Respiratory systemBCQsBySajid Ali Talpur

1. The best initial test for Pulmoanary TB is:

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a) CXRb) ESRc) FNAC of lymph nodesd) Sputum microscopye) PPD

Ans. D

2. A 25 years old man was sometimes ago diagnosed as a case of pneumoconiosis. He has recently developed Tuberculosis. The most likely pneumoconiosis was:a) Baganossis b) Byssinosisc) Silicosisd) Anthracosise) Asbestosis

Ans. C

3. The most common cause of community acquired pneumonia is:a) Staph. Aureusb) Streptococcus pneumoniaec) Klebsiella pneumniaed) Pseudomonas aeruginosae) Mycoplasma pneumonia

Ans. B

4. A 50 years old man presents with respiratory symptoms and he is diagnosed to have mild unilateral pleural effusion which is exudative in type with low glucose and raised LDH. The doctor suspects the joint problem as the underlying cause. What could it be?a) Osteoarthritisb) Rheumatoid arthritisc) Goutd) Psoriatic arthritise) Infective arthritis

Ans. B

5. The most common benign tumor of lungs is:a) Chondromab) Fbroma

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c) Bronchial carcinoidd) Pulmonary hamartomae) Cylindroma

Ans.D

6. Stony dull sound on percussion is the characteristics of:a) consolidationb) cavitationc) fibrosisd) Pleural effusione) malignancy

Ans.D

7. The volume of gas in lungs after maximal inspiration is called;a) Total lung capacityb) Residual volumec) Vital capacityd) Functional residual capacitye) N.O.T

Ans. A

8. A 22 years old female patient presents with the clinical triad of dypnea, cough and wheezing. She is most likely suffering from:a) Asthmab) Emphysemac) Chronic bronchitisd) Both b & ce) Bronchiectasis

Ans. A

9. The most common finding in asthma patients is:a) Wheezingb) Dyspnea

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c) Stridord) Coughe) Both a & c

Ans. A

10. Asthma + eosinophilia + granulomatous vasculitis constitutes:a) Atopyb) Sainter’s syndromec) Churg strauss syndromed) Aspergillosise) N.O.T

Ans. C

11. Mtacholine challenge test differentiates between:a) Asthma and chronic bronchitisb) Asthma and emphysemac) Asthma and COPDd) Asthma and bronchiectasise) Emphysema and chronic bronchitis

Ans. C

12. Status asthmatics is defined as failure of asthma to resolve with therapy in a) 6 hourb) 12 hoursc) 24 hoursd) 48 hourse) One week

Ans. C

13. The most common triggers of exacerbation in acute severe asthma are:a) Viral infectionsb) Pollens

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c) Mouldsd) Bacterial infectione) Exercise and emotional stress

Ans. A

14. The most important risk factor for COPD is:a) α1 antitripsin deficiencyb) coal minersc) chronic asthmad) smokinge) cannabis smoking

Ans. D

15. emphysema refers to permanent enlargement of air spaces distal to:a) main bronchib) tracheac) terminal bronchiolesd) respiratory bronchiolese) bronchioles

Ans. C

16. all are true about centriacinar emphysema except:a) it is the most common typeb) it occurs in the middle lobec) it occurs in heavy smokersd) it is associated with chronic bronchitise) N.O.T

Ans. B

17. Which of the following lung condition is associated with α1 antitripsin deficiency.a) Chronic bronchitisb) Liver cirrhosis

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c) Panacinar emphysemad) Both a & ce) Centriacinar emphysema

Ans. C

18. Barrel chest is seen in:a) Bronchiectasisb) Asthmac) Both a & bd) Chronic bronchitise) A.O.T

Ans. D

19. It is not a feature of pink puffers:a) Associated with emphysemab) Thin patientc) No cyanosisd) No distress or dyspneae) Normal PaCO2

Ans. D

20. In COPD the diagnostic test of choice is:a) CXRb) PFTsc) CT scand) MRIe) CBC

Ans. B

21. Obstructive pattern on PFTs + negative methylcholine test + normal DLCO = ?

a) Asthma

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b) Emphysemac) Chronic bronchitisd) Both a & ce) Bronchiectasis

Ans. C

22. Obstructive pattern on PFTs + decreased DLCO = ?A) AsthmaB) EmphysemaC) Chronic bronchitisD) Both a & cE) Bronchiectasis

