacyName having more than 1 drug.
VI To display Maximum and Minimum price
Write the output(s) produced by executing the following queries:
i) SELECT RxID, Price from PharmaDB where PharmacyNa IN (“Rx Parmacy”,
“Raj Medicos”);
RxID DrugID DrugName Price PharmacyName PharmacyLocation
R1000 5476 Amlodipine 100.00 Rx Pharmacy Pitampura, Delhi
R1001 2345 Paracetamol 15.00 Raj Medicos
Bahadurgarh,
Haryana
R1003 6512 VitaPlus 150.00 MyChemist Gurgaon,Haryana
R1004 5631 Levocitrezine 110.00 RxPharmacy South Extension,Delhi
7
PHARMACY NAME
5 a Write the full forms of DDL and DML. Write any two commands of DML in SQL. 2
d Write the full form of CSV.
1
c Ranjan Kumar of class 12 is writing a program to create a CSV file “user.csv” which will contain user name and password for some entries. He has written the following code. As a programmer, help him to successfully execute the given task. import _____________ # Line 1 defaddCsvFile(UserName,PassWord): # to write / add data into the CSV file f=open(' user.csv','________') # Line 2
newFileWriter = csv.writer(f) newFileWriter.writerow([UserName,PassWord]) f.close()
2
d A binary file “STUDENT.DAT” has structure (admission_number, Name, Percentage). Write a function countrec() in Python that would read contents of the file “STUDENT.DAT” and display the details of those students whose percentage is above 75. Also display number of students scoring above 75%
5
General Instructions:
(1) All questions are compulsory. There are 33 questions in all.
(2) This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D
and Section E.
(3) Section A contains ten very short answer questions and four assertion reasoning
MCQs of 1 mark each, Section B has two case based questions of 4 marks each,
Section C contains nine short answer questions of 2 marks each, Section D contains
five short answer questions of 3 marks each and Section E contains three long answer
questions of 5 marks each.
(4) There is no overall choice. However internal choice is provided. You have to
attemptonly one of the choices in such questions.
You may use the following values of physical constants wherever necessary:
= 3 × 108−1
= 6.63 × 10−34
1
40 = 9 × 1092−2
’ = 1.381 × 10−23−1 ’ = 6.022 × 1023−1 = 1.675 × 10−27 = 9.1 × 10−31 = 6400
Section-A
1 Name the physical quantity whose S.I. unit is volt/meter. 1
2 Define electric dipole moment. 1
3 A point charge ‘q’ is placed at ‘O’ as shown in the figure. Is Vp-Vq Positive or
negative when (i)q>0 (ii)and q<0? Justify your answer.
O P Q
4 What is magnetic moment of current carrying loop? 1
5 Which of the following radiations are used for (i) Heat radiation and (ii) long
distance transmission?
1
6 What is a wave front? 1
7 The refractive indices of glass and water with respect to air are 3/2 and 4/3 respectively, what is the refractive index of glass with respect to water?
1
8 Define work function. 1
9 Name the phenomenon which shows the quantum nature of electromagnetic radiation. 1
10 Name the series of hydrogen atom which lie in the U.V. region. 1
The questions from 11 o 14 consists of two statements each, printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one o the following four responses. A. If both, assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. B. If both, assertion and reason are true but reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion. C. If assertion is true but the reason is false. D. If both assertion and reason are false.
11 Assertion. The electrons in the conduction band have higher energy than those in the valance band of a semiconductor. Reason. The conduction band lies above the energy gap and valance band lies below the energy gap.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
1
12 Assertion. The magnetic flux through a closed surface containing a bar magnet is zero . Reason. Gauss’s law applies in the case of electric flux only. A (b) B (c) C (d) D
13 Assertion. 1 a.mu. = 933 MeV. Reason. It follows from E = mc2. A (b) B (c) C (d) D
14 Assertion. Balmer series lies in the visible region of electromagnetic spectrum. Reason. Balmer means visible, hence series lies in visible region . A (b) B (c) C (d) D
Section-B
15 Faraday Cage: A Faraday cage or Faraday shield is an enclosure made of a conducting material. The fields within a conductor cancel out with any external fields, so the electric field within the enclosure is zero. These Faraday cages act as big hollow conductors you can put things in to shield them from electrical fields. Any electrical shocks the cage receives, pass harmlessly around the outside of the cage.