Ans. B

23. Which of the following improves mortality in COPD patients:a) Anti-cholinergic agentsb) Short acting β agonistsc) Long acting β agonistsd) Long term oxygen therapye) Inhaled steroids

Ans. D

24. Which of the following should be avoided in acute exacerbation of COPDa) High concentration oxygenb) Antibioticsc) Short acting β agonistsd) Oral steroidse) Noninvasive ventilation

Ans. A

25. The most common cause of Bronchiectasis in USA is:a) Cystic fibrosisb) Kartagener syndrome

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c) TBd) Bronchial tumorse) Suppurative pneumonia

Ans. A

26. The most cause of bronchiectasis world wide is:a) Cystic fibrosisb) Kartagener syndromec) TBd) Bronchial tumorse) Suppurative pneumonia

Ans. C

27. Kartagener syndrome is associated witha) Asthmab) Chronic bronchitisc) Emphysemad) Both b & ce) Bronchiectasis

Ans. E

28. The investigation of choice for Bronchiectasis is:a) CXRb) PFTsc) CT scand) MRIe) CBC

Ans. C

29. All are the complications of Bronchiectasis except:a) Cor pulmonaleb) Metastatic brain abscess

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c) Amyloidosisd) Kartagener syndromee) N.O.T

Ans. D

30. All of the following are features of cystic fibrosis except:a) It is autosomal recessiveb) It is the most common fatal genetic disease in Caucasiansc) Mutations affect long arm of chromosome 7d) There is decreased reabsorption of water and sodium from respiratory epitheliume) N.O.T

Ans.D

31. Regarding cystic fibrosis all are true except:a) There is recurrent pneumoniab) Men are infertilec) 75% chances of diabetes in adultsd) May cause biliary cirrhosis and portal HTNe) N.O.T

Ans. C

32. The management plan for cystic fibrosis does not include:a) Pancreatic enzyme replacementb) Chest physiotherapyc) Vaccinationsd) Antibioticse) N.O.T

Ans. E

33. The most common type of idiopathic interstitial pneumonia is:a) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosisb) Non specific interstitial pneumonia

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c) Cryptogenic organizing pneumoniad) Lymphocytic interstitial pneumoniae) RBILD

Ans.A

34. The Pathological pattern of usual interstitial pneumonia is found in:a) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosisb) Non specific interstitial pneumoniac) Cryptogenic organizing pneumoniad) Lymphocytic interstitial pneumoniae) RBILD

Ans.A

35. Ground glass appearance is characteristics of:a) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosisb) Non specific interstitial pneumoniac) Cryptogenic organizing pneumoniad) Lymphocytic interstitial pneumoniae) RBILD

Ans.A

36. A 65 years old man presents with dry cough and progressive dypnea. On examination he has finger clubbing, central cyanosis and Bi-basal fine end inspiratory crepitations. CXR shows honey comb appearance. The probable diagnosis is:a) Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosisb) Non specific interstitial pneumoniac) Cryptogenic organizing pneumoniad) Lymphocytic interstitial pneumoniae) RBILD

Ans.A

37. Definitive therapy for idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis is:a) Steroidsb) Oxygen

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c) Lung transplantationd) Pulmonary rehabilitatione) Opiates

Ans.C

38. All of the following are features of sarcoidosis except:a) It is multisystem diseaseb) It causes caseating granulomasc) Affects female more than maled) CD4 T cells are mainly involvede) N.O.T

Ans.B

39. The most common site affected by sarcoidosis is:a) Skinb) Lungsc) CNSd) CVSe) Hepatobiliary

Ans.B

40. Which of the following is not the lab finding in sarcoidosis:a) Increased ESRb) Increased ACEc) Hypercalcemiad) Lymphopeniae) Decreased CD4-CD8 ratio

Ans.E

41. CXR findings in stage 2 of the sarcoidosis would include:a) Unilateral hilar lymphadenopathyb) Bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy

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c) BHL + parenchymal infiltratesd) Parenchymal infiltrates without BHLe) Pulmonary fibrosis

Ans.C

42. All of the following are true about hypersensitivity pneumonitis except:a) Also known as extrinsic allergic alveolitisb) It results from inhalation of inorganic antigensc) It involves both type 3 and type 4 hypersensitivity reactionsd) CXR shows diffuse and nodular infiltratese) In acute form there is leukocytosis