4
1. Which of the following material can be used to make a Faraday cage? a) Plastic b) Glass c) Copper d) Wood
2. Example of a real-world Faraday cage is a) car b) plastic box c) lightning rod d) metal rod
3. What is the electrical force inside a Faraday cage when it is struck by lightning? a) The same as the lightning b) Half that of the lightning c) Zero d) A quarter of the lightning
4. An isolated point charge +q is placed inside the Faraday cage. Its surface must have charge equal to-
a) Zero b) +q c) –q d) +2q
16 Sparking Brilliance of Diamond:
The total internal reflection of the light is used in polishing diamonds to create a sparking brilliance. By polishing the diamond with specific cuts, it is adjusted the most of the light rays approaching the surface are incident with an angle of incidence more than critical angle. Hence, they suffer multiple reflections and ultimately come out of diamond from the top. This gives the diamond a sparking brilliance. 1. Light cannot easily escape a diamond without multiple internal reflections. This is because: a) Its critical angle with reference to air is too large b) Its critical angle with reference to air is too small c) The diamond is transparent d) Rays always enter at angle greater than critical angle 2. The critical angle for a diamond is 24.4o. Then its refractive index is- a) 2.42 b) 0.413 c) 1 d) 1.413 3. The basic reason for the extraordinary sparkle of suitably cut diamond is that a) It has low refractive index b) It has high transparency c) It has high refractive index d) It is very hard 4. A diamond is immersed in a liquid with a refractive index greater than water. Then the critical angle for total internal reflection will a) will depend on the nature of the liquid b) decrease c) remains the same d) increase
Section -C
17 Charges of magnitudes 2Q and –Q are located at points (a,0,0) and (4a,0,0). Find the ratio of the flux of electric field, due to these charges, through concentric spheres of radii 2a and 8a centred at the origin.
2
18 Write the expression of electric field at (a) any axial point (b) Equatorial point. Compare their values for a far point.
2
19 A circular coil of 200 turns and radius 0.2m carries a current of 14 A. What is the magnetic moment associated with the coil?
2
20 State- a) Biot- Savart’s law b) Ampere circuital law 2
21 Calculate the work function of a metal in eV. If its threshold wavelength is 6800
A0and h = 6.62 x 10 -34 joule- s.
2
22 Draw suitable graphs to show the variation of photoelectric current with collector
plate potential for (i) a fixed frequency but different intensities I1>I2>I3.
(ii) a fixed intensity but different frequencies ν1>ν2> ν3.
2
23 Distinguish between conductor , insulator and semiconductor on the basis of
energy band diagram?
25 Define Depletion layer, potentioal barrier 2
26 A straight wire of mass 200 g and length 1.5 m carries a current of 2 A. It is
suspended in mid-air by a uniform horizontal magnetic field B .What is the
magnitude of the magnetic field ?
3
27 Define the components of Earth’s magnetic field. 3
28 (i) Draw a neat labelled ray diagram of an astronomical telescope in normal
adjustment. Explain briefly its working.
(ii) An astronomical telescope uses two lenses of powers 10 D and 1 D. What is its
magnifying power in normal adjustment?
OR
(i) Draw a neat labelled ray diagram of a compound microscope. Explain briefly
its working.
(ii) Why must both the objective and the eye-piece of a compound microscope
have short focal lengths?
3
29 Describe Young’s double slit experiment to produce interference pattern due to a
monochromatic source of light. Deduce the expression for the fringe width.
3
30 1. What is meant by rectifier? Discuss working of half wave and full wave rectifier
with circuit diagram. Draw its input & output wave forms.