Ans.B

43. It is a disease of rural areas:a) Tuberculosisb) Chronic bronchitisc) Farmer’s lungd) HIV/AIDSe) N.O.T

Ans.C

44. It is associated with textile industries:a) Baganossis b) Byssinosisc) Silicosisd) Anthracosise) Asbestosis

Ans. B

45. It is seen in the workers of sugarcane factories:a) Baganossis b) Byssinosis

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c) Silicosisd) CWPe) Asbestosis

Ans.A

46. Egg shell appearance is the characteristics of:a) Baganossis b) Byssinosisc) Silicosisd) CWPe) Asbestosis

Ans.C

47. It is associated with increased risk of mesothelioma:a) Baganossis b) Byssinosisc) Silicosisd) CWPe) Asbestosis

Ans.E

48. Dust cells are present in:a) Baganossis b) Byssinosisc) Silicosisd) CWPe) Asbestosis

Ans.D

49. A 30 years old man complaining of respiratory symptoms is diagnosed to have centrilobular emphysema. The patient is also suspected to have pneumoconiosis. What could it be the most likely?a) Baganossis b) Byssinosis

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c) Silicosisd) CWPe) Asbestosis

Ans.D

50. It can cause black lung disease:a) Baganossis b) Byssinosisc) Silicosisd) CWPe) Asbestosis

Ans.D

51. It is associated with pleural effusion, benign pleural plaques and lung cancer.a) Baganossis b) Byssinosisc) Silicosisd) CWPe) Asbestosis

Ans.E

52. The most common manifestation of rheumatoid arthritis in in lungs is:a) Pulmonary nodulesb) Pulmonary fibrosisc) Pleural effusiond) Pleurisy e) Dyspnea

Ans.B

53. Caplan’s syndrome consists of rheumatoid arthritis +______?a) Lung cancerb) Tuberculosisc) COPDd) Pneumoconiosis

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e) Asthma

Ans.D

54. All are associated with SLE except:a) Pulmonary thromboembolismb) Acute alveolitisc) Expansion of lungsd) Pleurisye) N.O.T

Ans.C

55. Hidebound Chest is the characteristic feature of:a) Pneumoconiosisb) SLEc) Tuberculosisd) Systemic sclerosise) COPD

Ans.D

56. Ranke’s complex form when Gohn complex undergoesA) FibrosisB) CalcificationC) NecrosisD) Both a & bE) Apoptosis

Ans.D

57. Collapse and consolidation in case of primary pulmonary TB most commonly involve:a) Right upper lobeb) Right middle lobec) Right lower lobed) Left upper and middle lobes

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e) Left lower lobe

Ans.B

58. Milliary TB is most commonly spread through the route:a) Hematogenous b) Lymphaticsc) Direct spread d) Both a & be) A.O.T

Ans.A

59. A 30years old lady gives history of fever, night sweats, anorexia, weight loss and cough for the 2 weeks. CXR shows 1-2 mm lesions distributed throughout the lung fields. The most likely diagnosis is:a) Typical pneumoniab) Atypical pneumoniac) Pneumoconiosisd) Sarcoidosise) Milliary T.B

Ans.E

60. The most common extrapulmonary site of the TB is:a) Liverb) Bonec) Lymph noded) Meningese) GIT

Ans.C

61. The massive cervical lymph node enlargement with discharging sinuses indicates:a) Granulomab) Caseous necrosisc) Non caseous necrosisd) Scrofula

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e) Gohn complex

Ans.D

62. The most common lymph nodes involved by TB are:a) Cervicalb) Mediastinalc) Both a & bd) Para aortice) Sub mandibular

Ans.C

63. The most common site involved by GIT TB is:a) Terminal ileumb) Ileocecal regionc) Cecumd) Small intestinee) Sigmoid colon

Ans.B

64. Potts disease involves:a) Femurb) Radiusc) Spined) Lungse) Skull

Ans.C

65. The most common site of spine affected by TB is:a) Cervicalb) Lower cervical and upper thoracicc) Lower thoracic and lumbar d) Lumbar

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e) Lumbosacral region

Ans.C

66. A 40 years old patient gives history of chronic back pain which was initially diagnosed as discitis, now develops kyphosis and Psoas abscess. The most likely diagnosis is:a) Primary bone malignancyb) Metastases from prostatec) TB of spined) Infective arthritise) N.O.T

Ans.C

67. All of the following are tests for extrapulmonary TB except:a) Bone marrow biopsyb) Liver biopsyc) Tissue biopsyd) Fluid examination (CSF, Joint etc)e) N.O.T

Ans.E

68. Which of the following primary drug is contraindicated in pregnancy:a) Isoniazidb) Rifampicinc) Ethambutold) Pyrazinamidee) streptomycin

Ans.D

69. it causes hepatitis and peripheral neuropathy:a) Isoniazidb) Rifampicinc) Ethambutold) Pyrazinamide

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e) Streptomycin

Ans.A

70. Its toxicity gives orange red color to various body secretions:a) Isoniazidb) Rifampicinc) Ethambutold) Pyrazinamidee) streptomycin

Ans.B

71. Pyridoxine is necessary to combat the side effect of:a) Isoniazidb) Rifampicinc) Ethambutold) Pyrazinamidee) streptomycin

Ans.A

72. color blindness may occur after the use of:a) Isoniazidb) Rifampicinc) Ethambutold) Pyrazinamidee) streptomycin

Ans.C

73. it may cause hyperuricemia and gout:a) Isoniazidb) Rifampicinc) Ethambutold) Pyrazinamide

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e) streptomycin

Ans.D

74. hepatitis and SLE like syndrome may be caused by:a) Isoniazidb) Rifampicinc) Ethambutold) Pyrazinamidee) streptomycin

Ans.A

75. Hepatitis and thrombocytopenia may be caused by:a) Isoniazidb) Rifampicinc) Ethambutold) Pyrazinamidee) streptomycin

Ans. B

76. Vestibular nerve damage may be caused by:a) Isoniazidb) Rifampicinc) Ethambutold) Pyrazinamidee) Streptomycin

Ans. E

77. Agranulocytosis and nephrotoxicity may be caused by:a) Isoniazidb) Rifampicin

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c) Ethambutold) Pyrazinamidee) streptomycin

Ans. E

78. Hepatitis and psychosis may be caused by:a) Isoniazidb) Rifampicinc) Ethambutold) Pyrazinamidee) streptomycin

Ans.A

79. it is not the second line drug for T.B.a) amikacinb) capteomycinc) streptomycind) kanamycine) N.O.T

Ans.C

80. Induration ˃ 5mm caused by PPD is considered positive in:a) Prisonersb) Healthcare workersc) Hematologic malignancyd) Alcoholics and diabetes mellituse) HIV positive patients

Ans.E

81. It is the most common cause of nosocomial pneumoniaa) Staph. Aureusb) Streptococcus pneumoniaec) Klebsiella pneumniaed) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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e) Mycoplasma pneumonia

Ans.D

82. It causes atypical pneumoniaa) Staph. Aureusb) Streptococcus pneumoniaec) Klebsiella pneumniaed) Pseudomonas aeruginosae) Mycoplasma pneumonia

Ans. E

83. It is the most common cause of post influenza pneumoniaa) Staph. Aureusb) Streptococcus pneumoniaec) Klebsiella pneumniaed) Pseudomonas aeruginosae) Mycoplasma pneumonia

Ans.A

84. Currant jelly sputum is the characteristics of infection caused by:a) Staph. Aureusb) Streptococcus pneumoniaec) Klebsiella pneumniaed) Pseudomonas aeruginosae) Mycoplasma pneumonia

Ans.C

85. Rust color sputum is characteristics of the infection caused by:a) Staph. Aureusb) Streptococcus pneumoniaec) Klebsiella pneumniaed) Pseudomonas aeruginosa

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e) Mycoplasma pneumonia

Ans.B

86. It causes bilateral cavitatory bronchopneumoniaa) Staph. Aureusb) Streptococcus pneumoniaec) Klebsiella pneumniaed) Pseudomonas aeruginosae) Mycoplasma pneumonia

Ans.A

87. It is the most common bacterial cause of acute exacerbation of COPD:A) Staph. AureusB) Legionella pneumophilliaC) Klebsiella pneumniaeD) Hemophilus influenzaeE) Mycoplasma pneumonia

Ans.D

88. The drug of choice in Klebsiella pneumoniae infection is:a) Pencillin Gb) Amoxicilinc) Both a & bd) Azithromycine) Ceftriaxone