3
31 A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery. After some time the battery is disconnected and a dielectric slab of dielectric constant K is fully inserted inside it. What changes will happen in (a) E (b) V (c) C (d) U (e) q, where these symbols has usual meaning.
5
32 A) Derive an expression for the average power consumed in a series LCR circuit.
B) Define the Q-factor of an ac circuit.
A 0.3H inductor , 60μF capacitor and a 50Ω resistor are connected in series with a
120V ,60Hz supply. Calculate i) impedance of the circuit ii) current flowing in the
circuit.
OR
Explain principle ,construction and working of a transformer using a labelled diagram.
Discuss the loss of energy.
5
33 (a) A monochromatic source of light of wavelength λ illuminates a narrow slit of
width d to produce a diffraction pattern on the screen. Obtain the conditions when
secondary wavelets originating from the slit interfere to produce maxima and
minima on the screen.
(i) the width of the slit is decreased?
(ii) the monochromatic source of light is replaced by white light?
OR
(a) Obtain lens makers formula. Here the ray of light propagating from a rarer
medium of refractive index (n1) to a denser medium of refractive index
(n2), is incident on the convex side of spherical refracting surface of radius
R.
(b) A lens of glass is immersed in water. What will be its effect on the power
of lens. Explain it with reason.
5
Time allowed: 3 Hrs. Maximum Marks: 80
General Instructions:
1. This paper is divided into two parts: A and B. All questions are compulsory.
2. Separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary. Read these instructions very carefully and follow them.
3. Do not exceed the prescribed word limit while answering the questions.
Part A (40 Marks)
Q1. Read the passage given below. (1x10 = 10)
1. The lockdown has given us many lessons, one of these being cleaner environment.
The gains were for all to see-deep blue sky, star filled nights and improved air quality.
Let’s not lose these gains. This festive season gift a breeze of clean air by presenting a
purifying plant to your near and dear ones. Readily available and moderately priced,
these plants have the ability to absorb toxic air. Here are some plants you can gift.
ARECA PALM ( chrysalidocarpuslutescens): The plant with a rich tropical look needs
bright filtered sunlight and moist soil. It is rated as the best air purifying indoor plant with
the highest removal rate of formaldehyde. It is the most effective air humidifier plant.
Date palm, bamboo palm and rhapis palm are some others.
ASPARAGUS FERN (asparagus densiflorus): The small- sized, lush evergreen fern can
be planted in a pot or hanging basket. It requires little care and flourishes indoors as
well as out-doors. Just keep the soil moist. It absorbs benzene, toluene, octane and
trichloroethylene.
DRACAENA (dracaena deremensis) : The cane like single stem plant has a strappy
foliage. It is easy to maintain. Light fertilization, once a month, is enough. Filtered light is
preferred. It helps remove xylene, formaldehyde and trichloroethylene.
BOSTON FERNS( nephrolepisexaltata ‘bostoniensis’): These thrive best under filtered
sunlight, moist soil and high humidity. The potted plant makes an adorable hanging
basket in porches and patios. The stylish foliage is a stress buster. The plant
significantly removes formaldehyde, benzene and xylene.
ELEPHANT EAR ( philodendrondomesticum): The plant with long arrow-shaped leaves
makes it perfect for indoors. It prefers warm, humid and indirect light. The plant absorbs
formaldehyde.
ENGLISH IVY ( hedera helix): The fan- shaped silver green plant can fit in baskets, cling
to walls, spread as ground cover and spill over planters. It helps to remove air- based
mold and is an effective formaldehyde remover.
PEACE LILY ( spathiphyllum ‘ maunaloa’): An easy to care plant, it prefers low light and
moist soil. White flowers bloom during the rainy season. It has high transpiration rate
and humidifies the air around. It is best for removing formaldehyde, benzene and certain
VOCs that are emitted by paints.
MONEY PLANT( epipremnumaureum): The evergreen decorative vine can be grown in
hanging baskets, trailed on support and planted in pots. Its low maintenance makes the
plant a popular choice. It removes emissions like formaldehyde, xylene and benzene.