Ans.E

89. It may cause infection in alcoholics and organ transplant patients:a) Staph. Aureusb) Streptococcus pneumoniaec) Klebsiella pneumniaed) Legionella pneumophillia

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e) Mycoplasma pneumonia

Ans.D

90. It is associated with water coolers and air conditioning:a) Legionella pneumophillab) Hemophilus influenzaec) Klebsiella pneumniaed) Pseudomonas aeruginosae) Mycoplasma pneumonia

Ans.A

91. Green sputum is the characteristics of infection caused by:a) Staph. Aureusb) Streptococcus pneumoniaec) Klebsiella pneumniaed) Pseudomonas aeruginosae) Mycoplasma pneumonia

Ans.D

92. It is the most cause of death due to pneumonia associated with cystic fibrosis:a) Staph. Aureusb) Streptococcus pneumoniaec) Klebsiella pneumniaed) Pseudomonas aeruginosae) Mycoplasma pneumonia

Ans. D

93. A 35 years old asthmatic patient gives the history of recurrent episodes of brown flecked sputum. CT scan shows proximal bronchiectasis. The most likely underlying cause is:a) Streptococcus pneumoniaeb) Aspergillusc) Pneumoconiosisd) TB

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e) N.O.T

Ans.B

94. The most common risk factor for fungal ball is:a) Tuberculous cavitiesb) Pulmonary infarctc) Abscess cavityd) Bronchietatic spacee) Pulmonary edema

Ans.A

95. The most common risk factor for invasive pulmonary aspergillosis is:a) Advanced HIVb) Hematologic malignancyc) Severe COPDd) Neutropenia caused by drugse) Immunocompromised patients

Ans.D

96. The drug of choice for invasive pulmonary aspergillosis is:a) Amphotericin Bb) Clortimzolec) Ketoconazoled) Voriconazolee) Steroids

Ans.D

97. The earliest symptom produced by lung cancer is:a) Coughb) Blood in sputumc) Chest paind) Weight losse) Dyspnea

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Ans.A

98. The most common type of lung cancer associated with smoking is:a) Small cell lung cancerb) Squamous cell carcinomac) Adenocarcinomad) Large cell carcinomae) N.O.T

Ans.B

99. It is neuroendocrine in origin and associated with most of the paraneuplastic syndromes:a) Small cell lung cancerb) Squamous cell carcinomac) Adenocarcinomad) Large cell carcinomae) N.O.T

Ans.A

100. Also known as oat cell carcinoma:a) Small cell lung cancerb) Squamous cell carcinomac) Adenocarcinomad) Large cell carcinomae) N.O.T

Ans.A

101. It presents as a central hilar mass. The histology shows keratin pearls:a) Small cell lung cancerb) Squamous cell carcinomac) Adenocarcinomad) Large cell carcinomae) N.O.T

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Ans.B

102. It is highly anaplastic undifferentiated tumor and may secrete βhCG.a) Small cell lung cancerb) Squamous cell carcinomac) Adenocarcinomad) Large cell carcinomae) N.O.T

Ans.D

103. It is located peripherally and is the most common cancer in nonsmokers.a) Small cell lung cancerb) Squamous cell carcinomac) Adenocarcinomad) Large cell carcinomae) N.O.T

Ans.C

104. It is associated with hypertrophic osteoarthropathy and often stain mucin positive.a) Small cell lung cancerb) Squamous cell carcinomac) Adenocarcinomad) Large cell carcinomae) N.O.T

Ans.C

105. Cushing syndrome and SIADH as a paraneuplastic syndromes are caused by:a) Small cell lung cancerb) Squamous cell carcinomac) Adenocarcinomad) Large cell carcinomae) A.O.T

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Ans.A

106. Gynecomastia as a paraneuplastic syndrome is caused by:a) Small cell lung cancerb) Squamous cell carcinomac) Adenocarcinomad) Large cell carcinomae) A.O.T

Ans.D

107. Dermatomyositis and Acanthosis nigricans are caused by:a) Small cell lung cancerb) Squamous cell carcinomac) Adenocarcinomad) Large cell carcinomae) A.O.T

Ans.E

108. It is unresectable and often responds to radiation and chemotherapy:a) Small cell lung cancerb) Squamous cell carcinomac) Adenocarcinomad) Large carcinomae) A.O.T