SPIDER PLANT( chlorophytumcomosum): This houseplant is mostly grown in hanging
baskets and pots indoors. It eliminates benzene, formaldehyde, carbon monoxide and
xylene.
Source: The Tribune
On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, answer ANY TEN
Questionsfrom the eleven given below.
(1x10 = 10)
i. A purifying indoor plant is one of the best gifts as
1. it is not difficult to obtain
2. it is slightly expensive
3. it imbibes poisonous air
4. it can be bought online
a. 1,2
b. 2,3
c. 1,3
d. 1,4
a. reluctantly
b. easily
c. seldom
d. rarely iii. Which of the following are low maintenance plants?
1.Asparagus Fern
humidifier plant.
a. Elephant Ear
b. Boston Ferns
c. English Ivy
d. Money Plant
vi. If you want to remove organic chemicals that are given out by paints, then you should
buy
a. Spider Plant
b. Elephant Ear
c. Peace Lily
d. Dracaena vii. ‘Flourish’ has the same meaning as __________.( Paragraph 5) a.
Thrive
1. Elephant Ear 1. Fan shaped silver
2. Peace Lily 2.White flowers
3. English Ivy 3. Arrow shaped leaves
a. 1,2,3
2.Money Plant 2. beautiful hanging baskets for
courtyard
4.Dracaena 4. evergreen vine
1. Little amount of formaldehyde is eliminated by Boston Ferns.
2. Areca Palm is considered to be the best indoor plant that can decontaminate air.
3.Peace Lily can attach itself to the walls and spills over planters. a.
1 only
a. Gift a plant
c. Low-maintenance plants
d. Areca Palm
Q2. A Read the passage given below.
‘’ Hunger and under nutrition cannot and should not be fixed by mere calorie provision. All stakeholders must pay attention to making balanced healthy diets which are climate- friendly, affordable and accessible to all.’’ Shweta Khandelwal, Head of Nutrition Research, Public Health Foundation of India.
India ranked 94 among 107 nations in the Global Hunger Index (GHI) 2020 and was in
the ‘serious’ hunger category with experts blaming poor implementation processes, lack
of effective monitoring, siloed approach in tackling malnutrition and poor performance by
large states behind the low ranking.
Nepal in 73rd and Sri Lanka in 64th position were in ‘moderate’ hunger category, the
report showed.
Seventeen nations, including China, Belarus, Ukraine, Turkey, Cuba and Kuwait, shared
the top rank with the GHI scores of less than five, the website of the Global Hunger
Index, and tracks hunger and malnutrition, said on Friday. According to the report
released on Friday, 14 percent of India’s population was undernourished.
It also showed the country recorded a 37.4 per cent stunting rate among children under
five and a wasting rate of 17.3 percent. The under- five mortality rate stood at 3.7
percent.
Wasting is children who have low weight for their height, reflecting acute under-nutrition.
Stunting is children under the age of five who have low height for their age, reflecting
chronic under nutrition.
Data from 1991 through 2014 for Bangladesh, India, Nepal, and Pakistan showed that
stunting was concentrated among children from households facing multiple forms of
deprivation, including poor dietary diversity, low levels of maternal education, and
household poverty.
During this period, India experienced a decline in under-five mortality, driven largely by a
decrease in deaths from birth asphyxia or trauma, neonatal infections, pneumonia, and
diarrhea, the report stated.
‘’However, child mortality, caused by prematurity and low birth-weight, increased
particularly in poorer states and rural areas. Prevention of prematurity and low
birthweight is identified as a key factor with the potential to reduce under- five mortality
in India through actions such as better ante-natal care, education, and nutrition as well
as reductions in anaemia and oral tobacco use,’’ it said.
Experts think that poor implementation processes, lack of effective monitoring and
soiled approaches to tackling malnutrition often result in poor nutrition indices.
Source: The Tribune
On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, answer ANY TEN
questions from the eleven given below.
(1x10 = 10)
i. According to the passage, one of the reasons for India’s poor ranking in GHI
2020 is
b. lack of financial resources
c. high population
d. lack of human resource to tackle it
ii. Identify the statement that is NOT TRUE according to the passage.
1. India performed better than Cuba and Kuwait
2. Hunger and malnutrition is tracked by the website of GHI 3. Sri
Lanka ranked higher than Nepal
a. 1 & 2
b. 1 only
c. 2 only
d. 2 & 3 iii. The word ‘moderate’, as used in paragraph 2, means the same as
a. very serious
d. within reasonable limits
iv. According to the report, 14% of India’s population is undernourished which means if
India’s population is 138 crore, then ________people are undernourished. a. 19.32
crore
c.16.26 crore
d.21 crore
v. If a child’s body weight is considered too low to be healthy, he is suffering
from___________
c. both (a) & (b)
d. neither (a) nor (b) vi. Stunting reflects chronic under-nutrition. ‘Chronic’ means an
illness which
b. cannot be cured
c. is not serious
d. is infrequent vii. The stunting rate among children under five is lower than the
wasting rate. a. True
c. Partially true
d. not mentioned
viii. The common reason for wasting and stunting among children is
a. Parents’ lack of support
b. Severe malnourishment
c. Environment
d. Lack of awareness ix. Under- five mortality rate has________ in our country .
a. dropped
b. increased
d. risen drastically
x. Following actions are to be taken to reduce under- five mortality rate in our country:
1. Better education
2. better nutrition
a. 1,2 &3
b. 2,3 &4
c. 1,2,&4
d. 1 &4
problem of malnutrition.
b. Free food grain supply
c. More plans and projects
d. Foreign aid
LITERATURE (20 Marks)
Q3. Read the extracts given below and attempt ANY TWO of the three given by
answering the questions that follow .( 4+4=8)
(A) ‘Why not organize yourselves into a cooperative?’’ I asked a group of young men
who have fallen into the vicious circle of middlemen who trapped their fathers and
forefathers.
‘Even if we get organized, we are the ones who will be hauled up by the police, beaten
and dragged to jail for doing something illegal.’’
i). Whom does ‘I’ refer to?
a. Anees Jung
b. Stephen spender
c. Alphonse Daudet
d. William Douglas ii.) ‘young men’ refer to a. middlemen
b. bangle makers
c. bureaucrats
d. policemen iii.) The word ‘vicious’, as used in paragraph means the same as a. brutal
b. pleasant
c. benevolent
d. inexplicable
a. they are doing something illegal
b. they want to get organized
c. they violate the rules
d. they flout law and order
(B)
‘’The experience had a deep meaning for me, as only those who have known stark
terror and conquered it can appreciate. In death there is peace. There is terror only in
the fear of death, as Roosevelt knew when he said, ‘’All we have to fear is fear itself.’’
i. The opposite of ‘conquered’ is
a. lost
b. encountered
c. witnessed
d. experienced ii. ‘’The experience had a deep meaning for me’’. Which experience
does he refer to? a. developing fear of water and then conquering it
b. learning swimming from an instructor
c. Roosevelt’s inspiring quote
d. swimming in Wentworth lake
iii. ‘’All we have to fear is fear itself.’’ This line signifies that
a. Unjustified fear paralyzes needed efforts to convert retreat into advance.
b. Fear is the only thing we need to avoid.
c. we have to be scared of fearful things
d. generally fear is not avoidable iv. Choose the option that best demonstrates the
relevant traits of Douglas a. amiable and timid
b. determined and positive
c. resourceful and stubborn
d. ambitious and witty
Derry: What? Who’s that? Who is there?
Mr Lamb: Lamb’s my name. Mind the apples. Crab apples those are. Windfalls in the
long grass. You could trip.