Ans.A

109. All are true about Horner’s syndrome except:a) Ipsilateral partial ptosisb) Miosisc) May be associated with pancoast syndromed) It is due to involvement of sympathetic chain at or below stellate ganglione) Anhidrosis

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Ans.D

110. It is the investigation of choice for the assessment of mediastinum and possible metastasis in case of lung cancer.a) CT scanb) MRIc) CXRd) PETe) Percutaneous aspiration and Biopsy

Ans.D

111. The most common complication of the following procedure is pneumothorax.a) CT scanb) MRIc) PETd) CXRe) Percutaneous aspiration and Biopsy

Ans.E

112. The most common lung abnormality associated with pulmonary embolism is:a) DVTb) Atelactasisc) COPDd) Tachypneae) Dyspnea

Ans.B

113. A 40 years old man suddenly develops shortness of breath, tachypnea following leg surgery.CXR is normal. The most common underlying cause is:a) Asthmab) Pulmonary embolismc) Fat embolismd) CCF

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e) ARDS

Ans.B

114. The most common immediate cause of death following major surgery in most of the cases is:a) CCFb) Fat embolismc) Pulmonary embolismd) Hypovolemiae) Sepsis

Ans.C

115. The gold standard investigation for pulmonary embolism is:a) CT scanb) MRIc) PETd) CXRe) Pulmonary angiography

Ans.E

116. The first line diagnostic test for pulmonary embolism is:a) CXRb) MRIc) PETd) CT angiographye) Pulmonary angiography

Ans.D

117. The most common ECG finding in pulmonary embolism is:a) Sinus tachycardiab) Sinus bradycardiac) Absence of p waved) Presence of u wavee) Ventricular bradycardia

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Ans.A

118. Hyaline membrane formation is associated with:a) Pleural effusionb) Pulmonary embolismc) Fat embolismd) CCFe) ARDS

Ans.E

119. it is diagnosed as pulmonary hypertension when mean pulmonary artery pressure at rest is ˃a) 15 mmHgb) 20 mmHgc) 25mmHgd) 30mmHge) 35mmHg

Ans.C

120. All of the following are true about pleural effusion except:a) There is decreased chest expansionb) Associated with meig’s syndromec) About 200 ml fluid required to be detected on CXR PA viewd) SLE causes transudative effusione) N.O.T

Ans.D

121. It is not a feature of exudative pleural effusion.a) LDH effusion˃ 200 IU/mlb) LDH effusion : serum ratio ˃ 0.6c) Protein effusion : serum ratio ˃ 0.5d) Caused by pancreatitise) N.O.T

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Ans.E

122. The most common cause of Spontaneous pneumothorax is:a) Idiopathicb) Paraseptal emphysemac) Iatrogenicd) Marfan syndromee) Positive pressure ventilation

Ans.A

123. It is not the feature of pneumothorax:a) Sudden onset of dypneab) Tympanic percussion notec) Breath sounds presentd) Pleuritic chest paine) N.O.T

Ans.C

124. It is the volume of gas exhaled with maximal forced expirationa) Total lung capacityb) Residual volumec) Vital capacityd) Functional residual capacitye) N.O.T

Ans.C

125. Which of the following parameter is increased in obstructive lung disease:a) FEV1

b) FEV1/FVCc) Both a & bd) Total lung capacitye) Peak expiratory flow rate

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Ans.D

126. Which of the following parameter remains normal in restrictive lung disease.a) Residual volumeb) FEV1/FVCc) Both a & bd) Total lung capacitye) Peak expiratory flow rate

Ans.E

127. All are true about asthma except:a) It is reversible disorderb) There is variable air flow obstructionc) Extrinsic asthma is associated with hay fever and eczemad) In intrinsic asthma IgE levels are increasede) N.O.T

Ans.D

128. The immediate treatment of tension pneumothorax is:a) Chest intubationb) Needle decompressionc) Bronchodilatorsd) Steroidse) N.O.T

Ans.B

129. In case of hypoxemia best initial test should be:a) CXRb) ABGsc) Pulse oximetryd) PFTse) CT scan

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Ans.B

130. Tension pneumothorax should be diagnosed ona) CXRb) CT scanc) PFTsd) ABGse) Clinical basis

Ans.E

Note: Please notify me the mistakes if I have made any.

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