Derry: I…there…I thought this was an empty place. I didn’t know there was anybody
here…..
a. Susan Hill
b. John Updike
c. Adrienne Rich
d. John Keats ii. ‘’Mind the apples!’’. Mr Lamb was being a. aggressive
b. protective
c. revengeful
a. he came there to steal apples
b. he thought nobody was there
c. he entered through the main gate
d. he was scolded by Mr Lamb iv. ‘I…there…I thought….’ This means that Derry was
a. nervous
b. excited
c. thrilled
d. delighted
Q4. Read the extracts given below and attempt ANY ONE of the two given by
answering the questions that follow. (1 x 4 =4)
(A)
Of twisted bones, reciting a father’s gnarled disease,
His lesson, from his desk. At the back of the dim class
One unnoted, sweet and young. His eyes live in a
Dream,
Of squirrel’s game, in tree room, other than this.
i. The boy is called ‘unlucky heir’ because________
a. He has inherited a disease from his father
b. He is not getting proper education
c. He is not living in the lap of nature
d. He wishes to roam around the world.
ii. Why has the class been termed as ‘dim’?
1. because the future of the students of this class is far from being bright
2. Not much natural sunlight can reach inside the class as the streets are
narrow
a. 1 only
b. 1 &2
c. 2 only
d. neither 1 nor 2 iii. ‘’ His eyes live in a dream’ – What dream does he have?
a. To get better education
b. To get rid of poverty
c. To play outside
d. To visit exotic places iv. Identify the poetic device in ‘father’s gnarled disease’. a.
simile
Of all the unhealthy and over- darkened ways
Made for our searching: yes in spite of all, Some
shape of beauty moves away the pall
From our dark spirits.
b. feeling unhealthy
c. Lack of resources on earth
d. Not able to achieve our goals ii. Identify the poetic device in ‘unhealthy and over
darkened ways.’
d. pun iii. Explain ‘ over-darkened ways made for our searching’.
a. we are searching for light
b. we lack education
d. we are away from the lap of nature
iv. ‘Dark spirits’ refer to a.
supernatural powers
c. Malice and evil
d. lack of noble nature
Q5. Attempt ANY EIGHT questions from the ten given below. (1x 8 = 8)
i. ‘ I had counted on the commotion to get to my desk without being seen’, said
Franz. He………………
b. got scolded by M. Hamel
c. was not allowed to enter
d. had to go in before everyone ii. What is the general cry in every home in
Firozabad?
b. They want to join other profession
c. They want to leave the city
d. They get beaten up by the police iii. Choose the statement that is NOT TRUE with
reference to the peddler.
a. He breached the confidence reposed in him by the crofter
b. He was actually Captain VonStahle
c. He left thirty kronor and a tiny rattrap for Edla
d. He was amused by the idea that the whole world was a rattrap.
iv. ‘’It was an extraordinary thing in those days.’’ What was the extraordinary thing?
a. That Gandhiji stayed at the house of a government professor
b. That thousands of peasants protested against british government
c. That Gandhiji was arrested and denied the bail
d. That Gandhiji scolded the lawyers for charging fees from the poor peasants
v. The poet ‘looked out at young trees sprinting’ to
a. put the disturbing thought away
b. see the beauty of nature
c. see her city once again
d. see the changes in her native place vi. What do you understand by ‘’The paper-
seeming boy, with rat’s eyes.
a. a boy anxious to get good education
b. a boy who wishes to move around like a rat
c. exceptionally thin, weak and hungry boy
d. a restless boy looking for a paper vii. What do you know about Aunt Jennifer’s
tigers? a. They are the living ones
b. They are embroidered in wool on a tapestry
c. They are as timid like Aunt Jennifer
d. They fear men beneath the tree viii Why do Aunt Jennifer’s fingers flutter?
a. She is nervous and weak
b. She is old and diseased
c. She doesn’t know how to knit
d. Ivory needles are heavy for her ix. When Douglas went down the pool third time.
a. All efforts ceased
c. He thinks of a plan to save himself
d. He tries to scream
x. “My last French lesson! Why, I hardly knew how to write!” Who is ‘I’? a.
M. Hamel
b. Franz
Q6. Attempt ANY ONE of the following. (1x3)
(A) You are the Vice- Principal of G.K. International School, New Delhi. As per the
instructions received from MHRD, the schools are reopening for classes 9th to 12th.
Write a notice for all the students to inform and instruct them about the precautionary
measures to be taken in the school during COVID-19.
OR
(B) Draft a display advertisement to be published in the Tribune, for the promotional
sale of PURE Hand Sanitizer brand launched by your company in not more than 50
words.
Q7. Attempt ANY ONE of the following.
(1x3) (A) The Integrity club of your school is observing the Vigilance Awareness Week
from 27th October to 2nd November. Invite Mr. Chetan Bhagat, an eminent author, to
deliver a speech on ‘Fight corruption.
OR
(B) You friend has cleared NEET exam and she has invited you for dinner. As you are
home quarantined for 14 days, you cannot attend the party. Write your reply, in about 50
words declining the invitation.
(A) Addiction does not discriminate against gender, race, culture and socioeconomic
status. Many famous people from television and movies have recently been found
addicted to various substances. Write a letter to the Editor of the Hindustan Times,
explaining your concern along with the rationale behind why it is important for
celebrities, who are generally imitated and followed by the youth, to resist the temptation
to consume drugs and other substances and to follow the code of personal ethics. OR
(B) You are Anuj/ Asha of 92, Model Town, Gandhi Nagar, Jammu. Sunshine Tours and
Travels require a part- time computer operator for their newly inaugurated branch in
Jammu. Write a letter in 100-120 words, responding to the given advertisement ,
submitting your candidature with a detailed bio-data.
9. Attempt ANY ONE of the following. (1x 5)
(A) The nationwide lockdown was announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on
March 24 to contain the spread of COVID-19. During lockdown we realized that
simplicity should be the way of life and we need to cut down on a lot of unessential
things that we unnecessarily consume. Write an article for the Indian Express
expressing your views on the need to take a pause from the fast-paced life and to live in
sync with nature.
OR
(B) Under Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat Programme, the language club of your school
was assigned the duty to teach and promote Telugu language in the secondary classes.
The club organized week long activities including translation, alphabet, songs, slogans,
proverbs etc in Telugu language. Write a report in 120-150 words for your school
magazine.
LITERATURE (24 marks) 10. Attempt ANY FIVE out of the six questions given below, in 30-40 words each.
(2x5=10)
i. Why did M. Hamel write Vive la France on the board?
ii. Why are the bangle makers not able to organize themselves into a cooperative?
iii. Why did Douglas go to the warm lake?
iv. Why did Kamla Das compare her mother’s face with the late winter’s moon? v.
Why did Aunt Jennifer choose only tigers for her tapestry?
vi. Why did EdlaWilmansson decide to entertain the peddler against her father’s
wish?
11. Attempt ANY TWO out of the three questions given below in 30-40 words each.
(2 x2=4 )
i. When did Charley realize that he had reached the third level?
ii. Why did Dr.Sadao inform the General about the American Prisoner of war?
iii. Why did Jackson allow Evans to wear his old cap?
12. Attempt ANY ONE of the following questions in 120-150 words (1x5=5)
(A) ‘’The visit, undertaken casually on the entreaty of an unlettered peasant in the
expectation that it would last a few days, occupied almost a year of Gandhi’s
life.’’ What steps did Gandhiji take to solve the problem of social and cultural
backwardness in the Champaran villages? Elaborate with reference to the text.
OR
(B) ‘’Honoured and noble Miss,since you have been so nice to me all day long, as if I
was a captain, I want to be nice to you.’’
Kindness has the power to turn the devils into angels. Justify the statement with
reference to the story ’The Rattrap.’
13. Attempt ANY ONE out of the following questions in 120-150 words (1x5=5)
(A) Derry: ‘’If I don’t go back there, I’ll never go anywhere in this world again.’’
Derry was a victim of deep inferiority complex. How did his brief meeting with Mr
Lamb become a turning point in his life?
OR
(B) There are moments in life when we have to make hard choices between our
roles as private individuals and as citizens with a sense of national loyalty.
Discuss with reference to the story ‘The Enemy’.